Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1. Autosomes:
Select the best answer
a. Non-sex chromosomes
b. A missing chromosome
c. Expansion of a trinucleotide
d. Added or missing chromosomes
2. Allele:
Select the best answer
a. Female has only one X chromosome so manifests X-linked recessive condition
b. Traits, gene products, or disorders that are determined by different loci
c. Replacement of one base for another within the coding region of the genome
d. One of two or more alternative forms of a gene which may occupy a given locus
3. Phenotypic features:
Select the best answer
a. Alternate centromeres travel to opposite poles. Results in gametes with complete genetic
complement including translocation
b. The formation of four chromosomes at a cross-shaped configuration to make up for
translocations on the chromosomes during pachytene stage of meiosis I
c. Deletion or insertion of one or more bases into the coding region such that the reading
frame and thus every codon past the mutation is altered
d. The physical features that make up each individual. Often, individuals with genetic
conditions will have particular phenotypic features
4. Tetraploidy:
Select the best answer
a. 69 chromosomes
b. Trisomy 16
c. Trisomy 21
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d. 92 chromosomes
5. A child with cleft palate, a heart defect, and extra fifth fingers is found to have
46chromosomes with extra material on one homologue of the chromosome 5 pair. This
chromosomal abnormality is best described by which of the following terms?
A. Polyploidy
B. Balanced rearrangement
C. Ring formation
D. Mosaicism
E. Unbalanced rearrangement
6. A 10-year-old boy is referred to the physician because of learning problems and a lack of
motivation in school. His family history is unremarkable. Physical examination is normal except
for single palmar creases of the hands and curved fifth fingers (clinodactyly). The physician
decides to order a karyotype. Which of the following indications for obtaining a karyotype
would best explain the physician's decision in this case?
A. A couple with multiple miscarriages, or a person who is at risk for an inherited chromosome
rearrangement
B. A child with ambiguous genitalia who needs genetic sex assignment
C. A child with an appearance suggestive of Down syndrome or other chromosomal disorder
D. A child with mental retardation and/or multiple congenital anomalies
E. A child who is at risk for cancer
7. Chromosomal analysis reveals a 47,XYY karyotype. Which of the following descriptions best
fits this abnormality?
A. Autosomal trisomy
B. A male with Klinefelter's syndrome
C. Sex chromosome aneuploidy
D. A female with Turner's syndrome
E. Sex chromosome triploidy
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11. Which of the following chromosomal alterations would you expect to have the most drastic
consequences?
(a) Inversion
(b) Duplication
(c) translocation
(d) Deletion
12. The most common lethal genetic disease in the United States is:
(a) sickle-cell anemia
(b) Cystic fibrosis
(c) Huntington disease
(d) Hemophilia
13. Which of the following is not needed for DNA replication?
(a) Ribosomes
(b) DNA
(c) nucleotides
(d) enzymes
14. Several inherited disorders are much more common in close-knit religious communities,
such as the Amish (Jews), than in the general population. This is at least partly due to the fact
that:
(a) people in such communities are more likely to marry relatives
(b) shared environmental conditions such as diet can increase mutation rate
(c) modern medical care is not widely available in such communities
(d) community members care for each other and disorders are passed on
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15. John and Jesica are planning a family, but since each has a brother who has sickle cell
anemia, they are concerned that their children may develop sickle-cell disease. Neither John,
Jane nor their respective parents have the disease. They consult a genetic counselor who tells
them:
(a) there is very little chance that any of their children will have sickle-cell disease
(b) that all of their children will have sickle-cell disease
(c) that one out of four of their children could be expected to have sickle cell-disease
(d) that its possible that none of their children will have the disease but blood tests on them
both will be required to make sure
16. Why is sickle cell disease so called?
(a) because it makes people sick
(b) its named after a special type of white blood cell
(c) pH changes in the blood cells make them collapse into a sickle shape
(d) because its caused by an infectious microorganism that has sickle shaped cells
17. In people with sickle cell disease the red blood cells breakdown, clump, and clog the blood
vessels. The broken cells accumulate in the spleen. Among other things, this leads to physical
weakness, heart failure, pain, brain damage and spleen damage. Affected individuals become
paralyzed and can develop rheumatism, pneumonia and other diseases and kidney failure. This
is an example of:
(a) the polygenic nature of sickle cell disease
(b) the pleiotropic effects of the sickle cell allele
(c) an epistatic interaction between the sickle cell allele and a proteolytic enzyme gene
(d) infectious organisms acting on the sickle cell allele
18. Heart disease, diabetes, cancer, alcoholism and many mental illnesses can best be described
as:
(a) symptoms of a bad life-style
(b) infectious diseases caused by microorganisms
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28. Each cell in an individual with Down syndrome contains ____ chromosomes:
(a) 47
(b) 22
(c) 24
(d) 45
29. Disorders involving unusual numbers of sex chromosomes show that maleness is caused by
the:
(a) presence of an X chromosome
(b) presence of a Y chromosome
(c) absence of an X chromosome
(d) absence of a Y chromosome
30. A particular allele can have different effects if it was inherited from a male rather than a
female. This phenomenon is known as:
(a) extranuclear inheritance
(b) genome imprinting
(c) sex-linkage
(d) Prader-Willi syndrome
31. Human mitochondria:
(a) are inherited as an X-linked trait
(b) are all inherited from the father
(c) have linear DNA
(d) are all inherited from the mother
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32. A genetic defect in humans results in the absence of sweat glands in the skin. Some men
have this defect all over their bodies, but in women, it is usually expressed in a peculiar way. A
woman with this defect typically has small patches of skin with sweat glands and other patches
where sweat glands are lacking. This pattern suggests the phenotypic effect of:
(a) a mutation
(b) chromosome inactivation
(c) RNA splicing
(d) an operon
33. Leber's hereditary optic atrophy is caused by a mutation in:
a) chromosome 12
b) chromosome 18
c) chromosome 21
d) mitochondrial DNA
34. Cancer causing agents are called:
A. Carcinogens
B. Mutagens
C. Teratogens
D. Tumorgens
35. Most human cancers are caused by:
A. Cancer viruses
B. Chromosomal arrangements
C. Inherited disorders
D. Environmental factors
E. Nuclear radiation
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The following two (75 and 76) questions are based on the pedigree:
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c) clinodactyly
d) polydactyly
85. A baby born with pulmonary hypoplasia secondary to oligohydramnios caused by renal
agenesis would be classified as having:
a) an association
b) a dysplasia
c) a sequence
d) a syndrome
86. The proportion of babies that have an abnormality identifiable at birth is:
a) 1 in 10
b) 1 in 40
c) 1 in 100
d) 1 in 500
87. Marked microsatellite instability is a feature of:
a) familial adenomatous polyposis
b) hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer (HNPCC)
c) multiple endocrine adenomatosis type 2
d) neurofibromatosis 1
88. Which of the following conditions is caused by a trinucleotide (triplet) repeat expansion?
a) Cystic fibrosis
b) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
c) Huntington disease
d) Osteogenesis imperfect
89. Large triplet repeat expansions can be detected by:
a) Polymerase chain reaction
b) Single strand conformational polymorphism analysis
c) Southern blotting
(d) Western blotting
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c) 47,XY,+21
d) 45,Y
96. The DiGeorge/Shprintzen syndrome is caused by a deletion in which chromosome?
a) 4
b) 7
c) 15
d) 22
97. Which of the following is not a chromosome instability syndrome?
a) Klinefelter syndrome
b) Ataxia telangiectasia
c) Fanconi anaemia
d) Bloom syndrome
98. Which of the following trisomy karyotypes has the mildest effect on human development?
a) 47,XXX
b) 47,XXY
c) 47,XX,+13
d) 47,XY,+21
99. Male to male transmission is a key feature of which pattern of inheritance?
a) Autosomal dominant
b) Autosomal recessive
c) X-linked dominant
d) X-linked recessive
100. Which of the following disorders does not show X-linked inheritance?
a) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
b) Tay-Sachs disease
c) Haemophilia A
d) Haemophilia B
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101. Autozygosity mapping is used to map disorders that show which pattern of inheritance?
a) Autosomal dominant
b) Autosomal recessive
c) X-linked dominant
d) X-linked recessive
102. Which of the following conditions shows anticipation in paternal transmission?
a) Huntington disease
b) Marfan syndrome
c) Cystic fibrosis
d) Fragile X syndrome
103. Marfan syndrome is caused by mutations in the gene which encodes _______
a) Collagen
b) Dystrophin
c) Elastin
d) Fibrillin
104. The most common cystic fibrosis mutation consists of:
a) a deletion
b) a duplication
c) a substitution
d) an insertion
105. Which of the following is not a recognized complication of cystic fibrosis?
a) Cancer of the oesophagus
b) Congenital absence of the vas deferens
c) Diabetes mellitus
d) Liver cirrhosis
106. The proportion of genes shared by first cousins is on average ----a) 1/2
b) 1/4
c) 1/8
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d) 1/16
107. Repeat core sequences consisting of 2, 3, or 4 base pairs are known as what?
a) Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)
b) Microsatellites
c) Minisatellites
d) Satellites
108. Mutations that cause achondroplasia exert an effect, which can be classified as:
a) Dominant negative
b) gain-of-function
c) haploinsufficiency
d) loss-of-function
109. Which of the following causes female pseudohermaphroditism?
a) Androgen insensitivity
b) Campomelic dysplasia
c) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
d) Klinefelter syndrome
110. Which of the following karyotypes is diagnostic of Down syndrome?
a) 46,XX,der(14;21)(q10;q10)pat+21
b) 47,XY,+13
c) 45,XX,rob,(14;21)(q10;q10)
d) 46,XY,t(2;3)(q21;q12)
111. If both parents are affected with the same autosomal recessive disorder then the
probability that each of their children will be affected equals -----a) 1 in 4
b) 1 in 2
c) 2 in 3
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d) 1
112. The risk for miscarriage associated with amniocentesis is approximately ----a) 1 in 10
b) 1 in 50
c) 1 in 100 to 1 in 200
d) 1 in 1000
113. Which of the following findings on prenatal ultrasound examination would not raise
suspicion of a chromosome abnormality?
a) Duodenal atresia
b) Holoprosencephaly
c) Hydrops fetalis
d) Monozygotic twins
114. Which of the following diagnostic techniques is of no value for the diagnosis of neural tube
defects?
a) Amniocentesis
b) Chorion villus sampling (CVS)
c) Maternal serum screening
d) Ultrasonography
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115. The maternal serum level of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is lower than average in which
situation?
a) Down syndrome
b) Exomphalos
c) Neural tube defects
d) Twin pregnancies
116. A 31-year-old man has a unilateral breast lump. A biopsy is performed, and the pathology
report, surprisingly, shows an early-stage carcinoma. The mans family history reveals no
history of breast cancer. What would the physician be most likely to advise?
A. Hormone studies
B. Karyotype
C. Prophylactic mastectomy
D. BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene studies for the patients younger sister
E. IQ test
117. 5-month-old girl has bilateral retinoblastoma. Neither parent has a history of having had
retinoblastoma. Chromosomal analysis of the patient's stimulated peripheral blood
lymphocytes is done; the photograph is of a representative karyotype. Which of the following
critical events has most likely resulted from an aberration involving chromosome 13?
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Rett syndrome
d. Hemophilia A
Match each of these disorders with the most appropriate description given below:
(b) Classic X-linked coagulation disorder due to the hereditary deficiency of factor VIII, which is
required for the activation of factor X in the intrinsic coagulation pathway
(d) A striking mental disorder syndrome that appears to be prenatal lethal in hemizygous
males, and preclude reproduction in affected females
(c) Example of inheritance pattern for genes located in the pseudoautosomal region of the X
and Y chromosomes that can undergo homologous recombination
(a) Lethal in hemizygous males. Female heterozygotes have a nearly totally nonrandom pattern
of X-inactivation. Nearly all X chromosomes carrying the IP2 mutant are inactive
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pleiotropy
Are important in the pathology of autosomal dominant disorders. Match each of them with
the most appropriate disorder that can serve as its example:
(b) Marfan syndrome
(c) Split hand deformity
(a) Neurofibromatosis type 1
128. In the following listed characteristics of the two-hit tumor hypothesis, identify the only
three correct ones:
a. multiple tumors
b. bilateral
c. later onset
d. somatic mutation only
e. Loss of heterogeneity
129. The following diseases constitute the Chromosome Instability Syndromes
Ataxia telangiectasia
Fanconi anemia
Bloom syndrome
Xeroderma Pigmentosum:
The following statements on the syndromes are correct EXCEPT:
a. Radiography must be used extensively as part of treatment
b. Genes associated with above syndromes usually are involved with DNA repair and the
maintenance and integrity of chromosomes
c. These genes may be viewed as caretaker tumor-suppressor genes
d. There is increased risk of malignancy (leukemia) for anyone affected by any of these
diseases
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130. Analysis has suggested that the human genome consists of several broad sequence
components, among which are:
a. Single copy DNA sequences
b. Low copy number DNA sequences
c. Moderately repetitive DNA sequences
d. short interspersed nuclear elements (sine)
Match each of these with its most appropriate example:
(a) Alu family
(d) Structural proteins, hormones
(b) Ribosomal RNA genes
(c) Alpha and beta globin gene families
131. The figure below represents the pedigree of a family with neurofibromatosis type 1 with
the arrow indicating the proband. This pedigree shows a:
a. normal autosomal dominant inheritance
b. autosomal dominance inheritance with a new mutation originating from the proband
c. autosomal recessive inheritance
d. X-linked inheritance
e. None of the above
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132. The figure below is the pedigree demonstrating the recurrence of Osteogenesis imperfecta
in children with their father unaffected (arrow)
a. The father must have been a mosaic for the mutation from his germline
b. The pedigree represents a typical autosomal dominant inheritance
c. The pedigree represents a typical autosomal recessive inheritance
d. The pedigree represents an X linked inheritance
e. None of the above is correct
B.
C.
D.
E.
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134. In the following partial sequence of mRNA, a mutation of the template DNA results in a
change in codon 91 to UAA. What type of mutation is it?
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
GUC
GAC
CAG
UAG
GGC
UAA
CCG
A.
Missense
B.
Silent
C.
Nonsense
D.
Suppressor
E.
Frame shift
Transition
B.
Transversion
C.
Deletion
D.
E.
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