5R Mcat Prep

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MCAT
Practice Test 5R
Physical Sciences
Time: 100 minutes
Questions: 1-77
Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive
passage. After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are
not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives.
Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A periodic table is
provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
Periodic Table of the Elements
He
4.0
10
1.0
3
Li
Be
Ne
6.9
9.0
10.8
12.0
14.0
16.0
19.0
20.2
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
Na
Mg
Al
Si
Cl
Ar
23.0
24.3
27.0
28.1
31.0
32.1
35.5
39.9
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
Ca
Sc
Ti
Cr
Mn
Fe
Co
Ni
Cu
Zn
Ga
Ge
As
Se
Br
Kr
39.1
37
40.1
38
45.0
39
47.9
40
50.9
41
52.0
42
54.9
43
55.8
44
58.9
45
58.7
46
63.5
47
65.4
48
69.7
49
72.6
50
74.9
51
79.0
52
79.9
53
83.8
54
Rb
Sr
Zr
Nb
Mo
Tc
Ru
Rh
Pd
Ag
Cd
In
Sn
Sb
Te
Xe
85.5
55
87.6
56
88.9
57
91.2
72
92.9
73
95.9
74
(98)
75
101.1
76
102.9
77
106.4
78
107.9
79
112.4
80
114.8
81
118.7
82
121.8
83
127.6
84
126.9
85
131.3
86
Cs
Ba
La*
Hf
Ta
Re
Os
Ir
Pt
Au
Hg
Tl
Pb
Bi
Po
At
Rn
132.9
87
137.3
88
138.9
89
178.5
104
180.9
105
183.9
106
186.2
107
190.2
108
192.2
109
195.1
197.0
200.6
204.4
207.2
209.0
(209)
(210)
(222)
Fr
Ra
Ac
Unq
Unp
Unh
Uns
Uno
Une
(223)
(226)
(227)
(261)
(262)
58
(263)
59
(262)
60
(265)
61
(267)
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
Ce
Pr
Nd
Pm
Sm
Eu
Gd
Tb
Dy
Ho
Er
Tm
Yb
Lu
140.1
90
140.9
91
144.2
92
(145)
93
150.4
94
152.0
95
157.3
96
158.9
97
162.5
98
164.9
99
167.3
100
168.9
101
173.0
102
175.0
103
Th
Pa
Np
Pu
Am
Cm
Bk
Cf
Es
Fm
Md
No
Lr
232.0
(231)
238.0
(237)
(244)
(243)
(247)
(247)
(251)
(252)
(257)
(258)
(259)
(260)
Passage I
Ammonia can be prepared by the reversible reaction
between H2 and N2 in the presence of a mixture of FeO
and Al2K2O4 (Reaction 1) under a variety of conditions
(Table 1).
Reaction 1
Table 1 Equilibrium Concentrations of NH3(g) at
Several Temperatures and Pressures
Equilibrium concentration of NH3(g)
Pressure
(% by volume)
(atm)
at 200C at 400C at 600C at 800C
1
15.3
0.44
0.05
0.01
100
80.6
25.1
4.47
1.15
200
85.8
36.3
8.25
2.24
1,000
98.3
80.0
31.5
NH3 can also be prepared by reacting a metal nitride,

such as Mg3N2, with H2O, as summarized by the
following unbalanced equation (Reaction 2).
1. Is Reaction 1 exothermic under standard

conditions?
A) Yes, because heat must be added to initiate the
reaction
B) Yes, because the standard enthalpy change is
negative
C) No, because the percent yield of NH3 is greatest at
high pressure
D) No, because the standard enthalpy change is
negative
2. Which of the following graphs best shows the effect
of pressure on the equilibrium percentage yield of
NH3(g) at 200C?
A)
B)
Mg3N2(s) + H2O(l)
Mg(OH)2(s) + NH3(g)
Reaction 2
Ammonia and ammonium salts are used as commercial
fertilizers. Ammonium salts are prepared by reacting
NH3 with HX (an acid) as shown below (Reaction 3).
NH3(g) + HX(aq)
NH4X(s)
Reaction 3
C)
The approximate electronegativities of several

elements are given in Table 2.
Table 2 Electronegativities of Several Elements
Element
Elecronegativity
H
2.20
I
2.66
N
3.04
O
3.44
F
3.98
D)
Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright.
3. The most likely role of the FeO/Al2K2O4 mixture

used in Reaction 1 is to:
A) increase the rate of the reaction.
B) increase the equilibrium constant.
C) provide energy to facilitate the reaction.
D) lower the pH of the reaction mixture.
4. If excess NH3(g) reacts with H2SO4(aq), which of
the following compounds can be produced?
A) NH4SO4
B) NH4H2SO4
C) NH4(SO4)2
D) (NH4)2SO4
5. What kind of interactions take place between
molecules of the product of Reaction 1?
A) Ionic only
B) Hydrogen bonding only
C) Dipole-dipole only
D) Both hydrogen bonding and dipole-dipole
6. Which of the following ions involved in Reaction 2
is the strongest base?
A) N3-(aq)
B) OH(aq)
C) Mg2+(aq)
D) H+(aq)
Passage II
A large amount of energy is released when the nucleus
of an atom disintegrates. Nuclear fission of 1 kg of
U produces approximately 8.0 1013 J, an amount of
energy equal to that produced by burning 2.3 106 kg
of coal. A simple model of nuclear disintegration can
be used to explain the source of this large amount of
energy.
The nucleus of a U atom contains 92 protons and
146 neutrons in a sphere with a radius of
approximately 7.6 1015 m. There is a large repulsive
force between the positive charges in the nucleus. This
force is balanced by a short-range attractive force, the
strong nuclear force. By using a simple model,
calculations can be done to find the amount of energy
released when a uranium atom fissions. The model
assumes that the uranium nucleus disintegrates into
two spherical fragments, as shown in Figure 1.
The repulsive force between the two nuclei is kQ2/d2,

where k is Coulombs constant and d is the distance
between the centers of the nuclei. The potential energy
of the system of charged nuclear fragments is kQ2/(2r),
which is the energy available from this disintegration.
A value of 3.2 1011 J per atom is obtained by
making a calculation for the model uranium atom. This
value is very close to the experimentally determined
value.
7. According to the passage, the energy released when

an atom splits comes from:
A) fast-moving electrons.
B) the short-range attraction of the nucleons.
C) mutual attraction of the fragments.
D) mutual repulsion of the fragments.
8. A nucleus splits into two fragments that have equal
charge but unequal mass. Which of the following is
equal for the two fragments as they move apart?
A) Magnitude of the force of one fragment on the
other
B) Magnitude of acceleration
C) Speed
D) Kinetic energy
9. Based on the passage, why are there no naturally
occurring elements that have more protons in their
nucleus than uranium does?
Figure 1 Nuclear disintegration model

The fragments each have radius r, mass m, and charge
Q. Immediately after separation, their centers are
separated by 2r. There is a large electrical repulsion
between these two fragments that causes them to move
apart and gain kinetic energy.
A) All of the heavier elements have radioactively

decayed.
B) All of the heavier elements are stable.
C) The range of the strong nuclear force is too short to
hold them together.
D) The heavier elements can be made only in nuclear
reactors.
10. Which of the following graphs best illustrates how

the force between fragments from the fission of a
uranium nucleus varies as the fragments move
away from each other?
A)
B)
C)
D)
11. If they are given enough energy, nuclei of lighter

atoms can fuse together. Which of the following
best explains why this energy is required?
A) To overcome the mutual repulsion of the nuclei
B) To strip the electrons from the nuclei
C) To add electrons to the nuclei
D) To overcome the strong nuclear force
12. If a uranium nucleus undergoes fission as shown
in Figure 1, as one fragment moves away from the
other fragment, it has:
A) constant speed.
B) constant acceleration.
C) decreasing acceleration.
D) increasing acceleration.
Passage III
Ozone (O3) is formed in the upper atmosphere by
reactions 1 and 2.
O+O
Reaction 2: O + O O
Reaction 1: O2
13. A compound that significantly assists in ozone

depletion CANNOT be:
A) a gas.
B) a radical precursor.
C) inert in the lower atmosphere.
D) inert in the upper atmosphere.
Because reactions 1 and 2 are photochemically

reversible, ozone is removed at a rate that is equal to
the rate of its formation, and a steady state
concentration is reached. Table 1 summarizes the
thermodynamic data for the oxygen species involved in
ozone formation.
Table 1 Thermodynamic Properties of Oxygen
Oxygen
S
Hf
Gf
Species
(J/molK)
(kJ/mol)
(kJ/mol)
O
161.0
247.5
230.1
O2
205.0
0
0
O3
238.8
142
163.4
The ozone balance has recently been disturbed,
resulting in a net loss of ozone in the upper atmosphere.
Scientists believe this is due in part to reactions
involving chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) such as CF3Cl.
Although CFCs are typically inert, they can undergo
photolysis in the upper atmosphere and subsequently
assist in the decomposition of ozone according to
reactions 35.
F C + Cl
Reaction 4: Cl + O ClO + O
Reaction 5: ClO + O Cl + O
Reaction 3: F3CCl
14. The chlorine atom in Reaction 4 is very reactive

because it has:
A) an unpaired electron.
B) an extra electron.
C) an expanded octet.
D) a partial negative charge.
15. Which of the following is the balanced net
reaction that is described by reactions 4 and 5?
A) O3 + O O2
B) O3 + O 2 O2
C) O3 + Cl Cl + O + O2
D) O3 + ClO 2 O2 + Cl
16. Based on Table 1, which of the following graphs
most accurately depicts the free energy changes
during the course of reactions 1 and 2?
A)
B)
This mechanism is supported by the fact that periodic

increases in ClO in the upper atmosphere correlate
well with times of ozone depletion.
C)
D)
17. According to Table 1, what is S of the following

reaction?
2 O3
3O
A) 33.8 J/(molK)
B) 33.8 J/(molK)
C) 137.4 J/(molK)
D) 137.4 J/(molK)
18. From reactions 35, what can be determined about
the relative concentrations of CFCs and O2?
A) One equivalent of CFC is required to produce one
equivalent of O2.
B) One equivalent of CFC is required to produce two
equivalents of O2.
C) A catalytic amount of CFC can produce much O2.
D) The CFC is produced by a catalytic amount of O2.
10
Passage IV
Fertilizers are substances added to the soil to improve
plant growth and productivity. Commonly used
fertilizers contain ionic salts of N, P, and K. Because
of the complexity of soil chemistry, it is often difficult
to predict how soil pH will be affected by the addition
of a fertilizer.
Ionic salts used as fertilizers can generally be classified
chemically as either acidic or basic. Ammonium
dihydrogen phosphate (NH4H2PO4), a commonly used
fertilizer, can alter soil pH according to Equation 1.
2 NH4H2PO4(s)
2 NH4+(aq) + H2PO4(aq) + HPO42(aq) + H+(aq)
Equation 1
Alternatively, the fertilizer ammonium monohydrogen
phosphate [(NH4)2HPO4] can alter soil pH according to
Equation 2.
2 (NH4)2HPO4(s) + H2O(l)
4 NH4+(aq) + HPO42(aq) + H2PO4(aq) + OH(aq)
Equation 2
If a fertilizer alters the original soil pH too drastically,

CaCO3, a standard liming material, can be used to
raise soil pH, and CaCl2 can be used to lower soil pH.
Ammonia is sometimes applied directly to the soil to
increase the ammonium ion content by its interaction
with water in the soil. The ammonium ions from all
these sources can further affect soil pH during the
nitrification process. In this process, soil microbes
convert ammonium ions to nitrate ions according to
Equation 3.
NH4+(aq) + 2 O2(g) NO3(aq) + H2O(l) + 2 H+(aq)
Equation 3
The nitrate ions are taken up by plants and converted
first to nitrite ions, NO2, then to ammonia for amino
acid synthesis in the plant.
19. After adding the fertilizer shown in Equation 2 to

the soil, what will be the most likely effect of
excessively moist soil conditions?
A) The degree of ionization will be greater, releasing
more OH.
B) The degree of ionization will be greater, consuming
more OH.
C) The degree of ionization will be reduced, releasing
more OH.
D) The degree of ionization will be reduced,
consuming more OH.
20. Which of the following is the most likely reason
that plants CANNOT utilize nitrogen from the
atmosphere?
A) N2 is present in very low concentrations in the
atmosphere.
B) N2 is too polar.
C) N2 is very unreactive because it is a noble gas.
D) N2 is very unreactive because of the great strength
of the NN triple bond.
21. In Equation 1, HPO42 is the conjugate:
A) acid of NH4+.
B) base of NH4+.
C) acid of H2PO4.
D) base of H2PO4.
22. Which of the following equilibria best accounts
for the pH-raising effect of CaCO3?
Ca2+ + CO32
A) CaCO3
B) CaCO3 + 2 H2O
CaH2 + H2CO32 + 2 OH
2
C) CO3 + H2O
HCO3 + OH
D) Ca2+ + H2O
CaH2 + OH
23. In the equilibrium constant expression for
Equation 2, [H2O] is omitted because the salt is:
A) only weakly basic, and [H2O] is nearly constant.
B) strongly basic, and [H2O] is nearly zero.
C) only weakly acidic, and [H2O] is nearly constant.
D) strongly acidic, and [H2O] is nearly zero.
11
These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other.
24.
Na2CO3 + HCl
CO
+ H2O + NaCl
Consider the above unbalanced equation. For this

reaction, how many mL of a 2 M solution of
Na2CO3 are required to produce 11.2 L of CO2 at
STP?
A) 125 mL
B) 250 mL
C) 375 mL
D) 500 mL
25. By how much does the oxidation number of
manganese in MnO4 differ from that of Mn2+?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 5
D) 6
26. If ocean waves strike the shore every 3.0 s and the
horizontal distance between adjacent crests and
troughs is 1.0 m, what is the average speed of the
waves?
A) 0.33 m/s
B) 0.67 m/s
C) 1.5 m/s
D) 3.0 m/s
27. A particle is moving on a circular path, whose
radius is 4 cm, with a frequency of 4 Hz. How
long will it take for the particle to move through a
distance of 16 cm along the circle?
A) 1/4 s
B) 1/2 s
C) 1 s
D) 4 s
12
Passage V
A chemist is studying the catalytic effect of the
enzyme polynucleotide phosphorylase (PNP) on the
polymerization of cytosine 3',5'-diphosphate (CDP).
PNP cleaves nucleoside diphosphates with the release
of a phosphate species, and the addition of a trace
amount of magnesium ion ensures that the catalyst is
active. Equation 1 shows a polymerization reaction in
which a single polymer macromolecule is made from
CDP.
Equation 1
In practice, the reaction shown in Equation 1 occurs
many times, yielding a product composed of many
polymeric strands.
Experiment 1
The chemist dissolves 16 mmol CDP in 1 L of an
aqueous solution containing PNP and Mg2+ and buffers
the solution at pH 8.7. The chemist monitors the
reaction by measuring the amount of inorganic
phosphate produced. No reaction is detected for 30
min, then the reaction appears to proceed at a constant
rate until it stops with a final HPO42 concentration of
8 mM. The recovered polymer contains 7.5 mmol of
cytosine.
28. What mass of CDP (403 g mol1) is in 10 mL of

the buffered solution at the beginning of
Experiment 1?
A) 6.4 x 104 g
B) 6.4 x 103 g
C) 6.4 x 102 g
D) 6.4 x 101 g
29. As an alternative to Experiment 2, the chemist also
can improve the yield of the polymer obtained in
Experiment 1 by increasing the amount of:
A) H2O.
B) PNP.
C) Mg2+.
D) CDP.
30. Which of the following expressions gives the
equilibrium constant (Keq) for the reaction shown
in Equation 1?
A)
B)
C)
D)
[(CP)n] [HPO42]n
[CDP]n
[(CP)n] [HPO42]
[CDP]n
[(CP)n] [HPO42]n
[CDP]
[CP] [HPO42]n
[CDP]n
Experiment 2
31. According to Equation 1, the concentration of the

polymer with respect to [HPO42] is:
The chemist repeats Experiment 1 but adds enough

manganese sulfate to precipitate the slightly soluble
manganese hydrogen phosphate as it forms. The
recovered polymer contains 11.4 mmol of cytosine.
A) n[HPO42].
B) n2[HPO42].
C) (1/n)[HPO42].
D) (1/n2)[HPO42].
32. The pKa for the dissociation of H2PO4 to HPO42
is 6.7. What is the initial ratio of
[HPO42]:[H2PO4] in the buffer solution of
Experiment 1?
A) 1:1
B) 2:1
C) 100:1
D) 200:1
13
Passage VI
Carbon dating is a common method for estimating the
age of artifacts found by archaeologists. The principle
of radioactive dating is based on knowledge of the
characteristics of the 14C isotope, which is commonly
found in most handmade objects. This isotope is
unstable and experiences spontaneous beta decay with
a half-life of approximately 6000 years. Archaeologists
need only a single radioactive measurement from a
found object to estimate the age of the object.
Scintillation detectors are often used for measurement
of radioactive decay. A scintillator is a substance that
produces light as a result of the de-excitation of atoms.
The excitation is caused by the absorption of energy, in
this case from incident beta radiation. A scintillating
material is attached to a photomultiplier tube that
collects the light and converts it into electrical pulses,
which are measured and counted. The electrical pulses
indicate the energy of the radiation produced by the
object being measured and the rate at which the decay
occurs.
The mass of the beta particle is 9 1031 kg. The
velocity of electromagnetic radiation in vacuum is 3
108 m/s. Plancks constant is 6.6 1034 Js.
35. The average velocity of a beta particle ejected

from 14C is 3 x 107 m/s. What is the average
kinetic energy of this beta particle?
A) 1.5 x 108 J
B) 2.3 x 1016 J
C) 4.0 x 1016 J
D) 1.5 x 1023 J
36. The best materials to use as scintillators are nearly
transparent to the wavelengths of the light that
they emit. This characteristic is important because:
A) it minimizes the reabsorption of the light.
B) it maximizes the reabsorption of the light.
C) it maximizes the amount of light produced.
D) it increases the wavelength of the light produced.
37. When the wavelength for maximum light emission
of a given scintillator is 450 nm, what is the
energy of the light photon?
A) 4.4 x 1019 J
B) 1.4 x 1025 J
C) 4.4 x 1028 J
D) 2.9 x 1042 J
33. The 14C atom undergoes beta decay to 14N. What

particle is being emitted from the carbon nucleus?
A) Electron
B) Alpha
C) Neutron
D) Positron
34. Archaeologists find an object that is known to be
created 18,000 years ago. Measurements indicate
that 1000 atoms of 14C are present in the
object. How many atoms of 14C were present
when the object was made?
A) 1000
B) 3000
C) 3375
D) 8000
14
Passage VII
A group of students performed two experiments to
study several transition metals.
Experiment 1
The students reacted four transition metals with
nonmetals and observed the products formed (Table 1).
Table 1 Products of Reacting Transition Metals with
Nonmetals
Transition
Metal
Ni
Cu
O2(g)
NiO
Cu2O,
CuO
ZnO
Ag2O
Zn
Ag
S(s)
NiS
Cu2S
ZnS
Ag2S
Nonmetal
Cl2(g)
Br2(l)
NiCl2
NiBr2
CuCl2
CuBr2
ZnCl2
AgCl
ZnBr2
AgBr
I2(s)
NiI2
CuI
ZnI2
AgI
Experiment 2
The students prepared solutions of 0.1 M X(NO3)n(aq),
where X represents a transition metal. Then they
prepared the following three reagents.
0.1 M NaCl(aq)
0.1 M (NH4)2C2O4(aq)
0.1 M Na2CO3(aq)
The students put 2.0 mL of X(NO3)n(aq) into each of

three test tubes. They added 2.0 mL of NaCl(aq) to the
first tube, 2.0 mL of (NH4)2C2O4(aq) to the next tube,
and 2.0 mL of Na2CO3(aq) to the third tube. They
observed whether a precipitate formed and noted its
color (Table 2).
Table 2 Results of Adding Reagents to Transition
Metal Solutions
Transition
Color of precipitate
Metal
NaCl(aq) (NH4)2C2O4(aq) Na2CO3(aq)
Ni(NO3)2(aq)
*
*
green
Cu(NO3)2(aq)
*
aqua
blue
Zn(NO3)2(aq)
*
white
white
Cd(NO3)2(aq)
white
white
white
AgNO3(aq)
white
colorless
yellow
Note: * indicates that no precipitate formed.

Finally, the students added 2.0 mL of 1.0 M HNO3(aq)
to each tube containing a precipitate. In all but two
cases, the precipitate disappeared when HNO3(aq) was
added. The precipitate remained in the tube that
contained AgNO3(aq) and NaCl(aq) and in the tube
that contained AgNO3(aq) and (NH4)2C2O4(aq).
38. Cu attains a different oxidation state when it reacts

with Cl2(g) than when it reacts with I2(s) because
Cl2(g):
A) has a higher boiling point than does I2(s).
B) has a lower boiling point than does I2(s).
C) attracts electrons more strongly than does I2(s).
D) attracts electrons less strongly than does I2(s).
39. What was the most likely identity of the
precipitate that formed when NaCl(aq) was added
to Cd(NO3)2(aq)?
A) Cd2Cl(s)
B) CdCl(s)
C) CdCl2(s)
D) CdCl3(s)
15
40. If Cd is reacted with S, what is the most likely

oxidation state of Cd in the product?
A) +1
B) +2
C) +4
D) +6
41. When a strip of Cu is placed into H2O(l), no
change is observed. However, when a strip of Cu
is placed into a solution of HNO3(aq), a gas
evolves. What is the most likely identity of the
gas?
A) NO(g)
B) CO2(g)
C) H2(g)
D) O3(g)
42. In Experiment 2, is the boiling point of
Zn(NO3)2(aq) higher than that of AgNO3(aq)?
A) Yes, because the solute in Zn(NO3)2(aq) is ionic,
whereas the solute in AgNO3(aq) is not
B) Yes, because the solute in Zn(NO3)2(aq) dissociates
into three ions, and the solute in AgNO3(aq)
dissociates into two ions
C) No, because the solute in Zn(NO3)2(aq) has a
higher molecular weight than does the solute in
AgNO3(aq)
D) No, because Zn(NO3)2(aq) contains fewer grams of
solute than does AgNO3(aq)
43. When a strip of Cu is placed in AgNO3(aq), a new
metal forms on the surface of the Cu strip. This
occurs because Cu is:
A) reduced and Ag is oxidized.
B) reduced and Ag+ is oxidized.
C) oxidized and Ag is reduced.
D) oxidized and Ag+ is reduced.
16
Passage VIII
A student performed an experiment to investigate
thermal and electrical properties of an iron wire. At
room temperature the wire had a length (L) of 4 m, a
diameter (D) of 4 104 m, and a mass (M) of 4 103
kg. The wire was connected in series with an ammeter,
a power supply, and a switch.
The student selected a voltage (V) and closed the
switch so current (I) flowed through the circuit, raising
the wires temperature (T). The values in Table 1 were
measured in five trials with different wire temperatures.
(Note: The initial value of R, the circuits resistance,
was measured at a temperature of 293 K with an
ohmmeter. The other values of R were calculated from
the values of V and I.)
Table 1 Data for Thermal and Electrical Properties of
Iron Wire
R
T
L
I
V
Trial
(K)
(m)
(A)
(V)
()
1
293
4.000
4.0
0
0
2
373
4.004
6.1
0.75
4.6
3
473
4.009
8.7
1.18
10
4
573
4.014
11.3
1.60
18
5
673
4.019
13.9
2.00
28
The change in wire length (L) is related to the change
in temperature (T) by the relationship L = LT,
where , the coefficient of thermal expansion, is a
constant. A similar relationship, D = DT, describes
how the diameter of a wire changes when it is heated.
The constant has the same value in both equations.
The energy radiated from a heated wire each second is
AT 4, where A is the surface area of the wire, and =
5.67 108 J/m2sK4 is the Stefan-Boltzmann constant.
44. What is the electrical power through the wire

when T is 673 K?
A) 24 W
B) 40 W
C) 56 W
D) 72 W
45. What is the approximate density of the wire at 473
K? (Note: The volume of the wire is 5 x 107 m3.)
A) 2,000 kg/m3
B) 3,600 kg/m3
C) 6,400 kg/m3
D) 8,000 kg/m3
46. Which of the following graphs best illustrates the
relationship between T and R?
A)
B)
C)
D)
17
47. The ratio of T in Trial 5 to T in Trial 3 is

approximately
. What is the ratio of the
energy radiated each second for Trial 5 to that of
Trial 3?
A)
B) 2:1
C) 2
D) 4:1
48. What is the minimum amount of heat energy
required to increase T from 373 K to 573 K?
(Note: The heat capacity of iron is 460 J/kgK.)
A) 368 J
B) 550 J
C) 1,840 J
D) 3,680 J
49. During Trial 5, the wire was heated from 293 K to
673 K while V was held constant at 28 V. How did
the current through the circuit change during this
time?
A) It remained constant at 2 A.
B) It remained constant at 7 A.
C) It increased from 2 A to 7 A.
D) It decreased from 7 A to 2 A.
18

53. Below is a phase diagram for water.
50. The initial decay activity of a given quantity of a

radioactive element is 240 counts/min. After 24
min, the activity is 60 counts/min. What is the
half-life of the element?
A) 4 min
B) 12 min
C) 24 min
D) 48 min
51. Which of the following describes the entropy
change for the sublimation of iodine I2(s) I2(g)?
A) S < 0
B) S = 0
C) S > 0
D) Cannot be determined from the given information.
52. When a sound source moves away from an
observer, the observer has the impression that the
sound source is:
A) rotating.
B) louder than it actually is.
C) lower in frequency than it actually is.
D) higher in frequency than it actually is.
As the pressure applied to a sample of water at

0.1C is increased from 1.0 torr to 200 atm at
constant temperature, the:
A) vapor will become a solid and then a liquid.
B) vapor will become a liquid and then a solid.
C) vapor will become and remain a solid.
D) solid will become a liquid.
54. A small negatively charged particle is placed near
a fixed positively charged particle (Q). Which of
the following describes the motion of the
negatively charged particle?
A) It accelerates away from Q.
B) It accelerates toward Q.
C) It moves with constant speed away from Q.
D) It moves with constant speed toward Q.
19
Passage IX
A chemist reacted Substance X with various quantities
of Ti and then performed two experiments to study the
properties of the resulting samples. The samples
contained 0%, 1%, 3%, and 5% Ti (and were referred
to as XT-0, XT-1, XT-3, and XT-5, respectively.)
Experiment 1
The solubilities of the XTs were determined by adding
a fixed amount of each to two different solvents,
tetrahydrofuran (THF) and toluene (Figure 1). The
results are shown in Table 1.
Table 2 Effects of Temperature Change on the Mass of

XT Samples
Temperature
Mass of Sample (g)
(C)
XT-0
XT-1, 3, & 5*
20
1.0
1.0
700
0.8
0.8
1,200
0.8
0.8
1,500
0.8
1.1
20
0.8
0.8
1,200
0.8
0.8
1,500
0.8
1.1
* XT-1, 3, and 5 responded the same way.
55. Which of the following conclusions about XT

solubility is most consistent with the data in Table
1?
A) The solubility of XTs in THF decreases as the
percentage of Ti increases.
B) The solubility of XTs in toluene decreases as the
percentage of Ti increases.
C) XTs are more soluble in THF than in toluene.
D) XTs are more soluble in toluene than in THF.
Figure 1 Chemical structures of the solvents
Table 1 Percent Solubility of XT Samples
Amount of sample
that dissolves (%)
Compound
THF
Toluene
XT-0
32
35
XT-1
35
38
XT-3
50
53
XT-5
60
65
Experiment 2
The XTs were placed under N2(g), then heated to
1,500C, cooled, and reheated. The mass of each
sample was recorded at various temperatures during
the process (Table 2).
56. The loss in weight as XTs are heated from 20C to

700C most likely occurs because:
A) hydrogen bonds are formed.
B) XTs are ionized.
C) nuclei emit protons.
D) volatile components are released.
57. Electrons in which of the following orbitals of Ti
can form bonds with Substance X?
A) 2s
B) 3d
C) 4p
D) 5f
20
58. Which of the following elements, if reacted with

Substance X, will most likely yield compounds
with the same properties as the XTs described in
the passage?
A) Sc
B) Cu
C) Zr
D) Nb
59. Which of the following is the orbital hybridization
of O in THF?
A) sp2
B) sp3
C) sp3d2
D) s2p2
60. Which of the two solvents in Figure 1 is most
soluble in H2O?
A) THF, because THF forms hydrogen bonds with
H2O but toluene does not
B) THF, because THF forms stronger hydrogen bonds
with water than does toluene
C) Toluene, because toluene contains double bonds but
THF does not
D) Toluene, because toluene has a higher molecular
weight than does THF
21
Passage X
A 47-kg child with a 3-kg sled and a 54-kg child with a
6-kg toboggan slide down the ice-covered hill
illustrated in the figure below. Points A and B are at
the top and bottom of the hill, respectively, and are a
distance l apart along the slope. Between points A and
B the sled and rider slide free of friction, but the
toboggan and rider are opposed by a constant 60-N
frictional force. To the right of Point B the sled and
rider are opposed by a 50-N frictional force, and the
toboggan and rider are opposed by a 120-N frictional
force. (Note: Assume that air resistance is negligible.
Use g = 10 m/s2.)
63. The sled and rider are traveling at 10 m/s when

they have a completely inelastic collision with the
stationary toboggan and rider. How fast do the
sled and toboggan travel immediately after the
collision?
A) 4.6 m/s
B) 5.0 m/s
C) 8.3 m/s
D) 10 m/s
64. What is the coefficient of friction between the sled
and the ground when the sled and rider are to the
right of Point B?
A) 0.1
B) 0.2
C) 0.5
D) 1.0
65. From ground level, a person at Point A throws a
snowball horizontally to the right at 25
m/s. Where does the snowball land?
61. Which of the following best describes the energy

conversion that is taking place when the toboggan
is sliding from Point A to Point B?
A) Kinetic to potential and thermal
B) Kinetic and potential to thermal
C) Potential to kinetic and thermal
D) Potential and kinetic to thermal
62. Which of the following expressions gives the
amount of energy lost to friction by the toboggan
and rider between points A and B?
A) (60 N)(20 m)
B) (60 N)(l)
C) (60 kg)(g)(20 m)
D) (60 kg)(g)(l)
A) 10 m to the left of Point B

B) At Point B
C) 12.5 m to the right of Point B
D) 50 m to the right of Point B
66. The sled and rider start from a location on the hill
that is 10 m lower than Point A. How does the
speed of the sled and rider at Point B, starting
from this location, compare to the speed of the
sled and rider at Point B when starting from the
top of the hill?
A) It is slower by a factor of 4.
B) It is slower by a factor of 2 .
C) It is slower by a factor of 2.
D) It is slower by a factor of
.
22
Passage XI
Lasers produce extremely coherent light due to the
long-term stability of the standing-wave pattern
established within a laser cavity. A standing-wave
pattern in a laser cavity is illustrated in the figure
below.
Standing-wave patterns are characterized by nodes and

antinodes. There are five nodes in the figure with three
of them labeled. Antinodes are located midway
between adjacent nodes. The amplitude is always zero
at a node, but the wave amplitude oscillates
sinusoidally at an antinode. A typical laser cavity may
contain millions of cavity nodes.
A number used to describe standing waves is the mode
number, m, which is equal to one less than the number
of nodes in the standing-wave pattern. Laser cavities
have mode numbers that are related to the allowed
cavity wavelength, m, through the equation mm = 2L,
where L is the length of the laser cavity. For a gas laser,
the atomic properties of the lasing medium may limit
the number of possible frequencies of oscillation to
two or three. These allowed frequencies, fm, are
determined by the equation fm = c/m, where c = 3
108 m/s, the speed of light.
67. What is the spacing between adjacent nodes in a

standing-wave pattern?
A) 2
B) 3
2
C)
D)
2
68. For a given laser-cavity mode, the standing-wave

pattern within a laser cavity can be viewed as a
superposition of two traveling waves. Their
amplitudes and directions are described by which
of the following?
A) Equal amplitudes; opposite directions
B) Equal amplitudes; same direction
C) Different amplitudes; same direction
D) Different amplitudes; opposite directions
69. A certain laser has only one mode of oscillation.
Which of the following are properties of the light
it emits?
I.
II.
III.
It is monochromatic.
It is coherent.
It is diffuse.
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
70. A gas laser has a cavity length of m and a
single oscillation frequency of 9.0 x 1014 Hz. What
is the cavity mode number?
A) 1.5 x 106
B) 2.0 x 106
C) 3.0 x 106
D) 6.0 x 106
71. A gas laser can oscillate simultaneously in two
adjacent cavity modes. This oscillation produces
beats; the beat frequency is b = (fm+1 fm) where
m+1 and m are the frequencies of the two cavity
modes. Which of the following is an expression
for the beat wavelength?
A)
(fm+1 fm)
c
B) c(fm+1 fm)
C)
1
c(fm+1 fm)
D)
c
(fm+1 fm)
23

72. An object that is totally immersed in benzene

(specific gravity = 0.7) is subject to a buoyancy
force of 5 N. When the same object is totally
immersed in an unknown liquid, the buoyancy
force is 12 N. What is the approximate specific
gravity of the unknown liquid?
A) 0.3
B) 0.9
C) 1.7
D) 2.3
73. A 1.0-kg object slides along a frictionless surface
at 8.0 m/s until it strikes a stationary 3.0-kg block.
If the blocks stick together, what is their speed
immediately after the collision?
76. The principal quantum number is a measure of

which of the following?
A) Approximate radial size of an electron cloud
B) Approximate shape of an electron cloud
C) Number of valence electrons that orbit a nucleus
D) Number of protons and neutrons found in the
nucleus of an atom
77. An unknown solid weighs 31.6 N. When
submerged in water, its apparent weight is 19.8 N.
What is the specific gravity of the unknown
sample?
A) 2.96
B) 2.68
C) 2.02
D) 1.68
A) 1.0 m/s
B) 2.0 m/s
C) 4.0 m/s
D) 8.0 m/s
74. Which of the following will occur if the acidity of
a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is increased?
A) The Ksp will decrease and additional Ca(OH)2 will
dissolve.
B) The Ksp will be unchanged and additional Ca(OH)2
will dissolve.
C) The Ksp will decrease and additional Ca(OH)2 will
precipitate.
D) The Ksp will be unchanged and additional Ca(OH)2
will precipitate.
75. In a nearsighted individual, the image of a distant
object is focused:
A) in front of the retina, requiring divergent lens
correction.
B) in front of the retina, requiring convergent lens
correction.
C) behind the retina, requiring divergent lens
correction.
D) behind the retina, requiring convergent lens
correction.
24
Verbal Reasoning
Time: 85 minutes
Questions: 78-137
There are nine passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test. Each passage is followed by several
questions. After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet.
Passage I
As the national government has reordered its economic
priorities, state and local governments have become
more innovative and active vis--vis their economies.
The characteristic that distinguishes state and local
economic development activity is competitiveness.
Nonnational governments are awash in competition for
economic development, primarily for a structural
reason: A fragmented federal system fosters
interjurisdictional competition. More that 82 percent of
influential local officials in Southeastern cities termed
the economic development environment very
competitive in a survey conducted in l986.
State and local governments have reacted to this
situation by taking actions intended to make
themselves more attractive to new and relocating
enterprises. If a business firm is unhappy with
conditions in a community, it may seek a new location,
and it is likely to find other communities waiting with
open arms. When the Mack Truck Company
announced its intention to relocate its manufacturing
facility from Allentown, Pennsylvania, it had an array
of communities from which to choose. To make
themselves more enticing, the beckoning jurisdictions
(and their state governments) offered a panoply of
incentives, including property tax abatements, belowcost land, infrastructure, and training programs for
potential employees. Mack Truck decided to relocate
to South Carolina.
Economic competition is most apparent when the
stakes are highthat is, when the location decision
will mean a substantial number of jobs, as in the case
of General Motors Saturn plant. State after state lined
up to offer General Motors generous packages of
financial incentives, promising an assortment of tax
breaks, access roads, water and sewer systems, and
employee training. The eventual winner was Tennessee.
There is a great deal of debate about the effect of
interjurisdictional competition. As we noted earlier,
incentives and concessions amount to a giveaway to
business. Critics claim that competition for economic
development is nothing more than the relocation of a
given amount of economic activity from one
community to another, with no overall increase in
national productivity. The solution, they argue, is
increased cooperation. However, this is elusive. For
example, governors of the Great Lakes states have

been unsuccessful in establishing a no pirating pact
within the region.
Counties have found cooperation challenging, too. A
National Association of Counties study of urban
counties reported that only 5 percent frequently
coordinated their economic development activities
with other counties. Only slightly more (19 percent)
indicated frequent coordination with cities located
within their boundaries. Economic development has
tended to be a singular proposition, with each
jurisdiction pursuing its own destiny.
This can be destructive to the jurisdictions involved.
For example, the State Development Board in South
Carolina, an agency devoted to promoting the state as a
place for investment, has encouraged rural counties to
band together and pursue a united economic
development effort. But the boards encouragement
does not square with political realities. Lingering
rivalries between adjacent counties effectively blunt
efforts at cooperation. Further, while the board
advocates intrastate cooperation, it explicitly engages
in interstate competition: The reason that South
Carolina counties should work together, it argues, is to
become stronger competitors against North Carolina
counties. Competition continues, but in a different
arena.
Economic conditions may ultimately serve as the
catalyst for greater cooperation among jurisdictions.
This is exactly what has occurred in the Monongahela
River Valley area. This 7,400-square-mile section of
southwestern Pennsylvania, northern West Virginia,
and western Maryland has found that the markets for
its products and traditional sources of investment are
drying up. Individual jurisdictions have realized that
the economic problems are too big for them to solve
alone; the troubled economies of the cities and
counties are symptoms of a region-wide malaise. After
a series of false starts, local leaders have journeyed
across county and state boundaries to develop a
coordinated agenda for economic revival.
Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the
following source:
A. O'M. Bowman & R.C. Kearney, State & Local Government.
1990 by Houghton Mifflin.
26
78. The passage suggests that economic competition

between subnational units of government
provides:
A) the same positive benefits as does competition
between private firms.
B) an increase in efficiency for the competing
governments.
C) incentives for national economic development
policy.
D) fewer benefits over all than would cooperation
between jurisdictions.
79. According to the passage, to whom might one look
to foster cooperation rather than competition
between jurisdictions?
A) National officials
B) Local leaders
C) Academic researchers
D) Media representatives
81. Suppose that a study found that in 47 randomly

chosen counties, economic conditions had
improved over a five-year period and that after
that time, those counties coordinated their
economic development activities with other
counties. Which of the following statements is an
assumption of the author about local jurisdictions
that would be called into question?
A) They never cooperate on economic development.
B) They cooperate only if state law requires it.
C) They cooperate most often under conditions of
economic stress.
D) They cooperate only with other jurisdictions within
the same state.
82. According to the passage, competitive behavior
with respect to economic development is
characteristic of:
I.
II.
III.
national government.
state government.
local government
80. Suppose that the Monongahela River Valley area

prospered during the next ten years, even during
times of general economic downturn. The lesson
of this experience for local jurisdictions, in
general, would be:
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) II and III only
A) to compete more intensely than previously.

B) to keep their level of competition much the same as
it had always been.
C) to cooperate more than they had a decade
previously.
D) to attempt to get additional federal grants for local
government.
83. Which of the following conclusions can justifiably

be drawn from the experience of the Great Lakes
states mentioned in the passage?
A) State governments have little success in controlling
economic competition among local governments.
B) State governments usually restrict economic
competition among local governments.
C) Local governments are more successful than are
state governments in controlling their economic
competition.
D) Only the national government has the power to
regulate economic competition among local
governments.
27
Passage II
Knowledge structures called memory schemas have
become very important in theories of human learning
and thinking. Schemas are organized knowledge
structures in memory that can be thought of as generic
concepts representing objects, persons, situations,
events, sequences of events, actions, or sequences of
actions.
A memory schema is activated when information
similar to its content is processed by the cognitive
system. Once activated, the schema influences the
processing of the new information and provides a
mental context for it. If the information is similar
enough to the content of the schema, then it is judged
an instance of what the schema represents. The schema
is thus instantiated by the new information. For
example, if a person sees only an eye and a nose in a
picture, with other facial features in shadow and not
visible, the person may infer on the basis of this partial
information that he or she should look for a face. This
example assumes, of course, that the eye and nose have
the correct orientation and the correct relative position.
There is a special type of schema called a script that
not only aids in comprehending and remembering
information but also helps guide behavior. For
example, when a person is eating in a restaurant, the
restaurant script activated in memory enables the
person not only to expect certain events (such as being
shown a table and being approached by a waiter) but
also initiates behavior (such as ordering and paying).
If a person reading a passage comes upon the sentence
John was hungry, so he entered a restaurant, the
restaurant script is activated in memory. The advantage
of having this active script available to the reader is
that it provides general information about restaurants.
However, specific information about this particular
restaurant event must be selected from the passage as
an instance of the script. If the next sentence is John
sat down near the door and gave his order to Paul,
then the generic script allows the reader to infer that
John sat down at a table in a particular location and
gave his order to someone named Paul who was a
waiter. This process is called slot filling because
information specific to the restaurant event being read
is stored in memory as values for the particular actions,
roles, and props involved in the restaurant script. The
script is being instantiated. The table involved is one

near the restaurant door, and the waiter involved is
Paul. Other information not explicitly mentioned in the
passage can be inferred on the basis of what is stored
in the generic script. For example, the reader may infer
that the restaurant gave John a napkin to use and that
the color of the napkin was white.
If the reader later tries to remember the information
read, the restaurant script is again activated and
enables the restaurant event described in the passage to
be remembered. The slots of the schema contain the
information placed there during its most recent
activation, although this information is not retained
perfectly. Some forgetting may occur. Other types of
recall errors can also occur. Because many inferences
are made during schema-based comprehension, some
information may be recalled that was never presented.
These inferences often cannot be discriminated by the
learner from the information presented.
following source:
F.S. Bellezza, Mnemonic devices and memory schemas. 1987
by Springer-Verlag.
84. The author would argue that schema theory is

important to the study of thinking and learning
because it:
A) provides a basis for determining the memories of
an event that are correct or true.
B) explains the way previous experiences affect the
comprehension of similar events.
C) indicates the way important events, actions, or
persons could be forgotten.
D) illustrates the way memory is activated in totally
unfamiliar situations.
28
85. The discussion of scripts includes the assumption

that:
89. To judge whether instantiation has occurred, a

researcher would need to determine:
A) each different encounter with a type of event is a

new learning experience.
B) remembered information exactly matches the
content of the original event.
C) once a script is developed, it cannot be used in new
instances.
D) schemas help people to cope with new instances of
a situation.
A) whether new information contains elements of a

new schema.
B) whether new information alters a schema.
C) the amount of information needed to activate a
schema.
D) whether new information fits a schema.
86. According to information in the passage, slot

filling would be likely to occur when a child:
I.
II.
III.
started a second year of school.

learned to ride a bicycle.
first saw the alphabet.
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I, II, and III
87. If several readers were to recall conflicting details
from the same literary work, this situation would
best support the assertion that:
A) inferences are made independently of schemas.
B) scripts cannot be partially activated.
C) schemas are instantiated subconsciously.
D) recall errors are a normal feature of schema-based
comprehension.
90. The passage states that a reader may later recall

information that had not actually been presented.
According to the author, this effect would
probably have resulted from:
A) the careful reading of the text.
B) incomplete prior knowledge of the topic.
C) inferences made by the reader.
D) the instantiation of more than one schema.
91. Which of the following approaches to reading
instruction would be most likely to be stressed by
an elementary-school teacher who had an
understanding of schema theory?
A) The development of background knowledge
B) The improvement of pronunciation skills
C) The importance of rote memorization
D) The explanation of unfamiliar words
88. Which of the following statements is the most

reasonable conclusion that can be drawn from the
authors description of script activation?
A) Instantiation occurs deliberately.
B) Behavior is guided by prior knowledge.
C) Slot filling provides generalized information.
D) Inferencing depends on the processing of new
information.
29
92. In discussing problems with recall after reading,

the author refers to inferences made during
schema-based comprehension. This process could
reasonably be described as:
I.
II.
III.
activating the wrong script.

using prior knowledge to rewrite the
text.
skimming to acquire specific facts.
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) II and III only
93. The contention that the schema influences the
processing of the new information and provides a
mental context for it can most justifiably be
interpreted as support for the idea that:
A) understanding requires concentrated study.
B) experience supplies a framework for learning.
C) meaning can arise only after all the facts are
acquired.
D) clear thinking requires a conscious exercise of
memory.
30
Passage III
Research traditions and theories can encounter serious
cognitive difficulties if they are incompatible with
certain broader systems of belief within a given culture.
Such incompatibilities constitute conceptual problems
that may seriously challenge the acceptability of the
theory. But it may equally well happen that a highly
successful research tradition will lead to the
abandonment of that world view which is incompatible
with it and to the elaboration of a new world view
compatible with the research tradition. Indeed, it is in
precisely this manner that many radically new
scientific systems eventually come to be canonized
as part of our collective common sense.
In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, for
instance, the new research traditions of Descartes and
Newton went violently counter to many of the most
cherished beliefs of the age on such questions as
humanitys place in Nature, the history and extent of
the cosmos, and more generally, the nature of physical
processes. Everyone at the time acknowledged the
existence of these conceptual problems. They were
eventually resolved, not by modifying the offending
research traditions to bring them in line with more
traditional world views, but rather by forging a new
world view which could be reconciled with the
scientific research traditions. A similar process of
readjustment occurred in response to the Darwinian
and Marxist research traditions in the late nineteenth
century; in each case, the core, nonscientific beliefs
of reflective people were eventually modified to bring
them in line with highly successful scientific systems.
But it would be a mistake to assume that world views
always crumble in the face of new scientific research
traditions which challenge them. To the contrary, they
often exhibit a remarkable resilience which belies the
(positivistic) tendency to dismiss them as mere fluff.
The history of science, both recent and distant, is
replete with cases in which world views have not
evaporated in the face of scientific theories which
challenged them. In our own time, for instance, neither
quantum mechanics nor behavioristic psychology has
shifted most peoples beliefs about the world or
themselves. Contrary to quantum mechanics, most
people still conceive of the world as being populated
by substantial objects, with fixed and precise
properties; contrary to behaviorism, most people still
find it helpful to talk about the inner, mental states of

themselves and others.
Confronted with such examples, one might claim that
these research traditions are still new and that older
world views predominate only because the newer
insights have not yet penetrated the general
consciousness. Such a claim may prove to be correct,
but before we accept it uncritically, there are certain
more striking historical cases that need to be aired.
Ever since the seventeenth century, the dominant
research traditions within the physical sciences have
presupposed that all physical changes are subject to
invariable natural laws (either statistical or
nonstatistical). Given certain initial conditions, certain
consequences would inevitably ensue.
Strictly speaking, this claim should be as true of
humans and other animals as it is of stars, planets, and
molecules. Yet in our own time as much as in the
seventeenth century, very few people are prepared to
abandon the conviction that human beings (and some
of the higher animals) have a degree of
indetermination in their actions and their thoughts.
Virtually all of our social institutions, most of our
social and political theory, and the bulk of our moral
philosophy are still based on a world view seemingly
incompatible with a law-governed universe.
following source:
L. Lauden, Progress and Its Problems: Towards a Theory of
Scientific Growth. 1977 by The Regents of the University of
California.
94. The author of the passage characterizes the theory

of quantum mechanics as one that:
A) most people accept even though it seems to conflict
with common sense.
B) challenges the view most people have about the
world in which they live.
C) is incompatible with the idea that we live in a
universe governed by natural laws.
D) has led most people to change their world views.
31
95. According to the author, our social, political, and

moral beliefs:
A) are rooted in the idea that the same set of laws
should apply to everyone.
B) often coexist with a broader system of cultural
attitudes with which they are inconsistent.
C) conflict with scientific research traditions that have
been accepted since the seventeenth century.
D) grew out of the acceptance of Darwinism and
Marxism among educated people in the late
nineteenth century.
96. If the public reception of Einsteins theory of
relativity repeated the reception that the author
claims was given to Newtons ideas, most people
would:
A) accept the theory readily and quickly revise their
ideas about natural laws.
B) resist the theory initially but gradually modify their
view of the universe.
C) claim to believe the theory but ignore its profound
implications.
D) reject its version of reality as contrary to common
sense.
97. The claim that natural laws should be as true of
humans as of stars, planets, and molecules is most
in accord with the view that:
A) some scientific laws take a long time to become
widely accepted.
B) some physical changes can be explained by
statistical laws only.
C) in the seventeenth century, physical theories were
thought to apply to all physical objects.
D) all physical changes are completely determined by
natural laws.
98. Assume that strong evidence from research in

genetics has led many thoughtful people to change
their ideas about what it means to be human.
Which of the following claims would be
strengthened?
I.
II.
III.
A highly successful research tradition will

lead to the abandonment of that world view
which is incompatible with it and to the
elaboration of a new world view.
It would be a mistake to assume that
world views always crumble in the face of
new scientific research traditions which
challenge them.
Very few people are prepared to abandon
the conviction that human beings . . . have
a degree of indetermination in their
actions.
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
99. The author probably mentions that most people
talk as if inner mental states existed in order:
A) to demonstrate the weakness of some scientific
theories.
B) to provide an example of the application of natural
law to human behavior.
C) to illustrate the persistence of beliefs that conflict
with scientific theories.
D) to support the claim that behaviorism is a very new
research tradition.
32
Passage IV
Approximately 65 million years ago, at the boundary
between the Cretaceous and Tertiary geological
periods (the K-T boundary), there was a large-scale
and rapid extinction of plants and animals, including
the dinosaurs. The discovery of high levels of the
element iridium in rocks laid down at this time led to
the proposal that an asteroid or a comet struck Earth,
leading to the extinctions. This scenario proposes that
the impact of the interplanetary object filled Earths
atmosphere with dust and smoke, blocking out sunlight
and lowering temperatures. The resulting winter
would have had dire ecological consequences,
including slowing plant growth. However, in the case
of the K-T boundary, some scientists have expressed
doubt that the dust could have made Earth cold enough
for a long enough period to cause the massive
extinctions observed.
These doubts have led to a search for other possibly
disastrous atmospheric effects of a collision between a
celestial object and Earth. One might involve
sedimentary rocks rich in carbonates, which are found
in shallow ocean beds or on dry land that was once
under the ocean. If an asteroid with a radius of 50 km
struck a 4-km thick carbonate layer, there would be a
significant release of carbon dioxide (CO2) into the
atmosphere, enough to raise the atmospheric
concentration of CO2 about a hundredfold.
When sunlight hits Earth, a significant portion of its
heat is radiated out into the atmosphere. Atmospheric
CO2 absorbs the heat that is radiated from Earth and
radiates it back to Earth. This warming is called the
greenhouse effect. Over the past century, atmospheric
CO2 has increased, primarily due to the burning of
fossil fuels such as coal and oil. Projections of future
fuel usage have prompted many experts to be
concerned about further increases in atmospheric CO2
because these increases could lead to global warming
and significant climatic changes. The temperature
increases projected by some for the next century are on
the order of 2C to 4C. Atmospheric modeling
indicates that such increases could lead to, among
other effects, a partial melting of the polar ice caps,
causing flooding of low-lying coastal areas.
at the K-T boundary. A hundredfold increase in CO2

would lead to an increase of 20C in global
temperature within ten days. A smaller impact, such as
an asteroid with a radius of 10 km hitting 2-km thick
layer of carbonate rock, would lead to a warming of
5C in the same period of time. Because of the slow
mixing of atmospheric CO2, these increases in CO2
would persist for 10,000 years.
The ecological effects of such rapid, significant, and
persistent global warming would have been profound.
For example, CO2 is less soluble in water as the
temperature rises. Therefore, as the temperature of the
upper ocean rose, its dissolved CO2 concentration
would have decreased, and this decrease would have
inhibited the growth of marine algae. Because these
tiny plants are at the base of the oceanic food chain,
many marine species would have become extinct. On
land, the elevated temperatures would have disrupted
weather patterns and thus the growth of land plants
which form the basis of terrestrial food chains. Thus,
global warming could have led to the extinction of the
dinosaurs.
100. Evidence shows that at the K-T boundary, many

species of fish became extinct within a short
time. This fact tends to support the hypothesis
concerning increased CO2 because:
A) dissolved CO2 is poisonous to fish.
B) fish would die because of the increased dust in the
water.
C) fish eat algae, which would flourish as atmospheric
CO2 increased.
D) warmer water holds less CO2.
These effects are minor compared to the theorized CO2

increases caused by an asteroid striking carbonate rock
33
101. It is possible to measure the amount of dissolved

CO2 that was present at the K-T boundary by
examining cores of ice deep in the polar ice
sheets. Such information would be relevant to the
CO2 theory presented in the passage because it
would:
A) indicate whether CO2 levels had changed
significantly.
B) show that oceanic CO2 levels rose at the K-T
boundary.
C) prove that an asteroid had struck Earth.
D) prove that dust did not cause climatic change at the
time.
102. According to passage information, what would
happen if an asteroid 10 km in diameter hit Earth
in the deepest part of the ocean?
A) Global temperatures would rise by 5C.
B) Large-scale extinctions of species would occur.
C) Only aquatic species would become extinct.
D) The passage does not address this possibility.
103. Which of the following scientific advances would
most seriously challenge the hypothesis
involving increased levels of CO2?
105. Which of the following assertions is most clearly

a thesis presented by the author?
A) No species can survive in high levels of CO2.
B) Rapid temperature increases can occur if there is
dust in the air.
C) Marine species are less sensitive to CO2
concentrations than are terrestrial species.
D) Extinctions at the K-T boundary may have occurred
in part because a large celestial object hit Earth.
106. If the hypothesis of the passage is correct, one
should find that at the K-T boundary:
A) sea levels rose.
B) excess iridium was not present.
C) no large-scale extinctions occurred.
D) the atmosphere was of constant composition.
107. Which of the following suppositions is most
clearly believed by the author?
A) Dinosaurs lived near the site of an asteroid impact.
B) Many species died of starvation at the K-T
boundary.
C) Dust did not fill the air after an asteroid impact.
D) Marine food chains are not dependent on CO2.
A) The dating of a major asteroid impact on carbonate

rock not followed by a climatic change
B) Proof of high iridium levels at the K-T boundary
C) Further correlation of increased CO2 with global
warming
D) Confirmation of increases in global CO2 without an
asteroid impact
104. In the late nineteenth century a volcano erupted,
spewing massive amounts of ash into the air.
According to the passage, this event could have
led to:
A) decreases in carbonate rocks.
B) excess sunlight reaching Earth.
C) temporary global cooling.
D) increases in atmospheric CO2.
34
Passage V
From 1890, when he was nine, Picassos family saved
virtually every scrap of paper on which he drew.
Harbingers of Picassos later genius appear in
fragmented and distorted aspects of form and scale,
depictions garlanded by numerical and alphabetical
symbols, a proliferation of trompe loeil, visual puns,
outrageous caricatures, incongruous juxtapositions,
and the like. We do not know whether Picasso
consciously thought back to these graphic experiments
when, two decades later, he and Georges Braque were
inventing cubism, but at least at an unconscious level,
Picasso could tap this reservoir of youthful
experimentation.
The standard story told of Picasso is that his
precocious talent enabled him to surpass, without
effort, all other artists in his milieu. It is worth
considering Picassos own opinion that what is often
considered early genius is actually the navet of
childhood. It disappears at a certain age without
leaving traces. It is possible that a young child who
shows unusual flair will one day become an artist, but
he or she will have to begin again from the beginning.
I did not have this genius. For example, my first
drawings could not have been hung in a display of
childrens work. These pictures lacked
childlikeness. . . . At a youthful age I painted in a quite
academic way, so literal and precise that I am shocked
today. At an exhibition of childrens art, Picasso once
quipped, When I was their age, I could draw like
Raphael, but it has taken me a whole lifetime to learn
to draw like them.
In such remarks, Picasso exalted childrens
productions but also distanced his youthful self from
the romantic view of artistic talent. It is true that the
works preserved by Picassos family support the notion
of Picasso as an aspiring academic painter (as his
father was) and not as a charming naf. However, we
lack drawings by Picasso from his first eight years and
so cannot determine the resemblance of his earliest
efforts to those of other children. Moreover, his
youthful caprices and marginalia may have been as
crucial in his artistic development as his formally
conceived early paintings. My own conclusion is that
Picassos output during the first decade of his life was
unusually skilled rather than frankly precocious but
that no word short of prodigy can describe him in his

spectacular progress over the next several years.
Apollinaire asserted that there were two kinds of artists:
the unreflective virtuoso, who relies on nature, and the
cerebral structurer, who relies on understanding.
Mozart could serve as prototype for the first,
Beethoven for the second. As a prodigy, Picasso
epitomized the second type, but, said Apollinaire, he
was able to convert himself into the first. Never has
there been so fantastic a spectacle as the
metamorphosis he underwent in becoming an artist of
the first type. Picasso himself sensed the paradox of
this transformation when he complained to Gertrude
Stein, If I can draw as well as Raphael, I have at least
the right to choose my way, and they should recognize
that right, but no, they say no.
The Portrait of Gertrude Stein (1906) stands out as an
indicator of this transformation: Picasso asked his
subject to remain for over eighty sittings. Then he went
away for the summer, annihilated the recognizable
facial features, and finished the portrait away from
Stein, substituting masklike features for realistic ones.
(Chastised because the portrait did not look like Stein,
Picasso reportedly responded with one of the notable
artistic one-liners of the century: Dont worry, it
will.)
following source:
H. Gardner, Creating Minds. 1993 by H. Gardner.
108. According to the author, Picassos artistic

achievements were in large part the result of his:
A) retention of the effortless genius of childhood.
B) rejection of the art movements of his time.
C) practice of making multiple revisions and
amendments.
D) learning to work with apparent spontaneity.
109. The word nature is used in the sense of:
A) objects and scenes of the natural world.
B) elementary aesthetic principles.
C) intuitive artistic mastery.
D) uncontrolled creative impulses.
35
110. What is the authors response to the standard

story about the origin of Picassos genius?
A) Acceptance: Picassos early drawings are described
as unusually skilled and his progress as spectacular.
B) Neutral: It is mentioned only to introduce the
discussion of Picassos eventual virtuosity.
C) Revisionist: It is presented as applicable only to
Picassos earliest efforts.
D) Skepticism: Picassos earliest drawings are
presumed to be not especially precocious.
111. The assertion that Picassos early productions
contain harbingers of his later art is NOT clearly
consistent with the information about:
A) the way Picasso described his first drawings.
B) the distortions of form and scale in these works.
C) the lack of drawings from his first eight years.
D) the playfulness of his graphic experimentation.
114. The authors characterization of Picassos artistic

aims suggests that the retort, Dont worry, it
will meant that the painting:
A) was intended to portray Stein as she would
probably look in old age.
B) would become a more accurate portrait as Picasso
continued to work on it.
C) was concerned with pictorial qualities other than a
literally accurate likeness.
D) was an attempt to teach viewers to look at portraits
in a more analytic way.
115. A novel that would best represent the literary
style of a reflective cerebral structurer would
probably have:
A) many layers of meaning.
B) great emotional power.
C) terse, realistic dialogue.
D) universally symbolic images.
112. Which of the following innovative forms of art

that are identified with Picasso most clearly
exemplifies his own implied goals?
A) Sculptures constructed of various surprising found
objects
B) Blue period paintings with muted colors and
elongated figures
C) Plates decorated with boldly colored, simply
indicated faces
D) Single-tone paintings with hard-edged
multifaceted perspectives
113. Which passage information provides the
strongest reason to suppose that Picasso had
always been an artist of Apollinaires first type?
A) Picasso quipped that as a child he could draw as
well as Raphael.
B) Picassos early drawings indicate exuberant
experimentation.
C) Picasso wrote that in his youth he painted in a
quite academic way.
D) Picasso revised his portrait of Gertrude Stein from
memory.
36
116. Assume that an art historian discovers scores of

drawings done by Picasso between the ages of
four and eight and that they resemble those of
many children of artists. What is the relevance of
this discovery to the authors views about
Picassos development?
A) It strengthens them by demonstrating that Picassos
mature work reverted to the level of his first
drawings.
B) It is consistent with them because the author
suggests that Picasso became a prodigy only after
age nine.
C) It weakens them by showing that the transition to a
cerebral structurer took place sooner than the author
assumes.
D) It weakens them by supporting Picassos own
assessment of his first drawings.
117. Which of the following assertions is the most
effective argument against Picassos statement
that to become an artist, one will have to begin
again from the beginning?
A) The supposed genius of childrens art is really an
appealing navet.
B) The productions of childhood have left unconscious
traces on which an artist can build.
C) Some untrained artists produce only paintings with
a childlike quality.
D) Some widely admired painters produce work that is
quite academic and unimaginative.
37
Passage VI
One of the hottest topics in anthropology today centers
around the place of the mysterious Neandertals on the
human family tree. These people lived at the juncture
between the demise of Homo erectus and the advent of
Homo sapiens sapiens, our own species.
What role the Neandertals played in this transition has
been the subject of long and contentious debate among
anthropologists. Call them Homo sapiens
neanderthalensis and acknowledge them as direct
ancestors of modern humans? Or type them as Homo
neanderthalensis and more distant relatives, members
of a separate species outside our direct ancestry?
If someone were to meet a Neandertal on the New
York subway, he or she would be struck by the size
and protrusion of the nose, the prominent ridges above
the eyes, and the distinct absence of a chin. In addition,
the forehead was much flatter and the skull longer, and
although not readily apparent to fellow passengers, the
bones of the skull would be much thicker than those in
modern humans. What was inside that long, low
cranium is the key to what it was to be a Neandertal. If
quantity was the only measure, then the Neandertals
apparent mental powers were impressive, because the
average brain size was larger than a modern
humansabout 1,400 cc as compared with 1,360 cc.
Some clues to their potential humanness do exist.
For the first time in history, the Neandertal people
performed ritual burialsa uniquely human activity.
At the site of Le Moustier in France, the body of a
Neandertal teenager was apparently lowered into a pit,
where he was placed on his right side, his head resting
on his forearm, as if asleep. Around the body were
scattered the bones of a wild cow. Some prehistorians
speculate that these bones were covered with meat at
the time of the boys burial and were included as
sustenance for his journey to the next world.
The evolution of the Neandertals was a gradual affair,
with roots going back at least 200,000 and maybe even
300,000 years. By 130,000 years ago, they were well
established. And by the end of that interglacial respite,
which ended 70,000 years ago, the exaggerated
features of the classic Neandertals were well set. For
the next 35,000 years or sountil they finally
disappearedNeandertals were truly people of the Ice
Age, and in many ways their anatomy reflects

adaptations to cold climes.
Subsistence for these people must have been
demanding, particularly for those on the tundra of icebound Eurasia. Reindeer, wooly rhinos, and mammoth
provided not only meat but also hide for clothing and
bone for building shelters, as wood and other plant
resources were scarce or absent. The resourceful
Neandertals also manufactured a wide range of
artifacts with which to tackle their daily chores.
Stone tools clearly signal the pace of change in human
prehistory. For the million years after the appearance
of tools in the record, they remained crude in structure
and limited in variety: choppers, scrapers, and flakes.
Only about 200,000 years ago did the pace begin to
change. The Levallois technique was developed,
enabling toolmakers to produce several large flakes
from a single lump of rock. When the Neandertals
came onto the scene, they further refined this technique.
Nevertheless, no further innovations were introduced
for more than 50,000 years, when the modern human
era began.
following source:
R. Lewin, In the Age of Mankind. 1988 by The Smithsonian
Institution.
118. The author implies that the primary significance

of Neandertals is their:
A) uncertain classification.
B) position as premodern humans.
C) use of stone tools.
D) burial of the dead.
119. The statement that stone tools signal the pace of
change in human prehistory means that:
A) stone tools indicate the need for a more advanced
technology.
B) innovations are normally followed by a slowing of
the rate of technological change.
C) radiocarbon dating reveals the chronology of
technological change.
D) changes in tools indicate changes in the toolmaker.
38
120. A form of Homo erectus with apelike features

and standing three feet tall lived in Ethiopia
700,000 years before Neandertals appeared. This
information increases the likelihood of which of
the following answers to the authors question
about the place of Neandertals on the human
family tree?
A) Homo sapiens sapiens and Neandertals have a
common ancestor.
B) Neandertals are the missing link between apes
and humans.
C) Multiple human family trees exist.
D) Neandertals are the direct ancestors of humans.
121. The author claims that the Neandertals were
resourceful in manufacturing artifacts. The
support offered for this conclusion is:
A) weak; their tools remained few and crude.
B) weak; no examples of their tools are given.
C) strong; their impressive intelligence implies
resourcefulness.
D) strong; they invented the Levallois technique of
toolmaking.
122. If the authors primary criterion for judging the
humanness of Neandertals were applied to
computers, which of the following systems
would be most human?
A) A mainline computer with a very large capacity
B) An assembly-line robot that uses tools to make
tools
C) A weapons system that locates and destroys
specified targets
D) A childs toy that is programmed to recite religious
verses
39
Passage VII
Rita Doves Pulitzer-Prize-winning volume of poems,
Thomas and Beulah, is divided into two almost equal
parts called Mandolin and Canary in Bloom. The
collection presents not only the single most important
events and the resultant mind-sets in the separate lives
of Thomas and Beulah but also the significant events
of their shared lives from their different perspectives.
The Event (from Mandolin) presents the night
when Thomas and his friend Lem, both drunk, leaned
on the rail of a river boat. Thomas challenged Lem to
swim to an island, resulting in Lems death. Taking in
Wash (from Canary in Bloom) presents Beulahs
memory of the tension between her mother and father.
The shaping events of Thomass and Beulahs lives
create or contribute to psychological mind-sets
represented, on the one hand, by a mandolin, ships, and
water, and on the other, by a silk handkerchief, the
Eiffel Tower, an unusual flower, and a ballerina music
box. The mandolin represents both Thomass carefree
days with Lem and the guilt suffered because of his
death. In Variation on Pain, the one pierced cry of
the strings of the mandolin are identified both with
music and guilt (Sound quivered like a rope stretched
clear to land, tensed and brimming, a man gurgling air)
and with the strings Thomas used after piercing his
ears, which in turn were also connected with his guilt
(Since what hed been through, he was always jiving,
gold hoop from the right ear jiggling and a glass stud,
bright blue, in his left).
The references to ships and water are linked not only
to Thomass guilt but also to his sense of a lack of
freedom even on happy occasions, his disappointments,
and ultimately, the escape from ordinary life that he
has always desiredbut not in the form he has wanted.
After Lems death, Thomas eventually lands on the
dingy beach of a man-made lake. When Thomas and
Beulah marry, the parlor is festooned like a ship;
later, he has raised a mast and tied himself to it. Still
later, he is drowning in his disappointment in being
too frail for combat. His fatal heart attack is the
river he had to swim; he has the sensation that his
chest was filling with water, and he becomes a pod
set to sea.
In the Canary in Bloom section, the beautiful objects

represent the juxtaposition of Beulahs desire for a
sensuous, beautiful life in faraway places and the
realities of her life. In Taking in Wash, Beulah
watches her parents quarrel. When she finds a picture
of the Eiffel Tower in the newspaper, she takes it as a
sign that she would make it to Paris one day.
Sweeping the floor after Thomas tracked in sand, she
recalls a flowervery straight, with a spiked
collar . . . she had gathered . . . in Tennessee. Even as
she dies, looking at the ballerina music box, she thinks,
In China, they do everything upside down.
Other poems in Thomas and Beulah present two
perspectives on the same event. Courtship,
Courtship, Diligence, and Promises set forth
Thomass and Beulahs attitudes toward their courtship
and wedding. Courtship (in Mandolin) reveals
Thomass longing as his wrist flicks for the pleats all
in a row and he wraps the yellow silk . . . around her
shoulders. Later, at his wedding, he wonders, how
did I get here? In Courtship, Diligence, Beulah
would much prefer a pianola and scent in a skycolored flask, not that scarf, bright as butter. In
Promises, Beulah reluctantly turns her back on her
father at her wedding, plunging through sunbeams
and kisses to begin her life with Thomas.
123. The main idea of the passage is that Thomas and

Beulah:
A) won the Pulitzer Prize for its author, Rita Dove.
B) is divided into two almost equal parts.
C) reveals different perspectives on the same events.
D) delineates the psychological and emotional lives of
two individuals.
40
124. On the basis of the passage, it is reasonable to

conclude that:
A) events linked to beautiful objects are associated
with pain and guilt.
B) events linked to ships and water can be associated
with a desire for a sensuous life.
C) some events, whether ordinary or extraordinary,
have a profound impact on individual lives.
D) events linked to ships and water are always
associated with the gap between desire and
fulfillment.
125. The similarity in Thomass and Beulahs mixed
feelings about their marriage is reflected in:
A) Thomass one pierced cry and Beulahs
preferring a pianola . . . not that scarf, bright as
butter.
B) Thomass always jiving and Beulahs desire to
hear wine pouring.
C) Thomass landing on the dingy beach of a manmade lake and Beulahs recalling a flowervery
straight, with a spiked collar.
D) Thomass wondering how did I get here and
Beulahs reluctantly turning her back on her father.
126. If Rita Doves psychological insights are
accurate, then:
A) some married couples individual and shared lives
are characterized by ambivalence and ambiguity.
B) humans are rarely happy.
C) couples are always mismatched with regard to their
emotional lives.
D) married men always long for freedom.
127. The lines Perfect bystander, high and dry with a
scream caught in his throat and On the other
side of the world they are shedding robes
sprigged with roses can be connected,
respectively, to:
A) Thomas and Beulah.
B) Beulah and Thomas.
C) Canary in Bloom and Mandolin.
D) Lem and Thomas.
41
Passage VIII
The biosphere, all organisms combined, makes up only
about one part in ten billion of Earths mass. Yet life
has divided into millions of species, each playing a
unique role in relation to the whole.
The hallmark of life is this: a struggle among an
immense variety of organisms weighing next to
nothing for a vanishingly small amount of energy. Life
operates on only ten percent of the suns energy
reaching Earths surface, that portion fixed by the
photosynthesis of green plants. The free energy is then
sharply discounted as it passes through the food webs
from one organism to the next; very roughly ten
percent passes to the caterpillars and other herbivores
that eat the plants and bacteria, ten percent of that (or
one percent of the original) to the spiders and other
low-level carnivores that eat the herbivores, ten
percent of the residue to the warblers and other middlelevel carnivores that eat the low-level carnivores, and
so on upward to the top carnivores, which are
consumed by no one except parasites and scavengers.
Top carnivores, including eagles, tigers, and great
white sharks, live on such a small portion of lifes
available energy as always to skirt the edge of
extinction.
A great deal can be learned quickly about biological
diversity by noticing that species in the food web are
arranged into two hierarchies. The first is the energy
pyramid, a straightforward consequence of the law of
diminishing energy flow. The second pyramid is
composed of biomass, the weight of organisms. By far
the largest part of the physical bulk of the living world
is contained in plants. The second largest amount
belongs to the scavengers and other decomposers, from
bacteria to fungi and termites, which together extract
the last bit of fixed energy from dead tissue and waste
at every level in the food web. Each level above the
plants diminishes thereafter in biomass until you come
to the top carnivores, which are so scarce that the very
sight of one in the wild is memorable. No one looks
twice at a sparrow or squirrel, but a peregrine falcon or
mountain lion is a lifetime experience.
How is this inversion possible? The answer is that the

photosynthetic organisms are not plants in the
traditional landbound sense. They are phytoplankton,
microscopic single-celled algae carried passively by
water currents.
Cell for cell, planktonic algae fix more solar energy
and manufacture more protoplasm than plants on the
land, and they grow, divide, and die at an immensely
faster pace. Small animals, particularly copepods and
other small crustaceans carried in the sea currents,
hence called zooplankton, consume the algae. They
harvest huge quantities without exhausting the
standing photosynthetic crop in the water. Zooplankton
in turn are eaten by larger invertebrate animals and fish,
which are then eaten by still larger fish and marine
mammals such as seals and porpoises, which are
hunted by killer whales and great white sharks, the top
carnivores. The inversion of the biomass pyramid is
why the waters of the open ocean are so clear, why you
can look into them and spot an occasional fish but not
the green plantsalgaeon which all the animals
ultimately depend.
following source:
E.O. Wilson, The Diversity of Life. 1992 by E.O. Wilson.
128. Information in the passage suggests that

biologists might speak of the ten percent rule to
refer to which of the following quantities?
I.
II.
III.
The proportion of available energy

retained by a life form from
photosynthesis or feeding
The proportion of the total biomass at
each level of the food hierarchy
The relative number of species at each
level of the food hierarchy
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II only
D) II and III only
The biomass pyramid of the sea is at first glance

puzzling: It is turned upside down. The photosynthetic
organisms still capture almost all the energy, but they
have less total bulk than the animals that eat them.
42
129. Which of the following phenomena violates the

hierarchical organization of the food web
described in the passage?
I.
Copepods feeding on algae
II.
Killer whales feeding on seals
III.
Ticks feeding on jackals
A) II only
B) III only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
130. Assume that the following statements are true.
Which one is inconsistent with the assertion that
the biomass pyramid of the sea is inverted?
A) The algae capture almost all the available energy.
B) Whales are on the brink of extinction.
C) The total bulk of zooplankton is greater than that of
phytoplankton.
D) The total bulk of invertebrate fish is greater than
that of marine mammals.
131. If certain top carnivores evolved the ability to
utilize the suns energy directly instead of
through the consumption of plant-eating animals,
how would the energy pyramid of their
ecosystem be affected?
A) It would be inverted.
B) It would retain its structure.
C) It would broaden at the top.
D) It would be flattened.
132. The claim that photosynthesis absorbs only ten
percent of the energy reaching Earth necessitates
which of the following conclusions?
A) The percentage of the suns energy that serves life
on Earth directly is greater than the percentage
converted to food energy.
B) Green plants process energy from the sun more
efficiently than do other life forms.
C) Only a small percentage of the energy used by
plants is provided directly by the sun.
D) Only a small percentage of the energy used by top
carnivores is provided directly by the sun.
43
Passage IX
Some people may have no friendships of a high level
of moral excellence. And, as Aristotle recognized,
some people may actually be incapable of such
friendships. A truly selfish person could not have
friends in the fullest sense. If someone were genuinely
able to care for another person for the others own sake,
if someone were able to give much of him- or herself
to the other freely and for the others own sake, then he
or she would not be selfish.
It is true that selfish people can be very attached to one
or another persone.g., a spouse or friend. But it
seems that such a friendship could not be a friendship
of the most morally excellent kind. The attachment or
friendship would be too grounded in self-centered
considerations. Thus, a selfish man could be very
attached to his wife, dote on her, and in some ways do
a lot for her. But this would not mean that he really
cared for her for her own sake. His behavior would be
compatible with his caring for her, so to speak, for her
willingness to serve him, to be at his command, to
flatter his ego. His giving could be a minor concession
for her serving him or even a further expression or
assertion of his power over her and of her dependence
on him. If he were truly selfish, then something like
this would be the most likely explanation of his
beneficent behavior.
Nevertheless, it would be wrong to say that selfish
people cannot really have friends at all, in any sense of
the term. For first of all, there are important aspects of
friendship besides caring for the otheri.e., enjoying
being with the other person, or sharing certain kinds of
activities, or liking the other person. So selfish people
can have friends, in that there are others whom they
like and enjoy sharing certain kinds of activities with.
Second, even selfish people can wish others well, be
well disposed toward others.
someone whom I like, whom I know likes me, who

cares about my weal and woe, whom I trust, who is
personally important to me, who cares about our
friendship, etc. In acting from friendship toward Dave,
I express my acknowledgment of a relationship which
includes all these feelings and attitudes. This is why
the caring and the acts of beneficence are not separate
from my own interests, from what is personally a good
to me. In fact, friendship is a context in which the
division between self-interest and other-interest is
often not applicable.
following source:
L.A. Blum, Friendship, Altruism and Morality. 1980 by
Routledge & Kegan Paul.
133. Which of the following actions is an example of

what the author probably means in implying that
giving can be an assertion of power?
A) A judge gives lighter sentences to criminals if they
address the judge respectfully.
B) Office workers give money to the bosss favorite
charity because the boss asks them to do so.
C) A citizen distributes food to the homeless so that no
one will go hungry.
D) A husband suggests that he and his wife treat
themselves to a vacation.
134. For which of the following of the authors
assertions is NO support provided in the passage?
A) A truly selfish person cannot have friends in the
truest sense.
B) There is more to friendship than caring for another.
C) There are plausible explanations for seemingly
beneficent behaviors of selfish people.
D) Even a selfish person can wish another well.
Thus, there are very different levels of friendship,

levels which are understood in moral terms, in terms of
how fully one cares for the other. Friendship always
involves a giving of self to the other and a valuing of
the other for his or her own sake. Friendship is an
expression of moral activity on our part.
In caring about the weal and woe of my friend Dave, it
is integral to the nature of this caring that it be for
44
135. Assume that the authors friend Dave was

interviewed. If Dave remarked that he and the
author often argue about the way they will spend
their time together, this remark would weaken the
passage assertion that:
A) friendship is an expression of moral activity.
B) among friends, the line between self-interest and
other-interest is often not applicable.
C) some people may not be capable of friendships in
the fullest sense.
D) the authors friendship with Dave helps to define
what is important to the author.
136. If the author of the passage is right that
friendship blurs the distinction between ones
own interests and the interests of ones friends,
then it follows that:
A) by their very nature, friendships foster cooperation
and reduce antagonism.
B) selfishness must still find expression, but only in
relationships with those who are not ones friends.
C) friendship can really begin only between people
who know each other very well.
D) friends become more and more alike the longer
they are together.
137. Regarding the reciprocity and transitivity of
friendship, the passage strongly implies that:
A) if Mary is a friend to Bill, and Bill is a friend to
Tom, then Mary is a friend to Tom.
B) if Mary and Bill are friends, they satisfy the same
needs in one another.
C) Mary and Bill could have a true friendship in which
Bill does most of the giving and Mary does most of
the receiving.
D) Mary cannot be a friend to Bill if Bill is not a friend
to Mary, and vice-versa.
45
Writing Sample
Time: 60 minutes
2 Prompts, separately timed:
30 minutes each
This is a test of your writing skills. The test consists of two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete each
part. Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing each of your responses, read the assignment carefully to
understand exactly what you are being asked to do. Because this is a test of your writing skills, your response to
each part should be an essay of complete sentences and paragraphs, as well organized and clearly written as you
can make it in the time allotted.
138. Consider this statement:

Education comes not from books but from practical experience.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statements means. Describe a specific situation in which books might educate students better than practical
experience. Discuss what you think determines when practical experience provides a better education than
books do.
47
139. Consider this statement:

Scientific inquiry is rooted in the desire to discover, but there is no discovery so important that in its
pursuit a threat to human life can be tolerated.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statements means. Describe a specific situation in which a threat to human life might be tolerated in the
pursuit of scientific discovery. Discuss what you think determines when the pursuit of scientific discovery is
more important than the protection of human life.
48
Biological Sciences
Time: 100 minutes
Questions: 140 - 216
Most questions in the Biological Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive
passage. After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are
not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives.
Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A periodic table is
provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
Periodic Table of the Elements
He
4.0
10
1.0
3
Li
Be
Ne
6.9
9.0
10.8
12.0
14.0
16.0
19.0
20.2
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
Na
Mg
Al
Si
Cl
Ar
23.0
24.3
27.0
28.1
31.0
32.1
35.5
39.9
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
Ca
Sc
Ti
Cr
Mn
Fe
Co
Ni
Cu
Zn
Ga
Ge
As
Se
Br
Kr
39.1
37
40.1
38
45.0
39
47.9
40
50.9
41
52.0
42
54.9
43
55.8
44
58.9
45
58.7
46
63.5
47
65.4
48
69.7
49
72.6
50
74.9
51
79.0
52
79.9
53
83.8
54
Rb
Sr
Zr
Nb
Mo
Tc
Ru
Rh
Pd
Ag
Cd
In
Sn
Sb
Te
Xe
85.5
55
87.6
56
88.9
57
91.2
72
92.9
73
95.9
74
(98)
75
101.1
76
102.9
77
106.4
78
107.9
79
112.4
80
114.8
81
118.7
82
121.8
83
127.6
84
126.9
85
131.3
86
Cs
Ba
La*
Hf
Ta
Re
Os
Ir
Pt
Au
Hg
Tl
Pb
Bi
Po
At
Rn
132.9
87
137.3
88
138.9
89
178.5
104
180.9
105
183.9
106
186.2
107
190.2
108
192.2
109
195.1
197.0
200.6
204.4
207.2
209.0
(209)
(210)
(222)
Fr
Ra
Ac
Unq
Unp
Unh
Uns
Uno
Une
(223)
(226)
(227)
(261)
(262)
58
(263)
59
(262)
60
(265)
61
(267)
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
Ce
Pr
Nd
Pm
Sm
Eu
Gd
Tb
Dy
Ho
Er
Tm
Yb
Lu
140.1
90
140.9
91
144.2
92
(145)
93
150.4
94
152.0
95
157.3
96
158.9
97
162.5
98
164.9
99
167.3
100
168.9
101
173.0
102
175.0
103
Th
Pa
Np
Pu
Am
Cm
Bk
Cf
Es
Fm
Md
No
Lr
232.0
(231)
238.0
(237)
(244)
(243)
(247)
(247)
(251)
(252)
(257)
(258)
(259)
(260)
Passage I
Autoimmune diseases result when lymphocytes from
the immune system attack the bodys own tissues. This
is normally prevented by the bodys ability of selftolerance; that is, the immune system recognizes the
bodys own tissues and forms very few lymphocytes
that act against them. Autoimmune diseases may affect
any type of body tissue.
Two hypotheses have been advanced to explain how
autoimmunity develops.
Hypothesis 1
Most of the bodys self-tolerance is generated within a
few months of birth, when the body is processing T
and Blymphocytes. Identical groups (clones) of
circulating lymphocytes remain inactive until they
encounter their specific antigens, after which they
proliferate. During this time, the process of clonal
deletion destroys any newly formed groups of
lymphocytes that might attack the bodys own tissues.
If clonal deletion of such lymphocytes does not occur
or is hindered, these lymphocytes will incorrectly
recognize a specific body tissue as foreign or non-self,
and begin to destroy it.
Hypothesis 2
In addition to effector lymphocytes (such as helper T
cells and cytotoxic T cells) that selectively attack and
destroy antigens, the body contains other lymphocytes
(suppressor T cells) that prevent this destruction by
selectively limiting the action of the effector cells.
Normally, a regulatory balance is maintained between
effector and suppressor T cells. However, when this
balance is disturbed (for example, by loss or
inactivation of suppressor-cell clones), an autoimmune
disease may result.
140. Certain individuals with autoimmune thyroid

disease have an increased susceptibility to
autoimmune liver disease. According to
Hypothesis 2, which of the following groups of
effector or suppressor cells have most likely been
lost or inactivated in these individuals?
A) Suppressor cells that respond to thyroid cells but
not those that respond to liver cells
B) Suppressor cells that respond to both thyroid cells
and liver cells
C) Effector cells that respond to thyroid cells but not
those that respond to liver cells
D) Effector cells that respond to both thyroid cells and
liver cells
141. The human body never develops self-tolerance to
the proteins of the cornea. According to
Hypothesis 1, one reason for this might be that
the corneal proteins:
A) never circulate in the body fluids; therefore, they
are never exposed to lymphocytes.
B) are not part of a living tissue; therefore,
development of self-tolerance is unnecessary.
C) are adequately protected by tears and other external
barriers to antigens.
D) are protected by suppressor T cells rather than by
clonal deletion.
142. According to the normal mechanism of selftolerance described in the passage, the body will
respond to each antigen it encounters by
activating:
A) either B or T lymphocytes, but not both.
B) lymphocytes against the antigen, if the antigen is
from the bodys own tissues.
C) all clones of lymphocytes that have not been
destroyed by clonal deletion.
D) a clone of lymphocytes specific for that antigen.
51
143. According to Hypothesis 2, the normal balance

between effector cells and suppressor cells
specific for a certain tissue will most likely be
disturbed if the tissue is injected with:
A) cells for that tissue obtained from an identical twin.
B) cells from another tissue to which the tissue has
already been exposed.
C) a foreign substance that cross-reacts with cells of
that tissue.
D) a foreign substance that does not cross-react with
cells of that tissue.
144. Does acceptance of the mechanism of selftolerance described in Hypothesis 1 rule out
acceptance of the mechanism described in
Hypothesis 2?
A) Yes; if clonal deletion occurs, no self-reactive
lymphocytes will be left for suppressor T cells to
act upon.
B) Yes; Hypothesis 1 deals with the formation of selftolerance and Hypothesis 2 deals with its
maintenance.
C) No; suppressor T cell formation can only occur
after clonal deletion has occurred.
D) No; clones of self-reactive lymphocytes not
destroyed by clonal deletion may be controlled by
suppressor T cells.
145. The mechanism of self-tolerance described in
Hypothesis 1 is generated in which of the
following regions of the body?
A) Bone marrow and thymus gland
B) Bloodstream and lymph nodes
C) Thyroid gland and adrenal gland
D) Brain and spinal cord
52
Passage II
The defensive secretions of some termites contain
biologically active alcohols. Chemists have attempted
to synthesize and characterize these alcohols, and two
partial syntheses are shown in Scheme A.
In Step 1, the C8 carbonyl group on Compound I is

converted to a acetal, resulting in the formation of
Compound II, which can be subjected to either of two
synthetic pathways. In one pathway, when Compound
II is treated with CH3MgBr, the methyl group adds to
the remaining C1 carbonyl group, and the
corresponding alcohol is formed (Compound III). It
has been proposed that the methyl group adds to only
one side of the molecule because of the steric
hindrance by the C11 methyl group.
Alternatively, Compound II can be converted to
Compound V via an olefination reaction. When
Compound VI is treated with LiAlH4, the hydride (H)
attacks an epoxide carbon, the ring opens, and the
resulting oxygen anion is subsequently protonated with
water to form Compound VII.
146. Compound Y is shown below.
Based on Scheme A, Compound Y can most

likely be synthesized by substituting:
A) an ethyl group for the methyl group on C11.
B) a methyl group for the C1 carbonyl group.
C) (CH3CH2O)3CH for (CH3O)3CH in Step 1.
D) CH3CH2MgBr for CH3MgBr in Step 2.
147. Why did the chemist convert the C8 carbonyl
group in Compound I to a acetal group in Step 1?
A) Acetal groups are inert to all reaction conditions.
B) Acetal groups are more reactive than carbonyl
groups; therefore, the subsequent reactions require
milder conditions.
C) The C8 carbonyl group must be protected to prevent
it from reacting in steps 2 and 4.
D) The C8 carbonyl group must be protected to prevent
it from reacting in steps 3 and 7.
53
148. In the infrared spectrum of Compound IV, the

stretches at 3,300 cm1 (broad) and 1,700 cm1
(sharp) correspond to which of the following
bonds, respectively?
A) C=O and O_H
B) O_H and C=O
C) C_O and C_H
D) C=O and C_O
149. In Step 6 of Scheme A, if H2O is replaced with
D2O, what will be the structure of the product?
A)
B)
C)
D)
54
Passage III
When the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) is
released from vesicles in the presynaptic terminals of
neurons, it diffuses across synapses and stimulates
specific postsynaptic receptors of adjacent neurons.
Normally, most of the ACh is degraded in the synapses
by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which is
synthesized by the same neurons that produce ACh.
ACh is abundant in brain regions that mediate learning
and memory, and, when present at relatively high
levels, is also involved in pain relief.
A researcher used two drugs to study the role of ACh
in the learning and memory processes of rats. Drug X
is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, and Drug Y is a
noncompetitive blocker of postsynaptic ACh receptors.
Groups of rats were maintained on different treatment
regimens, consisting of either a placebo (an inert
substance) or a specific concentration of either Drug X
or Drug Y. Using mild foot shocks as a deterrent, the
researcher trained rats to avoid the darker compartment
of a two-chamber training box. At the beginning of
each learning session, rats were placed in the dark
chamber and given 60 seconds before mild foot shocks
were initiated. Additional shocks were administered
every 60 seconds while any rats remained in the dark
chamber.
Learning was scored by the number of trials required
before rats learned to avoid shock 100% of the time,
and memory was scored by the number of incorrect
reentries into the dark chamber (errors). Some results
are shown in figures 1 and 2.
Figure 2 Effect of Drug Y on shock avoidance
150. ACh is the transmitter in the striated (voluntary)

muscular system. What effect would Drug Y
have on the functioning of this system?
A) It would increase the synthesis of
acetylcholinesterase.
B) It would increase Ca2+ influx into the T tubules.
C) It would block muscular contraction.
D) It would stimulate muscular contraction.
151. An underlying assumption of the researcher
regarding the actions of Drug X was that it:
A) increased the amount of ACh in the synapse.
B) affected learning by stimulating the autonomic
nervous system.
C) acted on the postsynaptic receptors.
D) was synthesized in the same neurons as ACh was.
152. If Drug X and Drug Y are given together, will the
rate of learning most likely increase or decrease?
A) Increase, because the increased production of ACh
caused by Drug X will overcome the blocking
effect of Drug Y
B) Increase, because, in general, both Drug X and
Drug Y act to increase ACh production
C) Decrease, because the excess ACh produced by
Drug X will be degraded by Drug Y before it can
affect learning
D) Decrease, because although Drug X will increase
ACh production, Drug Y will prevent it from being
taken up by postsynaptic receptors
Figure 1 Effect of Drug X on shock avoidance

55
153. The researcher discovered that increasing the

concentration of Drug X resulted in greater
inhibition of the hydrolysis of ACh by
acetylcholinesterase. However, this effect was
counteracted by increasing the concentration of
ACh. These results indicate that Drug X acts on
acetylcholinesterase as:
A) an irreversible inhibitor.
B) a competitive inhibitor.
C) a noncompetitive inhibitor.
D) a mixed competitive/noncompetitive inhibitor.
154. Based on the experiment in the passage, the best
overall description of the effect of ACh on rat
learning and memory is that:
A) moderate increases in ACh utilization appear to
disrupt memory and learning.
B) moderate increases in ACh utilization appear to
improve memory and learning.
C) blockage of ACh receptors appears to improve
memory and learning.
D) blockage of ACh receptors appears to improve
learning at low doses and disrupt it at high doses.
155. The fastest way to counteract the effects of Drug
Y would most likely be to:
A) increase its rate of metabolism and elimination
from the body.
B) administer increasing amounts of Drug X.
C) administer a competitive receptor stimulator.
D) administer another noncompetitive ACh receptor
blocker that acts at the same site as Drug Y.
156. An autosomal recessive, nonlethal mutation
(deletion) of the ACh receptor gene occurs in
some rats. Which of the following organelles
will most likely be abnormal in the rats having
this mutation?
A) Microtubules
B) Ribosomes
C) Endoplasmic reticulum
D) Plasma membrane
56
Passage IV
The ciliate protozoan Tetrahymena contains two nuclei:
a diploid, germ-line micronucleus and a 45-ploid
macronucleus that is the site of gene expression during
the vegetative state. Sexual reproduction in
Tetrahymena occurs by the process of conjugation
(Figure 1, Steps 18).
Figure 1
Adapted from Elizabeth H. Blackburn and Kathleen M. Karrer,
Genomic Reorganization in Ciliate Protozoans. 1986 by
Annual Reviews Inc.
After conjugation, the four sexually produced progeny

divide by binary fission. Each daughter cell receives an
exact copy of the micronuclear DNA and an uneven
(but approximately equal) amount of DNA from the
amitotic macronucleus. To minimize fluctuations in
DNA content, small macronuclei undergo an additional
S phase before division, and large macronuclei
eliminate an S phase.
157. Sexual reproduction is advantageous to

Tetrahymena primarily because sexual
reproduction:
A) increases genetic variability in the population.
B) produces a new somatic micronucleus in the sexual
progeny.
C) maintains genetic stability in a changing
environment.
D) allows a rapid increase in the population size.
57
158. In the macronucleus, the genes for rRNA are

located extrachromosomally. This suggests that
the rRNA genes are:
A) nonlinear.
B) nonfunctional.
C) self-replicating.
D) rearranged.
159. An extra S phase occurs during amitotic division
in a small macronucleus to minimize fluctuations
in DNA content. This is most likely triggered by
the presence of:
163. In a mating of two Tetrahymena strains that are

homozygous in their macronuclei and
heterozygous in their micronuclei for a recessive
gene, what percentage of the F1 generation will
express the recessive phenotype?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 100%
A) low concentrations of DNA in the macronucleus.

B) centromeres in the macronucleus.
C) high concentrations of DNA in the micronucleus.
D) mitotic enzymes in the micronucleus.
160. The macronuclei of the asexual progeny in
Tetrahymena and the cytoplasm of the ovaproducing cells of female vertebrates share a
common feature in that both:
A) undergo uneven division.
B) contain uneven amounts of nuclear material.
C) regulate their contents by adding or skipping an S
phase.
D) are apportioned at mitosis.
161. When an initially heterozygous macronucleus
undergoes repeated binary fission, the result will
be:
A) the loss of macronuclear chromosomes.
B) an increased rate of crossing over in the
macronucleus.
C) the production of a macronucleus with a genetic
origin distinct from the micronucleus.
D) a variable allele distribution in the macronucleus.
162. Some of the DNA sequences that are eliminated
during macronuclear differentiation (Figure 1,
Step 6) may be sequences involved in:
A) transcription.
B) translation.
C) meiosis.
D) ribosome production.
58

164. Which of the following properties is associated

with the existence of glycine as a dipolar ion in
aqueous solution?
A) High dipole moment
B) High molecular weight
C) Low dielectric constant
D) Low solubility in water
165.
-D-glucuronide
The compound shown above is the -derivative
of the D-glucuronic acid. The -D-glucuronide
differs in configuration from the -derivative at:
A) C-1.
B) C-2.
C) C-3.
D) C-4.
166. Suppose that the amino acid sequences of a
protein such as cytochrome oxidase are compared
for a large number of species. The greatest
number of amino acid differences will most
likely be found between members of different:
A) phyla.
B) orders.
C) species.
D) families.
167. Which of the following recombinant processes
depends on the F factor plasmid?
A) Transformation
B) Transduction
C) Conjugation
D) Translocation
59
Table 1 Selected Amines and pKa Values of Their

Conjugate Acids
Passage V
The actual yield of an organic reaction in water is often
lower than the theoretical yield because of a competing
hydrolysis reaction that is pH dependent. Equation 1
shows the reaction of acetic anhydride with an
aliphatic amine, and equations 2 and 3 show two
possible competing reactions that can occur in water.
Equation 1
Equation 2
168. What is the pHi for allyl bromide if it reacts with

N-methylmethanesulfonamide (pKa 11.79) at a
maximum pH of 12.2 to give N-allylmethylmethanesulfonamide?
A) 6.30
B) 7.00
C) 12.0
D) 12.6
Equation 3
Chemists have shown that the maximum yield for
coupling of an electrophile-nucleophile pair such as the
reactants in Equation 1 occurs at a maximum pH
(pHmax) given by Equation 4, in which Hi is a
characteristic of the electrophile and Ka is the acidity
constant of the conjugate acid of the nucleophile.
pHmax = 1/2(pHi + pKa)
Equation 4
Table 1 shows pKa values for the conjugate acids of
aniline, benzylamine, valine, and lysine.
169. The compound formed by replacing the oxygen

atom between the two carbonyl groups in acetic
anhydride with an NH group is classified as
an:
A) amide.
B) imide.
C) imine.
D) eneamine.
170. Equation 3 can be reversed by:
A) heating only.
B) acidification only.
C) heating followed by acidification.
D) acidification followed by heating.
60
171. The first step in the mechanism of the reaction

shown in Equation 1 is the:
A) protonation of a carbonyl oxygen atom by a
hydrogen atom from the amino group.
B) protonation of a carbonyl oxygen atom by a
hydrogen atom from water.
C) attack at a carbonyl carbon atom by the lone pair of
electrons on the nitrogen atom of the amino group.
D) attack at a carbonyl oxygen atom by the lone pair
of electrons on the nitrogen atom of the amino
group.
172. Aniline and benzylamine are both:
A) primary amines.
B) secondary amines.
C) aromatic amines.
D) nonaromatic amines.
61
Passage VI
In the human lung, both alveolar ventilation and
pulmonary blood flow are required for the continuous
exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between
alveolar air and alveolar capillary blood. Ventilation of
the alveoli (VA) results from alternating contraction and
relaxation of thoracic respiratory muscles that cause
changes in thoracic and lung volumes, alveolar
pressure (PA), and intrapleural pressure (IPP, the
pressure of the fluid surrounding each lung). The
intrapleural cavities surrounding the two lungs are
separate. IPP is negative relative to atmospheric
pressure (P, pressure outside the body) because lung
elastic recoil tends to reduce lung volume and the
thorax tends to expand. The mean pulmonary arterial
pressure is only 20 mmHg, compared with a mean
aortic pressure of 100 mmHg. The lower pressure
pulmonary circulation supplies systemic venous blood
to alveolar capillaries (Q, the blood flow rate to the
lung). In the upright human lung, gravity causes an
uneven distribution of VA and Q (Figure 1) because it
has different effects on IPP and on alveolar capillary
perfusion pressure. In an upright (seated or standing)
human, IPP is more negative at the apex of the lung
than at the base.
Figure 1 Alveolar ventilation (VA) and lung blood flow

(Q) decrease linearly from the lung base to the apex.
The decrease from base to apex is greater for Q than
for VA.
173. Pulmonary arterial blood differs from the aortic

blood because it has:
A) more O2, less CO2, and higher pH.
B) more O2, more CO2, and higher pH.
C) less O2, more CO2, and lower pH.
D) less O2, less CO2, and higher pH.
174. Contraction of the diaphragm results in a:
A) more negative IPP and inspiration.
B) more negative IPP and expiration.
C) more positive IPP and inspiration.
D) more positive IPP and expiration.
175. Air flows out of the lungs when:
A) PA<P.
B) PA>P.
C) IPP<PA.
D) PA= P.
176. In comparison with the wall of the right ventricle
of the heart, the left ventricular wall is:
A) thinner and generates a higher pressure when it
contracts.
B) thinner and generates a lower pressure when it
contracts.
C) thicker and generates a higher pressure when it
contracts.
D) thicker and generates a lower pressure when it
contracts.
177. If an artery that supplies blood to a lung lobe was
blocked but ventilation to the lobe was
unaffected, how would alveolar gas partial
pressures change?
A) Both PO2 and PCO2 would increase.
B) Both PO2 and PCO2 would decrease.
C) PO2 would increase and PCO2 would decrease.
D) PO2 would decrease and PCO2 would increase.
62
Passage VII
Of all invertebrate taxa, arthropods are by far the most
evolutionarily successful in terms of species longevity,
diversity, and variety of ecological niches occupied
(and often dominated). The success of arthropods
appears to be attributable to a number of factors,
including the evolution of a protective chitinous
exoskeleton, segmented bodies, jointed appendages,
and striated muscle. In these four characteristics,
arthropods differ from all other invertebrate taxa.
Though arthropods and vertebrates are similar in that
both groups have well-developed organ systems, there
are fundamental differences in these systems. For
example, all arthropods have a ventral nerve cord and
an open circulatory system. Additionally, insects have
a respiratory system in which tissues are nourished
directly with gaseous oxygen, and excretion is
accomplished by hundreds of threadlike malpighian
tubules that collect waste fluids, depositing them in the
posterior intestine.
178. Dissection of a crayfish reveals the presence of a

hepatopancreas. Of which system below would
one expect this organ to be a vital component?
A) Circulatory
B) Excretory
C) Nervous
D) Digestive
181. One would expect that the development of

striated muscle in arthropods was paramount to
this groups success because such tissue would
allow for:
A) increased activity.
B) a muscular digestive system.
C) a pumping circulatory system.
D) the development of a coelom.
182. Arthropods, as a taxonomic unit, are considered
successful because:
I.
II.
III.
there are numerous species.

many individuals have relatively long life
spans.
there are aquatic, terrestrial, and flying
species.
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and III only
D) I, II, and III
183. After observing the well-defined nervous system
of several insect species, a student concludes that
all arthropods must have a true coelom. Is such a
conclusion warranted?
A) No; insects are not representative of all arthropods.
B) No; coelom development and nerve tissue
development are independent processes.
C) Yes; only a true coelom gives rise to nerve tissue.
D) Yes; both the coelom and nerve tissue are
derivatives of mesoderm.
179. Which of the following would be observed upon

dissection of a freshly sedated insect?
A) Lungs
B) An endoskeleton
C) Blood-filled sinuses
D) Kidneys
180. The malpighian tubules of insects are analogous
to the mammalian:
A) bladder.
B) colon.
C) kidney.
D) liver.
63
Passage VIII
Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is prepared from salicylic
acid according to Reaction 1.
The aspirin is partially purified of polymer

contaminants by dissolving it in an aqueous sodium
bicarbonate solution to produce a water-soluble
sodium salt (see Reaction 2).
Aspirin is a potent anti-inflammatory agent because it

blocks the first step in the synthesis of prostaglandins
by acetylating the terminal amino group of the enzyme
catalyst (see Reaction 3).
184. According to the passage, prostaglandins most

likely:
A) are enzymes.
B) are acetylating agents.
C) inhibit the effects of inflammation.
D) enhance the effects of inflammation.
185. Reaction 3 involves all of the following
transformations EXCEPT:
A) ammonolysis of an ester.
B) hydrolysis of an acid.
C) amide formation.
D) phenol formation.
After filtration to remove insoluble contaminants, and

after workup of the filtrate, the most likely impurity in
the final product is salicylic acid, which can be
detected because, unlike aspirin, it forms a highly
colored complex with ferric chloride.
64
186. One competing side reaction in aspirin synthesis

is an esterification reaction between the acid
group of aspirin and the hydroxy group of
salicylic acid. What is the product of this side
reaction?
A)
188. Which of the following CANNOT be partially

responsible for the contamination of aspirin by
salicylic acid?
A) Reaction 1 is reversible.
B) Reaction 1 is terminated before completion.
C) Aspirin can be hydrolyzed to salicylic acid during
purification steps.
D) Aspirin can decarboxylate to form salicylic acid in
the presence of NaHCO3.
B)
C)
D)
187. What is accomplished by the filtration that is

performed after Reaction 2?
A) Solid salicylic acid and solid polymer impurities
are separated from the water-soluble sodium salt of
aspirin.
B) Water-soluble salicylic acid and polymer impurities
are separated from the solid sodium salt of aspirin.
C) Solid polymer impurities are separated from the
water-soluble sodium salts of salicylic acid and
aspirin.
D) Water-soluble polymer impurities are separated
from the solid sodium salts of salicylic acid and
aspirin.
65

189. If a persons gallbladder is removed, the person

should restrict the consumption of:
A) proteins.
B) polysaccharides.
C) triglycerides.
D) lactose.
193. The outer layers of human skin are composed of

dead cells impregnated with keratin and oil,
which make the epidermis relatively
impermeable to water, yet humans sweat freely in
hot temperatures. This occurs because:
A) the salt in sweat allows it to diffuse through the
skin.
B) sweat glands have special channels through the
skin.
C) an osmotic gradient in sweat moves it through the
skin.
D) sweating occurs in only those areas of the body
where the skin is water permeable.
190. The shark intestine is shorter and less convoluted

than that of mammals. The shark intestine,
however, is not hollow, but contains a spirally
folded mucous membrane (the spiral valve). The
spiral valve is most likely analogous in function
to the mammalian:
A) liver and pancreas.
B) stomach mucosa.
C) intestinal villi and convolutions.
D) pyloric valve.
191. What is the formula for the compound tertbutylamine?
A) [(CH3)3C]3NH2
B) (CH3)3CNH2
C) [(CH3)3C]3NH
D) (CH3)3CH2NH2
192. Inbreeding can reduce the fitness of a population
in the short term because it causes an increase in
the:
A) genetic diversity of the population.
B) levels of aggression in the population.
C) rate of spontaneous mutations.
D) incidence of expression of deleterious recessive
traits.
66
Passage IX
Secondary messengers such as cAMP (cyclic
adenosine monophosphate)are substances produced by
a cell in response to stimulation of the cell's plasma
membrane by a hormone (primary messengers). When
adrenalin is present in the bloodstream, glycogen
stored in the liver is broken down into glucose
monomers. This, in turn, leads to an increase in bloodsugar levels.
Hepatocytes (liver cells) may be separated into a cell
membrane fraction and a cytosol fraction by
centrifugation. Previous experiments have shown that
the cytosol fraction contains the enzymes involved in
the breakdown of glycogen, while the membrane
fraction contains the adrenalin receptors.
Experiment 1
Adrenalin and glycogen were mixed with the various
hepatocyte fractions, with results as indicated below:
a. Cytosol + Adrenalin + Glycogen No
glucose
b. Membranes + Adrenalin + Glycogen No
glucose
c. Membranes + Cytosol + Adrenalin + Glycogen
Glucose
d. Boiled membranes + Cytosol + Adrenalin +
Glycogen No glucose
194. What is the most likely explanation for the result

of Experiment 1a?
A) Glycolysis enzymes were denatured.
B) A secondary messenger could not be produced.
C) Adrenalin was not present in sufficient quantities.
D) Hepatocyte cytosol has too few mitochondria.
195. Following its production in the liver, glucose
may be partially oxidized to pyruvic acid
(pyruvate) in a cells:
A) nucleus.
B) cytoplasm.
C) mitochondria.
D) plasma membrane.
196. The enzyme that catalyzes the production of
cAMP is adenylate cyclase. Studies have shown
that adenylate cyclase is a protein complex of
high molecular weight. Which of the following
statements regarding this enzyme is correct?
A) Adenylate cyclase is activated by 5'-AMP.
B) Adenylate cyclase is heat stable.
C) Adenylate cyclase activity is stimulated by
adrenalin.
D) Adenylate cyclase breaks down glycogen.
Experiment 2
Hepatocyte membrane fractions were mixed with
adrenalin and ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and
allowed to react for 3 min. The mixture was then
boiled and extracted, and a portion of the boiled extract
was purified for assay. Two of the constituents found
were cAMP and 5-AMP. Cytosol fractions and
glycogen were mixed with each of the two major
extract products as follows:
a. cAMP + Cytosol + Glycogen Glucose
b. 5-AMP + Cytosol + Glycogen No glucose
67
197. In the schematic diagram below of a portion from

a hepatocyte plasma membrane, which of the
following substances or compounds is
represented by Structure X?
200. Which of the following chemicals is a primary

messenger?
A) Glycogen
B) Glucose
C) Adrenalin
D) cAMP
A) Adrenalin
B) Glucose
C) ATP
D) cAMP
198. Which of the following hypotheses is NOT tested
by Experiment 1?
A) Adrenalin is a necessary component for the
breakdown of glycogen.
B) Hepatocyte cytosol contributes to the breakdown of
glycogen.
C) Boiling hepatocyte membranes affects glucose
production.
D) Hepatocyte membrane and cytosol must be present
simultaneously for glycogen to be broken down.
199. Which of the following reactant combinations
should yield glucose?
I.
II.
III.
Boiled extract + Cytosol + Glycogen

Boiled extract + Glycogen
Boiled cAMP + Cytosol + Glycogen
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and III only
68
Passage X
A microbial agent was suspected as the cause of an
infectious human disease, though no such agent could
be found when a light microscope was used to
investigate samples of blood serum and white blood
cells from ill patients. Viewing identical samples with
the electron microscope, however, did reveal
spherically shaped objects (later identified as virions)
interspersed among certain white blood cells. The
objects, shown schematically in cross section in Figure
1, were estimated to be 100 nanometers in diameter.
Researchers further analyses of the objects showed
them to consist of RNA and core protein wrapped in a
phospholipid bilayer membrane from which
proteinaceous knobs protruded. Cell organelles could
not be identified, and all attempts to grow the objects
in the laboratory using steam-sterilized, noncellular
growth media were unsuccessful.
202. Which of the following conclusions regarding

virion biology is supported by information given
in the passage?
A) Virions lack genetic material.
B) Virions can synthesize proteins.
C) Virions lack enzymes.
D) Virions are obligate parasites.
203. In regard to their relative size, the described
objects are:
A) smaller than all known eukaryotic cells.
B) approximately the size of a typical coccus
bacterium.
C) larger than a human red blood corpuscle.
D) larger than all known bacteriophages.
204. Which of the following media would most likely
be used to grow virions in the laboratory?
A) A suspension of ribosomes and ATP
B) A suspension of human DNA
C) A nutrient broth
D) A tissue culture
205. Most viral proteins are produced directly by:
A) translation of host nucleic acid.
B) translation of viral nucleic acid.
C) transcription of host nucleic acid.
D) transcription of viral nucleic acid.
Figure 1
Adapted from R. C. Gallo and L. Montagnier, AIDS in 1988.
1988 by Scientific American, Inc.
206. A microbe pathogen was hypothesized as the

causative agent of the disease described in the
passage because:
I.
201. The confining membrane shown in Figure 1 is

most similar structurally to a:
A) eukaryotic cell membrane.
B) prokaryotic cell wall.
C) bacterial spore coat.
D) bacterial capsule.
II.
III.
suspicious objects were found in blood

samples from ill patients.
in-vitro cultivation of the probable
pathogen was difficult.
the disease was infectious.
A) II only
B) III only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
69
Two chemists proposed different mechanisms for the

Diels-Alder reaction.
Passage XI
In the early 1900s, Diels and Alder discovered that a
conjugated diene reacts with an alkene (dienophile) at
elevated temperatures to produce the corresponding
six-membered ring.
They discovered that the reaction was more favorable

when dienophiles with electron-withdrawing groups
were used. In addition, they observed that the
stereochemistry of both the diene and dienophile was
almost exclusively retained in the product. The rates of
a variety of Diels-Alder reactions are compared in
Table 1.
Table 1
Chemist 1
Chemist 1 proposed a concerted mechanism in which
all of the bonds are formed simultaneously, as
illustrated in Figure 1.
Figure 1
Chemist 2
Chemist 2 discovered that when the reactions in Table
1 were carried out in the presence of a Lewis acid such
as AlCl3, the reaction rate increased significantly.
Chemist 2 knew that AlCl3 complexes with the
carbonyl carbon of simple ketones to give a complex,
as shown in Figure 2.
Figure 2
Because the rates of these Diels-Alder reactions were
enhanced by the addition of a Lewis acid, Chemist 2
proposed that all Diels-Alder reactions proceed
through a similar complex to give a diionic
intermediate, in which one bond is formed more
rapidly than the other, as shown in Figure 3.
Figure 3
70
207. According to the diionic mechanism proposed by

Chemist 2, which of the following structures
represents the reactive intermediate of the
reaction described by Entry 2 in Table 1?
209. Which of the following structures is a resonance

structure of the intermediate shown in Figure 3?
A)
A)
B)
B)
C)
C)
D)
D)
208. In the reaction described by Entry 4 of Table 1, a

1:1 mixture of two products was observed, and
the second product was identified as the
enantiomer of the product shown in the table.
What is the structure of the second product?
A)
210. According to the observations made by the two

chemists, why does the following reaction NOT
work?
A) The methoxy group is not electron withdrawing.

B) There is no Lewis acid present.
C) The diene does not contain a carbonyl group.
D) The dienophile is too sterically hindered.
B)
C)
D)
71

211. A researcher has a short polynucleotide strand

with the following base
sequence: AUCCCUGG. This strand must be:
A) template DNA.
B) DNA.
C) RNA.
D) a peptide.
212. Which of the following statements about DNA
methylation is the most accurate?
A) Thymine is the most highly methylated nitrogenous
base in DNA.
B) Highly methylated DNA is typically less actively
transcribed than unmethylated DNA.
C) The methylation pattern of daughter strands is
unrelated to the methylation pattern of template
strands.
D) Inactivated X chromosomes in female mammalian
cells are typically less methylated than other
chromosomes.
213. Compound X is shown below.
214. DNA polymerase catalyzes the replication of

chromosomal DNA in bacteria as shown below.
A double-stranded DNA molecule contains bases

with a ratio of (A + T)/(G + C) = 3:1. This
molecule is replicated with DNA polymerase in
the presence of the four deoxynucleoside
triphosphates with a molar ratio of (A + T)/(G +
C) = 1:1. What is the expected ratio of (A +
T)/(G + C) in the double-stranded daughter DNA
molecule?
A) 1:3
B) 1:1
C) 2:1
D) 3:1
215. Which of the following functional groups is
found in benzoin, C6H5CH(OH)C(O)C6H5?
A) Carboxylic acid
B) Ether
C) Aldehyde
D) Ketone
216. Assuming that the breathing rate is 10
breaths/min, the tidal volume is 800 mL/breath,
and the nonalveolar respiratory system volume
(dead space) is 150 mL, what is the net volume
of fresh air that enters the alveoli each minute?
A) 650 mL
B) 785 mL
C) 6,500 mL
D) 7,850 mL
Compound X is classified as a:
A) dipeptide that contains one peptide bond.
B) dipeptide that contains two peptide bonds.
C) tripeptide that contains two peptide bonds.
D) tripeptide that contains three peptide bonds.
72
MCAT Practice Test 5R Answer Sheet

Physical Sciences
1 (A) (B) (C)
2 (A) (B) (C)
3 (A) (B) (C)
4 (A) (B) (C)
5 (A) (B) (C)
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36 (A) (B) (C)
37 (A) (B) (C)
38 (A) (B) (C)
39 (A) (B) (C)
40 (A) (B) (C)
41 (A) (B) (C)
42 (A) (B) (C)
43 (A) (B) (C)
44 (A) (B) (C)
45 (A) (B) (C)
46 (A) (B) (C)
47 (A) (B) (C)
48 (A) (B) (C)
49 (A) (B) (C)
50 (A) (B) (C)
51 (A) (B) (C)
52 (A) (B) (C)
53 (A) (B) (C)
54 (A) (B) (C)
55 (A) (B) (C)
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Verbal Reasoning
78 (A) (B) (C) (D)
79 (A) (B) (C) (D)
80 (A) (B) (C) (D)
81 (A) (B) (C) (D)
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88 (A) (B) (C) (D)
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90 (A) (B) (C) (D)
91 (A) (B) (C) (D)
92 (A) (B) (C) (D)
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96 (A) (B) (C) (D)
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107 (A) (B) (C) (D)
108 (A) (B) (C) (D)
109 (A) (B) (C) (D)
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Writing Sample
138
139
Biological Sciences
140 (A) (B) (C) (D)
141 (A) (B) (C) (D)
142 (A) (B) (C) (D)
143 (A) (B) (C) (D)
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Periodic Table of the Elements

NH3 can also be prepared by reacting a metal nitride,

1. Is Reaction 1 exothermic under standard

The approximate electronegativities of several

3. The most likely role of the FeO/Al2K2O4 mixture

The repulsive force between the two nuclei is kQ2/d2,

7. According to the passage, the energy released when

Figure 1 Nuclear disintegration model

A) All of the heavier elements have radioactively

10. Which of the following graphs best illustrates how

11. If they are given enough energy, nuclei of lighter

13. A compound that significantly assists in ozone

Because reactions 1 and 2 are photochemically

14. The chlorine atom in Reaction 4 is very reactive

This mechanism is supported by the fact that periodic

17. According to Table 1, what is S of the following

If a fertilizer alters the original soil pH too drastically,

19. After adding the fertilizer shown in Equation 2 to

These questions are not based on a descriptive

Consider the above unbalanced equation. For this

28. What mass of CDP (403 g mol1) is in 10 mL of

31. According to Equation 1, the concentration of the

The chemist repeats Experiment 1 but adds enough

35. The average velocity of a beta particle ejected

33. The 14C atom undergoes beta decay to 14N. What

The students put 2.0 mL of X(NO3)n(aq) into each of

Note: * indicates that no precipitate formed.

38. Cu attains a different oxidation state when it reacts

40. If Cd is reacted with S, what is the most likely

44. What is the electrical power through the wire

47. The ratio of T in Trial 5 to T in Trial 3 is

These questions are not based on a descriptive

53. Below is a phase diagram for water.

50. The initial decay activity of a given quantity of a

As the pressure applied to a sample of water at

Table 2 Effects of Temperature Change on the Mass of

55. Which of the following conclusions about XT

56. The loss in weight as XTs are heated from 20C to

58. Which of the following elements, if reacted with

63. The sled and rider are traveling at 10 m/s when

61. Which of the following best describes the energy

A) 10 m to the left of Point B

Standing-wave patterns are characterized by nodes and

67. What is the spacing between adjacent nodes in a

68. For a given laser-cavity mode, the standing-wave

These questions are not based on a descriptive

72. An object that is totally immersed in benzene

76. The principal quantum number is a measure of

example, governors of the Great Lakes states have