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What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD?

(Choose
three.)
1. A device listens and waits until the media is not busy
before transmitting.
2. All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the
network medium.
3. After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume
transmission after a random time delay has expired.

Which feature on a Cisco router permits the forwarding of


traffic for which there is no specific route?
gateway of last resort

An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of


2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created
without using bits in the interface ID space?
256

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity


instructions and then answer the question.
Which code is displayed on the web browser?
It works!

Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination


server. Which three statements correctly describe the
function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)
1. The UDP destination port number identifies the
application or service on the server which will handle the
data.
2. UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for
transport across the network.
3. The source port field identifies the running application or
service that will handle data returning to the PC.

What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch?


(Choose two.)
1. using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and
maintain a MAC address table

2. utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the


destination MAC address

A network administrator is issuing the login block-for 180


attempts 2 within 30 command on a router. Which threat
is the network administrator trying to prevent?
a user who is trying to guess a password to access the router

How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco


Express Forwarding is disabled?
Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully specified
static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.

A network administrator is designing an IPv4 addressing


scheme and requires these subnets.
1 subnet of 100 hosts
2 subnets of 80 hosts
2 subnets of 30 hosts
4 subnets of 20 hosts
Which combination of subnets and masks will provide the
best addressing plan for these requirements?
3 subnets of 126 hosts with a 255.255.255.128 mask
6 subnets of 30 hosts with a 255.255.255.224 mask

Match the description to the various trunking modes for


Cisco 2960 Catalyst switches. Not all options are used.
A. The interface becomes a nontrunk interface regardless
of whether the neighboring interface is a trunk interface.
B. The interface becomes a trunk interface if the
neighboring interface is set to trunk or desirable mode.
C. The interface becomes a trunk interface even if the
neighboring interface is not a trunk interface.
1. switchport nonegotiate
2. switchport mode trunk - C
3. switchport mode dynamic desirable
4. switchport mode dynamic auto - B
5. switchport mode access - A

How many /30 subnets can be created from one /27


subnet?
8

Which layer of the OSI model handles the process of


identifying and discarding damaged frames?
data link

Refer to the exhibit. Which password will the


administrator need to use on this device to enter
privileged EXEC mode?
cisco

In which memory location are the VLAN configurations of


normal range VLANs stored on a Catalyst switch?
flash

A user calls the help desk to report that a Windows XP


workstation is unable to connect to the network after
startup and that a popup window says "This connection
has limited or no connectivity." The technician asks the
user to issue the ipconfig /all command. The user reports
the IP address is 169.254.69.196 with subnet mask of
255.255.0.0 and nothing is displayed for the DNS server
IP address. What is the cause of the problem?
The workstation is unable to obtain an IP address from a
DHCP server.

What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp


excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the
configuration of a local router that has been configured as
a DHCP server?
The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the
addresses from 172.16.4.1 through 172.16.4.5 inclusive.

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration that is shown


in the exhibit is applied to the SVI, the switch fails to
respond to Telnet attempts from a host in the same
subnet. What is the cause of the problem?
The interface is administratively down.

Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their


destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the

router. (Not all targets are used.)


A. Packets with a destination of 172.17.10.5
B. Packets with a destination of 172.17.12.10
C. Packets with a destination of 172.17.14.8
D. Packets with a destination of 172.17.8.20
E. Packets with a destination of 172.17.6.15
1. FastEthernet0/0 - E
2. FastEthernet0/1 - C
3. FastEthernet1/0 - B
4. FastEthernet1/1 - A
5. Serial0/0/0 - D
6. The packet is dropped.

A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick


model to configure a switch and a router for inter-VLAN
routing. What configuration should be made on the switch
port that connects to the router?
Configure the port as an 802.1q trunk port.

Which three statements accurately describe duplex and


speed settings on Cisco 2960 switches? (Choose three.)
1. When the speed is set to 1000 Mb/s, the switch ports will
operate in full-duplex mode.
2. The duplex and speed settings of each switch port can be
manually configured.
3. An autonegotiation failure can result in connectivity
issues.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has


configured R2 for PAT. Why is the configuration
incorrect?
NAT-POOL2 is bound to the wrong ACL.

Which address type is not supported in IPv6?

broadcast

Which device connects a local LAN to a geographically


separate network?
router

What is the purpose of the SVI on a Cisco switch?


The SVI provides a virtual interface for remote access to the
switch.

Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces Fa0/5, Fa0/7, and Fa0/9


are the only connected ports on the switch CiscoSwitch.
All other ports are unused. Which security best practice
did the administrator forget to configure?
Configure all unused ports to a 'black-hole' VLAN that is not
used for anything on the network.

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via


a serial link. One router is configured as the NTP master,
and the other is an NTP client. Which two pieces of
information can be obtained from the partial output of the
show ntp associations detail command on R2? (Choose
two.)
1. Router R1 is the master, and R2 is the client.
2. The IP address of R1 is 192. 168. 1. 2.

Given IPv6 address prefix 2001:db8::/48, what will be the


last subnet that is created if the subnet prefix is changed
to /52?
2001:db8:0:f000::/52

What is the purpose of deploying dual stack devices?


Dual stack allows companies to migrate to IPv6 over time.

Which two devices allow hosts on different VLANs to


communicate with each other? (Choose two.)
1. router
2. Layer 3 switch

Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank.


There are collision domains in the topology.
12

Refer to the exhibit. A switch with a default configuration


connects four hosts. The ARP table for host A is shown.
What happens when host A wants to send an IP packet to
host D?
Host A sends out a broadcast of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. Every
other host connected to the switch receives the broadcast
and host D responds with its MAC address.

What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6


address 2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?
2001:0:0:abcd::1

Which three statements are true about full-duplex


operation on an Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
1. A dedicated switch port is required for each node.
2. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
3. The host network card and the switch port must both be
in full-duplex mode.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is


investigating a lag in network performance and issues the
show interfaces fastethernet 0/0 command. Based on the
output that is displayed, what two items should the
administrator check next? (Choose two.)
1. duplex settings
2. cable lengths

What is the purpose of using SSH to connect to a router?


It allows a secure remote connection to the router command
line interface.

When creating an IPv6 static route, when must a next-hop


IPv6 address and an exit interface both be specified?
when the next hop is a link-local address

Which series of commands will cause access list 15 to


restrict Telnet access on a router?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# access-class 15 in

Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a data packet to host B.


What will be the addressing information of the data
packet when it reaches host B?
Source af:3c:dc:4c:55:66
Destination a0:4c:5f:21:33:77
Source 172.16.1.10
Destination 172.16.2.10
Data

A network engineer is configuring PAT on a router and


has issued the command:
ip nat source list 1 interface serial 0/1/0 overload
Which additional command is required to specify
addresses from the 192.168.128.0/18 network as the
inside local addresses?
access-list 1 permit 192.168.128.0 0.0.63.255

Refer to the exhibit. How will R1 generate the interface ID


portion of the IPv6 address on interface FastEthernet
0/0?
by using the interface MAC address with a 16-bit filler

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing


port and VLAN assignments on switch S2 and notices that
interfaces Gi0/1 and Gi0/2 are not included in the output.
Why would the interfaces be missing from the output?
They are configured as trunk interfaces.

A network administrator has been allocated the IPv4


10.10.240.0/20 block of addresses for a LAN. Two devices
on two different, but contiguous, subnets on the LAN have
been assigned the addresses 10.10.247.1/21 and
10.10.248.10/24, respectively. The administrator has to
create a third subnet from the remaining address range.
To optimize the use of this address space, the new subnet
will follow on directly from the existing subnets. What is
the first available host address in the next available
subnet?
10.10.249.1

Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces Fa0/2, Fa0/4, and Fa0/6


are connected to users on the data network of a switch
named CiscoSwitch. Interface Fa0/24 is connected to a
file server on the management network. All other ports are

unused. Which security best practice did the


administrator forget to configure?
Disable autonegotiation on interfaces that are not being
utilized as a trunk.

Which combination of DTP modes will form a link to


allow multiple VLANs?
dynamic auto-dynamic desirable

A network administrator has recently implemented


OSPFv2 across the entire network topology. Which
command can be implemented to prevent the forwarding
of OSPF messages to Layer 2 switches and hosts on
interface Fast Ethernet 0/1, while maintaining network
connectivity?
R1(config-router)# passive-interface FastEthernet 0/1

A network technician is configuring port security on a


LAN switch interface. The security policy requires host
MAC addresses to be learned dynamically, stored in the
address table, and saved to the switch running
configuration. Which command does the technician need
to add to the following configuration to implement this
policy?
Switch(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode access
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address
sticky

Match the order of precedence to the process logic that an


OSPFv3 network router goes through in choosing a router
ID. (Not all options are used.)
A. priority 1
B. priority 2
C. priority 3
D. priority 4
1. The router displays a console message to configure the
router ID manually. - D
2. The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of an
active interface. - C

3. The router chooses the highest IPv6 address that is


configured on the router.
4. The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of a
loopback interface. - B
5. The router uses the explicitly configured router ID if any.
-A

Refer to the exhibit. OSPFv2 has been configured on


router R1, and the router-id command has not been
manually configured. When the network administrator
reboots router R1, what will be the value of the OSPF
router ID?
172.16.1.1

A network administrator has enabled single-area OSPFv3


on a router via the ipv6 router ospf 100 command. Which
command will enable this OSPFv3 process on an interface
of that router?
R1(config-if)# ipv6 ospf 100 area 0

What can a network administrator modify on a router to


specify the location from which the Cisco IOS loads?
(Choose two.)
1. the startup configuration file
2. the configuration register value

Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose


three.)
1. UDP provides connectionless, fast transport of data at
Layer 4.
2. UDP relies on application layer protocols for error
detection.
3. UDP works well when an application does not need to
guarantee delivery of data.

Fill in the blank.


A late collision occurs after bits of a frame have been
transmitted.

512

Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover


message? (Choose three.)
1. The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
2. The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
3. All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server
replies.

Which two issues might cause excessive runt and giant


frames in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
1. a malfunctioning NIC
2. excessive collisions

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct


based on the output as shown in the exhibit? (Choose
two.)
1. The output is the result of the show ip nat translations
command.
2. The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond
to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10.
Please allow access to your computers microphone to use Voice Recording.
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CCENT (ICND1) Practice Certification Exam v5

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8
Which three statements accurately describe duplex and speed settings on Cisco 2960 switches?
(Choose three.)
When the speed is set to 1000 Mb/s, the switch ports will operate in full-duplex mode.
An autonegotiation failure can result in connectivity issues.
By default, the autonegotiation feature is disabled.
Enabling autonegotiation on a hub will prevent mismatched port speeds when connecting the
hub to the switch.
The duplex and speed settings of each switch port can be manually configured.
By default, the speed is set to 100 Mb/s and the duplex mode is set to autonegotiation.
By default, autonegotiation is enabled on a Catalyst 2960 switch. However, the duplex and speed
settings can be manually configured for each switch port. If the speed is set to 1000 Mb/s, the
switch ports will operate in full-duplex mode. Switches, not hubs, can be configured for auto
negotiation.
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10
When creating an IPv6 static route, when must a next-hop IPv6 address and an exit interface
both be specified?
when CEF is enabled
when the static route is a default route
when the next hop is a link-local address
when the exit interface is a point-to-point interface
Link-local addresses are only unique on a given link, and the same address could exist out
multiple interfaces. For that reason, any time a static route specifies a link-local address as the
next hop, it must also specify the exit interface. This is called a fully specified static route.
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Refer to the exhibit. Which password will the administrator need to use on this device to enter
privileged EXEC mode?
Cisco
class
password
cisco
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14
Refer to the exhibit. OSPFv2 has been configured on router R1, and the router-id command has
not been manually configured. When the network administrator reboots router R1, what will be
the value of the OSPF router ID?
172.16.1.1
192.168.2.254
10.15.15.1
10.0.10.2
If the router ID is not exactly specified by the router-id command, then the highest IPv4 address
on any configured loopback interface(s) would become the router ID.
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18
A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick model to configure a switch and a router
for inter-VLAN routing. What configuration should be made on the switch port that connects to
the router?
Configure the port as an access port and a member of VLAN1.
Configure the port as an 802.1q trunk port.
Configure the port as a trunk port and assign it to VLAN1.
Configure it as a trunk port and allow only untagged traffic.
The port on the switch that connects to the router interface should be configured as a trunk port.
Once it becomes a trunk port, it does not belong to any particular VLAN and will forward traffic
from various VLANs.
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20
A network administrator is designing an IPv4 addressing scheme and requires these subnets.
1 subnet of 100 hosts
2 subnets of 80 hosts
2 subnets of 30 hosts
4 subnets of 20 hosts
Which combination of subnets and masks will provide the best addressing plan for these
requirements

9 subnets of 126 hosts with a 255.255.255.128 mask


3 subnets of 126 hosts with a 255.255.255.128 mask
6 subnets of 30 hosts with a 255.255.255.224 mask
3 subnets of 126 hosts with a 255.255.255.192 mask
6 subnets of 30 hosts with a 255.255.255.240 mask
1 subnet of 126 hosts with a 255.255.255.192 mask
2 subnets of 80 hosts with a 255.255.255.224 mask
6 subnets of 30 hosts with a 255.255.255.240 mask
IPv4 subnets that require 100 and 80 hosts are provided by creating subnets of 126 usable
addresses, each of which requires 7 host bits. The resulting mask is 255.255.255.128.
Subnets that require 30 and 20 hosts are provided by creating subnets of 30 usable addresses,
each of which requires 5 host bits. The resulting mask is 255.255.255.224.
Creating nine subnets, each consisting of 126 usable addresses, would waste large numbers of
addresses in the six smaller subnets.
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22
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R2 for PAT. Why is the configuration
in?
The static NAT entry is missing.
NAT-POOL2 is bound to the wrong ACL.
The ACL does not define the list of addresses to be translated.
The overload keyword should not have been applied.
In the exhibit, NAT-POOL 2 is bound to ACL 100, but it should be bound to the configured ACL 1.
This will cause PAT to fail. 100, but it should be bound to the configured ACL 1. This will cause
PAT to fail.
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24

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are based on the output as shown in the exhibit?
(Choose two.)
The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command.
The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source
address of 192.168.10.10.
The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address
of 209.165.200.235.
Traffic with the destination address of a public web server will be sourced from the IP of
192.168.1.10.
The output is the result of the show ip nat statistics command.
The output displayed in the exhibit is the result of the show ip nat translations command. Static
NAT entries are always present in the NAT table, while dynamic entries will eventually time out.
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26
Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces Fa0/5, Fa0/7, and Fa0/9 are the only connected ports on the
switch CiscoSwitch. All other ports are unused. Which security best practice did the administrator
forget to configure?
Change the native VLAN to a fixed VLAN other than VLAN 1.
All active user ports are associated with VLANs distinct from VLAN 1.
Delete VLAN 1 from the switch CiscoSwitch.
Configure all unused ports to a black-hole VLAN that is not used for anything on the
network.
All access ports are placed in VLAN 1 by default. This VLAN is the default VLAN and cannot be
deleted or renamed. Security best practices dictate that user ports should be changed to
something other than VLAN 1 with the command switchport access vlan ID.
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27
Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces Fa0/2, Fa0/4, and Fa0/6 are connected to users on the data
network of a switch named CiscoSwitch. Interface Fa0/24 is connected to a file server on the
management network. All other ports are unused. Which security best practice did the
administrator forget to configure?
Configure all unused ports to a black-hole VLAN that is not used for anything on the network.
Change the native VLAN to a fixed VLAN other than VLAN 1.
Disable autonegotiation on interfaces that are not being utilized as a trunk.
Delete VLAN 1 from CiscoSwitch.
Cisco switches use DTP to autonegotiate between each other. It is recommended to disable
autonegotiation to prevent any malicious users from forming a trunk with the Cisco switch on
nontrunking interfaces.
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29
A network engineer is configuring PAT on a router and has issued the command:
ip nat source list 1 interface serial 0/1/0 overload
Which additional command is required to specify addresses from the 192.168.128.0/18 network
as the inside local addresses?
access-list 1 permit 192.168.128.0 255.255.192.0
access-list 1 permit 192.168.128.0 0.0.127.255
access-list 1 permit 192.168.128.0 0.0.63.255
ip nat inside source list 1 pool INSIDE_NAT_POOL
ip nat inside source static 192.168.128.0 209.165.200.254
A standard access list with the appropriate wildcard mask specifies the inside local addresses to
be translated. The ip nat inside source list 1 pool NAT_POOL command configures NAT to use a
pool of outside global addresses, not a single outside interface address as required. The ip nat
inside source static 192.168.128.0 209.165.200.254 command configures one-to-one static NAT,
not PAT as the overload keyword specifies.
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36
Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
Only the DHCP server receives the message.
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37
Which two issues might cause excessive runt and giant frames in an Ethernet network? (Choose
two.)
native VLAN mismatch
damaged cable connector
a malfunctioning NIC
excessive collisions
using the in cable type
inly configured auto-MDIX feature
In an Ethernet network, a runt is a frame that is shorter than 64 bytes and a giant is a frame
that is longer than the maximum allowed length. Both are often caused by NIC malfunctioning,
but can also be caused by excessive collisions. CRC errors usually indicate a media or cable error
caused by electrical interference, loose or damaged connections, or using the in cabling type.
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40

Fill in the blank.


A late collision occurs after 512 bits of a frame have been transmitted.
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46
Which series of commands will cause access list 15 to restrict Telnet access on a router?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# access-class 15
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# ip access-group 15 in
R1(config)# int gi0/0
R1(config-if)# access-class 15 in
R1(config)# int gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 15 in
Once an access list to restrict Telnet or SSH access has been created, it is applied to the vty lines
with the access-class command. This will restrict Telnet or SSH access.
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49
A user calls the help desk to report that a Windows XP workstation is unable to connect to the
network after startup and that a popup window says This connection has limited or no
connectivity. The technician asks the user to issue the ipconfig /all command. The user reports
the IP address is 169.254.69.196 with subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 and nothing is displayed for
the DNS server IP address. What is the cause of the problem?
The workstation NIC has malfunctioned.
The subnet mask was configured inly.
The DNS server IP address needs to be configured.
The workstation is unable to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server.
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50
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which code is displayed on the web browser?
Great!
It works!
Welldone!
Inter-VLAN configured!
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