PHYSIOLOGY TEST

Question 1

Gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide

cross the plasma membrane by:

a) secondary active transport

b) passive diffusion through the lipid bilayer

c) specific gas transport proteins

d) primary active transport

Question 2

A substance can only be accumulated against

its electrochemical gradient by:

a) facilitated diffusion

b) Passage through ion channels

c) Diffusion through a uniport

d) Active transport

Question 3

The principal intracellular cation is:

a) Na+

b) Cl
c) K+

d) Ca2+

Question 4

Which of the following is an example of

primary active transport

a) Cl--HCO3- exchange

b) Na+ - H+ exchange

c) Na+-Ca2+ exchange

d) The Na+, K+ ATPase

Question 5

The sodium pump

a) Exchanges extracellular Na+ for

intracellular K+

b) Is important for maintaining a constant cell

volume

c) Can only be inhibited by metabolic poisons

d) Is an ion channel
Question 6

Which of the following values is closest to the

resting membrane potential of mammalian
cells:

a) -20 mV

b) -60 mV

c) +60 mV

d) +20 mV
Question 7
HARDWORK NEVER GOES VAIN

Which of the following statements regarding

exocytosis is correct?

a) Is always employed by cells for secretion

b) Is used to deliver material into the

extracellular space

c) Takes up large molecules from the

extracellular space

d) Allows the retrieval of elements of the

plasma membrane
Question 8

Endocytosis is used by cells to:

a) Ingest bacteria and cell debris

b) Retrieve elements of the plasma membrane

after exocytosis

c) Secrete large molecules into the

extracellular space
Question 9

The principal extracellular cation is :

a) Sodium (Na+)

b) Potassium (K+)

c) Chloride (Cl-)

d) Calcium (Ca2+)
Question 10

The resting membrane potential is mainly

determined by:

a) the Cl- gradient

b) the Ca2+ gradient

c) the Na+ gradient

d) the K+ gradient
Question 11

Which of the following statements concerning

the action potentials of nerve cells is correct?

a) They result from a large increase in the

membrane permeability to sodium ions

b) They can summate one with another

c) They may vary considerably in amplitude

d) They become larger as stimulus strength

increases
Question 12

Which of the following statements concerning

the velocity of action potential propagation is
correct?

a) Is independent of an axon's diameter

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PHYSIOLOGY TEST

b) Depends on the thickness of the myelin

around the axon

c) Will be unaffected if the axon becomes

demyelinated

d) Is fastest in unmyelinated axons

Question 13

If a motor nerve has a conduction velocity of

50 m s-1 how long will it take an action
potential to reach a muscle 0.5 m from the
spinal cord?

a) 10 ms

b) 15 ms

c) 2 ms

d) 20 ms
Question 14

Which of the following statements concerning

synaptic excitation is correct?

a) The membrane potential of the postsynaptic cell hyperpolarizes

b) The epsps are all or none in nature

c) The epsps can summate

d) After an epsp the postsynaptic cell passes

through a refractory period
Question 15

Which of the following statements concerning

the neuromuscular junction is correct?

a) The muscle membrane possesses

muscarinic receptors

b) The motor nerve endings secrete

noradrenaline (norepinephrine).

c) Curare leads to prolongation of

neuromuscular transmission

d) The motor nerve endings secrete

acetylcholine
Question 16

Which of the following statements concerning

the structure of muscle tissue is correct?

a) Skeletal muscle has the same structure as

cardiac muscle

b) Smooth muscle cells have no striations as

they lack myosin filaments

c) Smooth muscle has a system of T-tubules.

d) The myofibrils of skeletal muscle are

surrounded by the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
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Question 17

Which of the following statements concerning

the role of Ca2+ in the contraction of skeletal
muscle is correct?

a) The mitochondria act as a store of Ca2+ for

the contractile process

b) Ca2+ entry across the plasma membrane is

important in sustaining the contraction of
skeletal muscle

c) A rise in intracellular Ca2+allows actin to

interact with myosin

d) The tension of a skeletal muscle fibre is

partly regulated by G proteins.
Question 18

Which of the following statements concerning

cardiac muscle is correct?

a) The force of contraction is increased by

circulating adrenaline

b) Heart muscle contracts in response to action

potentials in the autonomic nerve fibres

c) The action potential has the same duration

as that of skeletal muscle

d) All of the Ca2+required for contraction

enters a myocyte during the plateau phase of
the action potentia
Question 19

Regarding the sympathetic division of the

autonomic nervous system.

a) Acetylcholine is secreted by some

sympathetic postganglionic fibres.

b) Most sympathetic preganglionic fibres

secrete noradenaline (norepinephrine).

c) Sympathetic postganglionic neurons are

found in spinal segments from T1 to L2.

d) The sympathetic chain extends from the

thoracic to the sacral regions of the spinal
cord.
Question 20

Regarding the parasympathetic division of the

autonomic nervous system.

a) Parasympathetic preganglionic fibres are

found in all cranial nerves

b) Parasympathetic vasoconstrictor fibres are

present in the salivary glands.
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PHYSIOLOGY TEST

c) Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are

found in spinal ganglia from T1 to L2.

d) Parasympathetic postganglionic fibres

secrete acetylcholine onto their target organs.
Question 21

The hormone that influences the production of

red blood cells is:

A)thyroxin

B)erythropoietin

C)calcitonin

D)thymosin
Question 22

An example of an environmental signal that

acts at a distance between individuals is

A)insulin.

B)cortisol.

C)pheromones.

D)prostaglandins.
Question 23

A pheromone is

A)an endorphin released within the anterior

pituitary.

B)a growth factor related to the production of

tumors.

C)a product of a neurosecretory cell that acts

on neighboring cells.

D)a chemical released by one animal to affect

the behavior of another animal.
Question 24

Which body system coordinates activities of

body parts by releasing hormones into the
blood?

A)nervous system

B)digestive system

C)respiratory system

D)endocrine system
Question 25

Which of the following is NOT an endocrine

gland?

A)pancreas

B)adrenal glands

C)salivary glands

D)thyroid gland

HARDWORK NEVER GOES VAIN

Question 26

The hypothalamus controls the anterior

pituitary via

A)nerve stimulation.

B)blood osmotic concentrations.

C)blood glucose concentrations.

D)releasing hormones.
Question 27

The part of the brain controlling the anterior

pituitary gland secretions is the

A)medulla.

B)thalamus.

C)cerebral cortex.

D)hypothalamus.
Question 28

Which is most involved in milk production?

A)oxytocin

B)progesterone

C)prolactin

D)estrogen
Question 29

The condition that results when there is an

increased production of human growth
hormone in an adult is termed

A)Cushing's syndrome.

B)Addison's disease.

C)gigantism.

D)acromegaly.
Question 30

Which of the following hormones require

iodine?

A)thyroxin

B)aldosterone

C)parathyroid hormone

D)insulin
Question 31

Weakened bones can result from an oversecretion of the

A)thyroid gland.

B)adrenal gland.

C)pancreas.

D)parathyroid gland.

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PHYSIOLOGY TEST
Question 32

Which of the following hormones will allow

us to react to emergency situations?

A) estrogen

B) progesterone

C) testosterone

D) norepinephrine

Question 33

Cortisol is released from the

A) adrenal medulla.

B) adrenal cortex.

C) thyroid.

D) parathyroid.

Question 34

The level of sodium in the blood is regulated

by the secretion of

A) oxytocin.

B) insulin.

C) cortisol.

D) aldosterone.

Question 35

Which of the following glands has both an

endocrine and an exocrine function?

A) mammary gland

B) pancreas

C) pituitary

D) adrenal gland

Question 36

Which of the following symptoms is NOT

characteristic of diabetes mellitus?

A)cells unable to take up glucose

B)increased breakdown of fats and protein

C)Frequent urination

D)bronzing of the skin

Question 37

Which hormone will decrease blood glucose

levels?

A)thyroxin

B)aldosterone

C)cortisol
D)insulin

Question 38

Residual volume of the lung is

a. 1200 ml
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b. 1500 ml
c. 4500 ml
d. 500 ml
Question 39
Partial pressure of O2 in the inspired air is 156
mm Hg and that of CO2 is
a. 0.3 mm Hg
b. 0.5 mm Hg
c. 140 mm Hg
d. 46 mmHg
Question 40
Respiratory Quotient is not less than one in
a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Fats
d. Normal diet
Question 41
The chief difference between Trachea and
Bronchioles is
a. Trachea lacks cartilage
b. Bronchiole lacks cartilage
c. Trachea is long
d. Bronchiole is small
Question 42
Pulmonary ventilation is
a. Tidal volume + Respiratory rate
b. Tidal volume + Vital capacity
c. Tidal volume + Residual volume
d. Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume
Question 43
Hering Breur Reflex serves as a protective
mechanism to prevent
a. Tracheal collapsing
b. Excess lung inflation
c. Excess oxygenation
d. All these
Question 44
Oxygen dissociation curve shows the relation
between
a. Oxyhemoglobin saturation and Oxygen
tension
b. Oxyhemoglobin saturation and Carbon
dioxide level
c. Oxyhemoglobin formation and dissociation
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PHYSIOLOGY TEST

d. Partial pressure of Oxygen and Partial

pressure of Carbon dioxide
Question 45
When Bohr effect occurs due to increased
CO2 tension, Oxygen affinity of Hb decreases
. The reason for increased CO2 tension is
a. Increase in P50
b. Decrease in P50
c. High CO2 content
d. High O2 content
Question 46
Haldane effect refers to
a. Increased CO2 uptake to minimize CO2
tension
b. Increased O2 tension
c. Decreased CO2 tension
d. Decreases O2 tension
Question 47
Which of the following Hormone is secreted
in excess when a person climbing a mountain
a. Anti Natriuretic Factor
b. Adrelaline
c. Erythropoietin
d. Thyroxine
Question 48
TB skin test is called Scatch test or Mantoux
test in which Tuberculin Purified Protein
Derivative ( PPD ) is injected sub cutaneously
This test is based on
a. Delayed Hypersensitivity
b. Production of antibodies
c. Production of Tubercle toxin
d. All
Question 49
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (
COPD ) includes
a. Emphysema
b. Bronchitis
c. Asthma
d. All
Question 50
Hiccup is due to
a. Increased inspiration
b. Irritation of Phrenic nerve
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c. Expanded stomach
d. Acidity in the stomach
Question 51
Spirometry is used
a. To detect the amount of Hemoglobin
b. To detect the air flow through the
respiratory system
c. To check the respiratory quotient
d. None of these
Question 52
The combination of Hemoglobin with Oxygen
in the blood can be promoted by
a. Decreasing O2 concentration
b. Increasing O2 concentration
c. Increasing CO2 concentration
d. Decreasing CO2 concentration
Question 53
During transportation of Carbon dioxide,
blood will not become acidic, because
a. It contains hemoglobin
b. It contains Hemoglobinc acid
c. It contains Buffers
d. It contains high CO2
Question 54
The accessory digestive organs include all of
the following, EXCEPT:
A tongue
B liver
C pancreas
D stomach
Question 55
The matrix of blood is known as
a) Plasma
b) Serum
c) RBC and WBC
d) WBC and platelets
Question 56
The ratio of WBC and RBC is
a) 1:60
b)1:600
c) 1:6000
d) 1:60000

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Question 57
During blood coagulation, thromboplastin is
released by
a) RBC
b) blood plasma
c) leucocytes
d) clumped platelets and damaged tissues
Question 58
The life span of WBC is approximately
a) Less than 10 days
b) Between 20-30 days
c) Between 2-3 months
d) More than three months
Question 59
Chemical digestion of starch foods begins in
the:
A mouth
B stomach
C small intestine
D large intestine
Question 60
Chemical digestion of protein begins in the:
A mouth
B stomach
C small intestine
D large intestine
Question 61
Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in
food absorption have on their surface
a) pinocytic vesicles
b) Zymogen granules
c) phagocytic vesicles
d) microvilli
Question 62
The life span of thrombocytes is
a) 4 to 5 weeks
b) 3 to 7 weeks
c) 3 to 7 days
d) None of these
Question 63
Which statement is true for WBC?
a) produced in thymus
b) non nucleated
c) in deficiency cancer is caused
HARDWORK NEVER GOES VAIN

d) can squeeze through blood capillaries

Question 64
If pancreas is removed, the compound which
remain undigested is
a) Proteins
b) Carbohydrates
c) Fats
d) all of these
Question 65
Most of the fat digestion occurs in
a) Rectum
b) Stomach
c) Duodenum
d) Small intestine
Question 66
The water content (as a percentage of total
body mass) of an adult human male is:
a) The same as that of a newborn baby
b) Slightly less than that of an adult female
c) Around 60% total body weight
d) Is mainly due to the volume of the blood
Question 67
Regarding the extracellular fluid:
a) It accounts for the largest proportion of
total body water
b) It is hypotonic with respect to the
intracellular fluid
c) It contains around 140 mmol l-1 of sodium
ions
d) It has the exactly the same composition as
the plasma
Question 68
A subject with a body weight of 65 kg was
injected with 10 ml of a 1% (w/v) solution of
Evans Blue. After 10 min, the blood was
sampled and found to contain 0.037 mg/ml of
the dye. What is the plasma volume?
a) 2.70 litres
b) 0.27 litres
c) 27 litres
d) 5 litres
Question 69
Release of pancreatic juice is stimulated by
a) Enterokinase
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PHYSIOLOGY TEST

b) Secretin
c) Trypsinogen
d) Cholecystokinin
Question 70
Blood circulation was first explained by
a) Jenner
b)William Harvey
c) Mendel
d) Pasteur
Question 71
What is the name of the iron -containing
protein that gives red blood vessels their
colour?
a) Hemocyanin
b)Pyrite
c) Hemoglobin
d) Myoglobin
Question 72
The..... produces red blood cells, which
transport.....and some.....
a) Liver; oxygen; mineral ions
b) Liver; oxygen; carbon dioxide
c) Bone marrow; oxygen; hormones
d) Bone marrow; oxygen; carbon dioxide
Question 73
A rise in blood cholesterol may lead to a
deposition of cholesterol on the walls of blood
vessels. This causes the arteries to lose their
elasticity and get stiffened. This is called
a) Hypertension
b)Hypotension
c) Arteriosclerosis
d) Systolic pressure
Question 74
Which of the following receives blood from
the efferent arteriole?
a) the renal vein
b) the glomerulus
c) the afferent arteriole
d) the peritubular capillary network
Question 75
Urine enters the bladder through which
structure?
a) the ureter
HARDWORK NEVER GOES VAIN

b) the collecting duct

c) the kidney
d) the urethra
Question 76
Which of the following surrounds the
glomerulus?
a) the proximal convoluted tubule
b) the afferent arteriole
c) the peritubular capillaries
d) the Bowmans capsule
Question 77
The presence of ADH causes an individual to
excrete
a) sugars
b) less water
c) more water
d) both a and c are correct
Question 78
Reabsorption of Na+ :
a) takes place in association with CL- &
HCO3
b) occurs only in PT
c) is under control of parathormone hormone
d) is a passive process .
Question 79
The primary renal site for the secretion of
organic ions e.g urate, creatinine is :
a) proximal tubule
b) loop of Henle
c) distal tubule
d) collecting duct .
Question 80
The glomerular filtration rate will increase if
a) circulating blood volume increase .
b) the afferent arteriolar resistance increases .
c) the efferent arteriolar resistance decreases .
d) the plasma protein concentration decreases
Question 81
The effect of antidiuretic hormone ( ADH ) on
the kidney is to :
a) increase the permeability of the distal
nephron to water.
b) increase the excretion of Na+
c) increase the excretion of water
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PHYSIOLOGY TEST

d) increase the diameter of the renal artery

Question 82
Major determinants of plasma osmolarity
include all the following except:
a) sodium
b) hemoglobin
c) chloride
d) albumin
Question 83
About urea , all are true except :
a) concentration rises in tubular fluid as the
glomerular filtrate passes down the nephron.
b) is actively secreted by the renal tubular
cells
c) concentration in the blood rises slightly
after a high protein diet
d) causes osmotic diuresis when its blood
concentration is increased
Question 84
About the proximal convoluted tubules , all
are true except :
a) reabsorb most of Na+ ions in glomerular
filtrate
b) reabsorb most of Cl- ions in glomerular
filtrate
c) reabsorb most of K+ ions in glomerular
filtrate
d) contains JGCs which secrete renin
Question 85
Extracellular bicarbonate ions serve as
effective buffer for all the following except :
a) sulfuric acid
b) phosphate acid
c) lactic acid
d) carbonic acid
Question 86
Follicle stimulating hormone
a. Helps in maturation and growth of follicles
b. In the presence of LH, facilitates release of
oestrogen by the theca interna of the graffian
follicle.
c. Facilitates spermatogensis.
d. All of the above

HARDWORK NEVER GOES VAIN

Question 87
The implantation of fertilized ovum occurs
a. Between 7th & 9th days after ovulation
b. Occurs because of penetration & erosion of
uterine mucosa by proteolytic enzymes
produced by trophoblast
c. At a stage of blastocyst
d. All of the above
Question 88
Fertilisation of ovum normally occurs in
a. Uterus
b. Cervix of uterus
c. Fallopian tube
d. None of the above
Question 89
All the following are important electrolytes in
the body except:
A) potassium ions
B) carbon ions
C) chloride ions
D) sodium ions
Question 90
A base may be defined as a chemical
compound that:
A) removes hydrogen ions from a solution
B) adds sodium chloride to a solution
C) adds hydrogen ions to a solution
D) eliminates sodium ions from a solution
Question 91
Approximately one-third of the body water
exists in the
A) kidneys and urinary bladder
B) blood
C) extracellular fluid compartment
D) transcellular fluid compartment
Question 92
In the process of osmosis:
A) water moves from a region of high solute
concentration to a region of low solute
concentration
B) water moves from a region of low solute
concentration to a region of high solute
concentration
C) sodium ions move through a
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PHYSIOLOGY TEST

semipermeable membrane
D) chloride ions follow the movement of
sodium ions ot a region of low concentration
Question 93
The hormones aldosterone and ADH both
have an important function in:
A) fluid balance in the body
B) the regulation of acid concentrationin the
body
C) stimulation of a conscious desire for water
D) the activity of buffer systems
Question 94
Gastric juice contains:
A) calcium
B) albumin proteins
C) angiotensin
D) chloride ions
Question 95
The rate and depth of breathing has a
regulatory influence on the:
A) acid/base balance of the body
B) protein metabolism of the body
C) amount of water taken into the body
D) rate at which fats are broken down in the
body
Question 96
One principal function of complement is to
A. inactivate perforins
B. mediate the release of histamine
C. Bind antibodies attached to cell surfaces
and to lyse these cells
D. phagocytize antigens
Question 97
All of the following are true of antigen
EXCEPT which one of the following?
A. They contain epitopes.
B. They will react with antibodies.
C. They contain antigenic determinants.
D. They contain paratopes.
Question 98
Which of the following immunoglobulins is
present normally in plasma at the highest
concentration?
A. IgG
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B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD
Question 99
Which immunoglobulin is the principal one
found in secretions such as milk?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD
Question 100
The class of an immunoglobulin
A. is determined by Class I and Class II major
histocompatibility complex proteins
B. is determined by the carbohydrate attached
to the light chain is
C. determined by the antigen
D. is determined by the heavy chain type

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 PHYSIOLOGY TEST
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2.
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70. B
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72. D
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75. A
76. D
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78. A
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80. D
81. A
82. B
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84. D
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88. C
89. B
90. A
91. C
92. B
93. A
94. D
95. A
96. C
97. D
98. A
99. C
100.D

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