Final Practice Test

CHAPTER 1
1) This is the study of the functions of body structures.

a) anatomy
b) physiology
c) endocrinology d) histology
e) immunology
Answer: b
2) This is defined as a group of cells that work together to perform a particular function.
a) tissue
b) organ
c) molecules d) compounds e) organism
Answer: a
3) Using your fingers to find your pulse on your wrist is an example of
a) auscultation. b) palpation. c) percussion.
d) laparoscopy.
e) electrocardiography.
Answer: b
4) Percussion techniques can be used to detect
a) heart beats.
b) pulse rate.
c) arthritis.
d) fluid in the lungs. e) enlarged organs.
Answer: d
5) This is the sum of all chemical processes that occur in the body.
a) metabolism b) anabolism c) catabolism d) auscultation e) palpation
Answer: a
6) List the basic processes of life. Answer:
The basic processes of life include metabolism, responsiveness, movement, growth, differentiation and
reproduction.
7) This is the condition of equilibrium (balance) in the bodys internal environment.

a) palpation
b) metabolism c) homeostasis d) autopsy
e) differentiation
Answer: c
8) The two organ systems that regulate and maintain homeostasis are the
a) cardiovascular and integumentary systems. b) nervous and endocrine systems.
c) cardiovascular and respiratory systems.
d) respiratory and muscular systems.
e) urinary and integumentary systems.
Answer: b
9) The composition of this body fluid, which fills the narrow spaces between cells and tissues, directly
affects the proper functioning of cells.
a) lymph
b) blood plasma
c) interstitial fluid d) intracellular fluid e) vitreous body
Answer: c
10) Describe the differences between positive and negative feedback systems. Answer:
A positive feedback system will strengthen or reinforce a change in one of the bodys controlled
conditions while a negative feedback system will reverse a change in a controlled condition.
11) This is the structure of a feedback system that receives output from the control center.
a) receptor
b) stimulus
c) response
d) effector
e) efferent pathway
Answer: d
12) This is the structure of a feedback system that provides input to the control center.
a) receptor
b) muscle
c) response
d) effector
e) efferent pathway
Answer: a
13) A condition NOT regulated by a negative feedback loop would be:
a) childbirth
b) body temperature c) blood pressure
d) heart rate
e) blood sugar
Answer: a
14) Objective changes in a patients normal body function that can be directly observed or measured by a
clinician are referred to as
a) symptoms. b) disorders. c) disturbance. d) diseases
e) signs. Answer: e
15) Describe the anatomical position. Answer:
In the anatomical position, the subject stands erect facing the observer with the head level and the eyes
facing forward. The feet are flat on the floor and directed forward and the arms are at the sides with the
palms turned forward.
16) The brain is located in the
a) cranial cavity.
b) vertebral cavity. c) abdominal cavity. d) pericardial cavity. e) pleural cavity.
Answer: a
17) The lungs are located in the
a) cranial cavity.
Answer: e
18) The stomach is located in the
a) cranial cavity.
Answer: c
19) This cavity is located inferior to the abdominal cavity.
a) vertebral canal
b) cranial cavity
c) abdominal cavity d) pericardial cavity e) pelvic cavity
Answer: e
20) Which cavity contains the heart?
a) cranial cavity
b) vertebral cavity c) abdominal cavity d) pericardial cavity e) pleural cavity
Answer: d
21) The function of the secretions of a serous membrane, like the pleura, is to
a) separate the thoracic and abdominal cavities. b) protect the central nervous system.
c) prevent infection.
d) sreduce friction between neighboring organs. e) carry nervous impulses.
Answer: d
22) This plane divides the body into equal right and left halves.
a) frontal
b) midsagittal c) transverse d) oblique
e) coronal
Answer: b
23) This plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.
a) frontal
b) sagittal
c) transverse d) oblique
e) midsagittal
Answer: a
24) A transverse plane will cut a body or organ into

a) anterior and posterior portions.
b) left and right portions.
c) superior and inferior portions.
d) portions separated at an angle to its longitudinal axis. e) unequal left and right portions.
Answer: c
25) This directional term means farther from the midline.
a) medial b) anterior c) proximal d) deep

e) lateral
Answer: e
26) This directional term means farther from the attachment of a limb to the trunk or farther from the
origination of a structure.
a) deep
b) contralateral c) lateral
d) cephalic
e) distal
Answer: e
27) This directional term is the opposite of deep.
a) superficial b) superior c) inferior
d) distal
e) proximal Answer: a
28) Choose the directional term that would make the following sentence correct. The heart is _____ to the
liver.
a) inferior
b) anterior
c) contralateral d) superior
e) superficial
Answer: d
29) Choose the directional term that would make the following sentence correct. The sternum is ____ to
the heart.
a) posterior b) anterior c) inferior d) superior e) lateral
Answer: b
30) Which of the following organs is not found in the abdominal cavity?
a) stomach
b) spleen
c) liver
d) gallbladder e) diaphragm
Answer: e
31) This serous membrane covers the viscera within the abdominal cavity, and lines the abdominal wall
and the inferior surface of the diaphragm.
a) pericardium b) pleura
c) mediastinum d) dura mater e) peritoneum
Answer: e
44) Name the cavities of the trunk and the serous membranes that line them. Answer:
The two main cavities of the trunk are the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities. The thoracic cavity can
be divided into three smaller cavities called the pericardial cavity, and two fluid-filled spaces called
pleural cavities. The pericardial cavity is lined by the pericardium. The pleural cavity is lined by the
pleura. The central part of the thoracic cavity is an anatomical region called the mediastinum. It is
between the lungs, extending from the sternum to the vertebral column and from the first rib to the
diaphragm. The abdominopelvic cavity can be divided into the abdominal and pelvic cavities, both of
which are lined by the peritoneum.
45) List the eleven organ systems of the human body. Answer:
The eleven organ systems of the human body include the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, nervous,
digestive, urinary, respiratory, immune and lymphatic, cardiovascular, endocrine, and reproductive
systems.
46) Name the structural levels of the body and briefly describe each level. Answer:
The chemical level consists of atoms and molecules. The cellular level consists of cells which are the
smallest form of life. The tissue level consists of groups of cells that work to provide a single function.
The organ level consists of organs, constructed from different types of tissue that can provide several
different specific functions. The organ systems consist of one or more organs that are interlinked in
general functions. The organism is made up of all the organ systems, which work to provide homeostasis.
47) List and briefly describe the six basic life processes. Answer:
The six basic life processes include: 1)Metabolism is the sum of all chemical processes in the body.
2)Responsiveness is the bodys ability to detect and respond to internal and external stimuli. 3)Movement
includes motions that range from movements within individual cells to movement of the entire body.
4)Growth means an increase in body size or an increase in the number of cells. 5)Differentiation is the
process that converts a cell from unspecialized to specialized. 6)Reproduction refers to formation of new
cells for growth and repair or production of a new individual.
48) Describe a feedback system and list its general components. Answer:
A feedback loop is a cycle of events in which the status of the body condition is monitored, evaluated and
changed to maintain homeostasis. A feedback system will include a receptor that detects the stimuli, a
control center that receives the input from the receptor and generates an output, and an effector that
receives the output and produces a response.
49) Which of the following noninvasive diagnostic techniques is an example of inspection?

a) tapping and listening for an echo to detect fluid in the lungs b) feeling the abdomen to detect tender
organs
c) listening for crackling sounds during breathing
d) examining the surface of patients skin for presence of a rash e) feeling the gonads to detect abnormal
masses
Answer: d
50) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of the functional properties of nerve cells?
a) endocrinology
b) cardiovascular physiology c) neurophysiology
d) immunology
e) pathophysiology
Answer: c
51) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of the chemical regulators in the blood?
a) endocrinology
b) cardiovascular physiology c) neurophysiology
d) immunology
e) pathophysiology
Answer: a
52) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of functions of the kidneys?
a) exercise physiology b) renal physiology
c) neurophysiology
d) immunology
e) pathophysiology Answer: b
53) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of changes in organ functions due to muscular
activity?
a) exercise physiology b) renal physiology
c) neurophysiology
d) immunology
e) pathophysiology Answer: a
54) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of functional changes associated with disease
and aging?
a) exercise physiology
b) renal physiology
c) pathophysiology
d) cardiovascular physiology e) immunology
Answer: c
55) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of the bodys defense against disease- causing
agents?
a) exercise physiology
b) renal physiology
c) pathophysiology
d) cardiovascular physiology e) immunology
Answer: e
56) Which subspecialty of anatomy deals with the study of structural changes associated with disease?
a) embryology
b) developmental biology c) radiographic anatomy d) pathological anatomy e) immunology
Answer: d
57) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the groin?
a) pelvic
b) umbilical c) sternal
d) otic
e) inguinal
Answer: e
58) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the front of the elbow?
a) olecranal
b) antecubital c) carpal
d) digital
e) antebrachial
Answer: b
59) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the ear?
a) otic
b) orbital c) ocular d) oral
e) occipital
Answer: a
60) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the body region between the anus and the external
genitals?
a) gluteal b) crural c) lumbar d) perineal e) inguinal
Answer: d
61) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the great toe?
a) pollex b) tarsal c) hallux d) pedal e) carpal
Answer: c
62) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the thumb?
a) pollex b) tarsal c) hallux d) volar e) carpal
Answer: a
85) Feeling the presence of a mosquito biting your arm is an example of

a) growth.
b) movement.
c) responsiveness. d) reproduction.
e) differentiation. Answer: c
86) During a visit to your doctor, you complain about headache and nausea. These changes in your body
functions are considered to be
a) signs.
b) symptoms.
c) pharmacology.
d) controlled condition. e) epidemiology.
Answer: b
87) An embryonic stem cell undergoes ______ to become a neuron.

a) catabolism
b) growth
c) reproduction d) anabolism
e) differentiation
Answer: e
88) Which of the following describes a body process that is controlled using a positive feedback loop?
a) increasing body temperature in response to a drop in body temperature b) decreasing body temperature
in response to elevated body temperature c) decreasing blood [glucose] in response to elevated blood
[glucose]
d) increasing strength of uterine contractions in response to cervical stretch e) decreasing heart rate in
response to elevated blood pressure
Answer: d
89) Which of the following organs contains the control center for the feedback system that regulates
blood pressure?
a) skin
b) arteries
c) brain
d) heart
e) pituitary gland
Answer: c
90) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of a negative feedback system?
a) regulates conditions in body that remain fairly stable over long periods b) important in maintaining
homeostasis
c) involves control centers in the nervous or endocrine systems
d) stimulates changes that reverse the direction of the stimulus
e) usually requires an event outside the feedback system to shut it off Answer: e
91) Which of the following represents the largest and most complex level of structural organization in the
human body?
a) chemical level b) cellular level c) tissue level
d) organ level
e) organismal level
Answer: e
92) Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic types of tissues found in the human body?
a) epithelial tissue b) connective tissue c) muscular tissue d) necrotic tissue
e) nervous tissue
Answer: d
93) Which of the following correctly list the levels of structural organization in the human body from
largest to smallest?
a) chemical - cellular - tissue - organ - organ system - organism b) cellular - chemical - tissue - organ organ system - organism c) organism - organ system - organ - tissue - cellular - chemical d) organ - organ
system - organism - tissue - cellular - chemical e) tissue - cellular - organ - organ system - organism chemical
Answer: c
94) Which of the following structures or regions could you clearly see when you are viewing the anterior
side of an individual standing in the standard anatomical position?
a) shoulder blade
b) palm of the hand
c) plantar surface of foot
d) popliteal region of the knee e) gluteal region
Answer: b
95) Which of the following is a safe non-invasive imaging technique that uses the reflection of high
frequency sound waves off of body tissues to visualize a fetus during pregnancy?
a) computed tomography
b) magnetic resonance imaging c) ultrasound scanning
d) radionuclide scanning
e) amniocentesis
Answer: c
96) Mammography and bone densitometry are good examples of which of the following types of medical
imaging.
a) computed tomography
b) magnetic resonance imaging c) ultrasound scanning
d) radionuclide scanning
e) low-dose radiography
Answer: e
______________________________________________________________________________
CHAPTER 12
1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the nervous system?
a) Sensory function
b) Integrative function
c) Motor function
d) All are functions of the nervous system
Answer: d
2) Which of the following are divisions of the peripheral nervous system?

a) Somatic nervous system
b) Autonomic nervous system c) Enteric nervous system
d) All of these choices
Answer: d
3) The motor portion of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into
a) somatic and sympathetic divisions.
b) somatic and parasympathetic divisions.
c) enteric and somatic divisions.
d) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. e) voluntary and involuntary divisions.
Answer: d
4) Which of the following types of cells display the property of electrical excitability?
a) Muscle cells
b) Neurons
c) All of these choices d) None of these choices
Answer: c
5) Which of following organelles is a common site of protein synthesis in neurons?
a) mitochondria b) nucleus
c) Nissl body
d) Golgi apparatus e) nucleolus
Answer: c
6) With respect to neurons, the term nerve fiber refers to a) an axon.

b) a dendrite
c) a Nissl body.
d) both axons and dendrites. e) all of these choices
Answer: d
7) This type of neuron has one dendrite and one axon emerging from the cell body.
a) Multipolar neuron b) Bipolar neuron
c) Unipolar neuron d) Purkinje cell
e) Renshaw cell
Answer: b
8) Schwanns cells begin to form myelin sheaths around axons in the peripheral nervous system
a) when neurons are injured.
b) during fetal development.
c) after birth.
d) only in response to electrical stimulation by neuroglial cells. e) during the early onset of Alzheimers
disease.
Answer: b
9) This type of nervous tissue contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons, axon
terminals, and neuroglial cells.
a) Gray matter b) White matter c) Nissl bodies d) Ganglia
e) Nuclei Answer: a
10) Which of the following is NOT a type of channel used in production of electrical signals in neurons?
a) Leakage channel
b) Voltage-gated channel
c) Ligand-gated channel
d) Mechanically gated channel e) Ion-gated channel
Answer: e
11) The resting membrane potential in neurons ranges from:
a) +5 to 100 mV b) 25 to 70 mV
c) 40 to 90 mV
d) 90 to 5 mV
e) None of these choices
Answer: c
12) A polarized cell
a) has a charge imbalance across its membrane.
b) includes most cells of the body.
c) exhibits a membrane potential.
d) includes most cells of the body and exhibits a membrane potential. e) All of these choices are correct.
Answer: e
13) Na+/K+ATPase is considered to be an electrogenic pump because
a) it contributes to the negativity of the resting membrane potential.
b) the sodium ions are negatively charged.
c) it exhibits low permeability.
d) both it contributes to the negativity of the resting membrane potential and the sodium ions are
negatively charged.
e) all of these choices Answer: a
14) A depolarizing graded potential
a) makes the membrane more polarized. b) makes the membrane less polarized.
c) is considered a type of action potential. d) is the last part of an action potential.
e) is seen when the cell approaches threshold. Answer: b
15) When a depolarizing graded potential makes the axon membrane depolarize to threshold,
a) ligand-gated Ca+2 channels close rapidly. b) voltage-gated Ca+2 channels open rapidly. c) ligandgated Na+ channels close rapidly. d) voltage-gated Na+ channels open rapidly. e) none of these choices
occur.
Answer: d
16) During the resting state of a voltage-gated Na+ channel, 1. the inactivation gate is open.
2. the activation gate is closed.
3. the channel is permeable to Na+.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) both 1 and 2 are true.
e) all of these choices are true.
Answer: d
17) During this period, a second action potential can only be initiated by a larger than normal stimulus
a) Latent period
b) Absolute refractory period c) Relative refractory period d) All of these choices
Answer: c
18) Saltatory conduction
a) can occur in unmyelinated axons
b) happens due to an even distribution of voltage-gated Na+ channels
c) encodes only action potentials that are initiated in response to pain.
d) occurs in unmyelinated axons and happens due to even distribution of voltage-gated Na+ channels
e) occurs only in myelinated axons
Answer: e
19) Which type of axons has the largest diameter?

a) A fibers
b) B fibers
c) C fibers
d) A and B fibers e) B and C fibers
Answer: a
20) The nervous system can distinguish between a light touch and a heavier touch by
a) saltatory conduction.
b) continuous conduction of graded potentials.
c) changing the frequency of impulses sent to sensory centers. d) propagation action potential in both
directions.
e) modifying the length of the refractory period.
Answer: c
21) Which of the following terms is used to describe a type of synapse?
a) Axodendritic
b) Axosomatic
c) Axoaxonic
d) None of these choices e) All of these choices
Answer: e Difficulty: Medium
22) Faster communication and synchronization are two advantages of
a) chemical synapses
b) electrical synapses
c) ligand-gated channels
d) voltage-gated channels
e) mechanically-gated channels
Answer: b
23) An excitatory neurotransmitter _________ the postsynaptic membrane.
a) depolarizes
b) repolarizes
c) hyperpolarizes
d) does not affect the polarity of e) moves across channels in
Answer: a
24) IPSP stands for
a) inhibitory presynaptic summation potential
b) inhibitory postsynaptic summation potential c) inhibitory postsynaptic potential

d) inhibitory presynaptic potential.
e) none of these choices
Answer: c
25) Diffusion, enzymatic degradation, and uptake by cells are all ways to
a) remove a neurotransmitter
b) stop a spatial summation
c) continue a temporal summation d) inhibit a presynaptic potential e) excite a presynaptic potential
Answer: a
26) When the summed total of postsynaptic potentials rises above threshold, creation of action potentials
occurs
a) in the synaptic cleft. b) in the dendrites.
c) at the trigger zone.
d) in the neuron nucleus. e) in the neuroplasm.
Answer: c
27) A postsynaptic neuron responds to neurotransmitters released by a presynaptic neuron by creating
a) EPSPs
b) water-filled channels in its membrane c) IPSPs
d) either EPSPs or IPSPs
e) All the choices are correct
Answer: d
28) Which of the following is NOT considered a small molecule neurotransmitter?
a) Acetylcholine
b) Biogenic amines c) Purines
d) Endorphins
e) Serotonin
Answer: d
29) This type of neural circuit consists of a single presynaptic neuron synapsing with several postsynaptic
neurons.
a) Diverging circuit b) Converging circuit
c) Reverberating circuit
d) Parallel after-discharge circuit e) Normal circuit
Answer: a
30) Plasticity means

a) ability to regenerate after being damaged.
b) sending a signal through a converging circuit. c) signal transmission at a synapse.
d) ability to change based on experience.
e) ability to stretch and recoil without damage.
Answer: d
31) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults? Answer:
Neurogenesis in adults is limited by: 1) Inhibitory influences from neuroglia, mainly from
oligodendrocytes, and 2) the absence of growth-stimulating cues present during fetal development.
32) Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.
Answer:
Drugs can modify neurotransmitter effects by: 1) stimulating or inhibiting their synthesis, 2) enhancing or
blocking their release, 3) activating or blocking their receptor, and 4) stimulating or inhibiting their
removal.
33) List the three ways that neurotransmitters can be removed from a synapse. Answer:
Neurotransmitters can be removed by: 1) diffusion, 2) enzymatic degradation or 3) uptake by cells.
34) List the three major factors that contribute to the creation of the resting membrane potential in
excitable cells.
Answer: The major factors that lead to creation of resting potential are: 1) unequal distribution of ions
across the plasma membrane, 2) inability of most anions to leave the cell, and 3) the electrogenic nature
of the Na+,K+ -ATPase.
35) Briefly describe the events that occur during the depolarizing phase of an action potential. Answer:
Voltage-gated Na+ channels open rapidly allowing Na+ to rush into the cell driven by both the electrical
and chemical gradient. The inward rush of Na+ causes the membrane potential to become less negative,
resulting in depolarization.
63) Which of the following types of neurons have one axon and one dendrite emerging from the cell body
and are found in the retina of the eye, inner ear, and olfactory region of the brain?
a) bipolar neuron
b) multipolar neuron c) unipolar neuron d) nonpolar neuron e) pseudounipolar
Answer: a
64) Which of the following types of neurons is exclusively found in the cerebellum?
a) bipolar neuron
b) multipolar neuron c) Purkinje cells
d) unipolar neuron e) pyramidal cells
Answer: c
75) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to chemical binding and is found in
dendrites of some sensory receptors like pain receptors, and in the dendrites and cell bodies of
interneurons and motor neurons.
a) leakage channel
b) ligand-gated channels
c) mechanically gated channels d) voltage-gated channels
e) pressure-sensitive channel
Answer: b
76) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to touch, pressure, vibration, or tissue
stretching and is found in the auditory receptors of the ear, and in touch and pressure receptors in the skin.
a) leakage channel
e) temperature-sensitive channel
Answer: c
77) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to changes in membrane potential and is
located in axons of all types of neurons.
a) leakage channel
e) temperature-sensitive channel
Answer: d
78) Chromatolysis refers to
a) break up of lysosomes after neural injury. b) Wallerian degeneration after neural injury. c) plasticity of
neuron.
d) break up of Nissl bodies after neural injury. e) none of these choices
Answer: d
79) Wallerian degeneration refers to
a) degeneration of the proximal end of axon and myelin sheath after neural injury. b) degeneration of the
distal end of axon and myelin sheath after neural injury.
c) break of Nissl bodies after neural injury.
d) plasticity of neuron.
e) none of these choices Answer: b

80) Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron. Answer:
Spatial summation is summation of postsynaptic potentials in response to stimuli that occur at different
locations in the membrane of a postsynaptic cell at the same time. This typically occurs when multiple
presynaptic neurons synapse with one postsynaptic neuron and fire simultaneously. Temporal summation
is summation of postsynaptic potentials in response to stimuli that occur at the same location in the
membrane of the postsynaptic cell but at different times. This typically occurs when one presynaptic
neuron fires in rapid succession leading to a summing of the resulting EPSPs, which then triggers the
generation of action potentials in the postsynaptic neuron as it moves above threshold.
81) Hearing your cell phone ring in an otherwise quiet lecture hall is an example of which of the
following types of nervous system functions?
a) Sensory function
b) Integrative function
c) Motor function
d) More than one of the types of nervous system functions e) None of the types of nervous system
functions
Answer: a
82) Which of the following types of electrical signals allow rapid long-distance communication within the
nervous system?
a) resting potential
b) nerve action potential c) muscle action potential d) graded potential
e) long-term potentiation
Answer: b
83) In an action potential, the current that flows down the axon of a neuron is generated by the movement
of ______ across the membrane.
a) electrons
b) protons
c) ions
d) free radicals e) neutrons
Answer: c
84) In the process of spatial summation, ______ are added together and _____ are subtracted from that
total to determine whether _____ will be created at the trigger zone of the postsynaptic neuron.
a) EPSPs; IPSPs; action potentials b) IPSPs; EPSPs; action potentials c) EPSPs; IPSPs; graded potentials
d) IPSPs; action potentials; EPSPs e) EPSPs; action potentials; IPSPs
Answer: a
85) In temporal summation, a single presynaptic neuron stimulates the creation of action potentials in a
postsynaptic neuron when it
a) stops firing long enough to allow the postsynaptic neuron to recover.
b) fires at a fast enough rate that the sum of EPSPs in the postsynaptic neuron moves above threshold.
c) fires at a steady rate that allows the postsynaptic neuron to return to resting potential.
d) recruits other presynaptic neurons to begin to fire.
e) runs out of neurotransmitter.
Answer: b
86) Which of the following neurotransmitters are used in virtually all of the inhibitory synapses found in
the spinal cord?
a) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) and acetylcholine b) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) and
glycine
c) epinephrine and norepinephrine
d) serotonin and melatonin
e) glutamate and aspartate Answer: b
87) A neurotransmitter that binds to an ionotropic receptor that contains a chloride channel would be
classified as an
a) inhibitory neurotransmitter and would produce an EPSP in the postsynaptic neuron. b) inhibitory
neurotransmitter and would produce an IPSP in the postsynaptic neuron. c) excitatory neurotransmitter
and would produce an EPSP in the postsynaptic neuron. d) excitatory neurotransmitter and would produce
an IPSP in the postsynaptic neuron. e) excitatory neuropeptide and would hyperpolarize the postsynaptic
neuron.
Answer: b
______________________________________________________________________________
CHAPTER 13
1) Which of the three spinal meninges is the most superficial?
a) Arachnoid mater b) Dura mater
c) Meninx mater d) Pia mater
e) Epi mater Answer: b
2) Which of the structures listed below contains cerebrospinal fluid?
a) Epidural space
b) Subarachnoid space c) Dural space
d) Meninx
e) Pia mater
Answer: b
3) Denticulate ligaments are thickenings of

a) arachnoid mater. b) pia mater.
c) dura mater.
d) interstitial fluid. e) subdural space.
Answer: b
Question type: Essay
4) The spinal cord does not extend the entire length of the vertebral column in an adult. Why? Answer:
During early childhood, both the spinal cord and the vertebral column grow longer as part of overall body
growth. Elongation of the spinal cord stops around age four or five but growth of the vertebral column
continues. This is why the spinal cord does not extend the entire length of the vertebral column.
5) What spinal cord feature is the area where the nerves that supply the lower limb emerge?
a) Lumbar enlargement b) Filum terminale
c) Cauda equina
d) Cranial nerve XII
e) Cervical enlargement
Answer: a
6) Which of the following structures contains only sensory axons that conduct nerve impulses from
sensory receptors in the skin, muscles and internal organs to the CNS?
a) Spinal nerves
b) Cauda equina
c) Anterior root of spinal nerves d) Posterior root of spinal nerves e) Conus medullaris
Answer: d
7) Which layer of protective connective tissue is the outermost covering surrounding a spinal nerve?
a) dura mater b) pia mater
c) endoneurium d) perineurium e) epineurium
Answer: e
8) What types of axons are wrapped in a protective endoneurium? 1. Myelinated
2. Unmyelinated
3. Only dendrites are surrounded by endoneurium
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) Both 1 and 2
Answer: d
9) Spinal nerves
1. Are parts of PNS.
2. connect the CNS to sensors and effectors in all parts of the body.
3. are named according to the region of the cord from which they emerge.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) both 1 & 3 e) 1, 2 & 3
Answer: e
10) This division of a spinal nerve reenters the vertebral cavity through the intervertebral foramen and
serves the vertebrae, vertebral ligaments, blood vessels of the spinal cord, and meninges.
a) Dorsal ramus
b) Ventral ramus
c) Rami communicantes d) Meningeal branch
e) Brachial plexus
Answer: d
11) Intercostal nerves

a) are also known as cervical nerves.
b) do not enter into a plexus and directly connect to the structures they supply. c) are found in the C6-T4
area of the vertebral column.
d) extend through the sacrum.
e) do not exist in humans.
Answer: b
12) A man presents with median nerve palsy in his left hand. What is the most likely site of injury?
a) Dorsal scapular nerve b) Intercostal nerve
c) Lumbar plexus
d) Median nerve
e) Radial nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
13) Which region of the spinal cord carries nerve impulses for proprioception?
a) Posterior white column b) Anterior gray horn
c) Anterior white column d) Lateral white column e) Dermatome tract
Answer: a
14) These white matter tracts of the spinal cord carry sensory information.
a) Ascending tracts b) Descending tracts c) Integration tracts d) Columnar tracts e) Epidural tracts
Answer: a
15) What type of information is carried in the descending tracts of the spinal cord? 1. Sensory
2. Motor
3. Integration
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) Both 1 & 2 e) Both 2 & 3
Answer: b
16) Another term for the summing of EPSPs and IPSPs in the gray matter of spinal cord is
a) refraction. b) facilitation. c) integration. d) adaptation. e) tetany.
Answer: c
17) This type of descending motor pathway conveys nerve impulses that originate in the cerebral cortex
and are destined to cause precise, voluntary movements of skeletal muscles.
a) Indirect pathway b) Direct pathway c) Reflex arc
d) Somatic arc
e) Muscle spindle
Answer: b
18) This type of descending motor pathway originates in the brainstem and governs automatic movements
that help regulate muscle tone, posture and balance.
a) Indirect pathway b) Direct pathway c) Reflex arc
d) Somatic arc
e) Muscle spindles Answer: a
19) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc monitors body conditions?
a) Sensory receptor b) Integrating center c) Motor neuron
d) Effector
e) Interneuron Answer: a
20) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc receives sensory information and decides how to respond
to a change in the bodys condition?
a) Sensory receptor b) Sensory neuron c) Motor neuron
d) Effector
e) Integration center Answer: e
21) Which of the following parts of a nervous reflex arc is usually a muscle or gland?
a) Sensory receptor b) Sensory neuron c) Motor neuron
d) Effector
e) Integration center
Answer: d
22) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc would have a cell body in the posterior root ganglion?
a) Sensory receptor cell b) Sensory neuron
c) Motor neuron
d) Effector
e) Interneuron
Answer: b
23) A reflex pathway having only one synapse in the CNS is called a
a) visceral reflex arc.
b) somatic reflex arc.
c) polysynaptic reflex arc. d) autonomic reflex arc. e) none of these choices
Answer: e
24) A nerve impulse initiated at a muscle spindle has to travel through which of the following structures
to get into the spinal column?
a) Anterior root of spinal nerve b) Posterior root of spinal nerve c) Tectospinal tract
d) Central canal
e) Lateral reticulospinal tract Answer: b
25) In response to a muscle being stretched, a muscle spindle initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes
1. contraction of the agonist muscle.
2. relaxation of the antagonist muscle.
3. contraction of the antagonist muscle. 4. relaxation of the agonist muscle.
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 2

Answer: e
26) In response to a tendon being stretched excessively, a tendon organ initiates a somatic spinal reflex
that causes
1. contraction of the agonist muscle.
2. relaxation of the antagonist muscle.
3. contraction of the antagonist muscle. 4. relaxation of the agonist muscle.
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 3 and 4
Answer: e
27) A somatic spinal reflex that involves one effector muscle being stimulated while the opposing muscle
is inhibited is called_______ innervation.
a) reversal
b) relaxed
c) representative d) reciprocal
e) relegated
Answer: d
28) Which of following is NOT a function of the spinal reflexes that use muscle spindles and tendon
organs as sensors?
a) Awareness of muscle tension in body b) Prevention of damage to muscles
c) Protection of spinal nerves
d) Prevention of damage to tendons
e) Maintenance of muscle tone
Answer: c
29) An ipsilateral, intersegmental, spinal somatic reflex will most likely control
a) only one flexor muscle on the same side of the body as the sensor.
b) many flexor muscles on the same side of the body as the sensor.
c) many flexor and extensor muscles on the same side of the body as the sensor. d) many flexor muscles
on the opposite side of the body as the sensor. e) many flexor and extensor muscles on the opposite side
of the body as the sensor. Answer: c
30) A typical spinal nerve has how many connections to the spinal cord?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5
Answer: b
31) This branch of a spinal nerve serves the deep muscles and skin of the posterior surface of the trunk.
a) Meningeal branch
b) Rami communicantes c) Brachial plexus
d) Posterior ramus
e) Anterior ramus
Answer: d
32) The thoracic nerves are also called the
a) brachial nerves.
b) lumbar nerves.
c) sacral nerves.
d) cervical nerves.
e) intercostals nerves.
Answer: e
54) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord. Answer:
The spinal cord is roughly cylindrical, but slightly flattened anterior/posterior. It extends from the medulla
to the superior border of L2. The length ranges from 42-45 cm and is approximately 2 cm in diameter.
There is a cervical enlargement from C4-T1 and a lumbar enlargement from T9-T12. The conus
medullaris is the tapered inferior end. The filum terminale is an extension of the pia mater that anchors
the cord to the coccyx. The cauda equina is the roots of spinal nerves angling inferiorly in the vertebral
canal from the end of the spinal cord. 31 pairs of spinal nerves leave the cord at regular intervals through
the intervertebral foramina.
55) Name and describe the locations of the four major plexuses of spinal nerves. Answer:
1. Cervical: alongside C1 through C4; 2. Brachial: inferior and lateral to C4 through T1 and superior to
rib, posterior to clavicle; 3. Lumbar: lateral to L1 through L4 passing obliquely
posterior to psoas major and anterior to quadratus lumborum; 4. Sacral: L4-S3; anterior to sacrum.
56) Identify and describe the function of each of the components of a spinal reflex arc. Answer:
1. Receptor: responds to specific changes in body conditions by producing graded potential; 2. Sensory
neuron: conducts impulse from receptor to integrating center in gray matter of spinal cord; 3. Integrating
center: site of synapse between sensory and other neurons; decision-making area in gray matter of spinal
cord; 4. Motor neuron: conducts impulse from integrating center to effector; 5. Effector: is the structure
that promotes change in body conditions by responding to motor nerve impulse, such as a muscle or a
gland.
83) A severed obturator nerve will lead into paralysis of which region of the body?
a) Cervical b) Thoracic c) Lumbar d) Thigh
e) Arms Answer: d
84) During childbirth, anesthesia is administered into the epidural space of the spinal column between
which of the following vertebrae?
1. L4 and L5
2. T3 and T4
3. S4 and S5 4. C3 and C4
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 4 only
e) Both 1 and 4
Answer: a
85) Which of the following spinal nerves DOES NOT travel through an intervertebral foramen to reach its
destination?
a) cervical spinal nerve 1 b) thoracic spinal nerve 12 c) lumbar spinal nerve 2 d) sacral spinal nerve 1
e) cervical spinal nerve 7
Answer: a
86) The cell bodies of the sensory neurons that carry information from the periphery to the spinal cord are
located in the
a) anterior white commissure. b) central canal.
c) lateral gray horn.
d) posterior root ganglion.
e) posterior gray horn. Answer: d
87) Which of the following lists the connective tissue coverings of the axons, fascicles, and entire nerve
in the correct order?
a) endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium b) endoneurium, epineurium, perineurium c) perineurium,
epineurium, endoneurium d) epineurium, endoneurium, perineurium
Answer: a
88) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of dermatomes?
a) Can be used clinically to determine area of spinal cord damage
b) Each dermatome is only served by a single spinal nerve
c) Complete anesthesia of a single dermatome often requires blocking three adjacent spinal nerves
d) Dermatomes are designated based on the cranial or spinal nerve that serves that area of the skin
e) The dermatome serving the face is supplied by the trigeminal cranial nerve
Answer: b
89) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the spinothalamic tract?
a) Begins in the spinal cord

b) Terminates in the thalamus
c) Found in the white matter of the spinal cord
d) Carries motor information down the cord
e) Is composed of multiple axons carrying information in the spinal cord
Answer: d
90) Both the gracile fasciculus and cuneate fasciculus are ________ tracts found in the ______ white
column of the spinal cord.
a) ascending; posterior b) descending; anterior c) ascending; anterior d) descending; posterior e)
descending; lateral
Answer: a
______________________________________________________________________________
CHAPTER 14
1) The brain and spinal cord develop from the ______ neural tube.
a) mesodermal b) endodermal c) ectodermal d) cranial
e) caudal Answer: c
2) This brain vesicle gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct.
a) Prosencephalon
b) Mesencephalon
c) Rhombencephalon d) Telencephalon
e) Myelencephalon
Answer: b
3) Which of the following is NOT a major region of the brain?

a) Brain stem
b) Cerebellum c) Cauda equina d) Diencephalon e) Cerebrum
Answer: c
4) Which of the following brain structures consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and midbrain?
a) Brain stem
b) Cerebrum
c) Cerebellum d) Diencephalon e) Dura mater
Answer: a
5) Which of the following brain structures consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus?
a) Cerebellum b) Brain stem
c) Cerebrum
d) Diencephalon e) Dura mater
Answer: d
6) Which of the following meninges has two layers?
a) Spinal dura mater
b) Cranial dura mater
c) Spinal arachnoid mater d) Cranial arachnoid mater e) All of these choices
Answer: b
7) This extension of the dura mater separates the two hemispheres of the cerebrum.
a) Falx cerebri
b) Falx cerebelli
c) Tentorium cerebelli d) Tentorium cerebri
Answer: a
8) The adult brain represents only ____ of the total body weight.
a) 2% b) 5% c) 10% d) 12% e) 20%
Answer: a
9) This protects the brain by preventing the movement of harmful substances and pathogens from the
blood into the brain tissue.
a) Dura mater
b) Arachnoid mater
c) Cerebrospinal fluid d) Blood brain barrier e) All of these choices
Answer: d
10) Cerebrospinal fluid carries small amounts of chemicals like glucose from the ______ to neurons and
neuroglia.
a) interstitial fluid b) bile
c) intracellular fluid d) arachnoid space e) blood
Answer: e
11) Which of the following is a fluid-filled cavity located in each hemisphere of the cerebrum?
a) Lateral ventricle
b) Septum pellucidum c) Fourth ventricle
d) Third ventricle
e) Corpus callosum
Answer: a
12) This is a narrow fluid-filled cavity found along the midline superior to the hypothalamus and between
the right and left halves of the thalamus.
a) Lateral ventricle
b) Septum pellucidum c) Third ventricle
d) Fourth ventricle
e) Fifth ventricle
Answer: c
13) Which of the following describes a function of cerebrospinal fluid? 1. Mechanical protection
2. pH homeostasis
3. Circulation
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) Both 1 and 2
e) All of these choices
Answer: e
14) These are networks of capillaries found in the walls of the ventricles of the brain that produce
cerebrospinal fluid.
a) Choroid plexuses
b) Lateral apertures
c) Interventricular foramina
d) Brachial plexuses
e) Aqueduct of the midbrain
Answer: a
15) Cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed through these fingerlike projections found in the dural venous
sinuses.
a) Choroid plexuses b) Microvilli
c) Arachnoid villi d) Dural villi
e) Lemnisci Answer: c
16) This is a netlike region of white and gray matter that extends throughout the brainstem and functions
to help maintain consciousness.
a) Cuneate nucleus
b) Gracile nucleus
c) Medial lemniscus
d) Reticular formation
e) Decussation of pyramids
Answer: d
17) This structure in the brain contains centers responsible for the startle reflex in response to loud
sounds.
a) Superior colliculus b) Inferior colliculus c) Pontine nucleus
d) Medial lemniscus e) Arbor vitae
Answer: b
18) This region of the brain contains pneumotaxic and apneustic areas that help control respiration.
a) Spinal cord b) Midbrain c) Pons
d) Thalamus e) Cerebellum
Answer: c
19) Pyramids are
a) gray matter protrusions found on the medulla oblongata. b) white matter protrusions found on the
medulla oblongata. c) gray matter protrusions found on the pons.
d) white matter protrusions found on the pons.
e) a network of white and gray matter found in the medulla oblongata. Answer: b
20) Medullary nuclei are
1. masses of gray matter in the medulla oblongata. 2. masses of white matter in the medulla oblongata. 3.
decussations of the pyramids.
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) 3 only.
d) Both 1 and 2.
e) None of these choices.
Answer: a
21) Which of the following regions of the brain contains the inferior olivary nucleus?
a) Pons
b) Medulla oblongata c) Pyramids
d) Hypothalamus
e) Midbrain
Answer: b
22) The medial lemniscus is a band of white matter that extends through 1. the medulla oblongata.
2. the pons.
3. the midbrain.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) both 2 & 3 e) 1, 2 & 3
Answer: e
23) Which of the following nuclei are found in the pons?

a) Pontine nuclei
b) Apneustic area
c) Pneumotaxic area
d) All of these choices e) None of these choices
Answer: d
24) Which of the following is a nucleus found in the medulla oblongata that receives sensory information
associated with touch, pressure and vibration?
a) Tectum
b) Superior colliculus c) Substantia nigra
d) Pontine nucleus
e) Gracile nucleus
Answer: e
25) Which of the following is a nucleus found in the midbrain that releases dopamine?
a) Substantia nigra
b) Inferior olivary nucleus
c) Inferior colliculus d) Cerebral peduncle e) Apneustic area
Answer: a
26) This portion of the cerebellum contributes to equilibrium and balance.
a) Tentorium cerebelli b) Anterior lobe
c) Posterior lobe
d) Flocculonodular lobe e) Transverse fissure
Answer: d
27) The cerebellar cortex consists of folia, which are
a) parallel folds of white matter. b) found in the vermis only.

c) portions of the pyramids.
d) parallel folds of gray matter. e) used in the RAS system.
Answer: d
28) This structure carries sensory information coming from proprioceptors found in the trunk and limbs
into the cerebellum.
a) Inferior cerebellar peduncle
b) Middle cerebellar peduncle c) Superior cerebellar peduncle d) Anterior lobe
e) Posterior lobe
Answer: a
29) This region of the brain serves as the major relay station for most sensory impulses that reach the
primary sensory areas of the cerebral cortex from the spinal cord and brain stem.
a) Thalamus
b) Hypothalamus c) Epithalamus d) Pons
e) Midbrain
Answer: a
30) Which of the following is NOT a nucleus found in the thalamus?
a) Anterior nucleus
b) Medial nucleus
c) Red nucleus
d) Reticular nucleus
e) Lateral geniculate nucleus
Answer: c
31) Which of the following are NOT controlled by the hypothalamus?

a) Hunger
b) Thirst
c) Blood calcium concentration d) Emotional behavior
e) Body temperature
Answer: c
32) Which of the following glands is directly controlled by hormones produced by the hypothalamus?
a) Posterior pituitary gland b) Anterior pituitary gland c) Thymus gland
d) Pancreas
e) Pineal gland Answer: b
33) Which of the following regions of the brain contain the pineal gland?
a) Thalamus
b) Cerebellum
c) Hypothalamus d) Cerebrum
e) Epithalalmus
Answer: e
34) During brain development, the gyri of the cerebrum are formed because
a) the white matter enlarges faster than the overlying gray matter. b) the cerebrum grows faster than the
dura mater.
c) the hypothalamus is larger than the epithalamus.
d) the gray matter grows faster than the underlying white matter. e) the lobes of the cerebrum are not
symmetrical.
Answer: d
35) Which of the following structures conducts nerve impulses between the two different hemispheres of
the cerebrum?
a) Association tracts b) Corpus callosum c) Projection tracts d) Pyramids
e) Sulci Answer: b
36) Together the lentiform and caudate nuclei are known as the
a) globus pallidus.
b) putamen.
c) medial geniculate nucleus. d) corpus striatum.
e) internal capsule.
Answer: d
37) This portion of the limbic system lies between the hippocampus and the parahippocampus gyrus.
a) dentate gyrus b) septal nuclei
c) cingulate gyrus d) olfactory bulbs e) amygdala
Answer: a
38) Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for sensing body touch and
temperature?
a) Brocas area
b) Primary visual area
c) Common integrative area
d) Prefrontal cortex area

e) Primary somatosensory area
Answer: e
39) Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for vision?
a) Brocas area
d) Primary olfactory area
Answer: b
40) Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for conscious movements of
the body?
a) Brocas area
c) Somatosensory association area d) Primary motor area
Answer: d
41) Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for speech?
a) Brocas area
b) Primary gustatory area
d) Prefrontal cortex area
Answer: a
42) Which of the following cranial nerves carries sensory information coming from the nasal cavity to the
olfactory area of the cerebrum?
a) cranial nerve I
b) cranial nerve V c) cranial nerve VI d) cranial nerve VIII e) cranial nerve X
Answer: a
43) Which of the following cranial nerves control movements of the eyeball?
a) II, III and IV b) I, V and X
c) III, IX and V d) III, IV and VI e) X, XI and XII
Answer: d
44) Cranial nerve V is also known as the _______________nerve.
a) trochlear
b) oculomotor c) trigeminal d) vagus
e) abducens
Answer: c
45) Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for regulating visceral activity?
a) Oculomotor
b) Trigeminal
c) Spinal accessory d) Facial
e) Vagus
Answer: e
46) Which of the following cranial nerves is primarily responsible for changing facial expressions?
a) Oculomotor
b) Trigeminal
c) Spinal accessory d) Facial
e) Vagus
Answer: d
73) Patients with damage in the left hemisphere often exhibit aphasia (inability to use or comprehend
words). This is an example of
a) apraxia.
b) delirium.
c) cerebral lacerations.
d) hemispheric lateralization. e) decussations.
Answer: d
74) An electroencephalogram (EEG) measures brain waves primarily generated by
a) neurons in the pons.
b) neurons in the medulla oblongata. c) neurons in the thalamus.
d) neurons in the cerebral cortex.
e) neurons in the cerebellum.
Answer: d
75) This type of brain wave occurs at regular intervals when a person is awake but not when a person is
sleeping.
a) Alpha waves
b) Beta waves
c) Theta waves
d) Delta waves.
e) All of the selections are correct
Answer: b
76) Brain waves that generally appear during periods of sensory input and mental activity are called
a) alpha waves. b) beta waves. c) theta waves. d) delta waves. e) P waves.
Answer: b
77) Brain waves that appear in adults and children during periods of emotional stress are called
a) alpha waves. b) beta waves.
c) theta waves. d) delta waves. e) P waves.
Answer: c
78) Brain waves that appear during deep sleep are called
a) alpha waves. b) beta waves. c) theta waves. d) delta waves. e) P waves.
Answer: d
79) Blood flows to the brain through the ________ arteries and away from the brain through the _______
vein.
a) internal carotid and vertebral; internal jugular b) external carotid and vertebral; external jugular c)
internal jugular and vertebral; internal carotid d) internal carotid and axillary; internal jugular e) external
jugular and axillary; external jugular
Answer: a
80) Which of the following statements best describes the structure of the blood-brain barrier that provides
its functional characteristics?
a) Processes of astrocytes wrap tightly around capillaries in the brain.
b) Tight junctions tightly seal endothelial cells of capillaries in the brain.
c) Gap junctions tightly seal endothelial cells of capillaries in the brain.
d) Spot desmosomes tightly link capillary endothelial cells together.
e) The basement membrane of capillaries in the brain contains extremely small pores.
Answer: b
81) A deep indentation found along the medial plane that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres
is called the
a) septum pellucidum. b) transverse fissure. c) tentorium cerebelli. d) corpus callosum.
e) longitudinal fissure.
Answer: e
82) The central sulcus of the cerebrum separates the
a) two cerebral hemispheres.
b) frontal lobe from the parietal lobe. c) frontal lobe from the temporal lobe. d) parietal lobe from the
temporal lobe.
e) temporal lobe from the occipital lobe. Answer: b
83) This lobe of the cerebrum is found deep to the other four lobes and thus cannot be observed from the
surface.
a) occipital lobe b) temporal lobe c) parietal lobe d) insula
e) corpus callosum Answer: d
84) Which of the following types of tracts are used to conduct nerve impulses between gyri within the
same cerebral hemisphere?
a) Association tracts
b) Commissural tracts
c) Projection tracts
d) Mammillothalamic tracts e) Stria medullaris
Answer: a
85) These three areas of gray matter found in each cerebral hemisphere are important in helping to control
the initiation and termination of skeletal muscle movements.
a) red nuclei
b) vestibular nuclei
c) lateral olivary nuclei d) basal nuclei
e) autonomic ganglia
Answer: d
86) Damage to this portion of the limbic system results in loss of memory of recent events and difficulty
committing anything new to memory.
a) amygdala
b) dentate gyrus c) cingulate gyrus d) hippocampus e) septal nuclei
Answer: d
87) A common type of disabling senile dementia that affects about 11% of the population over 65 and
results in loss of reasoning and ability to care for oneself, is called
a) agnosia.
b) prosopagnosia.
c) Alzheimer disease.
d) transient ischemic attack syndrome. e) amylotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Answer: c
______________________________________________________________________________
CHAPTER 15
1) Interoceptors are found in
a) blood vessels
b) visceral organs
c) muscles
d) all of these choices e) none of these choices
Answer: d
2) Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activities by
1. increasing activities in effector tissue.
2. decreasing activities in effector tissue.
3. changing the direction of impulse conduction across synapses.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) Both 1 and 2
Answer: d
3) The autonomic nervous system is NOT involved in controlling a) exocrine glands.
b) skeletal muscle. c) cardiac muscle. d) smooth muscle. e) endocrine glands.
Answer: b
4) Which of the following descriptions of a preganglionic neuron is NOT correct?
a) Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve. b) Has myelinated axons.
c) Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
d) Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
e) Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia. Answer: e
5) A postganglionic neuron in the ANS
a) releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell. b) is the first part of an autonomic motor
pathway.
c) has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
d) has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves. e) carries information into the sympathetic chain
ganglia.
Answer: a
6) Which of the following types of neurons would normally have the shortest axon?
a) Somatic motor neurons
b) Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons c) Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
d) Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
e) Somatosensory neurons.
Answer: d
7) Which of the following does NOT describe the sympathetic division of the ANS?
a) Ganglia primarily found in the head
b) Stimulates sweat glands
c) Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessel walls d) Short preganglionic neurons
e) Thoracolumbar output
Answer: a
8) Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the ANS?
a) Long preganglionic neurons
b) Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessels walls c) Vagus nerve output
d) Ganglia found near visceral effectors
e) Sacral spinal cord output
Answer: b
9) Which of the following terms is used to designate an effector that is innervated by both the
parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the ANS?
a) Preganglionic stimulation b) Biganglion excitation
c) Multi-autonomic output d) Bipolar innervation
e) Dual innervation Answer: e
10) Which of the following is NOT a sympathetic prevertebral ganglion?

a) Celiac ganglion
b) Ciliary ganglion
c) Superior mesenteric ganglion d) Inferior mesenteric ganglion e) All are prevertebral ganglia
Answer: b
11) Which of the following is NOT a parasympathetic terminal ganglion?
a) Ciliary ganglion
b) Pterygopalatine ganglion
c) Submandibular ganglion
d) Otic ganglion
e) All are parasympathetic terminal ganglia
Answer: e
12) The largest autonomic plexus is called the
a) superior mesenteric plexus. b) renal plexus.
c) cardiac plexus.
d) celiac plexus.
e) hypogastric plexus. Answer: d
13) This autonomic plexus is located anterior to the fifth lumbar vertebra and serves the pelvic viscera.
a) Inferior mesenteric plexus b) Renal plexus
c) Celiac plexus
d) Hypogastric plexus
e) Superior mesenteric plexus Answer: d
14) These are structures containing sympathetic preganglionic axons that connect the anterior ramus of
the spinal nerve with the ganglia of the sympathetic trunk.
a) Lumbar splanchnic nerve b) Greater splanchnic nerve
c) Inferior cervical ganglion d) White rami communicantes e) Gray rami communicantes
Answer: d
15) These ganglia contain the cell bodies of the parasympathetic postganglionic neurons that serve the
parotid salivary glands.
a) Ciliary ganglia
b) Pterygopalatine ganglia c) Submandibular ganglia d) Otic ganglia
Answer: d
16) The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are
a) nicotine and adrenaline.
b) muscarine and acetylcholine.
c) norepinephrine and muscarine.
d) norepinephrine and acetylcholine. e) somatostatin and nicotine.
Answer: d
17) Acetylcholine is released by _____________postganglionic neurons and is removed from the synaptic
cleft at a ______ rate than norepinephrine.
a) sympathetic; slower
b) sympathetic; faster
c) parasympathetic; slower
d) parasympathetic; faster
e) both parasympathetic and sympathetic; slower
Answer: d
18) Which of the following are types of cholinergic receptors?
a) Nicotinic and adrenergic receptors b) Muscarinic and somatic receptors c) Adrenergic and somatic
receptors d) Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors e) Somatostatic and nicotinic receptors
Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
19) Autonomic tone is regulated by the
a) medulla oblongata. b) cerebellum.
c) cerebrum.
d) vermis.
e) hypothalamus. Answer: e
20) Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the parasympathetic division of the
ANS?
a) Decreased heart rate
b) Airway dilation
c) Decreased pupil diameter
d) Increased secretion of digestive juices e) Increased gastric motility
Answer: b
21) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the longer lasting and more widespread effects
observed with sympathetic activation versus parasympathetic activation?
a) Norepinephrine is more slowly removed from synapses than ACh.
b) Additional norepinephrine is released from the adrenal gland.
c) Greater divergence occurs in sympathetic neural pathways.
d) Blood flow to hypothalamus is decreased when sympathetic activation occurs.
Answer: d
22) Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the sympathetic division?
a) Increased heart rate
b) Airway constriction
c) Decreased blood flow to kidneys and gastrointestinal tract
d) Increased blood flow to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, liver and fat e) Increased blood glucose level
Answer: b
38) Describe the possible ways in which the axon of a sympathetic preganglionic neuron connects with
postganglionic neurons after it reaches the sympathetic trunk ganglia.
The axon may 1) synapse with postganglionic neurons in the first ganglion it reaches, 2) ascend or
descend to higher or lower ganglia via sympathetic chains, or 3) continue without synapsing through
sympathetic trunk ganglia to end at a prevertebral ganglion and synapse with postganglionic neurons
there. 4) also pass, without synapsing, through the sympathetic trunk ganglion and a prevertebral ganglion
and then extend to chromaffin cells of the adrenal medullae that are functionally similar to sympathetic
postganglionic neurons.
39) Explain why the sympathetic division of the ANS has more widespread and longer-lasting effects than
the parasympathetic division.
Answer:
A single sympathetic preganglionic fiber has many axon collaterals (branches) and synapses with 20 or
more postganglionic neurons, whereas a parasympathetic preganglionic neurons synapses with only 4 or 5
postganglionic neurons. The sympathetic neurotransmitter, norepinephrine is broken down more slowly
than acetylcholine, so postganglionic cells are stimulated longer. The sympathetic division also stimulates
release of catecholamines (mostly epinephrine) from the adrenal medulla, thus enhancing the sympathetic
effects via the endocrine system. Also, more visceral effectors have receptors for catecholamines
(norepinephrine and epinephrine) than for acetylcholine.
40) Describe the potential roles that autonomic neurons that release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine
perform in the ANS. Be sure to describe the types of postsynaptic effector cells including their receptors
that could be potentially activated by acetylcholine release from autonomic neurons.
Answer:
The neuron could be a preganglionic neuron in either division of the ANS, a parasympathetic
postganglionic neuron, or one of a few sympathetic postganglionic neurons (innervating sweat glands).
The postsynaptic cell must possess either nicotinic or muscarinic receptors in order to respond to
acetylcholine. This effector cell could be a postganglionic neuron of either division, a parasympathetic
visceral effector, or one of the few sympathetic effectors stimulated by cholinergic neurons.
41) Patient with chronic skeletal muscle spasms was placed on an anticholinergic medication. After taking
the medication, the patients muscle spasms ceased, but now the patient reports a loss of muscle strength.
In addition, the patients resting heart rate has increased. Explain the effects of the medication the patient
received.
Answer:
Medications that block the action of acetylcholine are described as anticholinergic. Since ACh stimulates
skeletal muscles to contract, blocking ACh should help reduce muscle spasms. In high enough doses, the
medication might prevent the normal contraction of skeletal muscles and could, perhaps, cause a flaccid
paralysis. Heart rate increases because ACh usually slows heart rate so a drug that blocks AChs effect
would lead to increased heart rate. Perhaps a medication that specifically blocked nicotinic receptors
would eliminate the muscle spasms without causing increased heart rate.
42) Explain how blood flow to tissues changes during the fight-or-flight response. Answer:
During the fight-or-flight response, vasodilation occurs in those vessels serving the heart and skeletal
muscles crucial to fight or flight. In contrast, vasoconstriction occurs in those vessels serving areas less
vital to fighting/fleeing like skin, digestive organs, and the urinary system. The changes in blood vessel
diameter are induced by activation of the sympathetic division of the ANS.
43) Compare and contrast the overall responses of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
Answer:
The sympathetic division acts to prepare the body for maximal skeletal muscle activity to either fight or
flee a perceived threat. Some of the changes stimulated by sympathetic activation include: 1) increased
heart rate and contractions, 2) shunting blood away from the digestive organs to the lungs, liver, heart and
skeletal muscles allowing these organs to increase function, 3) bronchodilation leads increased O
2
delivery to the blood, and 4) liver also releases more glucose. These changes increase blood oxygen and
glucose to provide the body cells with the ability to increase ATP production. The parasympathetic system
tends to return the body to normality, and to prepare the body to acquire energy. For instance, the
parasympathetic division stimulates increased blood flow to digestive, reproductive and urinary organs.
More digestion and defecation occurs, sexual activity can be supported, and urine production is increased.
Decreased heart rate and blood pressure also occur.
63) Which disorder is characterized by the digits becoming ischemic after exposure to cold or emotional
stress?
a) Raynauds phenomenon
b) Autonomic dysreflexia
c) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy d) Diabetic neuropathy
e) Horners Syndrome
Answer: a
64) Which disorder is characterized by spontaneous pain, painful hypersensitivity to light touch, and
excessive coldness and sweating in the affected area?
e) Horners Syndrome
Answer: c
65) Which disorder is a type of neuropathy often caused by long term diabetes mellitus?
e) Horners Syndrome
Answer: d
66) Which disorder involves the loss of sympathetic innervation to one side of the face due to inherited
mutation, injury or disease?
e) Horners Syndrome
Answer: e
67) Based on your knowledge of ANS receptors, explain how beta blockers are able to manage conditions
such as hypertension (high blood pressure)?
Answer:
Norepinephrine and epinephrine binds to beta adrenergic receptors on heart muscle cells and stimulate an
increase in heart rate and force of contraction. Beta blockers are antagonists of norepinephrine and
epinephrine meaning that beta blockers can bind and block their effects, leading to a decrease in heart rate
and force of contraction and lowering of blood pressure.
68) Thoracolumbar is another name for which division of ANS?
a) Parasympathetic
b) Sympathetic
c) Somatic nervous system d) Autonomic ganglia
e) Craniosacral division
Answer: b
69) Which division of ANS innervates the sweat glands and the hair follicles?
a) Parasympathetic
b) Sympathetic
c) Neither division innervates these effectors d) Both divisions innervate these effectors
Answer: b
70) Which endocrine gland is directly innervated by sympathetic preganglionic axons?
a) Pituitary gland b) Hypothalamus c) Pancreas
d) Adrenal gland e) Thyroid gland
Answer: d
71) Which of the following types of adrenergic receptors are only found in brown adipose tissue where
their activation stimulates heat production?
a) -adrenergic b) -adrenergic c) -adrenergic d) -adrenergic e) -adrenergic
1
2
1
2
3
Answer: e
72) Which of the following types of adrenergic receptors are found on cardiac muscle fibers where their
activation stimulates increased force and rate of contraction of the heart?
a) -adrenergic b) -adrenergic c) -adrenergic
1
2
1
d) -adrenergic e) -adrenergic
2
3
Answer: c
73) The chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla possess this type of receptor which makes them
responsive to the ACh released by preganglionic sympathetic neurons.
a) muscarinic receptors b) nicotinic receptors c) -adrenergic
1
d) -adrenergic
2
e) -adrenergic Answer: b
3
74) Catechol-O-methyltransferase is an enzyme that performs which of the following functions in the
ANS?
a) Inactivates ACh in a synapse.
b) Activates ACh in a synapse.
c) Inactivates norepinephrine in a synapse.
d) Activates norepinephrine in a synapse.
e) Promotes uptake of norepinephrine back into the synaptic knob.
Answer: c
75) Which of the following statements describes a common response of an autonomic effector during the
fight-or-flight response?
a) Gastric motility and secretory activity increases.
b) Blood vessels serving skeletal muscles constrict.
c) Adipose tissues stores away triglycerides for later use.
d) The pupils of the eyes dilate.
e) Blood vessels serving the kidneys and digestive organs dilate.
Answer: d
76) Which of the following lists the components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper sequence of
activation?
a) receptor sensory neuron integrating center motor neuron effector b) receptor motor neuron
integrating center sensory neuron effector c) effector sensory neuron integrating center motor
neuron receptor d) integrating center receptor sensory neuron motor neuron effector e) receptor
sensory neuron motor neuron effector integrating center
Answer: a
77) One of the main differences between a somatic reflex and autonomic reflex is the type of effectors
that are activated. The effectors in somatic reflexes are _______, while the effectors in autonomic reflexes
are _______________.
a) skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
b) striated muscles; smooth muscle and glands
c) skeletal muscles and glands; smooth muscle and cardiac muscle d) glands; skeletal muscles, smooth
muscle, and cardiac muscle
e) skeletal muscles; smooth muscle only
Answer: a
78) Which the following regions of the brain serve as the major control and integration center of the
ANS?
a) cerebrum
b) cerebellulum c) thalamus
d) hypothalamus e) pituitary
Answer: d
79) Stimulation of these areas of the hypothalamus would result in decreased heart rate, lower blood
pressure, constriction of the pupils, and increased digestive activity.
a) posterior and lateral areas
b) posterior and medial areas
c) anterior and lateral areas
d) anterior and medial areas
e) any area of the hypothalamus
Answer: d
______________________________________________________________________________
CHAPTER 16
1) How many sensory modalities can a single sensory neuron have?
a) One
b) Dozens
c) Hundreds d) Thousands e) None
Answer: a
2) Which of the following is NOT an event in the process of sensation?
a) Stimulation of sensory receptors b) Transduction of the stimulus
c) Activation of effector
d) Generation of impulses
e) Integration of sensory input. Answer: c

3) These are sensory receptors that are located in blood vessels and visceral organs and their signals are
not usually consciously perceived.
a) Exteroreceptors b) Interoceptors c) Proprioceptors
d) Nociceptors
e) None of the answers selections are correct
Answer: b
4) This type of sensory receptor responds to stimuli resulting from physical or chemical damage to tissue.
a) Photoreceptors
b) Mechanoreceptors c) Proprioceptors
d) Nociceptors
e) Thermoreceptors
Answer: d
5) The process in which the frequency of nerve impulses in the first-order neuron decreases during
prolonged stimulus is called
a) selectivity. b) adaptation. c) perception. d) modality.
e) transduction.
Answer: b
6) Which of the following is a type of slowly adapting touch receptor?
a) Meissner corpuscle b) Merkel disc
c) Pacinian corpuscle d) Hair root receptor e) Photoreceptor
Answer: b
7) Which of the following is a type of a rapidly adapting touch receptor?
a) Meissner corpuscle
b) Merkel disc
c) Pacinian corpuscle
d) Both Meissner corpuscle and Merkel disc e) All of these choices
Answer: a
8) What layer of the skin contains the cold thermoreceptors?
a) Stratum lucidum b) Dermis
c) Stratum basale d) Stratum corneum e) Hypodermis
Answer: c
9) Visceral pain results from stimulating

a) nociceptors.
b) Pacinian corpuscles. c) exteroreceptors.
d) proprioceptors.
e) thermoreceptors.
Answer: a
10) Which of the following statements about proprioception is INCORRECT?
a) Proprioceptive sensations allow us to estimate the weight of certain objects.
b) Proprioceptors are slowly adapting receptors.
c) Proprioceptors are embedded in muscles and tendons
d) Proprioceptive sensations allow us to determine position of body structures relative to each other.
e) Proprioceptive sensations are used to activate the nervous system in response to threatening situations.
Answer: e
11) The main function of muscle spindles is
a) to sense tension applied to a tendon. b) to sense referred pain.
c) to perceive cutaneous sensations.
d) to sense changes in muscle length. e) to sense muscle fatigue.
Answer: d
12) Which of the following are proprioceptors found in the articular capsules of synovial joints?
a) Tendon organs
b) Gamma motor neurons c) Muscle spindles
d) Kinesthetic receptors e) Tactile receptors
Answer: d
13) The postcentral gyri of the parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex
a) are considered the primary gustatory area. b) receive body sensory information.
c) control voluntary body movements.
d) receive visual information.
e) provide the ability to move the eyeballs. Answer: b
14) Which of the following types of neurons conduct impulses from the peripheral somatic sensory
receptors to the brain stem or spinal cord?
a) First order neuron
b) Second order neuron c) Third order neuron d) Fourth order neuron e) Higher order neuron
Answer: a
15) Which of the following types of neurons conduct sensory impulses from the brain stem and spinal
cord to the thalamus?
b) Second order neuron c) Third order neuron d) Fourth order neuron e) Higher order neuron
Answer: b
16) Which of the following types of neurons conduct impulses from the thalamus to the primary
somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex?
b) Second order neuron c) Third order neuron d) Fourth order neuron
e) Higher order neuron
Answer: c
17) Proprioception means awareness of
a) visual acuity.
b) body temperature. c) color vision.
d) body position.
e) pain.
Answer: d
18) Which of the following type of neurons have their cell bodies in the spinal cord or brain stem and
their axons terminating in neuromuscular junctions?
a) upper motor neurons
b) lower motor neurons
c) somatic sensory neurons
d) preganglionic autonomic neurons e) postganglionic autonomic neurons
Answer: c
19) Which of the following types of neurons have axons that extend from the brain to the lower motor
neurons?
a) upper motor neurons
b) primary neurons
c) somatic sensory neurons
d) preganglionic autonomic neurons e) postganglionic autonomic neurons
Answer: a
37) The basal nuclei regulate skeletal muscle movements by
a) suppressing unwanted movements.

b) influencing muscle tone.
c) initiating and terminating movements.
d) both suppressing unwanted movements and influencing muscle tone. e) All of these choices
Answer: e
38) Which of the following does NOT occur during sleep?
a) Sympathetic division of ANS is stimulated. b) Decreased heart rate.
c) Decreased blood pressure.
d) Skeletal muscle tone decreases.
e) Dream during REM sleep. Answer: a
39) You are sitting on a sunny Florida beach experiencing the sensation of warmth. Describe the
anatomical structures and physiological events that allow you to perceive the warmth of the sun.
Answer:
Thermoreceptors, which are distributed throughout the skin, must be present to sense the thermal stimuli.
The warmth from the sun stimulates the warm thermoreceptors to become activated by warming the
receptive field of thermoreceptors and stimulating the production of graded potentials. When the graded
potentials reach threshold, they trigger nerve impulses in the themoreceptor, which serves as a first-order
neuron that transmits the information to the CNS where a second order neuron conducts impulses via
neurons of the spinothalamic tract to the thalamus. From the thalamus, third order neurons conduct
impulses to the primary somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex where the impulses are perceived as a
feeling of warmth.
40) Synesthesia is a condition in which stimulation of one sensory modality results in perception of
another. One man reportedly tastes shapes. Many synesthetic people hear colors. Based on what you
know about sensation, propose a physiological mechanism that explains the phenomenon of synesthesia.
Usually a given receptor can only convey a single type of sensory modality. For instance, photoreceptors
can usually only relay impulses related to light intensity. Some receptors can relay different modalities
based on the type of stimulus received. Lamellated corpuscles relay information about pressure in
response to low frequency stimulation but relay information about vibration in response to higher
frequency stimulation. Perhaps some types of synesthesia result from anomalous receptors that can send
very different information in response to different frequency or intensity of stimulation. A stronger
explanation for the phenomenon may be related to the fact that sensations are interpreted based on which
part of the cerebral cortex receives the impulses from the 3rd order neuron in the sensory pathway.
Synesthetic patients may have unusual distributions of neurons to the cerebral cortex. Most people would
sense the taste sweet because their 3rd order neuron carrying those impulses terminated in the gustatory
area. The man who tastes shapes may have a sweet neuron that terminates in the shape area of the
visual cortex.
41) A viral infection has damaged a patients tectospinal tract. What signs of this damage probably helped
the physicians diagnose the problem?
The tectospinal tract is an extrapyramidal, or indirect, motor pathway. It conveys nerve impulses from the
superior colliculus to contralateral skeletal muscles that move the head and eyes in response to visual
stimuli. One sign of such damage would be the inability of the patient to turn his head toward a flashing
light. The patient would also be unable to follow movements of the physicians finger with his eyes. The
patient would probably be unable to read words scrolling across a screen. Each of these deficits relates to
the inability to move the head or eyes in response to visual stimuli and would alert the physician to
damage of the tectospinal tract.
42) Describe the role of the reticular activating system in sleep, arousal, and consciousness. Answer:
A variety of sensory stimuli feed into the RAS, which feeds into the thalamus and cerebral cortex to
increase neuronal activity, causing arousal from sleep and maintaining consciousness. During periods of
high ATP use, adenosine accumulates and binds to A1 receptors, inhibiting cholinergic neurons in the
RAS, and inducing sleep.
43) Compare short-term memory versus long-term memory with regard to specific changes that are
thought to occur in the brain.
Short-term memory depends more on electrical and chemical events in the brain than on structural
changes, such as forming new synapses. Long-term memory is thought to involve high-frequency
stimulation within the hippocampus at glutamate synapses. Nitric oxide and other neurotransmitters may
also be involved. For long term memory, neurons develop new presynaptic terminals, larger synaptic end
bulbs, and more dendritic branches.
44) What category of receptor cell is used to sense touch, vibration and pressure?
a) photoreceptor
b) mechanoreceptor c) thermoreceptor d) chemoreceptor e) osmoreceptor
Answer: b
45) What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in temperature?
a) photoreceptor
Answer: c
46) What category of receptor cell is used to sense light?
a) photoreceptor
Answer: a
47) What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in the concentration of chemicals in body
fluids?
a) photoreceptor
b) mechanoreceptor c) thermoreceptor d) chemoreceptor e) proprioceptor
Answer: d
48) What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in the osmotic pressure of body fluids?
a) photoreceptor
b) mechanoreceptor c) thermoreceptor d) chemoreceptor
e) osmoreceptor Answer: e
49) All of the following types of stimuli are sensed by free nerve endings EXCEPT
a) pain.
b) tickle.
c) temperature. d) pressure.
e) itch.
Answer: d
50) Which of the following types of stimuli is sensed using encapsulated nerve endings?
a) pain
b) tickle
c) temperature d) itch
e) vibration
Answer: e
51) Which of the following is an example of a specialized sensory receptor cell that is known as a
separate cell?
a) Meissner corpuscle
b) photoreceptor cell in retina c) Pacinian corpuscle
d) hair root plexus
e) astrocyte
Answer: b
62) Which disorder is characterized by a persons breathing repeatedly stopping for 10 or more seconds
while sleeping?
a) narcolepsy b) insomnia c) sleep apnea d) coma
e) amnesia Answer: c
63) Which condition is a state of unconsciousness in which a persons responses to stimuli are reduced or
absent?
a) narcolepsy b) insomnia c) sleep apnea d) coma
e) amnesia
Answer: d
64) Which condition is characterized by a lack of memory for events occurring after the trauma or disease
that caused the condition?
a) narcolepsy
b) retrograde amnesia c) sleep apnea
d) coma
e) anterograde amnesia
Answer: e
65) What are the three types of sensory receptors categorized based on their location and the origin of
stimuli that activate them? What is the nature of the stimuli that cause their excitation?
(1) Exteroceptors are sensitive to stimuli originating outside the body and provide information about the
external environment such as hearing, vision, smell, taste, touch, pressure and temperature. (2)
Interoceptors monitor conditions in the internal environment such as blood pressure. The sensations are
usually not consciously perceived. (3) Proprioceptors are located in muscles, joints, tendons and the inner
ear. They provide information about body position by detecting muscle tension, the position and
movement of the joints.
66) List the six types of sensory receptors categorized based on the type of stimulus they detect and
describe the types of stimuli that each type can detect.
(1) Mechanoceptors: detect mechanical stimuli such as touch, pressure, and stretch. (2) Thermoreceptors:
detect changes in temperature. (3) Nociceptors: respond to painful stimuli. (4) Photoreceptors: detect
light. (5) Chemoreceptors: detect chemicals in the mouth (taste), nose (smell) and body fluids. (6)
Osmoreceptors: detects osmotic pressure of body fluids.
67) What is phantom limb sensation and describe why the patient experiences these sensations? Answer:
When a limb has been amputated, the patient still feels the sensations of itch, pressure, tingling or pain as
if the limb is still there. It is believed that the cerebral cortex interprets impulses arising in the proximal
portions of sensory neurons that previously carried impulses from the limb as coming from the nonexisting limb. Another possible explanation is that the brain contains networks of neurons that generate
sensations of body awareness.
68) The process of sensation begins in a __________ , which can be either a primary sensory neuron or a
separate cell.
a) sensory receptor cell.
b) signal transducer cell.
c) secondary sensory neuron. d) effector cell.

e) association neuron.
Answer: a
69) ______________ is a term used to describe pain that is felt at a site remote from the place of origin.
a) Referred pain b) Visceral pain c) Slow pain
d) Fast pain
e) Sympathetic pain Answer: a
70) The integration centers for sensations that are consciously perceived (like vision, smell, taste, and
pain) are found in the
a) cerebellum.
b) basal nuclei.
c) pontine nuclei. d) cerebral cortex. e) thalamus.
Answer: d
71) Which of the following regions of the brain compares the intentions of skeletal muscle movements
with the actual movement performed and then sends out corrective feedback to upper motor neurons?
a) hypothalamus b) thalamus
c) basal nuclei d) cerebellum
e) cerebrum
Answer: d
72) All of the following result from some form of malfunction by the basal nuclei EXCEPT
a) Huntingtons disease.
b) Parkinsons disease.
c) Tourettes syndrome.
d) obsessive-compulsive disorder. e) synesthesia.
Answer: e
73) Infants spend approximately 50% of their sleeping time in a) stage one NREM sleep.
b) stage two NREM sleep. c) stage three NREM sleep. d) stage four NREM sleep. e) REM sleep.
Answer: e
74) Which of the following stages of non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep is considered the deepest
level of sleep?
a) Stage one
b) Stage two
c) Stage three
d) Stage four
e) None of the selections are correct.
Answer: d
75) During the process of learning, the brain shows a characteristic called ______, which is the ability to
change in response to intensive usage for a particular task like memorizing a page of physiology notes.
a) bradykinesia b) hypokinesia c) plasticity
d) amnesia
e) palsy
Answer: c
__________________________________________________________
CHAPTER 17
1) Olfactory receptors are found
a) throughout the nasal cavity.
b) only in the superior portion of the nasal cavity. c) only in the inferior portion of the nasal cavity. d)
from the vestibule to the pharynx.
e) only in the mid-nasal ridges.
Answer: b
2) The smell receptors that actually bind the odorants and begin signal transduction are located on
a) olfactory hairs.
b) glial cells.
c) basal stem cells.
d) Bowmans glands.
e) gustatory receptor cells.
Answer: a
3) These cells provide physical support, nourishment and electrical insulation for olfactory receptors cells.
a) Dendritic cells
b) Glial cells
c) Basal stem cells d) Bowmans glands e) Supporting cells
Answer: e
4) Adaptation of the olfactory sense to the continued presentation of an odorant
a) occurs rapidly.
b) increases sensitivity to that odorant. c) occurs slowly.
d) does not occur.

e) enhances gustation.
Answer: a
5) The olfactory tract
a) projects directly to the primary olfactory cortex and to the limbic system and hypothalamus. b)
conducts impulses directly to the thalamus.
c) contains only motor neurons.
d) receives information from the taste buds.
e) consists of the olfactory and vestibulocochlear nerves.
Answer: a
6) These receptor cells provide for the sense of taste.
a) Olfactory hair cells b) Pacinian corpuscles c) Basal stem cells
d) Hair cells
e) Gustatory cells
Answer: e
7) Taste buds are found on
a) the epiglottis.
b) the pharynx.
c) the soft palate.
d) both epiglottis and pharynx. e) All of these choices
Answer: e
8) Which of the following types of papillae do NOT contain taste buds?
a) Vallate
b) Fungiform
c) Foliate
d) Filiform
e) Circumvallate
Answer: d
9) Which of the following nerves conducts impulses associated with the sense of gustation?
a) Vestibulocochlear b) Oculomotor
c) Vagus
d) Trigeminal
e) Spinal accessory
Answer: c
10) Which is NOT considered an accessory structure of the eye?
a) Eyelids
b) Eyelashes
c) Lacrimal apparatus d) Eyebrows
e) Retina
Answer: e
11) Which of the following is the space between the upper and lower eyelids?
a) Palpebral fissure
b) Levator palpebrae c) Lacrimal caruncle d) Lateral commissure e) Conjunctiva
Answer: a
12) This is a thin mucous membrane that protects the inner aspect of the eyelids and the portion of the
sclera covering the anterior surface of the eyeball.
a) Palpebral fissure
b) Conjunctiva
c) Lateral commissure d) Cornea
e) Choroid
Answer: b
13) Infection of a sebaceous ciliary gland can result in
a) blood shot eyes.
b) inhibition of tear production. c) a sty.
d) glaucoma.
e) blindness.
Answer: c
14) List the cells, structures, and fluids that light must pass through to reach the photoreceptor cells.
Answer:
Cornea, Aqueous humor, Pupil, Lens, Vitreous humor, Ganglion cells, Bipolar cells, Photoreceptor cells.
15) Which is the correct order in the flow of tears?
a) Lacrimal gland, lacrimal sac, lacrimal duct, superior or inferior lacrimal canal, nasolacrimal duct, nasal
cavity
b) Lacrimal gland, lacrimal duct, superior or inferior lacrimal canal, nasolacrimal duct, lacrimal sac, nasal
cavity
c) Lacrimal gland, lacrimal duct, nasolacrimal duct, superior or inferior lacrimal canal, lacrimal sac, nasal
cavity
d) Lacrimal gland, lacrimal duct, superior or inferior lacrimal canal, lacrimal sac, nasolacrimal duct, nasal
cavity
e) Lacrimal gland, lacrimal sac, nasolacrimal duct, superior or inferior lacrimal canal, lacrimal duct, nasal
cavity
Answer: d
16) How many extrinsic eye muscles are responsible for moving each eye?
a) 10 b) 12 c) 6 d) 4 e) 20
Answer: c
17) This is the transparent layer on the anterior of the eyeball through which the iris can be observed.
a) Retina
b) Choroid
c) Sclera
d) Ciliary body e) Cornea
Answer: e
18) The main function of this structure is to regulate the amount of light entering the eyeball through the
pupil.
a) Retina
b) Cornea
c) Iris
d) Choroid
e) Ciliary muscle
Answer: c
19) The lens is made of layers of proteins called
a) choroids.
b) ciliary bodies. c) crystallins.
d) cones.
e) rods.
Answer: c
20) This lies between the lens and the retina.
a) Vitreous chamber b) Anterior chamber c) Anterior cavity d) Cornea
e) Aqueous humor Answer: a
21) This outer layer of dense connective tissue serves to protect the inner parts of the eyeball.
a) Sclera b) Pupil c) Iris

d) Cornea e) Retina
Answer: a
22) This darkly pigmented structure reduces light reflection within the eyeball.
a) Sclera
b) Conjunctiva c) Iris
d) Choroid
e) Retina
Answer: d
23) Which of the types of receptors listed below is primarily used for detecting light rays under bright
light conditions?
a) olfactory hair cells b) rods
c) cones
d) ganglion neurons e) amacrine cells
Answer: c
24) The first step in the visual transduction process that occurs in the retina is
a) activation of amacrine cells.
b) absorption of scattered light by the pigmented epithelium. c) interruption of the dark current.
d) absorption of light by photopigments.
e) generation of action potentials in the optic nerve.
Answer: d
25) Binocular vision
a) gives better depth perception.
b) provides more accurate color vision.
c) is only seen in humans.
d) occurs when one eye focuses on two separate objects. e) is all of these choices
Answer: a
26) When sound waves strike this structure, they cause it to vibrate back and forth.
a) cochlea
b) pinna
c) tympanic membrane
d) organ of Corti
e) vestibulocochlear nerve
Answer: c
27) Which of the structures listed below converts vibrations in the endolymph into action potentials?
a) macula
b) pinna
c) tympanic membrane d) organ of Corti
e) cupula
Answer: d
28) Which of the following structures carries action potentials generated by sound transduction?
a) vagus nerve
b) basilar membrane
c) tympanic membrane
d) organ of Corti
Answer: e
29) Which of the following structures senses change in rotational acceleration of the head in order to help
maintain dynamic equilibrium?
a) cochlea
b) semicircular canals
c) maculae of the vestibule d) organ of Corti
Answer: b
Outline the neural pathway for olfaction.
Odorant molecules dissolve in mucus secreted by the olfactory epithelium and bind to receptors on
olfactory hairs, triggering a generator potential in the olfactory receptor cells. In some cases the binding
activates a G protein in the plasma membrane that activates adenylate cyclase that opens sodium ion
channels. If the generator potential is above threshold, action potentials are generated in the axons of the
olfactory receptor cells (first-order neurons). These axons transmit impulses via cranial nerve I through
the olfactory foramina of the cribiform plate and terminate in the olfactory bulbs, where they synapse
with second-order neurons. Axons from these neurons form the olfactory tracts, which transmit impulses
to the olfactory area in the temporal lobe. Other important brain areas that receive impulses from the
olfactory tracts include the limbic system, the hypothalamus, and the orbitofrontal area.
54) Emily was very ill with an upper respiratory infection. Her roommate gave her some chicken soup to
make her feel better. Neither Emily nor her roommate realized that the soup was too hot to eat until after
Emily put a spoonful in her mouth. Now Emily says she cant taste anything. Why? When will she be able
to taste again?
Answer:
Emily probably already had trouble smelling her food because of her infection. The hot soup probably
damaged her taste buds, especially the ones on the front and sides of her tongue. Those taste buds are
more sensitive to sweet, sour and salty tastes. The ones at the back of the tongue are sensitive to bitter
tastes, and the ones in the throat are sensitive to umami tastes. The taste buds are epithelial tissues and
should heal in a few days or so. When they do, Emily will be able to taste again.
55) List and briefly describe the three processes that are used by the eye to form a clear image of object
on the retina.
Answer:
1) Refraction involves bending light rays as they move through different media in the eye to eventually
form a focused inverted image on the central fovea, 2) Accommodation of the lens for near/distance
vision involves changing the shape of lens using the ciliary muscle to help focus light rays on retina, and
3) Constriction of pupil involves an ANS reflex that helps prevent scattering of light through edges of
lens.
56) Deafness can occur for many reasons. Use your knowledge of the structure of the ear and the process
of detecting sound, to propose a mechanism for how arthritis could cause deafness.
Answer:
Arthritis results when synovial joints are damaged and can no longer move freely. The joints between the
ossicles, found in the middle ear, are synovial joints. If they became stiff from arthritis and their
movements were limited, sound waves striking the tympanic membrane would not be efficiently
transferred to the oval window of the cochlea. Without that transmission, the fluid in the cochlea cannot
move the hair cells on the organ of Corti. If those hair cells do not move, no impulses relaying
information about sound can be generated.
57) Differentiate between static and dynamic equilibrium. Describe the inner ear structures involved in
receiving and transducing sensations involved in maintaining both types of equilibria.
Answer:
Static equilibrium is the maintenance of body position relative to gravity. Dynamic equilibrium is the
maintenance of body position in response to movement. Hair cells in the maculae of the utricle and
saccule bend are used to detect changes that help maintain static equilibrium. Hair cells in the cristae of
semicircular ducts are used to detect changes involved in maintaining dynamic equilibrium.
80) During embryonic development, the lens of the eye develops directly from an invagination of the lens
placodes called the
a) optic groove.
b) optic vesicle.
c) optic stalk.
d) prosencephalon. e) lens vesicle.
Answer: e
81) During embryonic development, the first portion of the ear to develop is the
a) middle ear. b) internal ear. c) external ear.

d) bony labyrinth.
e) membranous labyrinth.
Answer: b
82) How many days after fertilization do the ears begin to develop?
a) 5 b) 150 c) 10 d) 22 e) 55
Answer: d
83) During embryonic development, the middle ear develops from a structure called the first
a) pharyngeal pouch. b) pharyngeal cleft. c) otic placodes.
d) otic vesicle.
e) rhombencephalon.
Answer: a
84) During embryonic development, the external ear develops from a structure called the first
a) pharyngeal pouch. b) pharyngeal cleft. c) otic placodes.
d) otic vesicle.
e) rhombencephalon.
Answer: b
85) Presbycusis refers to age-associated
a) progressive loss of hearing in one ear. b) progressive loss of hearing in both ears. c) progressive loss of
near-vision.
d) otitis media.
e) vertigo.
Answer: b
86) Cataract leads to blindness due to
a) loss of transparency of the lens. b) a high intraocular pressure.
c) photophobia.
d) scotoma.
e) trachoma. Answer: a
87) Which of the following molecules is capable of detecting light rays that strike the photopigments in
the retina?
a) cGMP
b) opsin portion of rhodopsin c) cis-retinal
d) melanin
e) retinal isomerase
Answer: c
88) Which of the following statements accurately describes the changes in the membrane potential of a
photoreceptor cell when light rays strike its photopigments?
a) The photoreceptor cell undergoes rapid depolarization.
b) The photoreceptor cell undergoes hyperpolarization.
c) A graded potential proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus occurs in the photoreceptor cell.
d) No changes in the membrane potential occur.
e) The photoreceptor cell creates action potentials at a frequency proportional to the intensity of the light
stimulus.
Answer: b
89) The axons of the ganglion neurons of the retina terminate in the
a) optic disk.
b) optic chiasm.
c) visual cortex of cerebrum.
d) lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.
e) primary somatosensory area of cerebral cortex.
Answer: d
90) Which sensory structure in the inner ear is capable of sensing rapid rotation of your head to the left?
a) macula of the saccule
b) macule of the utricle
c) crista of a semicircular duct
d) organ of Corti
e) None of these choices can sense angular acceleration.
Answer: c
91) Which of the following are structures of the membranous labyrinth of the inner that are involved in
dynamic and static equilibrium?
a) vestibule
b) saccule
c) cochlear duct
d) semicircular ducts
e) More than one of the above is correct.
Answer: e
92) Which of the following structures contains otoliths (ear stones)?
a) macula of the saccule

b) cupula of the crista
c) tectorial membrane of the organ of Corti d) basilar membrane of the cochlear duct e) tympanic
membrane
Answer: a
93) The vestibular nuclei of the brainstem that control equilibrium receives sensory information from all
the following areas EXCEPT the
a) utricle and saccule.
b) semicircular ducts.
c) eyes
d) proprioceptors in the neck muscles. e) nociceptors in the distal limbs.
Answer: e
94) Nerve impulses for the sense of hearing are initiated in the spiral organ (organ of Corti) and then
travel through the _________ to the _________.
a) cochlear branch of cranial nerve VIII; pons
b) cochlear branch of cranial nerve VIII; medulla oblongata c) vestibular branch of cranial nerve VIII;
pons
d) vestibular branch of cranial nerve VIII; medulla oblongata e) facial nerve; auditory cortex
Answer: b
______________________________________________________________________________
CHAPTER 18
1) Which of the following is NOT a function of a hormone?
a) Regulates chemical composition and volume of the internal environment b) Regulates metabolism
c) Regulates glandular secretions
d) Produces electrolytes
e) Controls growth and development
Answer: d
2) When a hormone is present in excessive levels, the number of target-cell receptors may decrease. This
is called
a) receptor recognition. b) sensory adaptation. c) paracrine regulation. d) up-regulation.
e) down-regulation.
Answer: e
3) A type of hormone that acts on neighboring cells without entering the bloodstream. 1. Local hormone
2. Paracrine
3. Autocrine
4. Circulating hormone
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 4 only
e) Both 1 and 2
Answer: e
4) Which of the following are a group of lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol?
a) Steroids
b) Thyroid hormones c) Nitric oxide
d) Amine hormones e) Peptide hormones
Answer: a
5) Which of the following is an eicosanoid? 1. Prostaglandin
2. Leukotriene
3. Glycoprotein
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) Both 1and 2
Answer: d
6) Which of the following statements correctly compares water-soluble hormones with lipid- soluble
hormones?
a) Both types of hormone are carried in the blood attached to a carrier protein.
b) Both types of hormone almost always stimulate increases in mRNA transcription. c) Only watersoluble hormones use second messengers.
d) Only water-soluble hormones require a receptor.
e) Lipid-soluble hormones are not found in the bloodstream.
Answer: c
7) When one hormone opposes the action of another hormone, it is called a(n)
a) synergistic effect. b) permissive effect. c) antagonistic effect. d) circulating effect. e) local effect.
Answer: c
8) Which of the following is NOT a common method of stimulating hormone secretion from an endocrine
cell?
a) Signals from the nervous system
b) Chemical changes in the blood
c) Mechanical stretching of the endocrine cell
d) Releasing hormones.
e) Both Signals from the nervous system and Chemical changes in the blood
Answer: c
9) What controls hormone release from the anterior pituitary gland?
a) Muscle contraction
b) The peripheral nervous system
c) Hormones released from the hypothalamus
d) Action potentials from the thalamus
e) Chemical changes in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
Answer: c
10) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates general body growth?
a) Growth hormone
b) Prolactin
c) Thyrotropin
d) Luteinizing hormone
e) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Answer: a
11) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates milk production?
a) Luteinizing hormone
b) Prolactin
c) Thyrotropin
d) Melanocyte stimulating hormone e) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Answer: b
12) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol?
a) Leutinizing hormone
b) Prolactin
c) Insulin-like growth factors
d) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone e) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Answer: e
13) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the gonads to secrete progesterone
and/or testosterone?
a) Luteinizing hormone
b) TSH
c) Corticotropin
d) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
e) Growth hormone Answer: a
14) The pars distalis and the pars tuberalis comprise the
a) anterior pituitary gland. b) hypothalamus.
c) posterior pituitary gland. d) adrenal gland.
e) thyroid gland. Answer: a
15) How many hormones do the five types of anterior pituitary cells secrete?
a) 5
b) 7
c) 10
d) 12
e) unlimited
Answer: b
16) Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes human growth hormone?
a) Thyrotrophs b) Gonadotrophs c) Somatotrophs d) Lactotrophs e) Corticotrophs
Answer: c
17) Which of the following pairs of hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?
a) Prolactin and growth hormone
b) Melatonin-stimulating hormone and oxytocin
c) Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
d) Follicle-stimulating hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone e) Prolactin and ACTH
Answer: c
18) The amount of ADH that is secreted by the posterior pituitary glands varies with
a) blood osmotic pressure. b) blood calcium levels. c) blood oxygen levels.

d) blood glucose levels.
e) All of these choices.
Answer: a
19) Which of the following hormones opposes the action of parathyroid hormone?
a) Thyroid-stimulating hormone b) Testosterone
c) Insulin
d) Calcitonin
e) Calcitriol Answer: d
20) Which of the following statements does NOT describe a step in the synthesis and secretion of T and
3
T ?
4
a) Iodide trapping
b) Oxidation of iodide
c) Coupling of T and T d) Synthesis of calcitonin e) Iodination of tyrosine
1
2
Answer: d
21) Parathyroid hormone is the major regulator of the plasma concentration of which of the following
ions?
a) Calcium
b) Sodium
c) Potassium d) Chloride e) Manganese
Answer: a
22) Which of the following conditions would result from hyposecretion of aldosterone?
a) Decreased heart rate
b) Decreased airway dilation
c) Dehydration
d) Decreased oxygen delivery to the brain e) Metabolic acidosis
Answer: c
23) Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation?
a) Protein and fat breakdown
b) Glucose formation
c) Depression of immune responses
d) Reduction of inflammation
e) Increased production of all types of blood cells
Answer: e
24) Which blood glucose-lowering hormone is produced by the pancreatic islet cells?
a) Insulin
b) Glucagon
c) Somatostatin
d) Thyroid hormones e) Calcitonin
Answer: a
25) Which of the following hormones promotes increases in the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
a) Insulin
b) Adrenocorticotropic hormone c) Glucagon
d) Thyroid hormone
e) Calcitonin
Answer: d
26) Which of the following hormones are released in response to decreases in blood glucose
concentration?
a) Insulin
b) Luteinizing hormone c) Glucagon
d) Parathyroid hormone e) Calcitonin
Answer: c
27) Which of the following hormones play key regulatory roles in the bodys long-term response to
stress?
a) Insulin, Glucagon, Thyroid hormone b) hGH, Insulin, Aldosterone
c) Cortisol, hGH, Thyroid hormone
d) Parathyroid hormone, Cortisol, hGH e) Calcitonin, Thyroid hormone, Insulin
Answer: c
28) Which of the following is NOT a common response of the body to long-term stress?
a) Increased lipolysis
b) Increased glycogenesis
c) Increased gluconeogenesis
d) Increased digestive activities
e) Increased breakdown of proteins
Answer: d
29) Which of the following hormones is an amine hormone derived from serotonin?
a) Melatonin
b) Melanin
c) Glucose
d) Glucocorticoid e) Eicosanoid
Answer: a
42) Describe the role of the hypothalamus in the regulation of hormone release from the pituitary gland.
Answer:
The hypothalamus is the integrating center for much sensory input. It secretes releasing and inhibiting
hormones which diffuse into the hypophyseal portal system to regulate secretion of all hormones from the
anterior pituitary gland. The hypothalamus also contains receptors that monitor blood osmotic pressure
and neural input from reproductive structures. Integration of this input leads to production of ADH and
OT by neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus. These hormones are then transported through the
hypothalamohypophyseal tract to be secreted by exocytosis from the posterior pituitary gland in response
to nerve impulses.
43) Enuresis, or bedwetting, may be caused by psychological, anatomical or physiological factors. In the
latter case, vasopressin is often prescribed and is a very effective treatment. What is vasopressin? How
can it prevent enuresis?
Answer:
Vasopressin is also called antidiuretic hormone or ADH. In addition to its vasoconstrictive effects, ADH
causes the kidneys to reabsorb more water. Someone who does not make enough ADH may not be able to
contain all of the urine produced while they are sleeping. If they are not awakened by the pressure in their
urinary bladder, they may wet the bed instead of getting up and going to the toilet. Since vasopressin
helps the body reabsorb more water, a persons bladder should not get so full that they end up wetting the
bed while sleeping.
44) What is a goiter? Explain how goiters can develop in both hyposecretion and hypersecretion
disorders. In these hyposecretion and hypersecretion disorders, would you expect the levels of other
regulatory hormones involved in control of thyroid hormone secretion to be high or low? Why?
Answer: A goiter is an enlarged thyroid gland. Hyposecretion goiters are usually due to insufficient iodide
in the diet. Resulting low levels of thyroid hormones cause increased TRH and TSH until adequate
thyroid activity is restored. Graves' disease causes hyperthyroidism by producing an antibody that mimics
TSH. Thyroid enlargement occurs, and production of thyroid hormones increases. TRH and natural TSH
remain low due to negative feedback, but TSH- mimicking antibody stimulates increased thyroid
hormone production and secretion.
45) Compare the metabolic changes that occur during starvation with those that occur in diabetes
mellitus.
Answer: A starving person is lacking energy-providing nutrient sources, and so, must use structural
components of the body as energy sources. The diabetic consumes adequate nutrients, but due to the lack
of insulin, is unable to move glucose into cells, and so, cannot use the glucose as an energy source. In
both cases, energy generation becomes dependent on non-glucose sources, such as fatty acids and amino
acids. Mobilization and metabolism of fats and proteins for energy production purposes leads to
ketoacidosis, weight loss, and hunger.
46) Which of the following hormones is produced in zone of adrenal gland labeled B?
a) cortisol
b) epinephrine
c) norepinephrine d) glucagon
e) androgens
Answer: a
61) The following is a possible progression of which of the following disorders: Inadequate dietary iodine
intake low level of thyroid hormone in blood increased TSH secretion thyroid gland enlargement.
a) Acromegaly
b) Tetany
c) Goiter
d) Cushings syndrome e) Addisons disease
Answer: c
62) Which of the following is an abnormal condition of excess androgen secretion, observed primarily in
women, that is characterized by the presence of excessive body and facial hair in a male pattern?
a) Acromegaly b) Tetany
c) Hirsutism
d) Gynecomastia e) Myxedema
Answer: c
63) A condition characterized by excessive development of mammary glands in a male is called
a) acromegaly.
b) pheochromocytoma. c) hirsutism.
d) gynecomastia.
e) myxedema.
Answer: d
64) Hypersecretion of a hormone by the endocrine gland marked in the diagram results in a type of
depression that affects some people during the winter months, when the day length is short, known as
a) thyroid crisis (storm).
b) general adaptation syndrome (GAS). c) seasonal affective disorder (SAD).
d) Addisonian crisis.
e) posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
Answer: c
65) Seasonal affective disorder is due to hypersecretion of which following hormones by the endocrine
gland marked in the diagram?
a) testosterone b) glucagon
c) melatonin d) aldosterone e) vasopressin
Answer: c
69) Leptin is a hormone produced by the
a) placenta.
b) ovaries.
c) testes.
d) pituitary gland. e) adipose tissue.
Answer: e
70) Which of the following germ layers does the anterior pituitary gland develop from during embryonic
development?
a) Mesoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) A combination of two of the layers
e) None of the answer selections are correct
Answer: c
71) Which of the following germ layers does the thyroid gland develop from during embryonic
development?
a) Mesoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Ectoderm
Answer: b
72) Which of the following germ layers does the adrenal medulla develop from during embryonic
development?
a) Mesoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Ectoderm
Answer: c
73) Endocrine tissues that secrete steroid hormones all are derived from
a) mesoderm.
b) endoderm.
c) ectoderm.
d) a combination of two or more layers. e) none of the layers that are listed.
Answer: a
74) Which of the following glands is NOT an endocrine gland?
a) pituitary gland b) thyroid gland
c) adrenal gland
d) sebaceous gland e) pineal gland
Answer: d
75) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of an exocrine gland?
a) Initially secretes its products into a duct.
b) Secretes materials onto outer surface of the body.
c) Secretes materials into the lumen of hollow organs.
d) Its secretory products are carried in body fluids to distant target cells. e) All the answer selections
describe characteristics of exocrine glands.
Answer: d
76) Since insulin released from the pancreas is carried in the bloodstream to distant target cells, like
muscle cells, it is considered to be a(n)
a) local hormone.
b) circulating hormone. c) paracrine.
d) autocrine.
e) neurotransmitter.
Answer: b
77) Which of the following is an example of hormone that is secreted from an endocrine gland in
response to a chemical change in the blood?
a) Parathyroid hormone release from the parathyroid gland. b) Insulin release from the pancreas.
c) Glucagon release from the pancreas.
d) ADH release from the posterior pituitary gland.
e) All the answer selections are correct. Answer: e
78) All the following hormones are produced and secreted by the ovaries EXCEPT
a) estradiol.
b) estrone.
c) progesterone.
d) inhibin.
e) follicle-stimulating hormone.
Answer: e
79) Which of the following is a protein hormone produced by the testes that inhibits secretion of folliclestimulating hormone by the anterior pituitary gland?
a) chorionic gonadotropin b) testosterone
c) estradiol
d) inhibin
e) relaxin Answer: d
80) Which of the following hormones commonly increases in the plasma of older individuals due to an
inadequate dietary intake of calcium?
a) estrogen
b) progesterone
c) parathyroid hormone d) calcitonin
e) insulin
Answer: c
______________________________________________________________________________
CHAPTER 22
1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic and immune system?
a) Draining excess interstitial fluid
b) Maintaining water homeostasis in the body c) Transporting dietary lipids
d) Carrying out immune responses
Answer: b
2) What is the major difference between lymph and interstitial fluid?
a) Composition of electrolytes
b) White blood cells are present in lymph
c) Location
d) Types of proteins present
e) Red blood cells are present in interstitial fluid
Answer: c
3) Lack of resistance is also known as:
a) Pathogenic b) Innate
c) Specific
d) Susceptibility e) Lymphatic
Answer: d
4) Describe how lymphatic capillaries are one-way only vessels. Answer:
The ends of the endothelial cells in the wall of the lymphatic capillary overlap. When pressure is higher in
the interstitial fluid than in the lymph, the cells separate slightly allowing interstitial fluid into the vessel.
When pressure is greater inside, the cells are tightly packed, not allowing the lymph to cross back into the
interstitial fluid.
5) What causes lymph from the small intestines to appear white?
a) Proteins
b) WBC
c) RBC
d) Lipids
e) Carbohydrates
Answer: d
6) Which of the following is not considered an organ of the immune system?
a) Spleen
b) Lymph node
c) Red bone marrow d) Thymus
e) Pancreas
Answer: e
7) The left subclavian vein receives lymph from
a) Left axillary vein b) Lumbar trunk
c) Jugular trunk
d) Thoracic duct
e) Right lymphatic duct Answer: d
8) The lymph from the right foot empties into the

a) Left axillary vein b) Lumbar trunk
c) Jugular trunk
d) Thoracic duct
e) Right lymphatic duct
Answer: d
9) The skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps are used in
a) Lymphatic system
b) Cardiovascular system
c) Immune system
d) Lymphatic and Immune systems only
e) Lymphatic, Immune and Cardiovascular systems
Answer: e
10) Which organ produces a hormone that promotes maturation of T cells?
a) Spleen
b) Lymph node
c) Red bone marrow d) Thymus
e) Pancreas
Answer: d
11) In which part of the thymus are T cells thought to die?
a) Capsule
b) Trabeculae
c) Epithelial cells
d) Hassalls corpuscles
e) T cells do not die in the thymus
Answer: d
12) Which portion of the lymph node does not contain any lymphatic nodules.
a) Inner cortex b) Outer cortex
Answer: a
13) Which of the following is a function of the spleen?
a) Removes worn out blood cells b) Circulates lymph
c) Cleanses interstitial fluid
d) Cleanses lymph
e) Traps microbes with mucus Answer: a
14) Which of these does NOT provide a physical or chemical barrier?
a) Macrophages b) Saliva
c) Urine
d) Mucus
e) Stratified squamous epithelium Answer: a
15) Describe the barriers used in innate defense. Answer:
Barriers used by the innate defense include epidermis, mucus, hairs, cilia, lacrimal apparatus, saliva,
urine, vaginal secretions, sebum, perspiration and gastric juices.
16) Which of these provides a non-specific cellular disease resistance mechanism?

a) Macrophages
b) T lymphocytes
c) B lymphocytes
d) Memory B cells
e) Stratified squamous epithelium
Answer: a
17) Which anti-microbial substances reduce viral replication (in uninfected cells)?
a) Transferrins
b) Perforins
c) Complement proteins d) Defensins
e) Interferons
Answer: e
18) Which anti-microbial substances promote cytolysis, phagocytosis and inflammation?
a) Transferrins
b) Perforins
c) Complement proteins d) Defensins
e) Interferons
Answer: c
19) Which cell kills infected body cells and tumor cells?
a) Natural killer cells b) Perforins
c) platelets
d) Mucus
e) Antimicrobial proteins Answer: a
20) Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation?
a) Redness
b) Pain
c) Heat
d) Mucus production e) Swelling
Answer: d
21) Which of the following intensifies the effect of interferons and promotes the rate of repair?
a) Complement proteins b) Perforin
c) Fever
d) Macrophages
e) Natural killer cells Answer: c

22) Which does NOT induce vasodilation and permeability (increased fluid flow) to an infection site?
a) Histamines b) Kinins
c) Perforin
d) Leukotrienes e) Complement
Answer: c
23) When B and T cells are fully developed and mature, they are described as being
a) Immunocompetent
b) Pluripotent stem cells c) Primary lymphatic cells d) Specifically promoted e) Germ cells
Answer: a
24) Which induces the production of a specific antibody?
a) Phagocytosis b) Antigen
c) Antibody
d) Defensin
e) Immunoglobulin Answer: b
25) Which stimulates an immune response ONLY when it is attached to a large carrier molecule?
a) Epitope
b) Antigen
c) Hapten
d) MHC antigen
e) CD8 Answer: c
26) Genetic recombination generates diversity in what part (s) of the immune system?
a) Antigen receptors
b) MHC antigen
c) Hapten
d) MHC antigen and antigen receptors e) Epitopes
Answer: d
27) Which class of cells includes macrophages, B cells and dendritic cells?
a) Antigen presenting cells b) Primary lymphocytes
c) T cells
d) RBC
e) Epitope cells Answer: a
28) To become activated, which requires being bound to a foreign antigen AND simultaneous
costimulation?
a) B Cell
b) T Cell
c) Interferon
d) MHC antigen
e) Antigen presenting cell
Answer: b
29) Which cells display CD4 proteins and interact with MHC Class II antigens?
a) Cytotoxic T cells b) Helper T Cells c) Memory T Cells d) MHC antigens e) B cells
Answer: b
30) Which T cell toxin fragments DNA?
a) Perforin
b) Tumor antigen c) Interferons
d) Lymphotoxin e) Toxin T
Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
31) List the five actions of antibodies. Answer:
Antibodies can act as a neutralizing agent, they can immobilize bacteria, agglutinate and precipitate the
antigen, activate the complement and enhance phagocytosis.
32) Which class of antibodies is mainly found in sweat, tears, breast milk and GI secretions?
a) IgG b) IgA c) IgM d) IgD e) IgE
Answer: b
33) Which leads to inflammation, enhancement of phagocytosis and lysis of microbes?
a) Classical complement system b) Alternative complement system
c) Apoptosis
d) Classical and Alternative complement systems e) Hapten activation
Answer: d
34) Which action makes microbes more susceptible to phagocytosis?
a) Opsonization b) Cytolysis
c) Inflammation d) Complement e) Hybridoma
Answer: a
35) Which is an inactive, self responsive cell?

a) Deleted cell
b) Hybridoma cell c) Epitopic cell
d) Anergy cell
e) Natural killer cell
Answer: d
47) An acute allergic response can lead to:
a) transplantation
b) retroviruses
c) anaphylactic shock d) passive immunity e) active immunity
Answer: c
48) Natural exposure to an infectious agent leads to:
a) Passive immunity
b) Active immunity
c) Both of these choices d) None of these choices
Answer: b
49) Which class of antibodies indicates a recent invasion?
a) IgA b) IgE c) IgM d) IgD e) IgG
Answer: c
50) Which is part of the bodys second line of defense?
a) Mucous cells
b) Germ cells
c) B and T Lymphocytes d) Natural killer cells
Answer: d
51) Which is the most variable cell in the immune system?
a) Natural killer cell b) Monocyte
c) RBC
d) Lymphocyte
e) Macrophage Answer: d
52) The primary response will peak how many days after an exposure?
a) 1 day or less b) 27
c) 1017
d) 2030
e) Over a month
Answer: c
53) Which type of immunity defends against any type of invader?
a) Nonspecific
b) Specific
c) Cell mediated
d) Antibody mediated immunity e) None of these choices
Answer: a
54) The ability of an antigen to react specifically with the antibodies or cells it has provoked is called
a) Specificity
b) Immunogenicity c) Reactivity
d) Epitopes
e) Immune Response
Answer: c
55) Which is a small hormone that can stimulate or inhibit many normal cell functions?
a) Enzyme b) Kinins c) Cytokine d) MHC
e) Leukocyte Answer: c
75) Which type of adaptive immunity will result from intravenous injection of immunoglobulins?
a) naturally acquired active immunity
b) naturally acquired passive immunity c) artificially acquired active immunity d) artificially acquired
passive immunity e) None of these choices
Answer: d
76) Which type of adaptive immunity will result from mother-to-baby IgA transfer via breast feeding?
a) naturally acquired active immunity
b) naturally acquired passive immunity c) artificially acquired active immunity d) artificially acquired
passive immunity e) None of these choices
Answer: b
77) Natural passive immunity is associated with which of the following?
a) Vaccination
b) Exposure to a microbe resulting in antibody formation c) Receiving booster shots
d) Transfer of IgG from mother to fetus
e) Intravenous injection of antibodies
Answer: d
78) Which cells increase the permeability of blood vessels by releasing histamine?
a) neutrophils b) eosinophils c) lymphocytes d) mast cells
e) macrophages Answer: d
79) Which cytokine released by macrophages acts on the hypothalamus to raise the body temperature
during fever?
a) Interleukin-1
b) Interleukin-2
c) Interleukin-4
d) Gamma interferon e) Perforin
Answer: a
80) Which immunoglobulin is a pentamer? a) IgG
b) IgM c) IgD d) IgA
Answer: b
81) Antigens that induce an allergic reaction are called
a) lymphotoxin b) perforin
c) granulysin d) interleukin-1 e) allergen
Answer: e
82) Which cell is considered to be the most important cell in the immune system?
a) Cytotoxic T Cells b) B lymphocytes
c) T Helper cells
d) Eosinophils
e) macrophages Answer: c
______________________________________________________________________________
CHAPTER 23
1. Which of the following is NOT part of the upper respiratory system?
A) Nose
B) Oral cavity
C) Pharynx
D) Trachea
E) Nasal meatuses
Ans: D
2. The conducting zone does NOT act to
A) Clean air of debris
B) Conduct air into the lungs
C) Add water to air
D) Warm air
E) Does all of these choices
Ans: E
3. The nose connects with the pharynx through the
A) Septal cartilage
B) External nares
C) Choanae
D) Uvula
E) Nasal meatuses
Ans: C
4. Which of the following is a passageway for air, food and water?
A) Pharynx
B) Larynx
C) Paranasal sinuses
D) Trachea
E) Esophagus
Ans: A
5. The opening to the pharynx from the mouth is called
A) Palatine
B) Hypopharynx
C) Meatuses
D) Fauces
E) Vestibule
Ans: D
6. This structure prevents food or water from entering the trachea.
A) Arytenoid cartilage
B) Epiglottis
C) Nasopharynx
D) Thyroid cartilage
E) Paranasal sinus
Ans: B
7. During swallowing, which structure rises?

A) Pharynx
B) Esophagus
C) Trachea
D) Palatine tonsils
E) Primary bronchi
Ans: A
8. These are triangular pieces of mostly hyaline cartilage located at the posterior and superior border of
the cricoid cartilage.
A) Corniculate cartilage
B) Arytenoids cartilage
C) Cricotracheal cartilage
D) Cuneiform cartilage
E) Laryngeal cartilage
Ans: B
9. Pitch is controlled by
A) Vibration of the vocal chords
B) Tension of the vocal chords
C) Layers of cartilage in the vocal chords
D) Arrangement of the vocal chords
E) None of these choices
Ans: B
10. This is located anterior to the esophagus and carries air to the bronchi.
A) Trachea
B) Larynx
C) Nasopharynx
D) Pharynx
Ans: A
11. This is the primary gas exchange site.
A) Trachea
B) Bronchiole
C) Nasal sinuses
D) Alveolus
E) Bronchus
Ans: D
12. Which of the below tissues maintains open airways in the lower respiratory system?
A) stratified squamous epithelium with keratin
B) ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells
C) hyaline cartilage
D) mucus membrane
E) bone
Ans: C
13. Which of the below tissues provides the functions of the inner layer of the conducting organs?
A) stratified squamous epithelium with keratin
C) ciliated cuboidal epithelium with goblet cells
D) transitional epithelium with cilia
E) columnar connective tissue with goblet cells
Ans: B
14. The point where the trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi is a ridge called
A) Carina
B) Secondary bronchioles
C) Parietal pleura
D) Visceral pleura
E) Diaphragm
Ans: A
15. Which of the below tissues forms the exchange surfaces of the alveolus?
A) stratified squamous epithelium
C) simple squamous epithelium
D) hyaline cartilage
E) columnar connective tissue with goblet cells
Ans: C
16. These are cells of the alveoli that produce surfactant.
A) Type I alveolar cells
B) Type II alveolar cells
C) Type III alveolar cells
D) Surface cells
E) Macrophages
Ans: B
17. This is direction of diffusion of gases at capillaries near systemic cells.
A) Oxygen into blood , Carbon dioxide into blood
B) Oxygen out of blood , Carbon dioxide into blood
C) Oxygen into blood , Carbon dioxide out of blood
D) Oxygen out of blood , Carbon dioxide out of blood
Ans: B
18. This is direction of diffusion of gases at the alveoli of the lungs.
A) Oxygen into blood , Carbon dioxide into blood
B) Oxygen out of blood , Carbon dioxide into blood
C) Oxygen into blood , Carbon dioxide out of blood

D) Oxygen out of blood , Carbon dioxide out of blood
Ans: C
19. Exhalation begins when
A) Inspiratory muscles relax
B) Diaphragm contracts
C) Blood circulation is the lowest
D) Both Inspiratory muscles relax and Diaphragm contracts
E) All of these choices
Ans: A
20. This means the lungs and the chest wall expand easily.
A) High surface tension
B) Low surface tension
C) High compliance
D) Low compliance
Ans: C
21. The conducting airways with the air that does not undergo respiratory exchange are known as the
A) Inspiratory volume
B) Expiratory reserve volume
C) Minimal volume
D) Residual volume
E) Respiratory dead space
Ans: E
22. This is the sum of the residual and the expiratory reserve volume.
A) Total lung capacity
B) Functional residual capacity
C) Inspiratory capacity
D) Vital capacity
E) Minimal volume
Ans: B
23. Which of the following is NOT a factor that the rate of pulmonary and systemic gas exchange
depends on?
A) Partial pressure difference of the gases
B) Surface area for gas exchange
C) Diffusion distance
D) Molecular weight and solubility of the gases
E) Force of contraction of diaphragm
Ans: E
24. Which is the dominant method of carbon dioxide transport?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Bound to hemoglobin
Bound to oxygen
Dissolved in plasma as a gas
Dissolved in plasma as bicarbonate ions
Diffusion
Ans: D
25. When blood pH drops then the amount of oxyhemoglobin _______ and oxygen delivery to the tissue
cells ________________.
A) Increases, increases
B) Increases, decreases
C) Decreases, increases
D) Decreases, decreases
E) Does not change, does not change
Ans: C
26. Which is a factor that does NOT affect hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen?
A) pH of blood
B) Partial pressure of the oxygen
C) Amount of oxygen available
D) Temperature
E) Respiratory rate
Ans: E
55. Describe the inward forces of elastic recoil, and explain why the lungs do not normally collapse
during expiration.
Ans: Elastic recoil is the recoil of elastic fibers stretched during inspiration and the pull of the surface
tension of alveolar fluid. Intrapleural pressure is always subatmospheric during normal breathing, which
tends to pull lungs outward and to keep alveolar pressure from equalizing with atmospheric pressure.
Surfactant in alveolar fluid decreases surface tension to help prevent collapse.
56. Why is epinephrine injected as a treatment for the respiratory signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis?
Ans: Epinephrine enhances sympathetic activity to dilate airways and decrease airway resistance, which
had been elevated by the effects of histamine on the bronchioles. It also raises blood pressure, which
enhances oxygen delivery to tissues by increasing flow.
57. Describe and explain the effects of smoking on the functioning of the respiratory system.
Ans: Nicotine constricts terminal bronchioles to increase airway resistance, as does the increased mucus
secretion and swelling of the mucosa. Smoke inhibits the movement of cilia, which allows buildup of
substances and microbes normally removed. Over time, smoking leads to destruction of elastic tissue,
which decreases compliance, and ultimately to the effects of emphysema.
58. Describe the neural, chemical, and physical changes that increase the rate and depth of ventilation
during exercise.
Ans: Anticipation of exercise generates neural input to the limbic system. Sensory input is provided from
proprioceptors and motor input is provided from the primary motor cortex. As the partial pressure of
oxygen falls due to increased consumption, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide and the temperature
increase due to metabolic activity in muscle fibers. Also, carbon dioxide is added via the buffering of the
hydrogen ions produced as a result of lactic acid production. Chemoreceptors sense the changes in partial
pressure and notify the medullary rhythmicity center to increase the rate and depth of breathing.
59. In chronic emphysema, some alveoli merge together and some are replaced with fibrous connective
tissue. In addition, the bronchioles are often inflamed, and expiratory volume is reduced. Using proper
respiratory system terminology, explain at least four reasons why affected individuals will have problems
with ventilation and external respiration.
Ans: Answers could include: reduced compliance (reduces ability to increase thoracic volume); increased
airway resistance (decreases tidal volume); decreased diffusion due to increased diffusion distance,
decreased surface area, and changes in partial pressures of gases (altering gradients).
69. This is a spasmodic contraction of the diaphragm followed by spasmodic closure of the rima glottidis,
which produces a sharp sound on inhalation:
A) sneezing
B) coughing
C) laughing
D) hiccupping
E) Valsalva maneuver
Ans: D
70. This is an inhalation followed by many short convulsive exhalations during which the rima glottidis
remains open and the vocal folds vibrate, accompanied by characteristic facial expressions:
A) sneezing
B) yawning
C) hiccupping
D) laughing
Ans: D
71. This is an inhalation followed by many short convulsive exhalations during which the rima glottidis
remains open and the vocal folds vibrate, accompanied by characteristic facial expressions:
A) sneezing
B) yawning
C) hiccupping
D) crying
Ans: D
72. This is a series of convulsive inhalations followed by a single prolonged exhalation. The rima
glottidis closes earlier than normal after each inhalation so only a little air enters the lung with each
inhalation:
A) sobbing
B) sneezing
C) coughing
D) hiccupping
Ans: A
73. This is a deep inhalation through a widely opened mouth producing an exaggerated depression of the
mandible, the precise cause of which is unknown:
A) sobbing
B) yawning
C) coughing
D) laughing
E) hiccupping
Ans: B
74. This is a long drawn and deep inhalation immediately followed by a shorter but forceful exhalation:
A) sobbing
B) yawning
C) sighing
D) hiccupping
Ans: C
75. This is a spasmodic contraction of the muscles of exhalation that forcefully expels air through the
nose and mouth:
A) sobbing
B) sneezing
C) coughing
D) sighing
Ans: B
76. This is a long drawn and deep inhalation followed by a complete closure of the rima glottidis, which
results in a strong exhalation, pushing the rima glottidis open and sending a blast of air through the upper
respiratory passages:
A) crying
B) sneezing
C) coughing
D) sighing
Ans: C
80. Where is the rhythmicity center for respiration?
A) in the medulla
B) in the pons
C) in the cerebrum
D) in the hypothalamus
E) in the cerebellum
Ans: A
81. With which body system does the respiratory system work to regulate the pH of body fluids?
A) muscular
B) digestive
C) nervous
D) endocrine
E) urinary
Ans: E
______________________________________________________________________________
CHAPTER 24
1) Which of following processes is the function of the smooth muscle layer of the digestive system?
a) Ingestion
b) Secretion
c) Mixing and propulsion d) Absorption
Answer: c
2) Which of following processes is the primary function of the mouth?
a) Ingestion
b) Secretion
c) Mixing and propulsion d) Absorption
Answer: a
3) Which of following processes is the primary function of the villi of the small intestine?
a) Ingestion
b) Secretion
c) Mixing and propulsion
d) Absorption
Answer: d
4) Which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid to soften food?
a) Teeth
b) Salivary glands c) Liver
d) Gallbladder
e) Pharynx
Answer: b
5) Which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid that functions to emulsify dietary fats?
a) Teeth
d) Gallbladder
e) Pharynx
Answer: c
6) Which of the following accessory organs stores bile?
a) Teeth
d) Gallbladder
e) Pharynx
Answer: d
7) The capability of the GI tract to move material along its length is called 1. Motility
2. Propulsion
3. Digestion
4. Defecation
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 4 only
e) Both 1 and 2
Answer: e
8) This layer of the GI tract is composed of areolar connective tissue containing blood and lymph vessels.
a) Mucosa
b) Lamina propria c) MALT
d) Muscularis
e) Epithelium
Answer: b
9) This layer of the GI tract is composed of areolar connective tissue that binds the mucosa to the
muscularis.
a) Submucosa
b) Lamina propria
c) Epithelium
d) Serosa
Answer: a
10) This layer functions by secreting a lubricating fluid.
a) Serosa
b) Submucosa c) Muscularis d) Mucosa
e) MALT
Answer: a
11) These are composed of prominent lymphatic nodules that function in the immune response.
a) Mucosa
b) Lamina propria c) MALT
d) Submucosa
e) Serosa Answer: c
12) This plexus is located between the longitudinal and circular smooth muscle layers of the muscularis.
a) ENS
b) Myenteric plexus c) Submucosal plexus d) Digestive plexus e) Absorption plexus
Answer: b
13) Why do emotions such as anger or fear slow digestion?
a) Because they stimulate the parasympathetic nerves supplying the GI tract b) Because they stimulate the
somatic nerves that supply the GI tract
c) Because they stimulate the sympathetic nerves that supply the GI tract
d) They do not affect digestion
e) Because all emotions are controlled by the Vagus nerve Answer: c
14) This portion of the peritoneum drapes over the transverse colon and coils of the small intestine.
a) Greater omentum
b) Falciform ligament c) Lesser omentum
d) Mesentery
e) Mesocolon
Answer: a
15) This portion of the peritoneum attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm.
a) Greater omentum b) Falciform ligament c) Lesser omentum

d) Mesentery
e) Mesocolon
Answer: b
16) This portion of the peritoneum is largely responsible for carrying blood and lymph vessels to the
intestines.
a) Greater omentum b) Falciform ligament c) Lesser omentum
d) Mesentery
e) Mesocolon
Answer: e
17) The hard palate
1. is the anterior portion of the roof of the mouth.
2. is formed by the maxillae and palatine bones. 3. is covered by a mucous membrane.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) Both 1 and 2
Answer: e
18) Lateral to the base of the uvula in the mouth, this muscular fold runs posteriorly down the lateral sides
of the soft palate to the pharynx.
a) Uvula
b) Palatoglossal arch
c) Palatopharyngeal arch d) Parotid glands
e) Sublingual glands
Answer: c
19) In the mouth, the tooth sockets are lined with
a) Gingivae
b) Cementum
c) Periodontal ligament d) Pulp
e) Root
Answer: c
20) Deciduous molars are replaced by
a) Bicuspids
b) Molars
c) Incisors
d) Canines
e) Wisdom teeth
Answer: a
21) Which of the following contains skeletal muscle?
a) Muscularis b) Mucosa
c) Serosa
d) Submucosa
Answer: a
22) How many stages of deglutition are there? a) 2
b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 8
Answer: b
23) This structure of the stomach allows greater distension for food storage.
a) Cardia
b) Fundus c) Pylorus d) Rugae
e) Sphincter
Answer: d
24) Which of the following secrete hydrochloric acid?
a) Mucous cells b) Parietal cells c) Chief cells d) Serosa cells e) Chyme cells
Answer: b
25) This cell secretes the hormone that promotes production of hydrochloric acid.
a) Neck cell b) Chief cell c) G cell
d) Chyme cell e) Parietal cell
Answer: c
26) How long can food stay in the fundus before being mixed with gastric juices?
a) 10 minutes b) 20 minutes c) 30 minutes d) 45 minutes e) 1 hour
Answer: e
27) This major duct carries a fluid rich in bicarbonate ions.

a) Pancreatic duct
b) Hepatopancreatic duct c) Cystic duct
d) Bile duct
e) Hepatic duct
Answer: a
28) Which of the following pancreatic enzymes digests lipids?

a) Trypsin
b) Elastase
c) Lipase
d) Pepsin
Answer: c
29) This is found on the liver and is a remnant of the umbilical cord in a fetus.
a) Coronary ligament b) Falciform ligament c) Round ligament
d) Kupffer ligament e) Bile ductules
Answer: c
30) This is the principle bile pigment.
a) Stercobilin
b) Bilirubin
c) Biliverdin
d) Both Stercobilin and Bilirubin e) All of these choices
Answer: b
31) Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
a) Conversion of carbohydrates b) Protein metabolism
c) Storage of bilirubin
d) Phagocytosis
e) Storage of vitamins Answer: c
32) Which of the following small intestine cells secrete lysozyme?
a) Goblet cells
b) Absorptive cells c) Mucosa cells
d) Paneth cells
e) S cells
Answer: d
33) Brunner's glands
a) Secrete an acidic mucus b) Secrete an alkaline juice c) Secrete an alkaline mucus d) Secrete an acidic
juice
Answer: c
34) Which of the following enzymes acts to produce monoglycerides as one product?
a) Lipase
b) Amylase
c) Trypsin
d) Phosphatase e) Ligase
Answer: a
35) Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts on glycogen and starches?
a) Chymotrypsin b) Amylase
c) Trypsin
d) Phosphatase e) Nucleosidase
Answer: b
36) Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts on peptide bonds?
a) Chymotrypsin b) Amylase
c) Pepsin
d) Phosphatase
e) Nucleosidase Answer: a
37) This hormone functions to counteract the effect of gastric acid in the small intestine.
a) Pepsin
b) Secretin
c) Gastrin
d) Cholecystokinin e) Amylase
Answer: b
38) This hormone is stimulated by high levels of dietary fat in the small intestine.
a) Pepsin
b) Secretin
c) Gastrin
d) Cholecystokinin e) Amylase
Answer: d
39) This digestive aid, produced by the stomach, begins digestion by denaturing proteins. a) Bicarbonate
ion
b) mucus
c) Bile
d) Hydrochloric acid e) Water
Answer: d
40) This structure regulates the flow of material into the colon.
a) Ileocecal sphincter b) Pyloric sphincter c) Appendix
d) Sigmoid colon
e) Anal canal
Answer: a
41) Which of the following is NOT a primary function of the large intestine?
a) Mechanical digestion b) Chemical digestion c) Absorption
d) Feces formation
e) Regulation of blood glucose
Answer: e
56) Describe the structures and functions of the enteric nervous system. Answer:
The ENS consists of the submucosal plexus in the submucosa and the myenteric plexus in the muscularis.
Both contain sensory and motor neurons, as well as ANS postganglionic fibers of both divisions. The
myenteric plexus also contains parasympathetic ganglia. The submucosal plexus regulates movements of
the mucosa, secretion from glands in the gastrointestinal tract, and vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the
gastrointestinal tract. The myenteric plexus regulates gastric motility.
57) Explain why food does not normally go up into your nasal cavity or down into your lungs when you
swallow-even if you are standing on your head when you swallow.
Presence of food in the oropharynx stimulates the deglutition center in the medulla and pons to move the
soft palate and uvula upward to close off the nasopharynx, thus keeping food out of the nasal cavity. At
the same time, the larynx rises and the epiglottis moves down and back to seal off the larynx, which is
further closed by the vocal cords, thus keeping food from entering the lower respiratory tract.
58) Describe the role of the liver in protein metabolism. Answer:
Hepatocytes deaminate amino acids. The amine group is converted to toxic ammonia. Hepatocytes
convert the toxic ammonia to less toxic urea for excretion in urine. The liver also synthesizes many
proteins, including most plasma proteins.
59) Identify the protein-hydrolyzing enzymes in the digestive tract, and name their sources. Why are these
enzymes released in an inactive form?
Pepsin from the stomach, trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase, and elastase from the pancreas, and
aminopeptidase and dipeptidase from the small intestine are the proteases in the GI tract. The enzymes are
not activated until they are in the lumen of the stomach or small intestine because they would otherwise
digest the proteins in the cells that produce them.
60) Describe the structural characteristics of the small intestine that enhance its function as the major
absorber of nutrients.
Answer:
All structures increase surface area to increase the rate of reabsorption: great length (10' in living
humans), microvilli on plasma membrane of each epithelial cell, villi (fingerlike projections of mucosa),
and circular folds (permanent ridges in the mucosa).
__________________________________________________________
CHAPTER 26
1) Which is not a major function of the kidney?
a) regulation of blood ionic composition b) regulation of blood cell size
c) regulation of blood volume
d) regulation of blood pressure
e) regulation of blood pH
Answer: b
2) This is the formation of a new glucose molecule.
a) glycolysis
b) gluconeogenesis c) glucosamine
d) glucose
e) calcitriol
Answer: b
3) Which of the following is a waste product normally excreted by the kidneys?
a) urea
b) glucose
c) insulin
d) cholesterol
e) carbon dioxide
Answer: a
4) This is smooth dense irregular connective tissue that is continuous with the outer coat of the ureter.
a) adipose capsule b) renal capsule c) renal hilus

d) renal cortex
e) renal medulla
Answer: b
5) The portion of the kidney that extends between the renal pyramids is called the
a) renal columns b) renal medulla c) renal pelvis d) calyces
e) renal papilla
Answer: a
6) Which is the correct order of blood flow through the kidneys?
a) renal artery > segmental artery > interlobular artery > peritubular capillaries > afferent arterioles
b) interlobar arteries > arcuate arteries > glomerular capillaries > arcuate veins
c) arcuate veins > arcuate arteries > glomerular capillaries > renal vein
d) renal vein > segmental arteries > interlobar arteries > efferent arterioles
e) interlobar veins > afferent arterioles > efferent arterioles > glomerular capillaries
Answer: b
7) Which is the correct order of filtrate flow?
a) glomerular capsule, proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule (DCT),
collecting duct
b) loop of Henle, glomerular capsule, PCT, DCT, collecting duct
c) ascending limb of loop, PCT, DCT, collecting duct
d) collecting duct, DCT, PCT, collecting duct, glomerular capsule e) PCT, glomerular capsule, DCT,
collecting duct, loop of Henle
Answer: a
8) Which structure of the nephron reabsorbs the most substances?
a) glomerular capsule b) loop of Henle
c) ascending limb
d) collecting duct
e) proximal convoluted tubule
Answer: e
9) This is the structure of the nephron that filters blood.
a) glomerular capsule b) loop of Henle

c) ascending limb
d) collecting duct
e) renal corpuscle
Answer: a
10) This term means the return of substances into the blood stream from the filtrate.
a) reabsorption b) filtration
c) secretion
d) excretion
Answer: a
11) This is a nephron process that results in a substance in blood entering the already formed filtrate.
a) reabsorption b) filtration
c) secretion
d) excretion
Answer: c
12) This layer of filtration membrane is composed of collagen fibers and proteoglycans in a glycoprotein
matrix.
a) glomerular endothelial cells b) basal lamina
c) pedicels
d) filtration slits
e) slit membrane
Answer: b
13) This occurs when stretching triggers contraction of smooth muscle walls in afferent arterioles.
a) glomerular filtration rate b) tubulomerular feedback c) myogenic mechanism
d) renal autoregulation
e) capsular hydrostatic pressure
Answer: c
14) This occurs when a substance passes from the fluid in the tubular lumen through the apical
membrane, across the cytosol, and then into the interstitial fluid.
a) paracellular reabsoprtion b) transcellular reabsoprtion c) apical reasborption

d) basolateral reabsorption e) active transport
Answer: b
15) The proximal convoluted tubules reabsorb which percentage of filtered water?
a) 25% b) 50% c) 65% d) 80% e) 99%
Answer: c
16) Which of the following is NOT a way angiotensin II affects the kidneys?
a) It increases GFR
b) It can decrease GFR
c) It enhances reabsorption of certain ions d) It stimulates the release of aldosterone e) None of these
choices
Answer: a
17) Urea recycling can cause a buildup of urea in the
a) renal capsule
b) loop of Henle
c) ascending tubule d) renal medulla
e) renal pelvis
Answer: d
18) Increased secretion of hydrogen ions would result in a ______________ of blood ____________?
a) increase, pressure
b) decrease, volume
c) increase, sodium levels d) decrease, pH
e) increase, urea
Answer: d
19) Increased secretion of aldosterone would result in a ______________ of blood ____________?
a) increase, potassium
b) decrease, volume
c) increase, calcium levels d) decrease, pH
e) increase, sodium
Answer: e
20) An analysis of the physical, chemical, and microscopic properties of urine is called
a) urinalysis
b) filtration study
c) concentration study d) diuretic

e) osmolarity
Answer: a
21) Water accounts for which percentage of the total volume of urine?
a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 80% e) 95%
Answer: e
22) This is a test to measure kidney function.

a) Plasma creatinine b) Renal study
c) Kidney assay
d) Dialysis
e) Hilus study
Answer: a
23) This transports urine from the kidney to the bladder.
a) Urethra
b) Ureter
c) Descending loop of Henle d) Renal hilus
Answer: b
24) This layer of the ureter is composed of connective tissue, collagen and elastic fibers.
a) Mucosa
b) Transitional epithelium c) Lamina propria
d) Adventitia
e) Lamina elastica
Answer: c
25) This lies in the anterior corner of the trigone of the bladder.
a) Urethral sphincter
b) Adventitia bundle
c) Ureter
d) Internal urethral orifice
e) Muscularis bundle
46) Trace the flow of a water molecule through the nephrons from the afferent arteriole to the minor
calyx.
Answer:
The water would flow from the afferent arteriole into the glomerulus, where it would be filtered into the
Bowmans capsule. From the Bowmans capsule, it would enter the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT).
Most of its companion water molecules would be reabsorbed into the blood from the PCT. The next part
of the trip would take the water molecule through the descending of the loop of Henle, where more of its
companion water molecules would be reabsorbed. From there, the water molecule would climb the
ascending loop of Henle and move into the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). Toward the end of the DCT
and most of the collecting duct, there are principal cells that respond to ADH and can reabsorb more
water molecules. If not reabsorbed in the DCT or the collecting duct, the water molecule would move into
the papillary duct that drains into the minor calyx.
47) Describe the structural features of the renal corpuscle that enhance its blood filtering capacity.
Answer:
Endothelial cells of the glomerular capillaries are fenestrated. Their basement membranes are part of the
filtering mechanism. Podocytes with filtration slits between pedicels wrap the glomerular capillaries. The
large surface area also contributes to filtering ability, as does the high glomerular hydrostatic pressure
created by the arrangement of the afferent and efferent arterioles, in which the diameter of the efferent
arteriole is smaller than that of the afferent arteriole.
48) Describe in detail how the renin angiotensin negative feedback loop helps regulate blood pressure and
glomerular filtration rate in response to dehydration.
Answer: Dehydration causes a decrease in blood volume and pressure, which then decreases glomerular
filtration rate (GFR). The juxtaglomerular( JG) cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus sense decreased
stretch and macula densa cells sense decreased water. The JG cells secrete renin, which converts
angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin I. The latter is converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin
converting enzymes in the lungs. Angiotensin II causes constriction of efferent arterioles, increased thirst,
greater ADH secretion from the posterior pituitary, and increased secretion of aldosterone from the
adrenal cortex. Blood volume is increased, which increases venous return, stroke volume, cardiac output,
and blood pressure. GFR is also increased.
49) Discuss the importance of countercurrent flow to the functioning of the nephron. Answer:
Countercurrent flow refers to the flow of fluid in opposite directions in parallel tubing (tubules and blood
vessels). The arrangement allows gradients to develop between tubular fluid, blood, and interstitial fluid.
Gradients allow for reabsorption of large amounts of water and ions from the tubular fluid.
61) Anorexia, starvation, or a diet too low in carbohydrates indicates which condition?
a) albuminuria
b) glucosuria
c) urobilinogenuria d) ketonuria
e) bilirubinuria
Answer: d
62) Stress, causing excessive amounts of epinephrine secretion which stimulates glycogen breakdown,
indicates which condition? This condition can also indicate diabetes mellitus.
a) albuminuria
b) glucosuria
c) urobilinogenuria d) hematuria
e) bilirubinuria
Answer: b
63) Excessive urine concentration of a normal breakdown product of hemoglobin, caused by pernicious
anemia, infectious hepatitis, jaundice or cirrhosis, indicates which condition?
a) albuminuria
b) glucosuria
c) urobilinogenuria d) hematuria
e) bilirubinuria
Answer: c
64) This substance gives bile its major pigmentation:
a) ketone bodies b) erythrocytes c) casts
d) bilirubin
e) glucose
Answer: d
65) These are tiny masses of material, hardened in the lumen of the urinary tubule and are flushed out
when filtrate builds up behind them:
d) microbes
e) urobilinogen
Answer: c
66) Candida albicans and E. coli are which type of abnormal constituent of urine:
d) microbes
e) urobilinogen
Answer: d
67) Which is the normal pH range of urine in humans?

a) 8.1 10.6 b) 4.6 8.0 c) 1.0 3.0 d) 3.1 4.0 e) 10.0 12.0
Answer: b
68) What is the normal volume of urine produced in humans?
a) 1L / hr
b) 2L / day
c) 2L / hr
d) 3L / week
e) 10L / 24 hours
Answer: b
69) What is the normal specific gravity range of urine in humans?
a) 2.350 3.700 b) 0.002 1.000 c) 4.6 8.0
d) 1.001 1.035 e) 1.04 2.60
Answer: d
70) Discuss the three main pressures that affect glomerular filtration. Answer:
(1) Glomerular blood hydrostatic pressure (GBHP): its the blood pressure in glomerular capillaries. It
promotes filtration by forcing water and solutes in blood plasma through the filtration membrane. (2)
Capsular hydrostatic pressure (CHP): is the hydrostatic pressure exerted against the filtration membrane
by fluid already in the capsular space and renal tubule. Its also known as the back pressure. (3) Blood
Colloidal osmotic pressure (BCOP): generated by the presence of proteins in blood plasma which also
opposes filtration.
72) This hormone is released when the blood volume increases.
a) Parathyroid Hormone
b) Renin
c) ADH
d) Atrial Natriuretic Peptide e) Aldosterone
Answer: d
73) Briefly describe the role of Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) in regulating the renal function. Answer:
As blood volume increases, it causes the heart to stretch, which in turn stimulates the release of ANH.
ANH in turn will inhibit the release of ADH and aldosterone. It also inhibits reabsorption of Na+ and
water from the PCT and CD. These effects ultimately lead into increase in urine output, which decreases
blood volume and pressure.
74) Consumption of salty food will cause an increase in this hormone.
a) Aldosterone b) Renin
c) ANH
d) Angiotensin-II e) ADH
Answer: e
75) Absence of angiotensin converting enzyme will lead to
a) decreased blood pressure
b) increased blood pressure
c) will not have any effect on blood pressure d) All of these choices
Answer: a
__________________________________________________________
CHAPTER 27
1. How much of the total volume of body fluid is intracellular fluid?
A) 10%
B) 50%
C) 1/3
D) 2/3
E) 99%
Ans: D
2. 80% of the extracellular fluid is
A) Plasma
B) Cytosol
C) Interstitial fluid
D) Lymph
E) Bile
Ans: C
3. This is the largest single component of the human body.
A) Skin
B) Water
C) Blood
D) Organs
E) Electrolytes
Ans: B
4. This is produced when electrons are accepted by oxygen during cellular respiration.
A) Anions
B) Cations
C) Metabolic water
D) Lipids
E) Carbohydrates
Ans: C
5. This occurs when water loss is greater than water gain.
A) Dehydration
B) Evaporation
C) Precipitation
D) Insensible loss
Ans: A
6. The response of the body to decreasing blood pressure will NOT cause which of the following?
A) Dehydration
B) Formation of angiotensin II
C) Stimulate the kidneys to secrete rennin
D) Formation of ADH
E) Increased vasoconstriction
Ans: E
7. This is the main factor that determines body fluid volume.
A) Thirst center
B) Fluid balance
C) Urinary salt loss
D) Compartmentalizing
Ans: C
8. Which of the following is used to promote Na+ reabsorption by the kidneys?
A) Antidiuretic hormone
B) ANP
C) Aldosterone
D) Parathyroid hormone
Ans: C
9. Which of the following is used to promote water reabsorption by the kidneys?
A) Antidiuretic hormone
B) ANP
C) Aldosterone
D) Parathyroid hormone
Ans: A
10. Natriuresis
A) Is decreased Na+ levels in urine
B) Is decreased Cl- levels in urine
C) Is increased K+ levels in urine
D) Is increased PO- levels in urine
Ans: E
11. A decline in angiotensin II levels does NOT result in
A) Increased GFR
B) Reduced Na+ and Cl- reabsorption by the kidneys
C) Reduced water reabsorption by the kidneys
D) Increased Calcium reabsorption
E) Increased urine output
Ans: D
12. The major hormone that regulates water loss is
A) ANP
B) Angiotensin II
C) Renin
D) ADH
E) Angiotensin
Ans: D
13. Water intoxication results from
A) Dilute body fluids
B) Decrease in the osmolarity of interstitial fluids
C) Osmosis of water from ICF to ECF
D) Dilute body fluids and a decrease in the osmolarity of interstitial fluids
E) Decrease in water intake
Ans: D
14. Which of the following is a function of an electrolyte in the body?
A) Controlling osmosis between compartments
B) Maintaining acid-base balance
C) Carry electrical currents
D) Serve as cofactors
Ans: E
15. In extracellular fluid the most abundant cation is
A) Na+
B) ClC) K+
D) HPO42E) HCO3-
Ans: A
16. In extracellular fluid the most abundant anion is:
A) Na+
B) ClC) K+
D) HPO42E) HCO3Ans: B
17. In intracellular fluid the most abundant cation is:
A) Na+
B) ClC) K+
D) HPO42E) HCO3Ans: C
18. In intracellular fluid the most abundant anion is
A) Na+
B) ClC) K+
D) HPO42E) HCO3Ans: D
19. The Na+ level in blood is controlled by
A) Aldosterone
B) Insulin
C) ATP production
D) Krebs cycle
E) Glucagon
Ans: A
20. This occurs between RBC and blood plasma as the blood level of carbon dioxide increases or
decreases.
A) Chloride shift
B) Potassium shift
C) Sodium shift
D) Bicarbonate shift
E) Protein shift
Ans: A
21. This is the most abundant mineral in the body.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Na+
Calcium
Magnesium
Phosphate
Proteins
Ans: B
22. PTH, calcitriol and calcitonin are
A) The main regulators of magnesium in the blood
B) The main regulators of phosphate in the blood
C) The main regulators of calcium in the blood
D) The main regulators of NaCl in the blood
Ans: C
23. Most of the phosphate in a body is present as
A) Lipids
B) Plasma membranes
C) DNA
D) Calcium phosphate salt
E) Carbohydrates
Ans: D
24. Buffer systems, exhaling carbon dioxide and excretion by the kidneys are all
A) Ways to balance interstitial fluid
B) Means of balancing blood volume
C) Ways of controlling H+ levels in the body
D) Ways to make ions
E) Ways to increase blood volume
Ans: C
25. Metabolic reactions can produce
A) H+
B) HCO3C) Nonvolatile acids
D) Volatile bases
E) Ca+
Ans: C
26. This is a condition where blood pH is below 7.35
A) Isodosis
B) Acidosis
C) Alkalosis
D) Alkalemia
Ans: B
27. In partial compensation
A) pH is brought into the normal range
B) systemic arterial blood is still lower than 7.35
C) systemic arterial blood is higher than 9.5
D) pH is greater than 5.5
E) pH is lower than 2.5
Ans: B
28. Inadequate exhalation of carbon dioxide can cause
A) Blood pH to drop
B) Alkalosis
C) Respiratory compensation
D) Unequal distribution of water
E) Metabolic alkalosis
Ans: A
29. This imbalance results when systemic arterial blood HCO3- levels drop significantly (below 22
mEq/liter)
A) Metabolic alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
Ans: B
30. This imbalance results when systemic arterial blood CO2 levels raise to abnormal values.
A) Metabolic alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
Ans: C
31. This is the most common cause of metabolic alkalosis.
A) Hemorrhage
B) Vomiting
C) Pneumothroax
D) Diabetes
E) Cancer
Ans: B
32. The rate of fluid intake and outflow is how much higher in an infant than in an adult?
A) 2 times higher
B) 5 times higher
C) 7 times higher
D) 10 times higher
E) They are equal
Ans: C
33. The breathing rate of an infant
A) Is twice as fast as an adult
B) Causes greater water loss from the lungs
C) Removes less carbon dioxide than in an adult
D) Makes the infant blood more acidic
E) Is normal to an adult
Ans: B
34. Describe the negative feedback loop that stimulates thirst as a result of dehydration.
Ans: Dehydration causes 1) decreased flow of saliva, which dries the mouth and pharynx, 2) increased
blood osmotic pressure, which stimulates osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus, and 3) decreased blood
volume, which lowers blood pressure, increasing release of renin from JG cells, increasing levels of
angiotensin II. All of these stimulate the thirst center in the hypothalamus, which increases fluid intake
via thirst, thus increasing body water.
35. Normal blood Na+ levels are 136-148 mEq/L. An elderly patient has a blood Na+ of 105 mEq/L.
Describe the patient's condition and the signs and symptoms that usually accompany that condition. Be
sure to include the functions of Na+ in the body in your answer.
Ans: The patient has hyponatremia, or low Na+ concentration in the blood. The body uses Na+ in the
depolarization phase of action potentials and in maintaining osmotic balance. Sometimes elderly people
lose the ability to concentrate urine and lose too much Na+. Other causes of hyponatremia include
inadequate dietary intake or gastrointestinal upsets such as diarrhea and vomiting. Typical signs and
symptoms of hyponatremia include muscular weakness, dizziness, headache, tachycardia, hypotension,
confusion, stupor and coma.
36. Explain how it is possible for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to have a normal
extracellular pH while having an elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide.
Ans: Elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide causes respiratory acidosis, which is compensated by an
increase in plasma levels of bicarbonate ion. Because the patient cannot breathe off the excess carbon
dioxide due to structural changes in the respiratory system, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide stays
high, but compensated by bicarbonate.
37. A patient's blood pH is 7.48; partial pressure of carbon dioxide is 32 mm Hg and levels of bicarbonate
in the blood are 20 mEq/liter. What can you tell about this patient's condition? Explain your answer.
Ans: The patient is in respiratory alkalosis (high pH, low carbon dioxide), which is partially compensated
(low bicarbonate).
38. Describe the fluid and electrolyte disorders to which the elderly are particularly susceptible.
Ans: 1) Dehydration and hypernatremia due to inadequate fluid intake or loss of more water than sodium
in vomit, feces, or urine
2) Hyponatremia due to inadequate intake of sodium, impaired kidney function, or excessive sodium loss
3) Hypokalemia due to excessive laxative use or potassium depleting diuretics
4) Acidosis due to lung or kidney disease

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CHAPTER 1

1) This is the study of the functions of body structures.

7) This is the condition of equilibrium (balance) in the bodys internal environment.

24) A transverse plane will cut a body or organ into

a) medial b) anterior c) proximal d) deep

49) Which of the following noninvasive diagnostic techniques is an example of inspection?

85) Feeling the presence of a mosquito biting your arm is an example of

87) An embryonic stem cell undergoes ______ to become a neuron.

2) Which of the following are divisions of the peripheral nervous system?

6) With respect to neurons, the term nerve fiber refers to a) an axon.

19) Which type of axons has the largest diameter?

b) inhibitory postsynaptic summation potential c) inhibitory postsynaptic potential

30) Plasticity means

e) none of these choices Answer: b

3) Denticulate ligaments are thickenings of

11) Intercostal nerves

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 2

a) Begins in the spinal cord

3) Which of the following is NOT a major region of the brain?

23) Which of the following nuclei are found in the pons?

27) The cerebellar cortex consists of folia, which are

a) parallel folds of white matter. b) found in the vermis only.

31) Which of the following are NOT controlled by the hypothalamus?

d) Prefrontal cortex area

10) Which of the following is NOT a sympathetic prevertebral ganglion?

e) Integration of sensory input. Answer: c

9) Visceral pain results from stimulating

a) suppressing unwanted movements.

c) secondary sensory neuron. d) effector cell.

d) does not occur.

a) Sclera b) Pupil c) Iris

a) middle ear. b) internal ear. c) external ear.

a) macula of the saccule

a) blood osmotic pressure. b) blood calcium levels. c) blood oxygen levels.

8) The lymph from the right foot empties into the

16) Which of these provides a non-specific cellular disease resistance mechanism?

e) Natural killer cells Answer: c

35) Which is an inactive, self responsive cell?

7. During swallowing, which structure rises?

C) Oxygen into blood , Carbon dioxide out of blood

a) Greater omentum b) Falciform ligament c) Lesser omentum

27) This major duct carries a fluid rich in bicarbonate ions.

28) Which of the following pancreatic enzymes digests lipids?

a) adipose capsule b) renal capsule c) renal hilus

a) glomerular capsule b) loop of Henle

a) paracellular reabsoprtion b) transcellular reabsoprtion c) apical reasborption

c) concentration study d) diuretic

22) This is a test to measure kidney function.

67) Which is the normal pH range of urine in humans?

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