3973-8578614

Which is true regarding blood flow in the heart?

A. Pressure in the right atrium is greater than the left atrium, so blood flows right to left
Blood flow to the heart is explained below. Blood in the heart flows right to left, and the pressure in
the right atrium exceeds the pressure in the left atrium.
Right side: Blood (oxygen-poor) enters the heart through the vena cava into the right atrium. It then
flows into the right ventricle through the tricuspid valve. It then goes to the pulmonary artery and to
the lungs to become oxygenated.
Left side: The pulmonary vein empties blood (oxygen-rich) from the lungs to the left atrium, where it
proceeds to the left ventricle through the mitral valve. Blood leaves the heart into the aorta through
the aortic valve to reach the rest of the body.
Which is the correct direction through the heart in which blood flows?
A. Right atrium, tricuspid valve, left atrium, mitral valve [ Correct answer ]
The tricuspid and mitral valves are both atrioventricular valves that divide the right sided
chambers and left sided chambers, respectively.
To follow blood flow through the entire body: Blood flows from the right atrium, to the
tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonic valve, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left
atrium, mitral valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, aorta, then to the rest of the body.
Which of the following is a phagocytic cell of the immune system? Monocyte
Phagocytic cells of the immune system ingest infectious or other agents to fight off pathogens.
Examples include neutrophils and monocytes (including macrophages and dendritic cells). In some
locations, phagocytic macrophages also serve an important function as "antigen-presenting cells"
alerting the immune system to the presence of the specific pathogen.
B-lymphocytes produce antibodies.
Natural killer cells are a type of lymphocyte that destroys host cells that are infected with agents
such as viruses.
Mast cells are immune cells that release inflammatory mediators such as histamine and heparin.
Organelles reside in which of the following compartments of the cell?
Cytoplasm [ Correct answer ]
Organelles reside in the cytoplasm. Some examples include ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum,
lysosomes, mitochondria, and the Golgi complex. The nucleus contains the cell's DNA for replication.
The cell membrane (cell wall) is what separates the cell from the external environment. The cell wall
is semi-permeable and will allow certain compounds and electrolytes in and out of the cell.
What is the main job of the nucleus of a cell?
To contain DNA [ Correct answer ]

The nucleus holds the genetic material (DNA) of the cell. Ribosomes synthesize protein. Cytoplasm
holds the organelles. Mitochondria produce most of the ATP (powerhouse of the cell).
What maintains the membrane potential in excitable cells?
The sodium-potassium pump [ Correct answer ]
The principal ions involved in an action potential are sodium and potassium cations. Sodium
enters the cell, and potassium leaves the cell and restores equilibrium.
The sodium-potassium pump maintains the normal ratio of ion concentrations across the
membrane. Calcium cations and chloride anions are involved in a few types of action potentials, such
as the cardiac action potential.
The fetlock joint of a horse refers to what structure?
Metacarpophalangeal joint [ Correct answer ]
The fetlock in a horse is the common or lay term for the metacarpophalangeal joint.
In the horse, the proximal phalanx (pastern bone) lies immediately distal to the third metacarpal bone
(also known as the cannon bone), with which it articulates to form the condylar metacarpophalangeal
joint (fetlock joint).
The middle phalanx or second phalanx lies distal to the proximal phalanx, forming the
proximal interphalangeal joint known as the pastern joint.
The distal phalanx (coffin bone), is the most distal bone of the forelimb, and lies completely
within the hoof capsule. The distal phalanx articulates with both the middle phalanx and the
distal sesamoid, forming the distal interphalangeal joint known as the coffin joint.
Which bone articulates with the patella?
Femur [ Correct answer ]
The distal femur articulates with the patella at the level of the trochlear groove. The patella attaches
to the tibial tuberosity but does not articulate with this bone. The fibula is the bone directly adjacent to
the tibia. The humerus is a bone of the forelimb.
A 10-year old Golden Retriever presents with a distended abdomen, and when you touch his belly
you notice a fluid wave. What is the medical term for free fluid in the abdomen?
Ascites [ Correct answer ]
Explanation - Ascites is free fluid in the abdomen.
Pleural effusion is fluid around the lungs in the pleural space.
Pericardial effusion is fluid surrounding the heart in the pericardial sac.
Hemoabdomen is one type of ascites, specifically blood in the abdomen.

Which species regurgitates food for remastication? Cattle

Cattle chew their "cud", which is food that they regurgitate for remastication.
When a cow chews her cud, she regurgitates a food bolus into her mouth, which is then re-chewed
and re-swallowed. While cattle are chewing their cud, they produce saliva which acts as a natural
antacid that helps to buffer and protect the rumen. Cows sometimes spend up to 8 hours a day
chewing their cud.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD BE ELEVATED IN A PET WITH REGENERATIVE
ANEMIA?
Reticulocyte count [ Correct answer ]
Reticulocytes are newly released red blood cells. These immature erythrocytes are indicative of a
bone marrow response. An anemia is considered regenerative if the reticulocyte count is greater than
60,000. The hematocrit is low in a patient with anemia. Hemoglobin is typically low in a patient with
anemia, especially if the pet has iron deficiency. Lymphocyte number can be variable but is not
usually directly related to the anemia.
Which of the following conditions in rats results from living in an area with the humidity too low?
Ringtail [ Correct answer ]
Explanation - Ringtail occurs primarily when rats are kept in an environment too low in humidity. It
shows up as rings around the tail where the blood supply has been compromised. Correcting the
humidity to 50% will prevent the problem, but will not reverse any damage that has already been
caused. Red ears or chromodacryorrhea in rats is thought to be caused by stress.
Chronic Respiratory Disease and Mycoplasma are infectious respiratory diseases.
Which of the following are triple rooted teeth in dogs?
Upper 4th premolars [ Correct answer ]
Explanation - In the dog, the upper 4th premolars (also known as carnassial teeth), have three roots.
The upper 1st and 2nd molars also have 3 roots.
A dog has 3 incisors, 1 canine, 4 premolars and 2 molars on one side of the upper jaw and 3 incisors,
1 canine, 4 premolars and 3 molars on one side of the lower jaw, so the dental formula for the dog is:
2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3)= 42
In dogs, which of the following are all permanent teeth with 2 roots?
Mandibular premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1 [ Correct answer ]
in dogs, all of the permanent incisors and canine teeth have 1 root. In the mandible, premolar (PM) 1
has one root. PM 2, 3, and 4 all have two roots. M 1 and 2 have two roots. M3 can have one or two
roots. In the maxilla, PM 1 has one root. PM 2 and 3 have two roots, although PM 3 can sometimes
have 3 roots. PM 4 and M1 and 2 all have 3 roots.
Cats do not have first and second premolars on the mandible. Therefore, what is the number in the
Triadan system for the premolar that is closest to the canine on the left mandible?

307 [ Correct answer ]

In the Triadan system, each tooth has a predictable number, even with teeth missing. Therefore, even
though cats do not have PM 1 and 2 (numbered 305 and 306 on the left mandible), the third premolar
which is the tooth closest to the canine is 307. In all species, the canine tooth ends in 04 and the first
molar ends with 09.
How many upper incisors does a goat have?
Zero [ Correct answer ]
Goats have no upper front teeth (incisors); their upper front mouth is one big gumline.
In the back on their mouth they do have both upper and lower teeth.
Goats are born with teeth which are replaced by permanent teeth as they age.
The dental formula for permanent teeth in the goat is: 2 ( I 0/3 C 0/1 P 3/3 M 3/3) = 32
Which of the following drugs can cause discoloration of puppy teeth?
Tetracycline [ Correct answer ]
Explanation - Tetracyclines can cause a discoloration of puppy teeth. Tetracycline binds to calcified
tissues (bone, cementum, dentin), gets incorporated into the hydroxyapatite crystals with the calcium,
and causes the discoloration. This occurs with puppy teeth because the teeth are still being actively
formed. After the adult teeth are present, this should no longer occur.
During ultrasound of the bladder, a hyperechoic (white) linear structure is seen against the bladder
wall that creates a black shadow obscuring all structures deep to it. What is this structure most likely?
Urolith [ Correct answer ]
Sound is strongly reflected by mineral and gas resulting in a hyperechoic appearance. The structure
most likely to be mineralized inside the bladder is a urolith. The bladder wall should be of intermediate
echogenicity as are most bladder wall tumors. The round ligament of the bladder is usually not visible
sonographically but also would not create such a dramatic acoustic shadow as described in the
question. Free fluid appears anechoic (black).
Air inside the bladder as might be seen in emphysematous cystitis could also be echogenic and cast
a shadow but this was not an answer choice.
When taking a radiograph of the tibia and fibula, which of the following will occur if the x-ray beam is
perpendicular to the tibia and fibula but not to the x-ray cassette and film?
THE TIBIA AND FIBULA WILL APPEAR ELONGATED [ CORRECT ANSWER ]
Explanation - To avoid distortion (elongation or foreshortening), the x-ray beam should be
perpendicular to the long axis of the bone and the x-ray cassette. If the bones are not perpendicular
to the beam, they will appear foreshortened. If the cassette is not perpendicular to the beam, the
bones will appear elongated.

In dental radiography, it is frequently not possible for the long axis of the tooth and the film to be
parallel to each other. In this case, the bisecting angle technique may be used, wherein the beam is
angled half-way between the angle of the long axis of the tooth and the angle of the film in order to
obtain a true image that is neither elongated nor foreshortened.
You take and develop an abdominal radiograph of an animal, but the radiograph appears
much too light (underexposed) throughout the area of the patient. You increase the
exposure (mAs) and the radiograph is still much too light. The portion of the radiograph
outside the body of the patient is completely black (exposed). Which of the following is
the most likely problem?
Xrayenergy(kVp)istoolow[Correctanswer]

Thefixativeintheprocessorislow

Explanation - Since part of the film is exposed correctly, you can conclude that X-rays
were produced by the machine; there does not seem to be a problem with the target.
Also, there are processing artifacts mentioned. The problem here appears to be that the
energy of the X-rays produced is insufficient to penetrate the patient. Therefore, the
patient is essentially shielding the film from exposure in that area. To fix the problem,
try using a higher kVp.
A fistulogram involves taking a radiograph after a cotrast agent is administered into what location?
Draining tract [ Correct answer ]
A draining tract, also known as a fistula, can be evaluated by injecting a contrast agent into the tract
and taking a radiograph to track where the tract goes.
Abdominal radiographs should be taken at which of the following times? Full expiration
Abdominal radiographs are best taken at full expiration because this is when the diaphragm is pushed
cranially, which increases the amount of space in the peritoneum and minimizes the overlap of
abdominal organs on the radiograph. It is usually not possible to time a radiographic exposure based
on the cardiac cycle.
A double-contrast cystogram involves which of the following?
Soluble positive-contrast media and air injected directly into the bladder
Double-contrast cystograms are typically performed by retrograde injection via catheter of a soluble
positive-contrast agent and air.
When viewing a slide on a microscope, the objects themselves are in focus but there appear to be
haloes or fuzzy rings around the objects you are viewing that you cannot eliminate using the focus
knobs. Which of the following is probably not adjusted correctly?
Condenser [ Correct answer ]
This problem is what is typically seen when the condenser is not appropriately adjusted. The
condenser functions to focus light on the object, and when it is not set appropriately, rings of light or
haloes appear around objects. The rheostat adjusts light intensity. The iris diaphragm also regulates

the amount of light reaching the object. Because the object is in focus and the problem is not resolved
by adjusting the focus knobs, this is not a problem with the coarse or fine focus.
For a centrifuge, the relationship between revolutions per minute (RPM) and relative centrifugal force
(g or RCF) can be calculated based on which of the following?
Radius of the centrifuge head [ Correct answer ]
Many spin protocols indicate the RCF at which a tube needs to be spun. While some centrifuges may
have an RCF setting, many can only be set in RPM. For a given centrifuge, the conversion factor is
based on the radius of the centrifuge head from the center to the axis of rotation. The actual full
formula for the conversion is RCF = 1.18 x .00001 x radius x rpm x rpm. This is probably not a
formula that you need to memorize but you should be aware that it is the radius of the centrifuge that
determines how much force is generated for a given RPM speed. A centrifuge with a larger radius will
generate more force at a given RPM than a centrifuge with a smaller radius at the same RPM. None
of the other factors listed influence the force generated.

Which stain is used to look for lipids or fats and is helpful in looking for intestinal malabsorption?
Sudan stain [ Correct answer ]
Sedi-stain
Sulphur dye
Hematoxylin and eosin stain
Silver stain
Explanation - Intestinal malabsorption is detected via the Sudan Stain Test. It is performed on feces
to look for fat. Sudan stain is a dye which stains for lipids specifically.
Which of the following in an example of a Gram-negative bacterium?
Pseudomonas [ Correct answer ]
Gram stain is used in classifying two distinct types of bacteria based on the structural differences of
their bacterial cell walls. Gram negative bacteria lose the primary complex, take up the secondary dye
safranin, and appear red or pink in color. Gram-positive bacteria will retain the crystal violet iodine
and appear dark blue or purple.
End Practice
A urine sample with a specific gravity of less than 1.008 is considered to be which of the following?
Hyposthenuric [ Correct answer ]
Urine samples between 1.008-1.012 are considered isosthenuric. Samples greater than 1.012 are
hypersthenuric. Normal canine urine ranges from approximately 1.015-1.045.
Which of the following laboratory values are most associated with the kidneys?

BUN and creatinine [ Correct answer ]

The main renal values are BUN and creatinine. ALT and ALP are liver enzymes, amylase and lipase
are pancreatic enzymes, and albumin and globulin are proteins.
What is the purpose of the rheostat of the light source on a microscope?
To adjust light intensity [ Correct answer ]
The rheostat controls the intensity of the light source on a microscope. The condenser focuses light
on the object and can be raised and lowered relative to the stage. The wavelength of light is not
usually manipulated in a routine veterinary lab, but filters can be used to allow a certain wavelength of
light through in particular applications such as immunofluorescence.
Which of the following tests can be used to evaluate a patient for immune-mediated hemolytic
anemia?
A Coomb's test is used to detect the presence of immunoglobulins against the patient's red blood
cells. The Coggin's test is used to diagnose equine infectious anemia. Latex agglutination tests
and agarose immunodiffusions are tests that are used to detect the presence of specific patient
antibodies.
What do spherocytes look like under the microscope?
Red blood cells that are small, very dark, and perfectly round [ Correct answer ]
The spherocytes are smaller than normal red blood cells due to their loss of membrane, and there is
no pale area in the center. The most specific disease showing this change in the RBCs is Immune
Mediated Hemolytic Anemia. Other hemolytic conditions can also cause this change to occur.
Echinocytes are spiculated red blood cells that are sometimes seen in snake bite cases.
A red blood cell fragment, as might be seen from shearing of the cell by trauma in an animal
with disseminated intravascular coagulopathy, is known as what?
Spherocyte
Schistocyte [ Correct answer ]
Explanation - A schistocyte is a red blood cell fragment that is usually formed due to shearing from
intravascular trauma; they are seen in cases of DIC or vascular neoplasms such as
hemangiosarcoma. An acanthocyte is a red blood cell with surface projections that are seen mainly in
animals with altered lipid metabolism or liver disease. An echinocyte is a red blood cell with uniform
blunt projections that are usually artifacts from blood drying but may also be seen with some
diseases. A keratocyte is a red blood cell that appears to contain a vacuole; they are sometimes
called blister cells and may occur from intravascular trauma. A spherocyte is a dark-staining red blood

cell with no central pallor that usually occurs from partial phagocytosis of the cell seen with immunemediated destruction.
In dogs, which of the following are all permanent teeth with 2 roots?
Mandibular premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1 [ Correct answer ]
While exceptions do occur, the following are generally accepted and true. In dogs, all of the
permanent incisors and canine teeth have 1 root. In the mandible, premolar (PM) 1 has one root. PM
2, 3, and 4 all have two roots. M 1 and 2 have two roots. M3 can have one or two roots. In the
maxilla, PM 1 has one root. PM 2 and 3 have two roots, although PM 3 can sometimes have 3 roots.
PM 4 and M1 and 2 all have 3 roots.
A double-contrast cystogram involves which of the following?Soluble positive-contrast media and
air injected directly into the bladder [ Correct answer ]
Double-contrast cystograms are typically performed by retrograde injection via catheter of a soluble
positive-contrast agent and air.
What immunoglobulin is the only one to pass through the human placenta, thereby providing
protection to the fetus in utero?
IgG [ Correct answer ]
IgG is the only class of antibody to cross the placenta from mother to fetus; it is also the most
abundant of all antibodies.
Which anatomic structure is the passageway for both the respiratory and digestive systems?
Pharynx [ Correct answer ]
The pharynx leads from the oral and nasal cavities to the larynx and esophagus. It helps to get food
to the esophagus and air to the lungs.
What is the term that describes nerve fibers that carry an impulse TOWARD the brain?
Afferent [ Correct answer ]
Explanation - Afferent fibers carry impulses toward the brain and/or spinal cord. Efferent fibers carry
them away from the brain and/or spinal cord.
Peripheral nerves are outside of the brain and spinal cord. Dendritic is an adjective that describes a
highly branched structure and refers to the projections from a nerve cell.
Horses have unique structures that are paired diverticuli of the Eustachian tube located near the
pharyngeal region of the horse. What is the common name of these structures?
The guttural pouches

The guttural pouches are blind pouches located in the pharynx of the horse. The function of these
pouches is unknown but numerous vital cranial nerves and blood vessels course through these
structures.
What is the most rostral structure of the eye?
Cornea [ Correct answer ]
The cornea is the most rostral structure of the eye and is where light first enters.
The retina is at the back of the eye and is the location of the photoreceptors.
The lens is responsible for focusing light onto the retina and is located caudal to the pupil and iris.
How many liters of 50% dextrose should be added to 5 liters of 0.9% saline to make a 5% dextrose
solution?0.5L
To answer this question, the following formula should be implemented:
C(1)V(1) = C(2)V(2)
C is the concentration
V is the volume
C(1) =0.5
V(1) = x
C(2) = 0.05
V(2) = 5 L
0.5x = 0.05(5)
x = 0.5 L
0.5 L of 50% dextrose should be added to one liter in order to make a 5% solution.
What quantity of drug is found in 200 mLs of a 10% solution?
20 grams [ Correct answer ]
Explanation - A 10% solution is equal to 100 mg/mL. The easiest way to remember this
conversion is to add a zero to the percentage. (10%= 100 mg/mL, 15% = 150 mg/mL, etc.)
If 1 mL is equal to 100 mg, then to find out the quantity of drug in 200 mLs, multiply 100 mg X
200 = 20,000 mg. There are 20,000 mg in 200 mLs of a 10% solution.
But none of the choices are 20,000 mg. We need to go one step further and determine how
many grams this is.
1 gram is equal to 1,000 mg. We need to divide the milligrams by 1,000.
So, 20,000mg / 1,000 = 20 grams.
You are recovering an 80 pound patient post-op. The surgeon would like you to give a Fentanyl
injection prior to starting the constant rate infusion. He asks you to give 4 micrograms per kg IV.
Fentanyl concentration is 0.05 mg/mL. What quantity do you administer?

2.9 mL [ Correct answer ]

1.2 mL
0.29 mL
0.9 mL
Explanation - First convert to kg: 80 pounds/2.2 = 36.3 kg
36.3 kg X 4 micrograms= 145 micrograms
Now convert the microgram dose into milligrams: 145 micrograms / 1,000 = 0.145 mg
Now divide the dose by the concentration of the medication: 0.145 mg/ 0.05 mg/mL = 2.9 mL
Thiopental is a barbiturate used to induce anesthesia. Once reconstituted it is a 2% solution. The
attending veterinarian asks you to induce a 27 kg dog with a dosage of 10 mg/kg. How many
milligrams do you need, and how many milliliters will you draw up into the syringe?
135 mg / 27 mls
27 mg / 2.7 mls
13.5 mg / 270 mls
270 mg / 13.5 mls [ Correct answer ]
Explanation - 27 kg multiplied by 10 mg/kg = 270 mg. A 2% solution is equal to 20 mg/ml. 270 mg
divided by 20 mg/ml = 13.5 mls
You have just completed a manual differential and obtained the values below. The total white blood
cell count is 21,800.
Segmented Neutrophils 88%
Lymphocytes 3%
Monocytes 8%
Eosinophils 1%
What is the absolute value of the Segmented Neutrophils?
1,918,400
247.72
88
19,184 [ Correct answer ]
Explanation - The percentage of each white blood cell type counted is multiplied by the total white
blood cell count to determine the absolute value of each of the cell types present.
21,800 x 0.88= 19,184
Lymphocyte 654
Monocyte 1744
Eosinophil 218
The total of all absolute values should equal the total white blood cell count.

A 20-kg patient is currently receiving 52 ml/hr of Lactated Ringer's Solution. The clinician has
requested that 2 mg/kg/day of metoclopramide be added to the bag. Metoclopramide is available as a
5 mg/ml solution. How many milliliters do you need to add to a 1 liter bag? 6.5ml
This is definitely a more complicated calculation question, but when broken down it is not
insurmountable.
A 20-kg patient will need 40 mg/day of metoclopramide (20 kg x 2 mg/kg/day)
Since the fluid is being administered at an hourly rate, we need to figure out how much
metoclopramide we are administering per hour.
40 mg/day / (24 hr) = 1.7 mg/hr
To determine how much volume of metoclopramide is needed, the following math is performed:
1.7 mg/hr / (52 ml/hr) x (1000 ml)= 32.6 mg (Notice how the units cancel out.)
32.6 mg / (5 mg/ml) = 6.5 ml
A client calls and would like her dog's phenobarbital refilled. He is currently getting 1/4 grain every 12
hours. How many milligrams is in 1/4 grain?
16.2 mg [ Correct answer ]
Explanation - 1 grain is equal to 64.8 mg. Therefore, 1/4 of 64.8 mg is equal to 16.2 mg.
Phenobarbital is commonly dispensed in "grains".
A 13-year old diabetic cat arrests during hospitalization during a blood glucose curve. During
resuscitation efforts, an emergency blood panel is run which reveals a blood pH of 6.4. What drug
may be requested by the veterinarian to help correct this abnormality but would not be used as a
long-term therapy?
Insulin
Darbopoetin
Sodium bicarbonate [ Correct answer ]
A blood pH of 6.4 is low, or acidic. Sodium bicarbonate can increase the cat's blood pH but ultimately
the underlying problem (the diabetes) must be treated. Insulin may be used in both resuscitation
efforts and long-term therapy. Darbopoetin causes an increase in red blood cell production and has
no effect on blood pH. Potassium gluconate is administered orally to correct hypokalemia.
Methylprednisolone can cause an increase in blood glucose levels and is not a drug used to correct
pH. Corticosteroids such as this should be avoided in diabetic patients when possible.
An injury to what region of the brain is most likely to result in respiratory arrest?
Brain stem
The brain stem consists of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata. The pons contains
important respiratory centers. The medulla also influences the respiratory rate as well as heart
rate.
The cerebellum is responsible for coordination and balance. The diencephalon contains the thalamus
and hypothalamus. The thalamus behaves as a relay station for sensory input. The hypothalamus is

involved in helping regulate many endocrine functions of the body. Motor control and interpretation of
sensory impulses occurs at the cerebrum.
What is the name for the blood pressure measurement when the ventricles of the heart are relaxed?
Diastolic pressure [ Correct answer ]
Diastolic pressure (DP) is the minimum arterial pressure during relaxation and dilation of the
ventricles, which represents the pressure when the heart is resting. The systolic pressure (SP) is the
pressure when the heart is contracting.
Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is essentially an average blood pressure that represents the perfusion
pressure seen by the organs in the body. It is calculated by using the systolic and diastolic pressures
as seen by the formula: MAP=DP + 1/3 (SP-DP)
Central venous pressure (CVP) is the pressure of blood in the thoracic vena cava and is a good
estimation of right atrial pressure. CVP reflects the amount of blood returning to the heart and the
ability of the heart to pump blood.
Mean corpuscular volume is a laboratory term used to describe average volume of a red blood cell
that helps to classify an anemia as microcytic or macrocytic.
A 10-year old Chow Chow needs a whole blood transfusion due to anemia from chronic renal failure.
The patient has received multiple blood transfusions over the last 2 years. What blood tests is needed
prior to initiating the transfusion?
Crossmatch [ Correct answer ]
Blood type
Tick-titer
Total protein
Coagulation profile
Patients who have had multiple blood transfusions are more likely to have a reaction to subsequent
blood product transfusions. In order to reduce the likelihood of a reaction, a major and minor
crossmatch should be performed prior to administration. To know what donors would most likely be
compatible, the patient's blood type could be determined. Dogs with the same blood type still require
a crossmatch, especially if the dog has received prior transfusions.
Which disease may be transmitted to humans through aerosolization or direct handling of urine from
an infected patient?
Leptospirosis
Leptospirosis is caused by a spirochete bacterium and is most often transmitted through direct
contact with infected urine or infected fetus/vaginal discharge. It most commonly causes kidney and
liver disease and is one of the most important zoonotic diseases of concern nationwide. It tends to be

diagnosed most frequently in areas of high rainfall or where there are lakes or water sources,
because the organism may survive in water. Rodents and wildlife are the most common reservoir
hosts.
The doctor is performing a physical exam on a horse and notices the horse has some ticks in the
ears. The ticks have large spines on their bodies. He refers to them as "spinous ear ticks". What is
the proper name for this parasite?
Otobius megnini [ Correct answer ]
Otobius megnini is the spinous ear tick. These ticks are most commonly seen in the Southwestern
states. They may infest many different warm blooded animals (including dogs), but are most
commonly seen in horses and livestock. These ticks may crawl deep into the ears and feed on blood.
They can spread rickettsial disease and other infectious disease such as Q-fever & tularemia
Otodectes cynotis is the ear mite of dogs and cats.
Oxyuris is the equine pinworm.
Dermacentor albipictus is the winter tick typically found on horses, cattle, or deer, especially in the
mid-Western regions (Nebraska, Colorado, and Wyoming).
A 3-year old female spayed DSH cat presents for evaluation of a fistulous swelling of the ventrum.
Physical exam is unremarkable, except for an area of matted hair over an erythematous 1 cm
swelling on the ventrum that exudes a small amount of purulent material which you shave and
examine. The cat has no history of fighting; what parasite can cause a lesion like this?
Cuterebra [ Correct answer ]
Explanation - The lesion described is what is seen with Cuterebra infestations. Cuterebra is a botfly.
The adults deposit eggs in the environment that animals may acquire as they pass through
contaminated areas. The heat from the host causes eggs to hatch, and the larvae typically enter the
body through the mouth during grooming or through open wounds. The larvae migrate to
subcutaneous locations on the body and develop. They require a breathing pore in the skin and
eventually will exit the skin. Lesions in dogs and cats are most commonly seen around the head,
neck, and trunk. Suspect lesions should be explored, enlarged, and probed with forceps. The lesion
should not be squeezed because rupturing the larva can cause anaphylaxis. It is preferable to
remove the larva in one piece as residual pieces may cause recurrent infection or abscesses.
Ctenocephalides felis is the cat flea, which can cause irritation but not the fistulated swelling
described here. Demodex cati and Notoedres cati are mites and microsporum canis is a
dermatophyte. These can all cause pruritus, dermatitis, and crusting but should not cause the
fistulated swelling described here.
Which of the following is most appropriate when placing a urinary catheter in a dog or cat?
Insert the catheter until urine flows, then advance 1 cm further and secure
A sterile urinary catheter should always be used and coated in sterile lube. Sterile gloves should also
be worn. Contaminants around the prepuce should be cleaned away with a gentle scrub. The
catheter should be advanced until urine flows then 1 additional centimeter before securing in place.

Placing the catheter until resistance is met can cause damage or irritation to the bladder wall, as well
as cause bleeding, and can cause the catheter to loop back on itself.
Explanation - Thiopental (Pentothal) is an ultra-short acting barbiturate anesthetic induction agent.
Pyrantel pamoate (Strongid, Nemex) is an anti-nematode agent. Fenbendazole (Panacur) is a broad
spectrum anthelmintic. Praziquantel (Droncit) is an anti-cestodal (tapeworm), and Sulfadimethoxine
(Albon) is a sulfonamide used to treat coccidia.
Chronic administration of prednisone to animals can cause an iatrogenic form of what condition?
Cushing's disease [ Correct answer ]
Cushing's disease (hyperadrenocorticism) naturally occurs when the adrenal glands produce too
much cortisol. This can be due to a functional adrenal tumor or due to a functional pituitary tumor that
secretes ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) which stimulates cortisol secretion from the adrenal
gland. Prednisone is a synthetic glucocorticoid, and chronic administration for conditions such as
allergies can lead to iatrogenic Cushing's disease. Addison's disease (hypoadrenocorticism) occurs
due to inadequate cortisol levels and can be caused by prompt withdrawal of prednisone after
prolonged use. Tyzzer's disease is a bacterial disease caused by Clostridium piliforme. Bang's
disease, or Brucellosis, is an infectious disease of cattle caused by the bacteria Brucella abortus.
An iatrogenic disease is one caused by a medical or surgical procedure.
Explanation - Cholinergic agents are drugs that mimic the effects of acetylcholine within the
autonomic nervous system. These drugs stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system. They
promote salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation (sometimes abbreviated SLUD or referred to
as "rest and digest" functions). They can cause pupil constriction or decreased heart rate. A
commonly used cholinergic drug is bethanechol which is structurally similar to acetylcholine but
resists degradation. It is used to treat gastric atony or urinary retention in the bladder.
You are instructed to give a medication which you are told is an antipyretic. What will this medication
do?
Reduce fever [ Correct answer ]
Anti-pyretics reduce fever. An example of an anti-pyretic medication is ketofen (Ketoprofen)
which is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory. The term pyrexia means fever.
An example of an acid reducer (antacid) would be famotidine (Pepcid AC).
A medication which would prevent vomiting would be an antiemetic. Examples of this include
maropitant (Cerenia) or metoclopramide (Reglan). Reglan also has upper GI pro-kinetic properties.
Which of the following is expected from a positive inotropic drug?
Increase in cardiac contractility [ Correct answer ]
Explanation - Positive inotropes mostly work by making more calcium available to the muscle and
thus increase cardiac contractility.

Digoxin is a positive inotrope and acts by inhibiting the sodium-potassium ATPase pump of the cells.
Toxicity can cause arrhythmias and a slow heart rate. It should be avoided or used with extreme
caution in patients with renal disease or hypokalemia because it increases the risk of toxicosis.
You are sterilizing this retractor for a wound repair surgery. Which retractor is this?

Weitlaner[Correctanswer]

A Weitlaner retractor is a self-retaining instrument. The blades open when the ratcheted
handles are closed. The blades have four downward-pointing and curved prongs. It looks
similar to a Gelpi, except the Gelpi does not have the prongs and just has a single point
on each blade.
Balfour is a self-retaining retractor commonly used for abdominal surgery.
Malleable retractors are deformable hand-held retractors.
The surgeon asks for the Brown-Adsons. Which type of instrument is this?
Thumbforceps[Correctanswer]

Brown Adson forceps are thumb forceps which have fine teeth at the tip. They are used
for grasping delicate tissue.
Common tissue scissors include the metzenbaum scissors (longer, more narrow scissors
with a blunt tip) and the iris scissors (tiny scissors with a sharp point).
A small retractor would be a Senn-Rake (a long, skinny, hand held retractor resembling
a rake), or a gelpi (self-retaining retractor). There are small and large versions of the
gelpi.
A small curved clamp would be a mosquito hemostat.

Which instrument is specifically designed for atraumatically clamping across the

intestine?Doyen forceps are the only forceps used in veterinary medicine for
atraumatically occluding a loop of bowel. All the other forceps mentioned will
result in trauma to the intestine and are not recommended for use on either the
intestine or any other delicate structure that the surgeon is trying to preserve.
Explanation - The Senn Rake retractor is not self-retaining and is considered a
hand-held retractor. Its main use is for retracting small muscle bellies, ligaments,
and tendons. Other examples of hand-held retractors include the Army-Navy,
Myerding, and malleable retractors.

Asepsis implies which of the following? Asepsis means absolutely no living organisms
present. The concept of aseptic technique is very important, and technicians should be
very aware of sterility in the operating room. This includes walking within the room,
passing instruments, prepping the patient, and working within the operating room.
Adhering to strict aseptic principles decreases the likelihood a patient will develop a
post-operative infection.
A surgeon is asking for any non-absorbable suture to close a skin defect. Which of the
following sutures would NOT be appropriate for you to give the surgeon?
Polydioxanone[Correctanswer]

Polydioxanone is the real name for PDS. This suture is a monofilament absorbable suture
which lasts approximately 180 days before being completely broken down. Silk,
polypropylene, and nylon are all considered non-absorbable. Polypropylene and nylon
are synthetic. Most people know polypropylene as Prolene and nylon as Ethilon; these
are their trade names.
In regards to rabbit anesthesia, which of the following best explains why the use of
sedative premedications should be given prior to inducing anesthesia using a mask or
induction chamber to deliver gas agents such as Isoflurane?
Tohelppreventbreathholding[Correctanswer]

Because rabbits often hold their breath and struggle when exposed to gas anesthetics,
premedications such as dexmeditomidine, diazepam, or midazolam will facilitate
smoother inductions.
A dog is being referred to the neurologist for a cervical disk compression that is causing
forelimb paresis. Where will the surgical incision likely be made?
Theventralsideoftheneck[Correctanswer]

A cervical disk surgery typically requires an incision made on the underside of the neck.
This surgery is referred to as a "ventral slot".
A 1-year old pregnant female bulldog presents with a history of unproductive labor. The
dog has not had contractions in several hours, and the veterinarian has requested a
chemistry panel. What value would be most important on this panel?
Calcium[Correctanswer]

Low ionized calcium levels are an indication of eclampsia. Changes in sodium, potassium
and albumin, while important in the overall assessment of the patient, do not give
information as to the ability of the patient to produce uterine contractions.
What type of crystal tends to form in urine that is alkaline and typically appears as a 6-8
sided prism with tapering sides? Struvite crystals are sometimes described as
resembling a coffin lid, although they may sometimes have a slightly different
appearance. They are composed of magnesium ammonium phosphate. Calcium
carbonate crystals are round with radiating lines from the center; they may also have a
dumbbell shape. Calcium oxalate crystals appear as small squares with an "x" across
them. Ammonium biurate crystals are round with long, irregular spicules.

What is the disease Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy also known as?

MadCowDisease[Correctanswer]

BSE is most commonly known as Mad Cow Disease and is a neurodegenerative prion
disease in cattle. It causes a spongy degeneration in the brain and spinal cord and is
fatal.
Polioencephalomalacia is a central nervous system condition that is ultimately a result
of thiamine deficiency. One cause may be by an enzyme that destroys thiamine.
Black Leg in cattle is caused by Clostridium chauvoei and is an acute febrile disease
causing emphysematous swelling in the heavy muscles.
Hardware disease is a common term for bovine traumatic reticulopericarditis. It is
caused when the cow swallows a sharp, heavy metallic object that falls to the floor of
the rumen and is pushed forward into the reticulum, where it can penetrate into the
pericardium.
Explanation - The broad ligament is attaches the uterus to the pelvis.
Explanation - Sweeney is the term for atrophy of the shoulder muscle in the horse. It is
caused by damage to the suprascapular nerve. This nerve is responsible for innervation
to the infraspinatus and supraspinatus muscles, which are found in the scapula (shoulder
blade).
Which of the following is true of the liver?
Itmakesandstoresglucose[Correctanswer]

Glucose comes from liver production and from the GI tract when food is absorbed.
The liver helps to break down fats, converts glucose to glycogen, produces urea (the
main substance of urine), makes some amino acids, filters harmful substances from the
blood, stores vitamins and minerals (vitamins A, D, K and B12) and maintains a proper
level of glucose in the blood. The liver also produces cholesterol, albumin, bile, and
coagulation factors.
Amylase comes from the pancreas and also from saliva.
The main sources of ALP are the liver and bone, but smaller amounts can be found in
the intestine and kidney.Liver cells can regenerate.

Acepromazine concentration is 10 mg/mL. You are instructed to make a dilute

acepromazine solution at 1 mg/mL. Which of the following could be used for how
much acepromazine and how much sterile water are mixed to make this
concentration?
1mLacepromazineand9mLsterilewater[Correctanswer]

Explanation - 1 mL of acepromazine is equal to 10 mg (since ace is 10 mg/mL).

This 10 mg mixed in 9 mL of sterile water results in a concentration of 1 mg/mL.
1 mL (10 mg) of ace + 9 mL of sterile water = 10 mL total volume
10 mg / 10mL = 1 mg/mL
How many milliliters of 25% dextrose should be added to 1 L of 0.9% saline to
make a 5% dextrose solution?
200ml[Correctanswer]

Explanation - To answer this question, the following formula should be

implemented:
C(1)V(1) = C(2)V(2)
C is the concentration
V is the volume
C(1)
V(1)
C(2)
V(2)

=0.25
=x
= 0.05
= 1000 ml

0.25x = 0.05(1000)
x = 200 ml
200 ml of 25% dextrose should be added to one liter in order to make a 5%
solution.
You are performing an ACTH stimulation test. You are instructed to give Cortrosyn
at a dose of 5 micrograms/kg IV. The Cortrosyn has been reconstituted to a
concentration of 0.25 mg/mL. Your patient weighs 27 pounds. How much
Cortrosyn should you administer?
0.24mL[Correctanswer]

Explanation - 27 pounds = 12.2 kg

12.2 kg X 5 micrograms = 61 micrograms
61 micrograms/ 1000 micrograms per mg = 0.06 mg (1 mg is equal to 1000
mcg)
0.06 mg/ 0.25 mg/mL = 0.24 mL IV
A client has a dog with allergies, and the doctor recommends she give the dog
diphenhydramine (Benadryl) twice daily for 1 week. She instructs that the dog
have 3.0 mg/kg every 12 hours. Over-the-counter Benadryl contains 12.5 mg per
teaspoon, and the owner wishes to give a liquid. What quantity of Benadryl in
milliliters should the dog receive every 12 hours if he weighs 8 pounds?
4.3mL[Correctanswer]

To solve this question you need to know that there are 5 mL in 1

teaspoon.
This means that the concentration of the Benadryl liquid is:
12.5 mg/5 mL = 2.5 mg/mL
The dog weighs 8 pounds/ 2.2 pounds/kg = 3.6 kg
The dog needs 3.0 mg/kg per dose.
So, 3.0 mg/kg X 3.6 kg = 10.8 mg per dose (every 12 hours)
10.8 mg/ 2.5 mg/mL = 4.3 mL
Infection of foals with the parasite whose egg is shown in the image below can be
associated with diarrhea in young horses. What is the parasite? The microscopic
image was taken at 40X; the egg is approximately 50 um.

Parascarisequorum
Strongyloideswesteri[Correctanswer]

Explanation - This image shows a Strongyloides westeri egg. Strongyloides pass

from the host in the larvated form and are recognizable as an oval-shaped, thinshelled embryonated egg.
Larvae of Strongyloides westeri are transmitted to foals in the mare's milk. Adult
horses rarely have patent infections except when larvae harbored in their tissues
migrate into a mare's milk after parturition. The worms are found in the small
intestine and may cause diarrhea in young horses. Ivermectin or oxibendazole are
effective in treatment of S. westeri.
Explanation - Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacterium that often
has a sweet or fruity smell.
During which cardiac status would a defibrillator most likely be used and

effective?

Ventricularfibrillation[Correctanswer]
Explanation - Ventricular fibrillation usually occurs just prior to asystole, when
there is uncoordinated contraction of the ventricular muscles (uncontrolled
quivering of the muscle fibers). It is during the ventricular fibrillation that a
defibrillator is most often used to try to induce a normal rhythm to the heart.

Defibrillation delivers a dose of electrical energy to the heart. This depolarizes the
heart muscle, stops the arrhythmia, and allows normal sinus rhythm to be
reestablished in the sinoatrial node (the "pacemaker" of the heart).
The heart will generally not respond to defibrillation in asystole because it is

already depolarized. Defibrillation only works if electrical activity is occurring.

If a pulse is present, defibrillation for ventricular tachycardia is not indicated.
Normal sinus arrhythmia is a normal rhythm in which there is mild acceleration
and slowing of the heart rate that occurs during inhalation and exhalation; many
normal pets have this rhythm.