Professional Documents
Culture Documents
for
TEZPUR UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
[Candidates are to sit for Tezpur University Entrance Examinations (TUEE), 2015 to
be held during May 29 to May 31, 2015. Entrance Examinations for all programmes
will be of two hours duration]
Candidates are advised to check the University website for any update in
model questions for practice
CONTENTS
DEPARTMENT OF BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION
PG Diploma in Tourism Management
DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE
Integrated M. Com.
DEPARTMENT OF CHEMICAL SCIENCES
M. Sc. in Chemistry
Integrated M.Sc. / B.Sc. B.Ed. in Chemistry
M. Tech. in Polymer Science and Technology
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER SCIENCE & ENGINEERING
Master of Computer Application (MCA)
M. Tech. in Information Technology
DEPARTMENT OF CULTURAL STUDIES
M. A. in Cultural Studies
CHANDRAPRABHA SAIKIANI CENTRE FOR WOMENS STUDIES
P. G. Diploma in Womens Studies
DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION
M. A. in Education
DEPARTMENT OF ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
M. Tech. in Electronics Design and Technology
M. Tech. in Bioelectronics
DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY
M. Tech. in Energy Technology
DEPARTMENT OF ENGLISH AND FOREIGN LANGUAGES
M.A. in English
M.A. in Linguistics and Language Technology
M. A. in Linguistics and Endangered Languages
Integrated M.A. (English) /Integrated B.A. B. Ed.
One-year Certificate Course in Chinese (full time)
DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
M.Sc. in Environmental Science
DEPARTMENT OF FOOD ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY
M. Tech. in Food Engineering and Technology
DEPARTMENT OF HINDI (
)
M.A. in Hindi
Post Graduate Diploma in Translation (Hindi)
DEPARTMENT OF MASS COMMUNICATION AND JOURNALISM
M.A. in Mass Communication and Journalism
PG Diploma in Mobile and Multimedia Communication
DEPARTMENT OF MATHEMATICAL SCIENCES
M.Sc. in Mathematics
Integrated M.Sc. / B.Sc. B. Ed. in Mathematics
DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
M.Tech. in Mechanical Engineering (Specialization: Applied Mechanics)
DEPARTMENT OF MOLECULAR BIOLOGY AND BIOTECHNOLOGY
M.Sc. in Molecular Biology and Biotechnology
Integrated M.Sc. in Bioscience and Bioinformatics
DEPARTMENT OF PHYSICS
M.Sc. in Physics
M.Sc. in Nanoscience and Technology
Integrated M.Sc./ B.Sc. B.Ed. in Physics
DEPARTMENT OF SOCIAL WORK
M.A. in Social Work
DEPARTMENT OF SOCIOLOGY
M.A. in Sociology
VOCATIONAL COURSES
B. Voc. in Renewable Energy
B. Voc. in Food Processing
1
3
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
15
16
18
19
23
26
27
29
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
47
49
51
52
Non-Verbal Reasoning:
1. Which pattern should come in the place (?)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2. In above set of figures (I) to (IV), some parts are shown to change their positions in a regular
direction. Following the same sequence, which one of the following will appear at the fifth
stage ?
(a)
II
III
(c)
(b)
IV
(d)
Answers:
General Knowledge : 1(b), 2(c), 3(a), 4(c), 5(c)
English : 1(b), 2(b), 3 (a), 4(c), 5(b), 6(a)
Reasoning : 1(b), 2(c)
Non-Verbal Reasoning : 1(1), 2(c)
Tezpur University
DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE
Integrated M. Com.
Course Outline and Test pattern:
The test paper shall consist of 100 multiple choice questions having six sections viz.General
Knowledge (15 questions), knowledge about business/socio-economic environment (15
questions), test of Reasoning (15 questions), test of English (20 questions), data interpretation
(15 questions) and test of arithmetic/mathematics (20 questions).
There will 0.25 negative marks for each incorrect answer.
Model questions:
Section A: General Knowledge
Which is the largest river in the world?
(a) Amazon
(b) Nile
(c) Yangtze
(d) Congo
Who was the first President of India?
(a) Dr. ZakirHussain (b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Dr.S.D.Sharma
Section B: Knowledge about Business/Socio-Economic Environment
Who is the present Governor of Reserve Bank of India?
(a) MantekSingh Ahluwalia
(b) Nandan Nilekani
(c) Raghuram Rajan
(d) Partha Sarathi Shome
Which of the following Five-Year Plan is currently going on in India?
(a) Tenth Five Year Plan
(b) Eleventh Five Year Plan
(c) Twelfth Five Year Plan
(d) Thirteenth Five Year Plan
Section C: Test of Reasoning
1. In a certain code, FIRE is written as QHOE and MOVE is ZMWE. Following the same rule of
coding, what should be the code for the word OVER?
(a) MWOE
(b) MWZO
(c) MWED
(d) MWEO
2. Find the minimum number of straight lines required to make the given figure.
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 18
(c) too
3
(d) 19
(d) enough
Model Questions, 2015
(c) Treatmeant
(d) Efficient
1. What percentage of candidates passed the Exam from institute T out of the total number of
candidates enrolled from the same institute?
(a) 50%
(b) 62.5%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
2. Which institute has the highest percentage of candidates passed to the candidates enrolled?
(a) Q
(b) R
(c) V
(d) T
Section F: Test of Arithmetic/Mathematics
1. 2/5th of Rams salary is equal to Mohans salary and 7/9 of Mohans salary is equal to Sohans
salary. If the sum of the salary of all of them is Rs. 77,000, then how much is Mohans salary?
(a) Rs. 45,000
(b) Rs. 18,000
(c) Rs. 15,000
(d) Rs. 28,000
2. The market price of an article is Rs. 200. A discount of 12.50% is allowed on the market price
and a profit of 25% is made. The cost price of the article is?
(a) Rs. 200
(b) Rs. 175
(c) Rs. 120
(d) Rs. 140
Answers:
Section A: 1(a), 2(c)
Section D: 1(d), 2(d)
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r k 2 E tot
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(b)
k2
km E
tot
k2
E S
km
(c)
r k2 E S
(d)
3. The correct order of relative strengths of hydrogen bonding in the given hydrides is
(a) H2S > H2O > NH3> PH3
(b) HCl> H2O > H2S > NH3
(c) NH3 > PH3> H2O > HF
(d) HF > H2O > NH3> PH3
4. All the following species are strong oxidizing agents. Their strength as oxidising agents in
acidic solution is
(a) S2O82-> Cr2O72-> MnO4(b) MnO4-> Cr2O72-> S2O8222(c) S2O8 > MnO4 > Cr2O7
(d) MnO4-> S2O82-> Cr2O725. Isomers which can be interconvertible through rotation around a single bond are
(a) conformers
(b) diastereomers
(c) enantiomers
(d) positional isomers
6. A functional group common to both amines and amides is
(a) - COOH
(b) -CHO
(c) -NH2
(d) -OH
7. Which of the following is an essential ingredient in Baking Powder?
(a) Na2CO3
(b) Na2SO4
(c) NaHCO3
(d) K2CO3
8. The oxidation state of S in H2SO4 is
(a) 2+
(c) 6+
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(b) 4+
(d) 0
(b) flowable
6. Viscose rayon is
(a) cellulose nitrate
(c) regenerated cellulose acetate
(c) fusable
7. Ziegler process
(a) produces high density polyethylene (b) produces low density polyethylene
(c) uses no catalyst
(d) employs very high pressure
8. The mechanical strength of the following materials follows the order:
(a) plastics> rubbers > fibres
(b) rubbers > plastics > fibres
(c) fibres> plastics > rubbers
(d) fibres > rubbers > plastics
9. Degrees of freedom at triple point will be
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 0
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Section I
In this section every correct answer will fetch 2 (two) marks and for every wrong answer 1 (one)
mark will be deducted.
1. What is the next number in the series - 121, 169, 289, 361, 526, _?
(a) 841
(b) 625
(c) 784
(d) 729
2. A cube with all sides painted is divided into small cubes of equal sizes. The edge of a small cube is
exactly one-fourth as that of the original cube. Therefore, the number of small cubes with only one side
painted is (a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 12
(d) 24
Section II
In this Section answer questions from either Group A or Group B.
Group A
Each correct answer will fetch 2.5 (two and half) marks and for every wrong answer 1 (one) mark
will be deducted.
1. The number of two digit numbers that can be written by using the digits 2 and 3 is
(a) 10C2+9C2
(b) 210
(c) 210 - 2
(d) None of these
2. The term independent of x in the expansion of (x2 - 1/x )4 is
(a) 1
(b) -1
(c) 48
(d) 0
Group B
Each correct answer will fetch 2 (two) marks and for every wrong answer 1 (one) mark will be
deducted.
1. The 8 bit s complement binary representation of -35 is
(a) - 00100011
(b) 11100011
(c) 110111101
(d) 10110001
2. An EPROM with 16-bit address bus and 4-bit data bus contains
(a) 32 KB
(b) 64 KB
(c) 256 KB
(d) 128 KB
Section III
Questions in this section will be of multiple-choice type in the following three domains. Each
answer will fetch 1(one) and for every wrong answer 0.5 (half) mark will be deducted.
1.Comprehension Read the given passage and answer the set of questions based on it
2. Vocabulary Test
3. Grammar and Composition Test
correct
10 marks
10 marks
10 marks
Please ensure that there is uniformity in the marking pattern among the different sections of the
question paper if there are multiple sections.
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SECTION - A
1. Minimum number of flip-flops required to implement a mod-20 counter is
(a) 20
(b) 5
2. Beladys Anomaly is related to
(a) Computer Network (b) Operating systems
(c) 3
(d) 4
SECTION - B
1. The in-order and post-order traversal of a binary tree yield the following sequence of nodes
In-order
EACKFHDBG
Post-order
ECKAHBGDF
Which is the Pre-order traversal sequence of the tree?
(a) FAEKCDHGB
(b) EKCABHGDF
(c) EAKCBHGDF
(d) EAKCBHGFD
}}
SECTION - C
1. Consider the following C functions which is supposed to check if a number is a prime number
or not. The conditions in the if statement is missing which is shown as XXX. Choose the
option to replace XXX in the programme.
void main (){
int n,i;
scanf("%d.&n);
for(i=2;i<n;i++)
If(n%i==0)break;
if(XXX)printf(prime);
else printf(Not prime);
}
(a) i!=n
(b) i= =n
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(c) i<=n
(d) i>=n
Part A
Type 1 (Find the correct option)
1. Kimono is worn by a .. women.
(a) Kenya
(b) Sudanese
(c) Japanese
(d) Mexican
(c) Tamil
(d) Gujrati
(c) Kebeb
(d) Chowmein
(d) PankajAdvani
(a) MughlaiChiken
(b) Biryani
5. Match List I and List II and select answer using the codes given below
X. Dokhna
i. Literature
Y.JumpaLahiri
ii. Mising
Z. Ribigaseng
iii. Bodo
W. Ravi Sankar
iv. Sitar
Codes
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
X
iii
iii
i
iv
Y
ii
i
ii
ii
Z
i
ii
iv
iii
W
iv
iv
iii
i
Part B
Comprehension Test
6. Read the following passage and answer the questions. (5 questions)
7. Write short notes (any four questions)
(i) Women in TV soaps
(ii) Shopping Mall
(iii) Multiplex and Cinema
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4x5=20
5x4=20
(d) Usha
3.
Manusmriti is a book on
(a) Womens Law
(b) Education Law (c) Property Law
1x7=7
4.
Lajja is written by
(a) Arundhati Roy (b) Kalpana Lajmi (c) Taslima Nasreen (d) Benazir Bhutto
5.
What is a Hijab
(a) A scarf
6.
7.
(b) A shawl
(c) A Gown
(c) Badminton
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10x2
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DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION
M. A. in Education
(b) Learning to Be
(b)2009
(c) 2010
(d)2011
The SUPW has been introduced in the school curriculum due to the recommendation of
(a) The Kothari Education Commissions Report
(b) The Ishwarbhai Patel Educational Review Committee
(c) The Secondary Education Commissions Report
(d) The University Educations Committee Report
6.
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(b) Education
(c) Religion
(d) Poverty
(b) J. Krishnamurthy
(c) J. Krishnamurthy
(b) Piaget
(c) Tolman
(d) Skinner
(b) November 11
(c) October 11
(d) June 11
(b) Creativity
(c) Aptitude
(d) Personality
(c)Spearman
(d)Gardner
(b)Guilford
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(b) NCTE
(c) NAAC
(d) NUEPA
(c) Ballard
(d) Thorndike
(b) Adamson
PART II
(510=50)
1. Education and Philosophy are the two sides of a coin. Justify the statement.
2. What are the contributions of Higher Education in the development of Indian society?
3. Discuss the role of technology in 21st century Education.
4. What provisions could be made to handle individual differences among learners?
5. Write down the problems of present-day education system in India.
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M. Tech. in Bioelectronics
PART A
1. Electro- Encephalograph is
(a) Diagnostic tool for heart ailment
(b) Diagnostic tool for Brain ailment
(c) Instrument used for measuring blood pressure
(d) Instrument used to hear pulse/heart beat
2. In modern electronic multimeters a FET or MOSFET is preferred over BJT because
(a) Its input resistance is high
(b) Its input resistance is high and does not vary with change of range
(c) Its input resistance is low
(d) None of these
3. A dc electronic voltmeter using chopper stabilization is free from errors due to
(a) Low CMRR
(b) Amplifier drift
(c) Source output impedance
(d) Interference
4. Feedback is an amplifier
(a) Reduces sensitivity and increase gain
(c) Increases sensitivity as well as gain
5. The ECG is used to detect
(a) Heart attack
(b) Heart block
PART B
1. The best definition for resolution is:
(a) The minimum distance between two objects that can be distinguished
(b) The magnification of a microscope
(c) The observed size divided by the actual size
(d) None of the above
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2. Inionic bonds,
(a) electrons are shared unequally between atoms
(b) neutrons are transferred between atoms
(c) protons are shared equally between atoms
(d) electrons are transferred between atoms
3. The chemical properties of an atom are primarily determined by the number of
(a) neutrons it has in its nucleus
(b) isotopes it forms
(c) protons it has in its nucleus
(d) electrons it has in its outermost energy level
4. Ions involved in the conduction of nerve impulse is
(a) Na+, K+
(b) Na+, Ca2+
(c) Ca2+, Mg2+
5. Which is mismatched?
(a) Cerebrum memory
(c) Cerebellum equilibrium
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DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY
M. Tech. in Energy Technology
Course Outline and Test pattern:
The final selection is based on written test. The test paper will include multiple choice questions
covering (i) energy sources and energy conservation, (ii) mathematics, (iii) physics and (iv)
chemistry (Graduate level courses in Science and Engineering).
There are 100 multiple-choice questions carrying one mark each for correct answer and
negative 0.25 mark for incorrect answer.
Model questions:
1. Which of the following is not associated with heat engine?
(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) Otto cycle
(d) Calvin cycle
2. Global warming is related to energy use because
(a) fossil fuel burning releases CO2
(b) renewable energy sources causes harmful emission
(c) fossil fuel sources are costly
(d) renewable sources of energy are not available
3. In the following reaction, what is X
94Be5 + 42He2
(a) a neutron
(b) a proton
126C6
+X
(d) a deuteron
4. The mass of a pencil is 10 grams. What is the equivalent mass energy in joules?
(a)91012 Joules
(b)91013 Joules
(c)91014 Joules
(d)91015 Joules
5. Find the value of a if the following matrix is singular
4
(a)
(b) 1/3
(c ) 0
(d) -3
(d)-
10. The differential equation (3x2 + by cos x) dx + (2 sin x 4y3) dy = 0 is exact for
(a) b = 1
(b) b = 2
(c) b = 3
(d) b = 4
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19
20
21. Which of the following discoveries, theories, and events contributed to Victorians feeling
less like they were a uniquely special, central species in the universe and more isolated?
(a) geology
(b) evolution
(c) discoveries in astronomy about stellar distances
(d) all of the above
22. Which phrase indicates the interior flow of thought employed in modernist literature?
(a) automatic writing (b) free association
(c) total recall (d) stream of consciousness
23. If we define postocolonialism as coming historically after the era of England's large-scale
imperialism, who among the following is a postcolonial writer?
(a) Salman Rushdie (b) Joseph Conrad
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) All of the above
24. What was the relationship between Victorian poets and the Romantics?
(a) The Romantics remained largely forgotten until their rediscovery by T. S. Eliot in the
1920s.
(b) The Romantics were seen as gifted but crude artists belonging to a distant, semibarbarous age.
(c) The Victorians were strongly influenced by the Romantics and experienced a sense of
belatedness.
(d) The Victorians were aware of no distinction between themselves and the Romantics; the
distinction was only created by critics in the twentieth century.
25. Which best describes the imagist movement, exemplified in the work of T. E. Hulme and Ezra
Pound?
(a) a poetic aesthetic vainly concerned with the way words appear on the page
(b) an effort to rid poetry of romantic fuzziness and facile emotionalism, replacing it with a
precision and clarity of imagery
(c ) an attention to alternate states of consciousness and uncanny imagery
(d) the resurrection of Romantic poetic sensibility
SECTION B
26. Write a paragraph on any ONE of the following topics in not more than 200 words:
(a) a memorable journey
(b) a funny incident
(c) an autumn morning
14
27. Write an essay on any ONE of the following in not more than 300 words.
(a) Nature and literature
(b) a modern novel
(c) Fiction and life
20
28. Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow.
I know why the caged bird sings
A free bird leaps on the back
Of the wind and floats downstream
Till the current ends and dips his wing
In the orange suns rays
And dares to claim the sky.
But a BIRD that stalks down his narrow cage
Can seldom see through his bars of rage
His wings are clipped and his feet are tied
So he opens his throat to sing.
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(d) Pictogram
(d) Allophones
(c) Consonants
(d) 2
(d) Allomorphs
23
11. The following words are from Michoacan Aztec (spoken in Mexico):
a. nokali my house b. mokali your house c. nokalimes my houses
d. ipelo his dog
e. ikali his house
f. nokwahmili your cornfield3
2x5 =10
Now consider the above data and construct the following words in Michoacan Aztec:
(i) Your dogs (ii) His cornfields
(iv) My cornfields
(v) My dog
12. An action, which is denoted by a verb, is temporal: it is grounded either in the past, the
present, or the future time. But sometimes we may think of an action outside time. Consider
the following data and underline the verbs which are not grammatically grounded in any of
the three times.
2.5 x 2 = 5
(a) John likes to swim.
(b) Once John liked to play football.
13. Consider the following data from the Bugun language of Arunachal Pradesh and note two
important grammatical differences between Bugun and English (write your answer in not
more than 4 sentences).
2.5 x 2 = 5
(a) hikamimua
this my sister
This is my sister.
(b) hinyuka?
this what Q
What is this?
(c ) hicheibia?
this dog Q
Is this a dog?
14. Consider the following data from Assamese and say what the morphomes o and y mean.
(a) moimasnakhao
2.5x2 = 5
moimasna-kha-o
I fish no-eat-o
I dont eat fish.
(b) taimasnakhay
taimasna-kha-y
she fish no-eat-y
She doesnt eat fish.
15. Explain the semantic difference between the two sentences below (write your answer in not
more than 5 sentences).
4
(i) I read this novel.
(ii) I have read this novel.
16. Each of the following sentences has at least two meanings. Give both meanings for each of
them.
3x2=6
(i) The chicken is ready to eat.
(ii) They are hunting dogs.
(iii) The leopard was caught by the man with a rope.
Model Questions, 2015
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17(a). Give an account of the language families of the world. Which language families do the
Indian languages belong to?
10
OR
17(b). Give a general account of the indegenous languages spoken in North-East India. Which
language families do they belong to?
18. Pick up any one of the topics from each group and write short notes on any five of them.
8 x 5 = 40
Group 1: (a) Competence and performance;
(b) Synchronic and diachronic study of language;
(c) Word and the world;
(d) Communicative competence;
(e) Speech and writing
Group 2: (a) Consonant and vowel;
(c) Voiceless and voiced sounds;
(b) Allomorph;
(b) Homophones;
(d) Sense and reference
(b) Multilingualism;
(d) Code switching;
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(d) Semantics
(c) Consonants
(d) Allophones
(d) Allomorphs
(d) 14
(c) descriptive
10
12. Due to the domination of prestigious languages smaller languages are dying. Elaborate. 10
13. Write short notes on the following
(a) Mother Tongue (b) Schedule Languages (c) Lingua-franca
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5x4=20
(d) Bilingualism
(d) table
2. Select the preposition in the sentence: The book is behind the chair.
(a) book
(b) behind
(c) is
(d) chair
3. Please select the best option to complete the following sentence: There aren't ____________
people here.
(a) much
(b) many
(c) a lot
(d) some
4. Please select the best option to complete the following sentence: I went to the shop
___________ some chocolate.
(a) for buying
(b) for buy
(c) to buy
(d) buy
5. Please select the best option to complete this sentence: Would you mind _____ the window,
please?
(a) to open
(b) open
(c) opening
(d) I open
6. Please select the best option to complete this sentence: If he _____ worked harder, he
would have passed the exams.
(a) had have
(b) would have
(c) would
(d) had
7. Please select the best option to complete this sentence: This dinner looks _____ to me.
(a) well
(b) nicely
(c) badly
(d) good
8. Who was the author of the famous storybook 'Alice's Adventures in Wonderland'?
(a) Rudyard Kipling (b) John Keats
(c) Lewis Carroll
(d) H G Wells
9. How many lines does a sonnet have?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) An essay
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(c) 101
(d)201
(d) Australia
(d) Myanmar
(c) Malaysia
19. Who was the chairperson of the drafting committee for the Indian Constitution?
(a) B R Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sarojini Naidu
(d) Md. Saadullah
20. The Battle of Plassey was fought in
(a) 1757
(b) 1748
(c) 1782
(d) 1764
(d) Mumbai
(d) Manasorovar
(d)1957
(d) STRONGLY
2. Adjective of POVERTY
(a) POOR
(b) POVERT
(C ) POVERTIVE
(d) POVERTIC
3. Verb of PRACTICAL
(a) PRACT
(b) PRACTIC
(C ) PRACTICE
(d) PRACTICALITY
4. Adverb of BRIEF
(a) BRIEFING
(b) BRIEFINGLY
(c) BRIEFFULLY
(d) BRIEFLY
5. Opposite of TALL
(a) SORT
(b) SHORT
(c) SNORT
(d) DORT
6. Opposite of THIN
(a) CLICK
(b) LICK
(c) THICK
(d) TICK
7. Opposite of DRY
(a) BET
(b) SET
(c) PET
(d) WET
8. Opposite of NARROW
(a) WIDE
(b) PRIDE
(c) SIDE
(d) SLIDE
(c) LASS
(d) FEMALE
(c) SERVANT
(d) MAID
(c) LORDGIRL
(d) LADY
(c) WIFE
(d) COUPLE
(c) BROTHER
(d) SON
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(c) See
(d) Seen
(c) Playing
(d) To play
(d) Play
(c) Colour
(d) Nature
(c) WHEAT
(d) SPHAGETTI
(d)1949
(c) Pyongyang
(d) Laos
(c)1997
(d)1779
(c) USSR
20
20
3. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions given below:
10
It is a matter of common knowledge that in underdeveloped countries such as India with a
growing population, there is an unusual pressure on land cultivation. Here, more people are
engaged in agriculture partly or wholly than are necessary.
What is the result? When more people are engaged in agriculture than are really needed for
the purpose, they are really surplus. If they are withdrawn from the rural areas and put in
other occupations and professions it will not mean any decrease in agricultural output. On the
other hand, it might increase, as it is said, Too many cooks spoil the broth. In absolute terms
Model Questions, 2015
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30
the total volume of rural unemployment is much larger than that of any other country. No
wonder, it poses the most challenging problem for the planners to tackle.
(a) Suggest a suitable title for the text.
2
(b) In which literary category would you classify the text(i) A report
(ii) A story
(iii) An advertisement
2
(iv) An essay
(c) Complete the following sentence with words or phrases that best suit the context. Choosefrom the alternative suggested:
32=6
[ I ] In India there are many more people engaged in land cultivation than are(i) demanded
(ii) needed
(iii) expected
[ II ] They are really surplus means(i) there are too many of them
(ii) they are really useless
(iii) they are really needed
[ III ] India has the largest number of(i) unemployed persons in the urban areas
(ii) unemployed persons in the village areas
(iii) unemployed persons in the planning department
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31
(b) no radiations
(d) radiations of selected wavelengths
(d) Azotobacter
32
(d) As
Model Questions, 2015
Section A
(d) 2
(d) -2.213
3. A fair coin is thrown in the air four times. If the coin lands with the head up on the first three
tosses, what is the probability that the coin will land with the head up on the fourth toss?
(a) 0
(b) 1/16
(c) 1/8
(d) 1/2
Section B
1. The velocity head in a pipe system is
(a) Z
(b) V
V2
2g
(c)
(d)
2g
p
y
2. Which of the following statements is always true for a reaction in which there is no nonexpansion work?
(a) U=qp
(b) H=qp
(c) U= 0
(d) H= 0
3. Time dependent permanent deformation is called
(a) Plastic deformation
(b) Elastic deformation
(c) Creep
Section C
1. Complex carbohydrates are polymers of
(a) amino acids
(b) nucleic acids
( d) glucose
(c) 4.5X106J
(d) 1080J
3. What is the S value of a heat treatment process if the microbial concentration gets reduced
from 109cfu/ml to 1 cfu/ml ?
(a) 109
(b) 10
(c) 9
(d) 1
Tezpur University
33
DEPARTMENT OF HINDI (
)
M.A. in Hindi
Course Outline and Test pattern:
The entrance examination for M.A. in Hindi assesses whether the candidate has the level of
knowledge and skills expected of a student who has graduated or is going to graduate with
major/honours in Hindi.
There will be 100 marks for the test. The written test shall include multiple choice objective
type questions of 50 marks. Descriptive type questions shall consist of the remaining fifty
marks.
Model questions:
1. :
I. :
(a)
(b)
2x25=50
(c)
II. ?
(a) 5 1948
(d) :
(b) 26 1965
(c) 14 1949
(d) 20 1949
III. ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
IV. ?
(a)
(c)
V. :
(a) 1375-1700
(c) 1376-1716
2.
3x10=30
(b)
(d)
(b) 1400-1650
(d) 1385-1800
1.
2.
3.
4.
3.
5x4=20
1.
2.
3.
4. -
5. - ?
Tezpur University
34
2x25=50
I. ?
(a)
(c) :
(b)
(d)
II. ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
III. ?
(a) 14
(c) 14
(b) 14
(d) 14
IV. ?
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 2
(d) 22
2.
5x4=20
?
3. -
1x10=10
4. 2x10=20
I.
II.
III.
Tezpur University
35
36
37
(c)
fdx
f dx
(d)
f dx
fdx
a
e x ce 2 x
(b)
(d)
ma 2 2 k
y y e 2 x is
e x ce 2 x
(c)
e 2 x ce x
(d)
e 2 x ce x
7. Factory A supplied 5 bulbs, 1 of which was defective. Factory B supplied 4 bulbs, 2 of which
were defective. 1 bulb is to be chosen uniformly at random from the 9 bulbs supplied by the
factories. If the chosen bulb is found to be defective, what is the probability that the bulb was
supplied by factory B?
4
9
2
5
5
(c)
(d)
3
7
9
8. Consider the permutations f (1 2 3)(1 2) , g (1 2 3 4 5)(1 2 3)(4 5) then
(a) Both f and g are even
(b) Both f and g are odd
(c) f is odd and g is even
(d) f is even and g is odd
(a)
Tezpur University
(b)
38
1. If, f ( x)
(a)
Section A: Mathematics
Choose the correct alternative
| t | dt then f (x) is
(c) | x |
(b) 2
(d) 2 | x | .
2. The area lying in the first quadrant and bounded by x y 4 and the lines x 0 and
is x 2
(a)
(b) / 2
(c) / 3
(d) / 4
3. The number of possible ways in selecting a committee of two members out of 3 men and 2
women is
(a) 10
(b) 25
(c) 100
(d) 120.
2
(d)
p( x) are
0 Iden-
1 b c is a perfect square.
5. Consider the graph of the curve y sin( x 5) 5 . At how many points will this curve
intersect the x axis?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 5
(d) .
6. In a triangle ABC , a 4 , b 3 , A 600 then c is a root of the equation
(a) c 2 3c 7 0
(b) c 2 3c 7 0
2
(c) c 3c 7 0
(d) c 2 3c 7 0
7. The probability that a leap year will have 53 Fridays or 53 Saturdays is
1
4
3
2
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
7
7
7
7
8. The function f ( x) 2 x 3 3x 2 12 x 4 has
(a) no maxima or minima
(b) one maxima and one minima
(c) two maxima
(d) two minima
9. The straight line whose sum of the intercepts on the axes is equal to half of the product of the
intercepts, passes through the point
(a) (1,1)
(b) (2,2)
(c) (3,3)
(d) (4,4)
10. If a and b are two unit vectors such that angle between them is 60, then |a-b|
is equal to
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 0
(d) 1
Section B: Physics/Chemistry/Biology/General
This section shall contain 15 multiple choice questions from Physics, Chemistry, Biology and
General.
Tezpur University
39
p
N 2D2
(b)
4. The expression p Z
2
gH
N 2D2
(c)
D 2
(d)
V3
40
3. A man walks along a rectangle whose perimeter is six kms. If the area of the rectangle is two
sq.kms, what is the difference between the length and breadth of the rectangle?
(a) km
(b) 1 km
(c) 11/2 km
(d) 2 km
4. Insulin is secreted by
(a) cells of pancreas (b) cells of pancreas
9. Bacteria belongs to which of the following genus are found in diverse ecological niches
(a) Pseudomonas
(b) Mycobacterium
(c) Salmonella
(d) Yersinia
10. Organism capable of both nitrogen fixation and photosynthesis belong to
(a) High plants
(b) Fungi
(c) Bacteria
(d) Euglena
Tezpur University
41
(b) Actin
(d) Fibrin
(b) Ulothrix
(d) Sargassum
(b) Koch
(d) Watson
9. The Trpoperon is a
(a) repressible system
(c) system controlled by 3 structural genes
(b) Gametophyte
(d) Gametophore
Tezpur University
42
DEPARTMENT OF PHYSICS
M.Sc. in Physics
Course Outline and Test pattern:
Upto B.Sc. Physics (Honours) syllabus. The paper is of objective type. Entrance test has 50
objective type questions. Each question carries 2 marks. For every incorrect answer 0.5 marks
will be deducted.
Model questions:
1. If the other parameters are same, the range of a projectile is maximum when its angle of
projection is
(a) 900
(b) 600
(c) 450
(d) 300
2. Hamiltonian formalism is easier to handle than Lagrangian formalism because Hamiltonian
formalism involves
(a) first order differential equations
(b) only Cartesian co-ordinates
(c) generalized momentum instead of generalized co-ordinates (d) no time derivatives
3. An electric potential filed is produced by joint charges 1 mC and 4 mC located at (-2, 1, 5) and
(1, 3, -1) respectively. The energy stored in the field is
(a) 2.57 mJ,
(b) 5.14 mJ,
(c) 0.28 mJ
(d) 20.56 mJ
4. Which of the following potentials does not satisfy the Laplace's equation?
(a) V = 2x + 5
(b) V = 10 xy
(c) V = x2y2 + 5x + 2 (d) V = 3y + 10
5. Three perfect gases at absolute temperatures T1, T2 and T3 are mixed. The masses of
molecules are m1, m2 and m3 and the number of molecules are n1, n2 and n3 respectively.
Assuming no loss of energy, the final temperature of the mixture is
(a) (n12T12 + n22T22 + n32T32) / (n1T1 + n2T2 + n3T3)
(b) (T1 + T2 + T3) / 3
(c) (n1T1 + n2T2 + n3T3) / (n1 + n2 + n3)
(d) (n1T12 + n2T22 + n3T32) / (n1T1 + n2T2 + n3T3)
6. Consider a biased coin in which the probability of getting heads is p and tails is (1 - p). The
entropy S of this probability distribution is maximum for
(a) p = 1
(b) p = 0
(c) p = 0.5
(d) p = 0.25
7. A particle oscillates in a one dimensional potential of the form V(x) = ax 6. If the amplitude of
the oscillation is doubled, the time period of the oscillation will
(a) double
(b) become one fourth (c) remain same
(d) become half
8. A Carnot engine operation between temperatures T1 and T2 has efficiency 1/6. When T2 is
lowered by 62 K, its efficiency increases to 1/3. Then T1 and T2 are respectively
(a) 310 K and 248 K (b) 372 K and 310 K
(c) 372 K and 330 K
(d) 330 K and 268 K
9. A boat is moving due east in a region where the earth's magnetic field is 5.0 10 -5 NA-1 due
north and horizontal. The boat carries a vertical aerial 2 m long. If the speed of the boat is 1.50
ms-1, the magnitude of the induced emf in the wire of aerial is
(a) 0.15 mV
(b) 1 mV
(c) 0.75 mV
(d) 0.50 mV
10. 100 g of water is heated from 30 C to 50 C. Ignoring the expansion of water, the changes in
the internal energy is (specific heat of water = 4184 J/ kg / K)
(a) 2.1 kJ
(b) 4.2 kJ
(c) 8.4 kJ
(d) 84 kJ
Tezpur University
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44
6. Kirchhoffs first law(i=0) and second law (iR=E), where symbols have their usual
meanings, are respectively based on
(a) Conservation of charge, Conservation of momentum
(b) Conservation of energy, Conservation of charge
(c) Conservation of momentum, Conservation of charge
(d) Conservation of charge, Conservation of energy
7. A material B has twice the specific resistance of A. A circular wire made up of B has twice
the diameter of a wire made of A. Then for the two wires to have the same resistance, the
ratio (IB/IA) of their respective lengths must be:
(a)1
(b)
(c)
(d) 2
8. Which of the following units denotes the dimension [ML2/Q2], where Q denotes the electric
charge?
(a) Wb/m-2
(b) Henry (H)
(c) H/m2
(d) Weber (Wb)
9. In a two body problem (particle A striking the particle B) relation between and is
(a) KECM mA KELAB
m m
B
A
B
(c) KECM
KELAB
m
A mB
Tezpur University
(b)
m
KECM A KELAB
mB
(d)
mB
KECM
KE LAB
mA mB
45
10. The half-life of Na-24 is 15.0 h. Time required to decay 80 percent of a sample of this nuclide
is
(a) 34.8 h
(b) 40 h
(c) 15 days
(d) 30h
Section B: Maths/Chemistry/Biology/General
This section shall contain 15 multiple choice questions from Maths, Chemistry & Biology
(upto 10+2 standard) and General.
Tezpur University
46
(d) 25 December
(d) 5 December
(d) 14 April
(d) 7 April
ii) Name of the eminent scientist who was awarded Bharat Ratna in 2015
(a) C.N.R.Rao
(b) Kasturi Rangan
(c) A.P.J Kalam (d) K. Radhakrishnan
iii) Who was awarded posthumously the Ashok Chakra gallantry award on Republic Day,
2015?
(a) Navdeep Singh (b) Prasad Babu
(c) Rajesh Kumar
(d) Hemt Karkare
iv) Who is the author of the book Ignited Minds ?
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
v) Name the African leader who fought against apartheid successfully :
(a) Jacob Zuma
(b) Thabo Mbeki
(c) Kgalema Motlanthe
3. Deabrivation
i) 3G
(a) Three Generations
(c) Third Gear
ii) Bc
( b) Birth Control
(d) Bombay Cinema
Tezpur University
47
V)
CBI
Tezpur University
(5 Marks Each)
(20 Marks)
48
DEPARTMENT OF SOCIOLOGY
M.A. in Sociology
The written test includes questions (objective as well as subjective type) on (i) general
awareness and (ii) understanding of various socio-economic issues.
Objective -50 marks, Descriptive-50 marks
Model questions:
Type I. Choose the correct answer.
1. The Lepchas belong to which state of North-East India?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Sikkim
(c) Mizoram
(d) Nagaland
20 x 2 = 40
3. Which state of North-East India is the only state in India where the four cats, i.e. Tiger, Leopard, Clouded Leopard and Snow Leopard are found?
(a) Manipur
(b) Sikkim
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Tripura
4. The Lushai hills was the earlier name of
(a) Nagaland
(b) Mizoram
(c) Manipur
(c ) Turkey
(d) Egypt
(d) O+
(d)1/90
8. The earth completes one rotation on its axis in (hour, minutes and seconds)
(a)23 h 56 min 4.09 s
(b)23 h 59 min 9.99 s
(c)23 h 60 min 0.00 s
(d)24 h 00 min 0.00 s
9. The latitude AA on the map represents the
(a) The Tropic of Cancer
(c) The Hemisphere
10. Who is the author of the book Black Holes and Baby Universes?
(a) Stephen Hawking (b) AmartyaSen
(c) Albert Einstein
(c) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) October 2
(d) December 10
(a)
13. Shintoism is a religion practiced by about 0.1 % population of the world; it is developed out
of primitive nature and ancestor worship. Where is it found?
(a) Israel
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) Thailand
14. Who was the Governor-General when the 1857 revolt broke out?
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Canning
(c) Lord Curzon
Tezpur University
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List II
i) Organic Analogy
ii) Theory of Social Action
iii) Dramaturgy
iv) Circulation of the Elite
v) Das Capital
5 x 2 = 10
Type III. Write short notes on any two (within 150 words):
1. Global Warming
2. Lokpal Bill
3. Globalisation and its impact on Indian society.
4. Sociology as a science.
10 x 2 = 20
Type IV. Answer any two of the following questions (within 250 words):
1. Unity in diversity is India. Discuss
2. Discuss the causes and consequences of poverty in India.
3. What is communalism? Why is it a threat to national integration?
4. Discuss the distribution of different ethnic groups inhabiting North-East India.
15 x 2 = 30
Tezpur University
50
BACHELOR OF VOCATION
RENEWABLE ENERGY
Course outline and test pattern:
The test paper will contain 50 objective type (multiple choices) questions carrying 2 marks each. The
test paper will comprise of 20% physics, 20% chemistry, 20% mathematics, 20% biology and 20%
general awareness including English of 10+2 level. There will be 0.5 negative marks for each wrong
answer.
Model Questions :
1. Swimming is possible on account of
(a) First law of motion
(c) NaCl
(d) Glass
6. How many words comprising of any three letters of the word UNIVERSAL can be formed
(a) 504
(b)540
(c)405
(d)450
7.
If
(a) 1
then
=?
(b)
(c)(/2)
(d)(/3)
8. Which of the following pathogen type cause disease that can be treated with antibiotics
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Virus
9. Choose the correction option for the article to be used in the blank:
Our city will have ------------- university soon
(a) A
(b) An
(c) The
(d) no article
10. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Indirect/
Direct speech: They greet me cheerfully every morning.
(a) Every morning I was greeted cheerfully.
(b) I am greeted cheerfully by them every morning.
(c) I am being greeted cheerfully by them every morning.
(d) Cheerful greeting is done by them every morning to me.
Tezpur University
51
BACHELOR OF VOCATION
FOOD PROCESSING
Course outline and test pattern
Entrance examination will cover Mathematics (20%), Physics (20%), Chemistry (20%), Biology
(20%) and General Awareness including English (20%). The test paper will comprise of 50
objective type questions carrying 02 marks each. There will be 0.5 negative marks for each wrong
answer. There will be a cutoff mark for selection.
Mathematics:
1. Find the 20th term for the A.P series 2, 6, 10...................................
(a) 71
(b)87
(c) 78
(d) 79
(d) (0,0)
If dy/dx=tan x, then y=
(a)1/2 tan2 x+C
(b) sec2 x+C
Chemistry:
1. What is the IUPAC name of Toluene?
(a) Methylbenzene
(b) Nitrobenzene
(c) Chlorobenzene
(d) Phenol
2. During the formation of methane molecule, the carbon atom undergoes ......hybridization.
(a) sp1
(b) sp3
(c) sp3d
(d) sp2
3. The value of R in the ideal gas equation is
(a) 8.314 JK1mol1 (b) 8.314 JoC1mol1
(c)
8.314 kJK1mol1
(d)
8.314 JK1mol
Physics:
1. A body is moving along a circular path with variable speed. It has
(a) A radial acceleration
(b) A tangential acceleration
(c) Zero acceleration
(d) Both radial and tangential acceleration
2. The relation between escape velocity and orbit velocity is
(a) Ve=
Vorb
(b) Ve =
Vorb
(d) Ve=
Vorb
3. The bending of a beam of light when it passes obliquely from one medium to another is known
as _______.
(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) Deviation
(d) Dispersion
Biology:
1.In cell, ATP energy is produced by which organelle
(a) Golgi bodies
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Mitochondria
2. Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world?
(a) Collagen
(b) Trypsin
(c) Pepsin
Tezpur University
52
(d) Renin
Model Questions, 2015
3. N-acetyl glutamic acid (NAG) and N-acetyl muramic acid (NAM) is found in
(a) Gram positive bacteria
(b) Gram negative bacteria
(c) Both a & b
(c) was
Tezpur University
53