Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Pharmacy
685.
1.
B
The interface
between the
gastrointestinal
lumen and the
mucosa is an
aqueous phase.
Therefore, an
aqueous solution will
more easily mix with
that interface.
686.
2.
687.
3.
t 1/2 is a function of
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Excretion
D. All of the above
688.
4.
689.
5.
690.
6.
691.
7.
131
Pharmacy
692.
8.
A&B
693.
9.
B&D
694.
10.
Glucuronide conjugation:
A. Occurs only in the microsomal fractions of the liver
B. Is not important for excretion
C. Is not fully developed in the neonate
D. Is induced by phenobarbitone
C&D
695.
11.
A&B
696.
12.
C&B
697.
13.
698.
14.
132
Pharmacy
699.
17.
B
Pulmonary epithelium has
very large surface area to
which drugs is exposed.
The stomach which initially
meets the drug has a small
surface area.
700.
18.
A. Antacids
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Domperidone
D. Metoclopramide
701.
19.
702.
20.
703.
21.
704.
22.
Epinephrine
being
a
vasoconstrictor can delay
absorption.
Although Gastrointestinal
absorption can be prolonged by
enteric coating the maximum
time is still limited by transit
time through the gastrointestinal
system.
133
Pharmacy
705.
24.
706.
25.
Chemical structure
Rate of disintegration
Salt form
Particle size
A&C
Sublingually administered
drugs must be very potent
and highly lipid soluble
because of the very limited
surface area of the buccal
mucosa.
B&D
It is important to know the
quality
of
generic
drug
prescribed since poor control of
tablet/capsule
production
process can lead to great
variability in the rate of
absorption and sometimes in the
total dose absorbed. This will
effect the peak and duration of
plasma concentration.
26.
707.
A&C
708.
27.
A&C
709.
28.
710.
29.
711.
30.
134
Pharmacy
B. Antagonism
C. Potency
D. Affinity
31.
712.
32.
713.
A. a>b
B. a<b
C. a=b
714.
33.
35.
715.
Intravenous
Intramuscular
Subcutaneous
Oral
135
Pharmacy
717.
37.
718.
38.
719.
41.
720.
42.
721.
43.
44.
722.
136
Pharmacy
723.
45.
724.
46.
A Soldier's unit has come under attack with a nerve agent. The C
symptoms exhibited are skeletal muscle paralysis, profuse
bronchial secretions, miosis, bradycardia, and convulsions. The
alarm indicates exposure to an organophosphate. What is the
correct treatment?
A. Do nothing until you can confirm the nature of the nerve
agent.
B. Administer atropine, and attempt to confirm the nature of
the nerve agent.
C. Administer atropine and 2 PAM (Pralidoxime)
D. Administer 2 PAM
47.
725.
726.
48.
49.
727.
728.
50.
137
Pharmacy
729.
51.
730.
53.
Albuterol
Atenolol
Ephedrine
Phentolamine
731.
54.
732.
55.
733.
56.
138
Pharmacy
734.
57.
735.
58.
736.
59.
60.
737.
61.
738.
62.
739.
740.
63.
139
Pharmacy
64.
741.
742.
65.
743.
66.
744.
67.
745.
68.
69.
746.
747.
70.
C. Cocaine
D. Hydroxyzine
Halogenated anesthetics may produce malignant hypothermia in
A. patients with poor renal function
B. patients allergic to the anesthetic
C. pregnant women
D. patients with a genetic defect in the muscle calcium
regulation.
Children with asthma undergoing a surgical procedure are
frequently anesthetized with sevoflurane, because it:
A. is rapidly taken up
B. does not irritate the airway
C. has a low nephrotoxic potential
D. does not undergo metabolism
Which one of the following is most likely to require administration
of a muscle relaxant?
A. Ethyl ether
B. Halothane
C. Methoxyflurane
D. Nitrous oxide
Which one of the following is a potent intravenous anesthetic but a
weak analgesic?
A. Thiopental
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Ketamine
D. Etomidate
Which one of the following is a potent analgesic but a weak
anesthetic?
A. Methoxyflurane
B. Diazepam
C. Halothane
D. Nitrous oxide
55 year old man was losing interest in his work and felt worthless.
After six weeks of therapy with fluoxetine, the patient's symptoms
resolved. However the patient complaints of sexual dysfunction.
Which of the following drugs might be useful in this patient?
A. Fluvoxamine
B. Sertraline
C. Citalopram
D. Mirtazapine
A 25 year old woman had a long history of depressive symptoms
accompanied by body aches. Physical and laboratory tests were
unremarkable. Which of the following drugs might be useful in
this patient?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Sertraline
C. Phenelzine
D. Duloxetine
140
Pharmacy
71.
748.
72.
749.
751.
74.
752.
75.
76.
753.
Aripiprazole
Chlorpromazine
Haloperidol
Risperidone
Which are the following drugs find its use in Nocturnal enuresis:
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.
754.
Adrenaline
Atropine
Imipramine
None of the above
141
Pharmacy
755.
78.
756.
79.
757.
80.
81.
758.
82.
759.
83.
760.
761.
84.
142
Pharmacy
85.
762.
86.
763.
87.
764.
88.
765.
89.
766.
90.
767.
B. Dobutamine
C. Furosemide
D. Minoxidil
A 46 year old man is admitted to the emergency department. He
has taken over dose of digoxin tablets(0.25mg each),
ingesting them about three hours before admission. His pulse is
fifty to sixty beats per minute, and the electrocardiogram shows
third degree heart block. Which one of the following is the most
important therapy to initiate in this patient?
A. Digoxin immune fab
B. Potassium salts
C. Lidocaine
D. Phenytoin
A 66 year old man had a myocardial infarct. Which one of the
following would be appropriate prophylactic antiarrhythmic
therapy?
A. Lidocaine
B. Metoprolol
C. Procainamide
D. Quinidine
Suppression of arrythmias resulting from a re-entry focus is most
likely to occur if the drug :
A. has vagomimetic effects on the AV mode
B. is a Beta blocker
C. coverts a unidirectional block to a bidirectional block.
D. Slows conduction through the atria.
A 57 year old man is being treated for an atrial arrhythmia. He
complains of headache, dizziness and tinnitus. Which one of the
following antiarrhythmic drugs is the most likely cause?
A. Amiodarone
B. Procainamide
C. Propranolol
D. Quinidine
A 56 year old patient complains of chest pain following any
sustained exercise. He is diagnosed with atherosclerotic angina.
He is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin for treatment of acute
chest pain. Which of the following adverse effects is likely to be
experienced by this patient?
A. Hypertension
B. Throbbing headache
C. Bradycardia
D. Sexual dysfunction
A 68 year old man has been successfully treated for
exercise induced angina for several years. He recently has been
complaining about being awakened at night with chest pain.
Which of the following drugs would be useful in preventing this
patient's nocturnal angina?
A. Amyl nitrate
B. Nitroglycerin (sublingual)
C. Nitroglycerin( transdermal)
143
Pharmacy
91.
768.
92.
769.
93.
770.
94.
771.
772.
95.
96.
773.
774.
97.
D. Esmolol
A 45 year old man has recently been diagnosed with hypertension
and started on monotherapy designed to reduce peripheral
resistance and prevent Na & water retention He has developed
a persistent cough. Which of the following drugs would have the
same benefits but would not cause cough?
A. Losartan
B. Nifedipine
C. Prazosin
D. Propranolol
Which one of the following drugs may cause a precipitous fall in
blood pressure and fainting on initial administration?
A. Atenolol
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Nifedipine
D. Prazosin
Which one of the following antihypertensive drugs can precipitate
a hypertensive crisis following abrupt cessation of therapy?
A. Clonidine
B. Diltiazem
C. Enalapril
D. Losartan
Which one of the following is the most common side effect of
antihyperlipidemic drug therapy?
A. Elevated blood pressure
B. Gastrointestinal disturbance
C. Neurologic problems
D. Heart palpitations
Which one of the following hyperlipidemias is characterized by
elevated plasma levels of chylomicrons and has no drug therapy
available to lower the plasma lipoprotein levels?
A. Type 1
B. Type 11
C. Type 111
D. Type 1V
Which one of the following drugs decreases de novo cholesterol
synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme HMG - CoA
reductase?
A. Fenofibrate
B. Niacin
C. Cholestyramine
D. Lovastatin
Which one of the following drugs causes a decrease in liver
triacylglycerol synthesis by limiting available free fatty acids
needed as building blocks for this pathway?
A. Niacin
B. Fenofibrate
C. Cholestyramine
D. Probucol
144
Pharmacy
98.
775.
99.
776.
100.
777.
101.
778.
102.
779.
103.
780.
104.
781.
Which one of the following drugs binds bile acids in the intestine,
thus preventing their return to the liver via the enterohepatic
circulation?
A. Niacin
B. Fenofibrate
C. Cholestyramine
D. Probucol
An elderly patient with a history of heart disease and who is
having difficulty breathing is brought into the emergency room.
Examination reveals that she has pulmonary edema. Which of the
following treatments is indicated?
A. Spironolactone
B. Furosemide
C. Acetazolamide
D. Chlorthalidone
A group of college students is planning a mountain climbing trip
to the Andes. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate
for them to take to prevent mountain sickness?
A. A thiazide diuretic
B. An anticholinergic
C. A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
D. A loop diuretic
An alcoholic male has developed hepatic cirrhosis. In order to
control the ascites and edema, he is prescribed which one of the
following?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Acetazolamide
C. Spironolactone
D. Furosemide
A55 year old male with kidney stones has been placed on a
diuretic to decrease calcium excretion. However after a few weeks
he develops an attack of gout. Which diuretic was he taking?
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Spironolactone
D. Triameterene
An 75 year old woman with hypertension is being treated with a
thiazide. Her blood pressure responds and reads at 120/76mm
Hg. After several months on the medication, she complains of
being tired and weak. An analysis of the blood indicates low
values for which of the following?
A. Calcium
B. Uric acid
C. Potassium
D. Sodium
Symptoms of hyperthyroidism include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. tachycardia
B. nervousness
C. poor resistance to cold
D. body wasting
145
Pharmacy
105.
782.
effect
of
Triiodothyronine
Surgical removal of the thyroid gland
Iodide
Propylthiouracil
784.
107.
785.
108.
786.
109.
787.
110.
146
Pharmacy
112.
788.
789.
113.
A.
B.
C.
D.
114.
790.
115.
791.
Which characteristic is true for the active transport but not for the
facilitated diffusion of a drug across biological membranes?
A.
Exhibits
saturability
at
high
drug
concentrations
B.
Requires metabolic energy
C.
Site of drug - drug interaction
D.
Shows stereospecificity
792.
116.
793.
117.
Which drug is probably the most safe to use in a 33 year old woman B
who is in her first trimester of pregnancy?
A.
Cyclophosphamide
B.
Folic acid
C.
Isotretinoin
D.
Lithium
147
Pharmacy
794.
119.
B
Piroxicam is a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agent(NSAID) that
has a long shelf life and is administered as a single daily dose. It is
99% bound to plasma protein. Which renal process is most
affected by its high plasma protein binding?
A.
Active reabsorption
B.
Glomerular filtration
C.
Passive reabsorption
D.
Tubular secretion
795.
120.
796.
121.
797.
123.
798.
124.
148
Pharmacy
799.
125.
HYPERSENSITIVITY to
other drugs which react at
the same receptor site
126.
800.
801.
127.
802.
128.
130.
803.
C
A hypertensive crisis is
NOT the DESIRED or
EXPECTED effect normally
observed when patients take
monoamine
oxidase
inhibitors. However, if the
patient
consumes
large
quantities of indirect acting
amines, such as tyramine
which is present in beers,
wines, aged cheese, etc., a
hypertensive
crisis
can
occur.
149
Pharmacy
804.
131.
805.
132.
806.
133.
134.
807.
135.
808.
A.
B.
C.
D.
136.
809.
Lipase inhibitor
Appettite Suppressant
Alpha Glucosidase inhibitor
None of the above
150
Pharmacy
137.
810.
138.
811.
812.
139.
140.
813.
141.
814.
142.
815.
151
Pharmacy
B.
C.
D.
816.
143.
144.
817.
145.
818.
819.
146.
820.
147.
821.
148.
149.
822.
A&D
C&D
152
Pharmacy
150.
823.
151.
824.
152.
825.
153.
826.
154.
827.
155.
828.
156.
829.
153
Pharmacy
D.
830.
157.
antimicobial effects
slow acetylators have a greater incidence
of peripheral neuropathy
831.
159.
A,B&C
832.
160.
A,B &C
833.
161.
834.
162.
A&C
835.
163.
154
Pharmacy
164.
836.
165.
837.
838.
166.
B.
C.
D.
167.
839.
168.
840.
B&D
841.
169.
842.
171.
A 74 year rold man was given long term therapy with heparin for the A&B
prevention of venous thromboembolism. Long term therapy with
heparin requires:
A. monitoring of the partial thromboplastin
time
B. frequent platelet counts
C. monitoring of the Quick prothrombin time
155
Pharmacy
843.
172.
A 52 year old man has acute gouty arthritis. Colchicine, the preferred agent
in the treatment of acute gouty arthiritis, is effective in the treatment of
gout because it casuses:
A. xanthine oxidase inhibition
B. uricosuria
C. decreased urinary excretion of uric acid
D. decrease phagocytic action of neutrophils
in joint fluid
173.
844.
846.
175.
847.
176.
845.
174.
848.
177.
178.
849.
156
Pharmacy
850.
180.
851.
181.
A&D
852.
182.
183.
853.
854.
184.
A.
B.
C.
D.
855.
186.
Aspirin
Propranolol
Carbamazepine
Domperidone
157
Pharmacy
856.
187.
857.
188.
858.
189.
B,C&D
859.
190.
A&C
860.
191.
861.
193.
862.
194.
158
Pharmacy
203.
863.
866.
206.
867.
207.
868.
208.
204.
864.
205.
865.
209.
869.
210.
870.
159
Pharmacy
871.
195.
196.
872.
873.
197.
874.
198.
875.
199.
876.
200.
201.
877.
202.
878.
160
Pharmacy
211.
879.
880.
212.
881.
213.
214.
882.
883.
215.
884.
216.
217.
885.
D
Sargramostim
is
a
recombinant
human
granulocytemacrophage
colonystimulating factor. It is
used to reduce the duration of
neutropenia and incidence of
infection in patients receiving
myelosuppressive
chemotherapy or bone marrow
transplantation
C
161
Pharmacy
218.
886.
887.
219.
888.
220.
221.
889.
890.
222.
891.
223.
224.
892.
162
Pharmacy
225.
893.
D. Penicillinase resistant
A 43 year old man with staphlyococcal septicemia who is allergic
to ampicillin and cephalothin and whose organisms are resistant to
doxycycline and erythromycin could be treated with:
A. Cefixime
B. Clarithromycin
C. Piperacillin
D. Vancomycin
894.
226.
227.
895.
896.
229.
230.
897.
898.
231.
232.
899.
163
Pharmacy
900.
233.
A&B
901.
234.
235.
902.
A&B
903.
236.
904.
237.
905.
238.
906.
239.
164
Pharmacy
240.
907.
908.
241.
242.
909.
910.
243.
911.
244.
912.
245.
246.
913.
247.
914.
915.
248.
A&C
B&D
165
Pharmacy
249.
916.
250.
917.
918.
251.
252.
919.
253.
920.
254.
921.
255.
922.
256.
923.
A. Doxycycline
B. Gentamicin
C. Isoniazid
D. Linezolid
Which of the following produces its therapeutic effect by lowering
intracellular levels of folinic acid?
A. Sulfadiazine
B. Methotrexate
C. Paraaminosalicylic acid(PSA)
D. All of the above
(A) Gastrointestinal absorption of phenoxymethyl penicillin
(penicillin V)
(B) Gastrointestinal absorption of bacitracin
A. A>B
B. B>A
C. A=B
A 9 year old boy has been admitted to the hospital with a 7 day
history of localized pain and swelling in his lower right leg and a 5
day history of fever. Laboratory results indicate that he has
osteomyelitis caused by staphylococcus aureus. Which of the
antibiotics listed below would be appropriate?
A. ampicillin
B. ceftriaxone
C. clindamycin
D. gentamicin
Which of the following antibiotics is active against gram positive
organism and would be safe to be administered at full doses to a
69 year old woman with renal insufficiency?
A. Cefazolin
B. Erythromycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Nalidixic acid
Vanomycin inhibits:
A. cell wall synthesis
B. folic acid synthesis
C. neuromuscular transmission
D. nucleic acid synthesis
Penicillinase resistant and effective following oral administration:
A. ampicillin
B. oxacillin
C. penicillin G
D. ticarcillin
Which of the following drugs is similar to penicillin in spectrum
and is also destroyed by gastric acid?
A. Clindamycin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Cycloserine
D. Erythromycin base
Which of the following microorganisms is most sensitive to
penicillin G?
166
Pharmacy
924.
257.
925.
258.
926.
259.
927.
260.
928.
261.
262.
929.
930.
263.
A. betahemolytic streptococci
B. klebsiella penumoniae
C. proteus mirabilis
D. staphylococcus aureus
A 67 year old woman with a drug resistant hospital acquired
infection was given a drug that is given in combination with
cilastatin. Which of the following drugs was given to the patient?
A. Aztreonam
B. Fosfomycin
C. Ertapenem
D. Imipenem
Penicillin has little or no bactericidal action against:
A. actively growing bacterial cells
B. meningococci
C. resting bacterial cells
D. treponema pallidum
A 22 year old woman presented with complaints of vaginal
discharge, dysuria, abdominal pain and fever. She was diagnosed
to have an acute gonococcal infection and was treated with a
third generation cephalosporin which was most likely:
A. aztreonam
B. cefepime
C. ceftriaxone
D. lomefloxacin
A 14 year old girl with mononucleosis was given an oral antibiotic
for a respiratory infection. Shortly after taking the antibiotic she
developed a severe skin rash. Which one of the following
antibiotics has produced a higher incidence of skin rash than any
of the others listed?
A. Ampicillin
B. Azithromycin
C. Cephalexin
D. Ciprofloxacin
A 21 year old man was diagnosed with meningitis caused by
gram negative bacteria. Which of the following cephalosporins are
most appropriate for this patient?
A. Cefotaxime
B. Ceftazidime
C. Ceftizoxime
D. All of the above
A 39 year old woman was diagnosed with a penicillin sensitive
enterococcal infection, however , she has a past history of
penicillin allergy. Which of the following statements are true
regarding hypersensitivity reactions to penicillin G?
A. crossreaction occurs towards all penicillins
B. have been fatal following oral administration
C. occur least frequently with oral administration
D. All of the above
A 37 year old woman with cystic fibrosis developed an infection
caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which of the following
B&D
167
Pharmacy
931.
264.
932.
265.
266.
933.
267.
934.
935.
268.
936.
269.
937.
270.
A&D
C&D
C&D
C&D
168
Pharmacy
271.
938.
272.
939.
273.
940.
274.
941.
275.
942.
276.
943.
277.
944.
A&D
169
Pharmacy
278.
945.
279.
946.
280.
947.
281.
948.
282.
949.
950.
284.
285.
951.
286.
952.
170
Pharmacy
953.
287.
954.
288.
289.
955.
956.
290.
957.
291.
958.
292.
293.
959.
960.
294.
171
Pharmacy
961.
295.
963.
297.
964.
298.
965.
299.
Atropine :
A. is present in the leaves of the nightshade plant
B. Blocks cholinergic muscarinic receptors.
C. Blocks cholinergic Nicotinic receptors
D. A and B
966.
300.
962.
296.
967.
301.
968.
303.
172
Pharmacy
969.
304.
970.
305.
A. Blood dyscrasias
B. Pregnancy
C. Predisposition to folate deficiency
D. All of the above
971.
306.
972.
307.
308.
973.
309.
974.
310.
975.
311.
976.
173
Pharmacy
977.
312.
978.
313.
314.
979.
315.
980.
316.
981.
317.
982.
318.
983.
319.
984.
320.
985.
174
Pharmacy
986.
321.
987.
322.
988.
323.
324.
989.
990.
325.
991.
326.
992.
327.
328.
993.
175
Pharmacy
994.
329.
330.
995.
D
This is Redman
syndrome
associated with
Vancomycin
331.
996.
B,D
B,C
176
Pharmacy
A. Amikacin
B. Gentamicin
C. Streptomycin
D. All of the above
338.
1002.
1003.
339.
1004.
340.
1005.
341.
1007.
343.
1008.
344.
342.
1006.
177
Pharmacy
1009.
345.
1010.
346.
1011.
347.
349.
1012.
1013.
350.
1014.
351.
352.
1015.
353.
1016.
Fluoroquinolones are
effective in diarrhoea caused
by E coli, shigella and
salmonella
A,C
Known to be Nephrotoxic:
B,C
A. Amoxycillin
B. Gentamicin
C. Tobramycin
D. All of the above
Which of the following antibiotics produce curare like neuromuscular B
blockade?
A.Amoxycillin
B. Gentamicin
C. Erythromycin
D. All of the above
Tobramycin inhibits:
D
A. Bacterial cell membrane function
B. Cell wall synthesis
C. Folic acid synthesis
D. Bacterial Protein synthesis
A 22 year old woman with a lower urinary tract infection (UTI)
was given an antimicrobial agent that is only used for UTIs. This
drug was most likely:
A. Ampicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Cotrimoxazole
D. Nalidixic acid
178
Pharmacy
1017.
354.
1018.
355. Which of the contrast media can be given orally to treat
hyperthyroidism?
A. Diatrizoate
B. Iohexol
C. Radioactive iodine
D. Thyrotropin
1019.
356.
1020.
357.
1021.
358.
1022.
359.
1023.
360.
A. Chlorpropamide
B. Glibenclamide
C. Glipizide
D. Repaglinide
179
Pharmacy
1024.
361.
363.
1025.
A,B
Which of the following are beta 1 selective blockers used for short
term treatment of tachycardia associated with hyperthyroidism.?
A. Labetalol
B. Propranolol
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B
1026.
364.
365.
1027.
366.
1028.
367.
1029.
1030.
368.
1031.
369.
180
Pharmacy
1032.
370.
371.
1033.
372.
1034.
373.
1035.
374.
1036.
375.
1037.
376.
1038.
1039.
377.
181
Pharmacy
1040.
378.
1041.
379.
1042.
380.
1043.
381.
1044.
382.
A. Metronidazole
B. Tinidazole
C. Clotrimazole
D. None of the above
383.
1045.
A,B
384.
1046.
385.
1047.
182
Pharmacy
1048.
386.
387.
1049.
388.
1050.
389.
1051.
391.
1053.
392.
1054.
393.
1055.
390.
1052.
183
Pharmacy
1056.
394.
Which antacid may be used to decrease phosphate stores in a
patient with chronic renal failure or bone disease?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Aluminium hydroxide
D. Magnesium hydroxide
1057.
395.
Which antacid may induce systemic alkalosis?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Aluminium hydroxide
D. Magnesium hydroxide
1058.
396.
Which antacid may cause milk alkali syndrome?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Aluminium hydroxide
D. Magnesium hydroxide
1059.
397.
Potassium supplements must NOT be given along with:
A. Amiloride
B. Trianterene
C. Spironolactone
D. All of the above
1060.
398.
Which of the following antihistamines blocks gastric secretion?
A. Terfenadine
B. Loratidine
C. Astemizole
D. None of the above
1061.
399.
Spironolactone is usually given in combination with :
A. Acetazolamide
B. A thiazide diuretic
C. Furosemide
D. None of the above
1062.
400.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. Acetazolamide acts mainly on the distal tubules and produces
metabolic alkalosis.
B. High ceiling diuretics act on theascending loop of Henle, and
plasma electrolytes should be checked at frequent intervals.
C. Trimeterene is a potassium sparing diuretic, and the most
common side effects are nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and leg
cramps.
D. Thiazides act mainly on the distal tubules, they do not modify
the acid base balance and are effective in either the acid nor
alkaline urine.
1063.
401.
This drug is a potassium sparing diuretic
A. Acetazolamide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Furosemide
D. Triameterene
184
Pharmacy
402. Lack of absorption after oral administration limits its diuretic effect
1064.
by this dosing route but makes it useful in treatment of ingested toxic substances.
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Mannitol
C. Both
D. Neither
1065.
403.
This drug produces a rapid, profound diuresis due to the inhibition
of salt transport in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle
A. Chlorthalidone
B. Furosemide
C. Acetazolamide
D. Mannitol
1066.
404.
Hydrochlorothiazide
A. Is often combined with a potassium sparing diuretic for
chronic treatment programs
B. May induce an abnormal glucose tolerance test
C. Is effective in both alkalosis and acidosis
D. All of the above
405.
Hypokalemia,
gout and aggravation of diabetes mellitus are seen
1067.
as side effects of
A. Mannitol
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Acetazolamide
D. Triamterene
406. Which of the following drugs is an appropriate choice for initial antihy1068.
pertensive therapy in an otherwise healthy adult with mild hypertension?
A. Bumetanide
B. Triamterene
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Aldactone
407.
Exerts its diuretic effect by inhibiting the action of aldosterone on
1069.
the distal tubule
A. Spironolactone
B. Urea
C. Triameterene
D. Ammonium chloride
1070.
408.
The primary disadvantage of the thiazides is that
A. They are very toxic
B. They cannot be used over long periods of time since they
alter plasma pH
C. They increase potassium loss from the body
D. They must be given parenterally
1071.
409.
Which of the following produces a major increase in the renal
excretion of NaHCO 3 ?
A. Furosemide
B. Acetazolamide
C. Ethacrynic acid
D. Probenecid
410.
An
osmotic
diuretic which is not reabsorbed to any degree by the
1072.
renal tubules
A. Acetazolamide
185
Pharmacy
411.
1073.
412.
1074.
413.
1075.
414.
1076.
415.
1077.
416.
1078.
417.
1079.
1080.
418.
B. Aminophylline
C. Furosemide
D. Mannitol
The pharmacologic actions of this agent make it useful as a
diuretic and as bronchodilator
A. Acetamolamide
B. Aminophylline
C. Ammonium chloride
D. Spironolactone
Furosemide inhibits the effectiveness of the countercurrent
mechanisms because it
A. increases permeability of ascending limb of loop of Henle to
water
B. decreases permeability of collecting tubule of water
C. inhibits urea absorption
D. inhibits chloride and sodium reabsorption in the loop of
Henle
The androgen like effects of spironolactone are probably due to
A. Antagonism of aldosterone
B. Its steroid structure
C. Inhibition of pituitary hormones
All the following are thiazide diuretics except
A. Chlorothiazide
B. Hydroflumethiazide
C. Diazoxide
D. Polythiazide
Frusemide increases excretion of all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium and magnesium
D. Uric acid
Antichloinergic agents are more effective and have a longer
duration of action when administered in combination with
A. Beta adrenergic agonists
B. Theophylline
C. Glucocorticoids
D. Cromolyn Sodium
Which of the following drugs are anticholinergic agents used in
asthma treatment?
A. Dexamethasone
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Ipratropium Bromide
D. Nedocromil Sodium
Which of the following is characteristic of duodenal ulcer?
A. a chronic disease with exacerbations and remissions
B. 80% of peptic ulcers are duodenal
C. typical symptoms are gnawing epigastic pain which begins
2 to 2 hours after meals relieved
D. all of the above
186
Pharmacy
419.
1081.
Which of the following are used for the treatment of Peptic ulcer
disease?
A. Diet therapy
B. Combination therapy with omeprazole if H Pylori infection
is confirmed.
C. H 2 blockers
D. All of the above
421.
1082.
422.
1083.
1084.
423.
1085.
424.
425.
1086.
1087.
426.
427.
1088.
Which of the following agents inhibits release of histamine from mast cells? A
A. Cromolyn Sodium
B. Cimetidine
C. Chlorpheniramine
D. All of the above
A drug useful in prevention of motion sickness:
B
A. Meperidine
B. Meclizine
C. Meprobamate
D. Metronidazole
The mechanism by which antihistaminic compounds relieve
allergic conditions involves:
A. Acceleration of excretion of histamine
B. Neutralization of the effects of histamine by producing
opposite reactions
C. Competition with histamine in attachment to cell receptors
D. None of the above
187
Pharmacy
1089.
428.
1090.
429.
430.
1091.
1095.
434.
1096.
435.
431.
1092.
432.
1093.
433.
1094.
188
Pharmacy
436.
1097.
1098.
437.
438.
1099.
439.
1100.
1101.
440.
1102.
441.
442.
1103.
B. Niacin
C. Cholestyramine
D. Fenofibrate
Which of the following is most noted for elevating both liver and
muscle enzymes?
A. Atorvastatin
B. Niacin
C. Cholestyramine
D. Fenofibrate
Which of the following lipid lowering agents affects the
absorption of bile acids from the GI tract?
A. Atorvastatin
B. Niacin
C. Cholestyramine
D. Fenofibrate
Which of the following lipid lowering agents lowers serum
cholesterol concentrations by selectively inhibiting the absorption
of cholesterol and related phytosterols from the intestine?
A. Atorvastatin
B. Niacin
C. Ezetimibe
D. Fenofibrate
Digoxin was added to the therapeutic regimen of ramipril and
frusemide for a 68 year old man with progressive CCF. Which of
the following is the molecular target for digoxins actions in this
patient ?
A. Aldosterone receptor
B. Angiotensin converting enzyme
C. Angiotensin receptor
D. Na+/ K+ ATPase
Which of the following diuretics would be preferred to reduce
edema in a 68 year old woman with moderate congestive heart
failure?
A. Ethacrinic acid
B. Furosemide
C. Hydrochlorthiazide
D. Spironolactone
63 year old man with a history of cardiac disease taking
Atorvastatin for lowering cholesterol he develops muscle pain and
weakness with elevated CPK. Which of the following life
threatening conditions in this patient is observed?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Seizures
Which of following is not a side effect of therapeutic doses of
nitroglycerin?
A. Throbbing headache
B. Drug rash
C. Syncope
189
Pharmacy
443.
1104.
444.
1105.
445.
1106.
1107.
446.
447.
1108.
448.
1109.
449.
1110.
450.
1111.
D. Methamoglobinemia
Tolerance to nitroglycerin may be overcome by
A. initially using the largest safe dose of the drug
B. using other nitrates
C. temporary discontinuing the drug for one or two weeks.
D. use of higher doses
Xanthine alkaloid which may produce coronary vasodilation
A. papaverine
B. quinidine
C. dipyridamole
D. theophylline
Can relieve angina pectoris by decreasing myocardial work, but
may precipitate congestive heart failure
A. phentolamine
B. phenoxybenezamine
C. propranolol
D. atropine
Of the vasodilators listed below, the drug of choice for treatment
of acute anginal attacks is
A. nitroglycerin
B. acetylcholine
C. papaverine
D. propranolol
Which of the following medications used to maintain sinus rhythm
in a 54 year old man is classified as a Class IA antiarrhythmic
agent?
A. Amiodarone
B. Lidocaine
C. Carvedilol
D. Quinidine
A 57 year old man who is being treated with a medication to
maintain atrial sinus rhythm develops conditions referred to a
cinchonism by his physician. Which of the following medications
is most likely responsible for this adverse effect in this patient?
A. Adenosine
B. Amiodarone
C. Lidocaine
D. Quinidine
A 56 year old African American man has been diagnosed with
moderate hypertension. Which of the following medications would
be most appropriate to manage hypertension in this patient?
A. Captopril
B. Furosemide
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Losartan
A 64 year old man whose hypertension is being managed by
hydrochlorithiazide develops severe hypokalemia. Addition of
which of the following medications will minimize thiazide induced
hypokalemia by competing with aldosterone in the distal renal
tubule?
190
Pharmacy
1112.
451.
1113.
452.
1114.
453.
1115.
454.
1116.
455.
456.
1117.
457.
1118.
A. Amiloride
B. Captopril
C. Losartan
D. Spironolactone
A 45 year old man is being treated for hypertension with a
nonselective beta blocker. Which of the following medications is
most likely being used to treat this patient?
A. Atenolol
B. Carvedilol
C. Labetalol
D. Propranolol
Which of the following antihypertensive medications would be
preferred for the treatment of chronic hypertension in a 33 year old
pregnant woman?
A. Methyldopa
B. Carvedilol
C. Clonidine
D. None of the above
Which of the following lipid lowering medications could reduce
the effectiveness of digoxin when used to control ventricular rate
in a 55 year old woman with atrial fibrillation ?
A. Cholestyramine
B. Ezetimibe
C. Fenofibrate
D. Lovastatin
Which of the following would be most contraindicated for the
treatment of angina in 55 year old man with severe bronchial
asthma ?
A. Amlodipine
B. Atenolol
C. Diltiazem
D. Propranolol
Which of the following agents would be most effective for the
treatment of variant angina (Prinzmetals angina)
A. Atenolol
B. Metoprolol
C. Nifedipine
D. Nitroglycerine
Which of the following medications used in the treatment of
angina pectoris in a 55 year old man exerts its beneficial actions by
increasing vascular cGMP levels?
A. Diltiazem
B. Metoprolol
C. Nifedipine
D. Nitroglycerine
Which of the following 2 drugs are most noted for causing a
throbbing headache after first exposure?
A. Atorvastatin
B. Bisoprolol
C. Isosorbide dinitrate
D. Nitroglycerin
C&D
191
Pharmacy
1119.
458.
Which of the following 2 drugs are most noted for causing rapid
tolerance on continuous exposure?
A. Carvedilol
B. Bisoprolol
C. Isosorbide dinitrate
D. Nitroglycerin
C&D
459.
1120.
A&C
1121.
460.
1122.
461.
1123.
462.
463.
1124.
464.
1125.
A and C
192
Pharmacy
465.
1126.
1127.
466.
1128.
467.
1129.
468.
469.
1130.
470.
1131.
1132.
471.
193
Pharmacy
1133.
473.
1134.
474.
1135.
475.
1136.
476.
477.
1137.
478.
1138.
479.
1139.
480.
1140.
194
Pharmacy
1141.
481.
482.
1142.
1143.
483.
484.
1144.
485.
1145.
486.
1146.
487.
1147.
488.
1148.
195
Pharmacy
489.
1149.
A. Amiloride
B. Eplerenone
C. Mannitol
D. Spironolactone
Which of the following medications is most appropriate for the
management of a 29 year old man with neurogenic diabetes
insipidus (neurohypophyseal diabetes insipidus) from severe head
trauma?
A. Desmopressin
B. Demeclocycline
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Lithium
490.
1150.
1151.
491.
1152.
492.
1153.
493.
1154.
494.
196
Pharmacy
1155.
495.
1156.
496.
497.
1157.
1158.
498.
499.
1159.
197
Pharmacy
500.
1160.
1161.
501.
1162.
502.
503.
1163.
504.
1164.
505.
1165.
506.
1166.
507.
1167.
508.
1168.
509.
1169.
198
Pharmacy
510.
1170.
511.
1171.
512.
1172.
513.
1173.
514.
1174.
515.
1175.
516.
1176.
1177.
199
Pharmacy
517.
1178.
518.
1179.
519.
1180.
1181.
520.
521.
1182.
1183.
522.
1184.
523.
1185.
524.
A 56 year old man with chronic stable angina, and previous MI, is
treated with a calcium channel blocker. This patient is most likely
to be treated with:
A. Carvedilol
B. Diltiazem
C. Doxazosin
D. Hydralazine
A 62 year old man brought to emergency Dept, with hypertensive
crisis, was given an IV infusion of nitroprusside, which reduces
both after load and pre load, by:
A. blocking adrenergic neurones
B. decreasing rennin secretion
C. releasing nitric oxide
D. Inhibiting sympathetic outflow
A 65 year old man with chronic hypertension being treated with a
drug that would reduce BP but does not increase bradykinin levels,
serum glucose level or total cholesterol or triglycerides. The drug
is most likely:
A. Amlodipine
B. Carvediliol
C. Losartan
D. Verapamil
Which of the following potassium sparing diuretics is
recommended for patients with severe heart failure?
A. Furosemide
B. Neseritide
C. Ezetimibe
D. Spironolactone
Which of the following drugs is best recommended for rapid
diuresis in a patient with CCF and extensive edema?
A. Furosemide
B. Neseritide
C. Ezetimibe
D. Spironolactone
Verapamil:
A. Is a calcium channel blocker
B. Has antianginal and antihypertensive properties
C. Slows AV nodal conduction
D. All of the above
Which of the following promote diuresis by acting on the kidney?
A. Furosemide
B. Neseritide
C. Spironolactone
D. All of the above
200
Pharmacy
1186.
525.
526.
1187.
527.
1188.
1189.
528.
529.
1190.
530.
1191.
1192.
531.
532.
1193.
533.
1194.
201
Pharmacy
1195.
534.
535.
1196.
1197.
536.
1198.
537.
1199.
538.
539.
1200.
1201.
540.
A. Propranolol
B. Enalapril
C. Phentolamine
D. None of the above
A 22 year old boy with asthma, is brought to the emergency with
status asthmaticus. He uses an inhaler of salbutamol for the
treatment of acute bronchospasms. The emergency treatment of
this boy should first be:
A. Cromolyn sodium (inhalation)
B. Epinephrine (SC)
C. Hydrocortisone (IM)
D. Terbutaline(Inhalation)
In a 22 year old woman, desloratadine for the relief of nasal
symptoms of seasonal allergic rhinitis would be better than earlier
second generation antihistamines because of its decreased
incidence of :
A. Dry mouth
B. Q T prolongation
C. Dyspepsia
D. Myalgia
54 year old man has constant high BP and his plasma rennin
activity is elevated. Which of the following agents would most
likely reduce BP?
A. Losartan
B. Methyl dopa
C. Clonidine
D. Guanethidine
In a 45 year old woman, with chronic hypertension, which of the
following neuropeptides would be most likely implicated in his
hypertension.:
A. Angiotensin II
B. Atrial natriuretic peptide
C. Bradykinin
D. Vasoactive intestinal peptide
Lomotil which contains diphenoxylate plus atropine, was
prescribed for a 36 year old man with severe diarrhoea. Atropine
is included in this preparation to:
A. act in synergy with diphenoxylate
B. antagonise sedation caused by diphenoxylate
C. discourage deliberate abuse of diphenoxylate
D. Reduce clearance of diphenoxylate
A 67 year old woman is given docusate, which is a (an)
A. antidiarrhoeal
B. anti-emetic
C. sedative
D. stool softener
Used to control postpartum hemorrhage
A. Oxytocin
B. Ergonovine
C. Both
D. Neither
202
Pharmacy
1202.
541.
1203.
542.
1204.
543.
545.
1205.
1206.
546.
An ion that often shows expectorant action is
A. iodide
B. phosphate
C. fluoride
D. iodate
1207.
548.
549.
1208.
Oxytocin
A&C
A. increases contraction of the pregnant uterus at term
B. increases contractions of the normal nonpregnant uterus
C. sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin gradually increases
during gestation
D. actions antagonized by estrogen
A 63 year old type 2 diabetic man with severe chronic obstructive D
pulmonary disease (COPD) drinks at least a sixpack of beer each
evening. Which of the following medications used to control
diabetes is most likely to product lactic acidosis in this patient?
A. Acarbose
B. Chlorpropamide
C. Insulin
D. Metformin
203
Pharmacy
1209.
550.
1210.
551.
1211.
552.
1212.
553.
1213.
554.
1214.
555.
1215.
557.
204
Pharmacy
1216.
558.
559.
1217.
1218.
560.
1219.
561.
562.
1220.
1221.
563.
1222.
564.
1223.
565.
205
Pharmacy
1224.
566.
1225.
567.
568.
1226.
1227.
569.
1228.
570.
1229.
571.
572.
1230.
206
Pharmacy
1231.
574.
1232.
575.
1233.
576.
1234.
577.
aromatase
estrogen receptors
gonadotropin receptors
progestin receptors
B.
C.
D.
1235.
578.
calcium
calcitriol
cholecalciferol
ergocalciferol
betamethasone
clomiphene
leuprolide
magnesium sulfate
207
Pharmacy
1236.
579.
1237.
580.
1238.
581.
1239.
582.
1240.
583.
208
Pharmacy
1241.
585.
1242.
586.
1243.
587.
1244.
589.
1245.
590.
1246.
591.
Alendronate
B.
C.
D.
Estradiol
Tamoxifen
Ibuprofen
209
Pharmacy
1247.
592.
593.
1248.
1249.
594.
595.
1250.
596.
1251.
597.
1252.
210
Pharmacy
1253.
598.
1254.
599.
1255.
600.
1256.
601.
Omerprazole
Loperamide
Famotidine
Lorazepam
B.
C.
D.
can
be
used
211
Pharmacy
603.
1257.
1258.
604.
605.
1259.
606.
1260.
607.
1261.
1262.
608.
A 58 year old male has been effectively treated for paget disease
for approximately six months. He is now beginning to experience
renewed bone pain and radiologic evidence of advancing disease.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to have resulted in this
failure of therapy?
A.
Alendronate
B.
Calcitonin
C.
Dihydrotachysterol
D.
Ergocalciferol
Which one of the following patients is least likely to require
antimicrobial treatment tailored to the individuals condition?
A.
Patient undergoing cancer chemotherapy
B.
Patient with kidney disease
C.
Elderly patient
D.
Patient with hypertension
In which one of the following clinical situations is the prophylactic
use of antibiotics not warranted?
A.
Prevention of meningitis among individuals in close
contact with infected patients.
B.
Patient with hip prosthesis who is having a tooth
removed.
C.
Presurgical treatment for implantation of a hip
prosthesis.
D.
Patient who complains of frequent respiratory illness
Which one of the following is the best route of administration
schedule for treatment with aminoglycosides based on the drugs
concentration dependent killing property?
A.
Oral every 8 hours
B.
Oral every 24 hours
C.
Parenterally by continuous intravenous infusion
D.
Parenterally every 24 hours
An elderly diabetic patient is admitted to the hospital with
pneumonia. The sputum culture stains for a gram negative rod.
The patient is started on intravenous ampicillin. Two days later,
the patient is not improving, and the microbiology laboratory
reports the organism to be a -lactamase producing H.influenzae.
What course of treatment is indicated?
A.
Continue with the intravenous ampicillin
B.
Switch to intravenous cefotaxime
C.
Switch to oral vancomycin
D.
Add gentamicin to the ampicillin therapy
212
Pharmacy
609.
1263.
1264.
610.
611.
1265.
1266.
612.
1267.
613.
614.
1268.
B.
Amoxicillin
C.
Tetracycline
D.
Cotrimoxazole
A patient with degenerative joint disease is to undergo insertion of
a hip prosthesis. To avoid complications due to postoperative
infection, the surgeon will pretreat this patient with an antibiotic.
This hospital has a significant problem with methicillin resistant
Staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following antibiotics should
the surgeon select?
A.
Ampicillin
B.
Imipenem/cilastain
C.
Gentamicin/piperacillin
D.
Vancomycin
A 25 year old male returns home from a holiday in the Far East
and complains of three days of dysuria and a purulent urethral
discharge. You diagnose this to be a case of gonorrhea. Which of
the following is appropriate treatment?
A.
Ceftriaxone IM
B.
Penicillin G IM
C.
Gentamicin IM
D.
Piperacillin/Tazobactam IV
A patient with gunshot wound to the abdomen, which has resulted
in spillage of intestinal contents, is brought to the emergency
room. Which antibiotic would you select to effectively treat an
infection due to Bacteroides fragillis?
A.
Aztreonam
B.
Clindamycin
C.
Gentamicin
D.
Azithromycin
A pregnant woman was hospitalized and catheterized with a foley
catheter. She developed a urinary tract infection caused by
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and was treated with gentamicin.
Which of the following adverse effects was a risk to the fetus
when the woman was on gentamicin?
A.
Skeletal deformity
B.
Hearing loss
C.
Teratogenesis
D.
Blindness
Children younger than eight years of age should not receive
tetracyclines, because these agents:
A.
cause rapture of tendons.
B.
do not cross into the cerebrospinal fluid
C.
are not bactericidal
D.
deposit in tissues undergoing calcification
A 46 year old woman is in the intensive care unit for treatment of
a vancomycin resistant strain of Enterococcus faecium caused
bacteremia. You want to limit the risk of drug interactions in this
woman who is receiving five other medications. Which one of the
following antibiotics would you choose?
A.
Azithromycin
213
Pharmacy
B
1269.
B
1270.
B
1271.
1272.
1273.
B
1274.
214
Pharmacy
625.
1279.
A 22 year old male has been treating his athletes foot with an D
overthecounter drug without much success. Upon examination, it
is found the nail bed of both great toes is infected. Which one of
the following antifungal agents would be most appropriate for this
patient?
A.
Caspofungin
B.
Fluconazole
C.
Griseofulvin
D.
Terbinafine
A 36 year old male of Lebanese ancestry is being treated for vivax A
malaria. He experiences severe fatigue, back pain, and darkened
urine. Which one of the following antimalarial drugs is most
likely to have caused his symptoms?
A. Primaquine
B. Quinine
215
Pharmacy
1280.
626.
627.
1281.
1282.
628.
629.
1283.
1284.
630.
631.
1285.
C. Pyrimethamine
D. Chloroquine
Which of the following drugs is recommended for the treatment of
severe, multi drug resistant falciparum malaria?
A. Artemisinin
B. Chloroquine
C. Quinine
D. Sodium stibogluconate
A 22 year old man, who frequently backpacks, complains of
diarrhea and fatigue. Examination of stool specimens shows
binucleate organisms with four flagellae. Which one of the
following drugs would be effective in treating this patients
infestation?
A. Metronidazole
B. Quinidine
C. Pentamidine
D. Sulfadoxine
A 48 year old immigrant from Mexico presents with seizures and
other neurologic symptoms. Eggs of Taenia solium are found
upon examination of a stool specimen. A magnetic resonance
image of the brain shows many cysts, some of which are calcified.
Which one of the following drugs would be of benefit to this
individual?
A. Ivermectin
B. Pyrantel pamoate
C. Albendazole
D. Diethylcarbamazine
A 56 year old man from South Am erica is found to be parasitized
by both schistosomes and Taenia solium the pork tapeworm.
Which of the following antihelmintic drugs would be effective for
both infestations?
A. Albendazole
B. Ivermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
A 30 year old male patient with an HIV infection is being treated
with a HAART regimen. Four weeks after initiating therapy, he
comes to the emergency department complaining of severe flank
pain, nausea and frequent urination. Which one of the following
drugs is most likely the cause of his symptoms?
A. Zidovudine
B. Nelfinavir
C. Indinavir
D. Efavirenz
Chills, fever, and muscle aches are common reactions to which
one of the following antiviral drugs?
A. Acyclovir
B. Ganciciovir
C. Amantadine
D. Foscarnet
216
Pharmacy
632.
1286.
1287.
633.
634.
1288.
1289.
635.
636.
1290.
1291.
637.
217
Pharmacy
1292
638.
1293.
639.
1294.
640.
1295.
641.
1296.
642.
1297.
643.
644.
1298.
218
Pharmacy
1299.
645.
646.
1300.
647.
1301.
648.
1302.
1303.
649.
650.
1304.
219
Pharmacy
1305.
651.
1306.
652.
1307.
653.
1308.
654.
655.
1309.
656.
1310.
657.
1311.
220
Pharmacy
658.
1312.
659.
1313.
1314.
660.
661.
1315.
662.
1316.
1317.
663.
blocker. After taking the medica tion for some time, the patient
observes some swelling of his breasts and calls his doctor. Which
agent was likely the cause of this response?
A. Ranitidine
B. Cimetidine
C. Atropine
D. Pirenzepine
Which of the following antigastric ulcer agent works by binding to
the protein substrate of the mucosa, forming a gel that coats the
ulcer?
A. Bismuth compounds
B. Misoprostol
C. Sucralfate
D. Metroclopramide
Choose the antiulcer agent that works by blocking the generation
of protons by the parietal cell?
A. Sucralfate
B. Omperazole
C. Bismuth compounds
D. Metroclopramide
Choose the correct relationships between the following antacids
and their effects.
A. Calcium carbonate : constipation
B. Aluminum hydroxide : diarrhea
C. Magnesium hydroxide : diarrhea
D. A & C
Which of the following drugs is NOT classified as an H2 receptor
blocker?
A. Famotidine
B. Terfenadine
C. Nizatidine
D. None of the above
Reflux esophagitis responds best to?
A. Famotidine
B. Cimetidine
C. Omeprazole
D. Sucralfate
Dry mouth and skin are common side effects of many
antihistamines. These side effects are most likely due to?
A. Interaction with the histamine receptor
B. Interaction with the adrenergic receptor
C. Interaction with the serotonergic receptor
D. Interaction with the muscarinic receptor
1318.
664.
An important, potentially fatal side effect is associated with the
coadministration of terfenadine and the following drug.
A. Aspirin
B. Clofibrate
C. Warfarin
D. Erythromycin
221
Pharmacy
1319.
665.
1320.
666.
1321.
667.
1322.
668.
1323.
669.
1324.
670.
1325.
671.
1326.
672.
1327.
673.
1328.
674.
B&C
222
Pharmacy
1329.
675.
676.
1330.
1331.
677.
678.
1332.
679.
1333.
680.
1334.
681.
1335.
223
Pharmacy
1336.
682.
1337.
683.
1338.
684.
685.
1339.
1340.
686.
1341.
687.
1342.
688.
1343.
689.
1344.
690.
224
Pharmacy
1345.
691.
692.
1346.
695.
1349.
1350.
696.
697.
1351.
693.
1347.
694.
1348.
698.
1352.
699.
1353.
225
Pharmacy
700.
1354.
1355.
701.
702.
1356.
1357.
703.
704.
1358.
705.
1359.
706.
1360.
707.
1361.
1362.
708.
709.
1363.
226
Pharmacy
1364.
710.
1365.
711.
712.
1366.
1367.
713.
1368.
714.
1369.
715.
1370.
716.
1371.
717.
718.
1372.
1373.
719.
227
Pharmacy
720.
1374.
721.
1375.
722.
1376.
723.
1377.
724.
1378.
1379.
725.
726.
1380.
B. Ethanol
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B
Glyceryl trinitrate in therapeutic doses may produce:
A. Constriction of cerebral vessels
B. Reflex bradycardia
C. Tolerance
D. None of the above
For the treatment of migraine headaches, 31 year old woman was
using a nasal spray that causes a selective vaso constriction of the
carotid vascular bed by stimulating 5HT 1D receptors. The drug is:
A. Amitryptilline
B. Dihydroergotamine
C. Methysergide
D. Sumatriptan
If a 39 year old woman with open angle glaucoma, is treated with
a drug combination consisting of a non selective beta blocker and
an analogue of prostaglandin F 2 alpha. The drug combination is:
A. Atenolol+Alprostadil
B. Atenolol+Epoprostenol
C. Propranolol+ Epoprostenol
D. Timolol+latanoprost
In a 41 year old woman with chronic asthma uses an albuterol
inhaler and takes a daily medication that selectively interferes with
leukotriene synthesis. The drug is most likely:
A. Cromolyn
B. Zileuton
C. Ipratropium
D. Zafirlukast
In a 36 year old woman treated with a 5HT 3 antagonist for post
operative nausea and vomiting, the drug is:
A. Dronabinol
B. Hydroxyzine
C. Ondansetron
D. Prochlorperazine
Which of the following medications is given by oral inhalation for
the treatment of cholinergic mediated bronchospasms associated
with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in a 36 year old
woman who is a known smoker?
A. Ipratropium
B. Albuterol
C. Atropine
D. Monteleukast
Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to
dilate bronchi during an acute asthmatic attack for a boy who is
brought to the Emergency?
A. Ipratropium
B. Cromolyn
C. Atropine
D. Terbutaline
228
Pharmacy
727.
1381.
1382.
728.
1383.
729.
730.
1384.
731.
1385.
1386.
732.
1387.
733.
1388.
734.
229
Pharmacy
735.
1389.
1390.
736.
737.
1391.
1392.
738.
1393.
739.
1394.
740.
1395.
741.
742.
1396.
743.
1397.
230
Pharmacy
1398.
744.
745.
1399.
746.
1400.
747.
1401.
748.
1402.
1403.
749.
B. Carbonic anhydrase
C. NaCl transporter
D. Na+/K+/Cl cotransport system
56 year old man typically experiences altitude sickness when he
hikes at high altitudes. Which of the medications would be
appropriate for him to take prophylactically at least 24 hours prior
to initiating his hiking?
A. Acetazolamide
B. Amiloride
C. Bumetanide
D. Ethacrynic acid
A 16 year old asthmatic girl with severe bronchospasms, which of
the following beta 2 selective agonists can be administered S/C to
treat severe bronchospasms in this patient?
A. Albuterol
B. Terbutaline
C. Salmeterol
D. Levalbuterol
A 14 year old girl whose asthma is inadequately controlled with
inhaled corticosteroids is given an add on therapy with a
leukotriene receptor antagonist. Which of the following agents
was likely selected for add on therapy for this patient?
A. Nedocromil
B. Theophylline
C. Zafirlukast
D. Tiotropium
A 14 year old girl with exercise induced asthma always takes an
inhaled medication to inhibit mast cell degranulation prior to
taking her morning run. Which of the following prophylactic
medications was most likely in this patient?
A. Budesonide
B. Cromolyn
C. Zafirlukast
D. Tiotropium
32 year old man uses oral inhalation of triamcinolone acetonide
several times a day to decrease pulmonary inflammation
associated with bronchial asthma. Which of the following ADR is
most likely to be seen?
A. Cataracts
B. Diabetes Mellitus
C. Fluid retention
D. Oral Candidiasis
44 year old woman was given an I/M dose of methyl prednisolone
for the treatment of severe asthma exacerbation in the emergency
dept. It will increase the synthesis of which of the following
proteins in this patient?
A. Cyclooxygenase2
B. Interleukin 1
C. Lipocortin
D. Lipooxygenase
C The antiinflammatory
actions of cortico steroids
involve phospholipase A 2
inhibitory proteins known as
lipocortins.
231
Pharmacy
1404.
750.
1405.
751.
1406.
752.
1407.
753.
1408.
754.
1409.
755.
1410.
756.
1411.
757.
1412.
758.
232
Pharmacy
1413.
759.
1414.
760.
1415.
761.
1416.
762.
1417.
763.
1418.
764.
1419.
765.
1420.
766.
A&D
A&D
233
Pharmacy
1421.
767.
A&B
1422.
768.
B,D
Acarbose
A Is administered by injection
B stimulates insulin secretion
C inhibits intestinal absorption of carbohydrates
D is an inhibitor of alpha glucosidases
C&D
769.
1423.
1424.
770.
771.
1425.
772.
1426.
773.
1427.
1428.
774.
A&C
234
Pharmacy
1429.
775.
776.
1430.
777.
1431.
778.
1432.
779.
1433.
780.
1434.
781.
1435.
782.
1436.
783.
1437.
Cabergoline is:
A is chemically an ergot derivative
B is used for the treatment of hyperprolactinemia
C Both A & B
D Neither A nor B
Apomorphine is:
A a morphinomimetic drug
B an antagonist of morphine
C a direct dopaminomimetic
D used in the treatment of the Parkinson's disease
Fexofenadine is:
A a platelet aggregation inhibitor
B an antivitamin K
C a H1 antihistamine
D an anticholinesterase
Clozapine
A is a benzodiazepine
B is atypical neuroleptic
C frequently causes agranulocytosis as adverse effect,
D is a 5HT2 agonist
Piroxicam is:
A an ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme) inhibitor
B an inhibitor of cyclooxygenases
C an antihypertensive drug
D an antidiabetic by stimulation of insulin secretion
Alfuzosine is:
A a dopaminergic agonist
B a betablocker
C an alpha1adrenoreceptor blocker
D used for the treatment of functionnal symptoms of prostatic
adenoma
The following ophthalmic solutions can cause mydriasis:
A atropine
B tropicamide
C pilocarpine
D Aceclidine
In the biosynthesis of noradrenaline one finds the following
precursors:
A tyrosine
B histidine
C Serotonin
D dopamine
Monoamine oxidases are enzymes which:
A catalyze the oxidative deamination of monoamines
B inactivate norepinephrine
C activate serotonin
D inactivate GABA
C&D
B&C
C&D
A&B
A&D
A&B
235
Pharmacy
784.
1438.
1440.
786.
787.
1441.
785.
1439.
A
B
C
D
788.
1442.
trinitrine
naltrexone
dexamethasone
trihexylphenidyl
Antidepressants
CNS stimulants
antiemetic agents
anxiolytic agents
1443.
789.
Sulfonylureas:
A are active in absence of the pancreas
B increase insulin release
C are given by subcutaneous route
D are used for insulind ependant diabetes, type1
1444.
790.
236
Pharmacy
791.
1445.
1446.
792.
B,C
1447.
793.
794.
1448.
Fluoxetine (Prozac*):
A is a specific inhibitor of noradrenaline reuptake
B is an atypical neuroleptic agent
C is an antidepressant
D is administered by sublingual route
795.
1449.
Atropine:
A can be used as a Preanesthetic medication
B induces miosis
C induces a contracture of smooth muscle fibers
D increases salivary secretion
1450.
796.
Clomifene:
A inhibits the effects of estradiol at the hypothalamic level
B increase the release of FSH and LH
C is used for the treatment of female infertility
D All of the above
237
Pharmacy
1451.
797.
1452.
798.
1453.
799.
Naltrexone (Revia):
A is an opioid analgesic drug
B is a benzodiazepine
C is a phenothiazine
D is a specific opioid antagonist
1454.
800.
1456.
802.
803.
1457.
238
Pharmacy
1458.
804.
1459.
805.
C&D
806.
1460.
1461.
807.
808.
1462.
809.
1463.
810.
1464.
1465.
811.
239
Pharmacy
812.
1466.
813.
1467.
814.
1468.
815.
1469.
816.
1470.
817.
1471.
818.
1472.
819.
1473.
240
Pharmacy
1474.
820.
821.
1475.
825.
1479.
1480.
826.
1481.
827.
822.
1476.
823.
1477.
1478.
824.
241
Pharmacy
828.
1482.
829.
1483.
832.
1486.
833.
1487.
830.
1484.
831.
1485.
834.
1488.
835.
1489.
242
Pharmacy
1490.
836.
1491.
837.
1492.
838.
1493.
839.
1494.
840.
1495.
841.
1496.
842.
1497.
843.
1498.
844.
243
Pharmacy
1499.
845.
1500.
846.
847.
1501.
848.
1502.
849.
1503.
1504.
850.
851.
1505.
1506.
852.
244
Pharmacy
853.
1507.
1508.
854.
1509.
855.
1510.
856.
1511.
857.
1512.
858.
1513.
859.
245
Pharmacy
860.
1514.
861.
1515.
862.
1516.
863.
1517.
1518.
864.
1519.
865.
866.
1520.
867.
1521.
246
Pharmacy
1522.
868.
869.
1523.
870.
1524.
871.
1525.
872.
1526.
1527.
873.
874.
1528.
875.
1529.
247
Pharmacy
1530.
876.
877.
1531.
878.
1532.
879.
1533.
1534.
880.
1535.
881.
1536.
882.
883.
1537.
C. Tocainide
D. Disopyramide
Class IA antiarrhythmic do all of the following to the cardiac
cells action potential except:
A. slow the rate of rise of Phase 0
B. Delay the fast channel conductance of sodium ions
C. Prolong phases 2 and 3 of repolarization.
D. Inhibit slow channel conductance of calcium ions.
Which of the following drugs is a class IV antiarrhythmic
agent that is primarily indicated for the treatment of
supraventricular tachyarrhythmias?
A. Quinidine
B. Procainamide
C. Diltiazem
D. Disopyramide
Sinus tachycardia is characterized by a heart rate:
A. in excess of 100 with impulses initiated by the AV node
B. in excess of 60 with impulses initiated by the SA node
C. in excess of 100 with impulses initiated by the SA node
D. Less than 60 impulses initiated by the SA node
Which of the following agents has a direct effect on the AV
node, delaying the calcium channel depolarization?
A. Quinidine
B. Procainamide
C. Verapamil
D. Disopyramide
Which of the following drugs is a class III antiarrhythmic
agent that is effective in the acute management of ventricular
tachycardia, including ventricular tachycardia, including
ventricular fibrillation?
A. Bretylium
B. Procainamide
C. Verapamil
D. Disopyramide
All of the following problems represent concerns when
patients are started on Amiodarone except:
A. Extremely long elimination half life
B. Need for multiple daily doses
C. development of hyperthyroidism
D. Development of pulmonary fibrosis
Which of the following agents represent angiotensin receptor
antagonist?
A. Bretylium
B. Propranolol
C. Atenelol
D. Irbesartan
Reflex tachycardia, headache, and postural hypotension are
ADR that limit the use of which of the following
antihypertensive agents?
A. Hydralazine
248
Pharmacy
884.
1538.
885.
1539.
886.
1540.
887.
1541.
1542.
888.
B. Methyl dopa
C. Captopril
D. Irbesartan
A 60 year old man with moderate hypertension, that is
refractory to diuretics, beta blockers and methyl dopa. He
has renovascular hypertension with elevated rennin levels,
confirmed by lab finding. This patients antihypertensive
regimen would be enhanced best by adding which of these
following agents?
A. Hydralazine
B. Methyl dopa
C. Captopril
D. Clonidine
A hypertensive patient who is asthmatic and very non
compliant would be best treated with which of the following
beta blocking agents?
A. Acebutalol
B. Esmolol
C. Captopril
D. Clonidine
Long standing hypertension leads to tissue damage in all of
the following organs EXCEPT:
A. Heart
B. Skin
C. Kidneys
D. Brain
All of the following agents are suitable for initial therapy for
treating hypertension EXCEPT:
A. Guanethidine
B. Hydrochlorthiazide
C. Atenolol
D. Nifedipine
Which of the following terms describe a redused number
of platelets?
A
Acebutalol is
cardiospecific and has long
duration of action requiring
fewer dosages per day for
non compliant individuals.
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Leukopenia
C. Leukocytosis
D. Thrombophlebitis
1543.
889.
890.
1544.
249
Pharmacy
250
Pharmacy
1552.
898.
899.
1553.
900.
1554.
901.
1555.
1556.
902.
903.
1557.
904.
1558.
1559.
905.
251
Pharmacy
906.
1560.
907.
1561.
908.
1562.
909.
1563.
910.
1564.
911.
1565.
912.
1566.
913.
1567.
C. Primidone
D. Phenytoin
The maximum recommended dose of Levodopa is :
A. 80mg
B. 5mg
C. 5g
D. 8g
When administered with Carbidopa, the dosage of Levodopa,
is usually decreased by:
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 40%
D. 10%
Which of the following agents should not be used
concurrently with levodopa?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Benztropine
C. Amantadine
D. MAO inhibitors.
Most antipsychotic agents except clozapine are potent
blockers of which neurotransmitters?
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Acetyl choline
D. Epinephrine
The earliest movement disorder to appear during neuroleptic
therapy is:
A. Pseudoparkinsonism
B. Dystonia
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Akathisia
Specific therapy for an acute extrapyramidal reaction to
chlorpromazine is:
A. Physostigmine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Acetyl choline
D. Epinephrine
All of the following patterns are associated with bipolar
major affective disorder, EXCEPT:
A. a history of manic episodes only
B. a history of depressed episodes only
C. a history of several depressed episodes and only one
manic episode
D. a history of several manic episodes and only one
depressed episode
Unipolar affective disorder is characterized by which of the
following signs?
A. Flight of ideas
B. Unusual verbosity
C. Poor judgment leading to reckless driving
D. Loss of interest in job and family
252
Pharmacy
1568.
914.
1569.
915.
1570.
916.
917.
1571.
1572.
918.
1573.
919.
1574.
920.
253
Pharmacy
921.
1575.
923.
1577.
924.
1578.
927.
1581.
928.
1582.
922.
1576.
1579.
925.
926.
1580.
254
Pharmacy
1583.
931.
A&C
1584.
932.
1585.
933.
1586.
934.
1587.
935.
1588.
936.
255
Pharmacy
937.
1589.
1590.
938.
1591.
939.
1592.
940.
Mercury poisoning
A. may be influenced by the chemical forms of mercury
encountered
B. is effectively antidoted with calcium disodium EDTA
C. is most severe when the central nervous system is
involved.
D. is not a real problem in the present day
A&C
941.
1593.
1594.
942.
943.
1595.
256
Pharmacy
1596.
944.
1597.
945.
1598.
946.
947.
1599.
1600.
949.
Pentavalent arsenicals
A. are less toxic than trivalent arenicals
B. may cause liver damage
C. may cause kidney damage
D. all of the above
1601.
951.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Calcium
Potassium
Sodium
Chloride
257
Pharmacy
953.
1602.
955.
1603.
1604.
956.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hypokalemia
Drug interactions
Hypothyroidism
All of the above
957.
1605.
1606.
958.
N acetylcysteine is administered
A. orally
B. intravenously
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B
1607.
959.
258
Pharmacy
1608.
960.
961.
1609.
1610.
962.
1611.
963.
1612.
964.
1613.
965.
259
Pharmacy
1614.
966.
967.
1615.
1616.
968.
969.
1617.
1618.
970.
1619.
971.
972.
1620.
1621.
973.
260
Pharmacy
974.
1622.
975.
1623.
976.
1624.
977.
1625.
978.
1626.
1627.
979.
1628.
980.
1629.
981.
261
Pharmacy
1630.
982.
983.
1631.
984.
1632.
1633.
985.
1634.
986.
B
Bland foods are no longer
recommended. Research
indicates bland foods do not
accelerate ulcer healing.
262
Pharmacy
1635.
987.
1636.
988.
989.
1637.
1638.
990.
991.
1639.
992.
1640.
1641.
993.
994.
1642.
263
Pharmacy
995.
1643.
1648.
1000.
1001.
1649.
1644.
996.
997.
1645.
1646.
998.
1647.
999.
264
Pharmacy
1002.
1650.
1651.
1003.
1004.
1652.
1005.
1653.
1006.
1654.
1007.
1655.
1008.
1656.
1009.
1657.
1010.
1658.
265
Pharmacy
1011.
1659.
1012.
1660.
1013.
1661.
1014.
1662.
1015.
1663.
1664.
1016.
1665.
1017.
A. Induces sleep
B. Stimulates the appetite
C. Relieves muscular spasticity
D. All of the above
The nurse is planning to teach the client how to properly use
a metered dose inhaler of corticosteroid to treat asthma.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include
in the teaching plan?
A. Rinse the mouth after each use
B. Inhale quickly while administering the medication
C. inhale the medication and then exhale through the nose
D. Cough and take a deep breath
An older woman with Parkinsons disease is placed in a
nursing home for basic nursing care. When the nurse
observes that the client has difficulty swallowing the
capsules, which action is best to take?
A. Offer water before giving her the capsule
B. Soak the capsule in water until soft
C. Tell her to chew the capsule
D. Empty the capsule in the clients mouth
An older woman with Parkinsons disease is placed in a
nursing home for basic nursing care. Which instruction
should the nurse plan to give while administering the
Nystatin oral suspension?
A. Drink the medication through a straw
B. Dilute the medication with cold water
C. Retain the drug as long as possible in the mouth
D. Swish the drug in the mouth but avoid swallowing it
A common storage condition for most biotechnology
products after reconstitution is:
A. Room temperature
B. Cool place
C. Warm place
D. Freezer
What are the most common adverse effects of
anticonvulsive drugs?
A. Headache and dizziness
B. GI symptoms
C. Alternation of cognition and mentation
D. All of the above
In choosing a study perspective the current
pharmacoeconomic guidelines have suggested which one of
these perspectives to be included?
A. Society
B. Payers
C. Patients
D. All of the above
The primary use of antipsychotics is the treatment of :
A. Schizophrenia
B. Depression
266
Pharmacy
1018.
1666.
1667.
1019.
1020.
1668.
1021.
1669.
1022.
1670.
1023.
1671.
1024.
1672.
1673.
1025.
C. Epilepsy
D. Alcoholism
Other uses of antipsychotics include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Tourettes syndrome
B. Acute mania
C. Alcoholic hallucinosis
D. Seizures
The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia proposes that :
A. schizophrenia results from degeneration of the
nigrostriatal dopamine system
B. schizophrenia results from hyperactivity of nigrostriatal
dopamine system
C. schizophrenia results from hyperactivity of the
mesolimbic and/or mesocortical dopamine system
D. schizophrenia results from hypoactivity of the
mesolimbic and/or mesocortical dopamine system
As a group, antipsychotic drugs may interact with all of the
following receptors EXCEPT:
A. D 1 Dopamine
B. D 2 Dopamine
C. Alpha adrenergic
D. Beta adrenergic
The therapeutic effect of antipsychotic drugs are believed to
result from blockade of which of the following receptors?
A. D 1 Dopamine
B. D 2 Dopamine
C. Alpha adrenergic
D. Beta adrenergic
Antipsychotic drugs can produce all of the following side
effects EXCEPT:
A. Dry mouth
B. Akathasia
C. Dystonia
D. Urinary urgency
Extrapyramidal effects which consists of Parkinsonian
symptoms including tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia result
from the blockade of which receptors?
A. Dopamine
B. Cholinergic
C. Alpha adrenergic
D. Beta adrenergic
Postural hypotension results from the blockade of which
receptors?
A. Dopamine
B. Cholinergic
C. Alpha adrenergic
D. Beta adrenergic
Antipsychotic side effects such as dry mouth and urinary
hesitance result from blockade of which receptors?
267
Pharmacy
1026.
1674.
1675.
1027.
1028.
1676.
1677.
1029.
1030.
1678.
1031.
1679.
1680.
1032.
1033.
1681.
A. Dopamine
B. Cholinergic
C. Alpha adrenergic
D. Beta adrenergic
Tardive dyskinesia
A. occurs in some patients after prolonged treatment with
anti psychotics
B. involves abnormal limb and oral movements
C. May be irreversible
D. All of the above
Gama aminobytyric acid (GABA) functions as a
A. dehydrogenase enzyme
B. neurotransmitter
C. insulin precursor
D. amino acid precursor
All of the following are true of neuroleptic malignant
syndrome EXCEPT:
A. is a potentially life threatening malignant hyperthermia
B. is unrelated to other side effects
C. is aggravated by drugs with anticholinergic activity
D. is treated with dantrolene
Which antipsychotics have the highest liability for
extrapyramidal effects?
A. Aliphatic phenothiazines
B. Thioxanthines
C. Butyrophenones
D. Clozapine
Identify the Buterophenone:
A. Haloperidol
B. Clozapine
C. Olanzepine
D. Molindone
Which drug has the greatest liability of postural
hypotension?
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Fluphenazine
C. Thiothixene
D. Risperidone
All of the following has liability of anticholinergic effects
EXCEPT:
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Fluphenazine
C. Thiothixene
D. Haloperidol
Extrapyramidal effects can be treated with :
A. Trihexyphenidyl
B. Dantrolene
C. Baclofen
D. Bromocriptine
268
Pharmacy
1034.
1682.
1683.
1035.
1036.
1684.
1685.
1037.
1686.
1038.
1687.
1039.
1040.
1688.
1041.
1689.
269
Pharmacy
1690.
1042.
1691.
1043.
1044.
1692.
1693.
1046.
1694.
1047.
1695.
1051.
1696.
1052.
270
Pharmacy
1697.
1053.
1059.
1698.
1060.
1699.
1700.
1061.
1701.
1062.
1702.
1063.
271
Pharmacy
1066.
1703.
1704.
1067.
1705.
1068.
A.
B.
C.
D.
phosphorylases
dehydrogenases
lipases
ketases
1706.
1069.
1707.
1070.
1708.
1071.
272
Pharmacy
1709.
1072.
1710.
1073.
1711.
1074.
1712.
1075.
1713.
1076.
1714.
1077.
1715.
1078.
273
Pharmacy
1079.
1716.
1080.
1717.
1081.
1718.
Freons are
A. alkanes
B. alkenes
C. alkynes
D. fluorinated hydrocarbons
1082.
1719.
1083.
1720.
1084.
1721.
1722.
1086.
274
Pharmacy
1723.
1088.
1724.
1089.
1725.
1090.
pH is equivalent to pka at
A. pH of 1
B. pH of 7
C. half neutralization point
D. neutralization point
1726.
1093.
1094.
1727.
1728.
1097.
275
Pharmacy
1729.
1100.
1103.
1730.
1731.
1106.
1732.
1108.
1733.
1109.
I only
II only
I and II only
I, II and III
276
Pharmacy
1734.
1110.
1735.
1112.
1736.
1113.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1737.
1114.
1738.
1115.
I only
II only
III only
I and II only
I only
III only
I and II only
I, II and III
A humectant retards
A. bacterial growth
B. degradation
C. surface evaporation
D. spreadability
277
Pharmacy
1739.
1116.
1117.
1740.
A.
B.
C.
D.
II only
III only
II and III only
I, II and III
1741.
1118.
1742.
1119.
1120.
1743.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1121.
1744.
I and II only
I and III only
II only
I, II and III
278
Pharmacy
1745.
1122.
Syrup NF is
A. selfpreserving
B. a supersaturated solution
C. a dilute solution
D. highly unstable
1746.
1123.
1124.
1747.
1748.
1125.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
II only
II and III only
I and II only
1126.
1749.
1750.
1128.
279
Pharmacy
1751.
1129.
1130.
1752.
1753.
1131.
Ferritin is a(n)
A. vitamin
B. micelle
C. emulsion
D. amino acid
1754.
1132.
1755.
1133.
1756.
1134.
I.
II.
III.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1757.
1135.
heat instability
instability at alkaline pH
loss of potency in presence of air
I only
II only
I & II only
I, II & III
280
Pharmacy
1758.
1136.
1759.
1137.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
II and II only
II only
I, II and III
1760.
1138.
1761.
1139.
1762.
1140.
1141.
1763.
1142.
1764.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I & II only
Which of the following is a cationic emulsifing agent?
A. Potassium laurate
281
Pharmacy
B. Calcium oleate
C. Sodium lauryl sulfate
D. Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide
1765.
1143.
1766.
1144.
1767.
1145.
1768.
1146.
1769.
1147.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1770.
1148.
I only
II only
I and II only
I, II and III
g/100 mL
moles
mg %
g/L
282
Pharmacy
1771.
1149.
1
14
equal to the pKa
equal to of the pKa
1772.
1150.
1773.
1151.
1152.
1774.
1153.
1775.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
II only
III only
I, II and III
1776.
1154.
1777.
1155.
283
Pharmacy
1778.
1156.
1779.
1157.
1780.
1158.
1159.
1781.
1782.
1160.
1161.
1783.
1784.
1162.
1785.
1163.
284
Pharmacy
II. Nitroglycerin
III. Oral analgesics
A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
II only
I and II only
II and III only
1164.
1786.
1787.
1165.
1166.
1788.
1789.
1167.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
II only
III only
I, II and III
1168.
1790.
1169.
1791.
285
Pharmacy
C. 48 grains
D. 100 grains
1170.
1792.
1793.
1171.
1794.
1172.
1173.
1795.
1174.
1796.
1175.
1797.
1176.
1798.
286
Pharmacy
1177.
1799.
1800.
1178.
1179.
1801.
1802.
1180.
1181.
1803.
1804.
1182.
1805.
1183.
1806.
1184.
287
Pharmacy
1807.
1808.
1809.
1810.
1811.
288
Pharmacy
10 mL.
C. Amino Acids 15%, Insulin 5 units/liter, Electrolytes.
D. Dextrose 2.5%, Fat Emulsion 30%, Electrolytes
1190.
1812.
1191.
1813.
1814.
1192.
1193.
1815.
1194.
1816.
1817.
1195.
1818.
1196.
1819.
1197.
289
Pharmacy
1198.
1820.
1821.
1199.
1822.
1200.
1823.
1201.
1202.
1824.
1203.
1825.
1204.
1826.
1827.
1205.
1828.
1206.
290
Pharmacy
1829.
1830.
1831.
1832.
1833.
1834.
1835.
1836.
291
Pharmacy
1217.
1838.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1218.
1839.
B complex, C, and D
A, D, E, and K
A, B, C, and D
B complex, E and K
noncarbohydrate sources
pentoses
aldohexoses
ketohexoses
1840.
1219.
1841.
1220.
1842.
1221.
1843.
1222.
Gemifloxacin is a (n)
A. adrenergic blocker
B. antiinfective
C. glucocorticoid
D. local anesthetic
292
Pharmacy
1223.
1844.
1851.
1230.
1852.
1231.
1224.
1845.
1225.
1846.
1226.
1847.
1227.
1848.
1228.
1849.
1229.
1850.
293
Pharmacy
1853.
1232.
Tenoxicam is a:
A. diuretic
B. cardiotonic
C. selective betablocker
D. antiinflammatory agent
1233. Which of the following drugs has been associated with
1854.
Reyes syndrome in children?
A. Aspirin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Ibuprofen
D. Naproxen
1234.
1855.
1856.
1235.
1236.
1857.
1237.
1858.
1238.
1859.
1239.
1860.
1240.
1861.
1241.
1862.
294
Pharmacy
1863.
1242.
1864.
1243.
1865.
1244.
1245.
1866.
1867.
1246.
1868.
1247.
1248.
1869.
1249.
1870.
1871.
1250.
C. Diarrhea
D. respiratory depression
Which of the following may be associated with hyperprolactinemia?
A. Galactorrhea
B. Prolactin deficiency
C. Use of antipsychotic drugs
D. Both A & C
Lidocaine is used as a local anesthetic or as a(n)?
A. general anesthetic
B. antipruritic
C. preanesthetic
D. antiarrhythmic
Cocaine has a long duration of local anesthetic action
because
A. it is more stable than most local anesthetics
B. it is readily absorbed
C. it is not biotransformed
D. it is a vasoconstrictor
All of the following are natural estrogens or congeners
except
A. estradiol
B. diethylstilbestrol
C. estrone
D. ethinyl estradiol
Which of the following is used to treat hyperthyroidism?
A. Liotrix
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Liothyronine
D. Propylthiouracil
Carbidopa is used to
A. treat Parkinsons disease
B. treat hypertension
C. potentiate levodopa
D. treat depression
Hyoscyamine has the same action as atropine but is
A. twice as potent
B. three times more potent
C. 10 times more potent
D. half as potent
Emtricitabine is used primarily as a(n)
A. cardiotonic
B. antidepressant
C. diuretic
D. antiviral
The principal toxic effect of heparin is
A. hemorrhage
B. bronchospasm
C. chills
D. fever
295
Pharmacy
1251.
1872.
1252.
1873.
1253.
1874.
1254.
1875.
1876.
1255.
1877.
1256.
1257.
1878.
1879.
1258.
1259.
1880.
1881.
1260.
296
Pharmacy
1261.
1882.
1262.
1883.
1263.
1884.
1264.
1885.
1265.
1886.
1887.
1266.
1267.
1888.
1889.
1268.
1269.
1890.
B. Neostigmine
C. Atropine
D. Bethanechol
The action of heparin is terminated by
A. coumarin
B. indanediones
C. insulins
D. protamine sulfate
Nitroglycerin has a relatively short halflife due to
A. its volatility
B. its chemical instability
C. its poor absorption
D. firstpass metabolism
Various opiates may be used as all of the following except
A. analgesics
B. antiinflammatories
C. antidiarrheals
D. aids to anesthesia
Trihexyphenidyl is used to treat
A. parkinsonism
B. angina
C. xerostomia
D. glaucoma
The prevalent mechanism of action of antihistaminics is that
they
A. prevent formation of histamine
B. speed up elimination of histamine
C. destroy histamine
D. competitively inhibit histamine
Isotretinoin is commonly used to treat
A. lice infestations
B. fungal infestations
C. ringworm
D. acne
Endorphins play a significant role in
A. pain modulation
B. absorption
C. diuresis
D. hypertension
The most effective substance in treating acute attacks of gout
is:
A. Allopurinol
B. Probenecid
C. Aspirin
D. Colchicine
Nystatin is used to treat
A. Trichomonas infections
B. Staphylococcus aureus infections
C. Candidiasis
D. Escherichia coli infection
297
Pharmacy
1891.
1270.
1898.
1277.
1899.
1278.
1892.
1271.
1893.
1272.
1273.
1894.
1274.
1895.
1275.
1896.
1276.
1897.
298
Pharmacy
1279.
1900.
299
Pharmacy
1910.
1289.
1290.
1911.
1291.
1912.
1913.
1292.
1293.
1914.
1915.
1294.
1295.
1916.
1917.
1296.
1918.
1297.
300
Pharmacy
1919.
1298.
1920.
1299.
1921.
1300.
1922.
1301.
1923.
1302.
1303.
1924.
1304.
1925.
1305.
1926.
1927.
1306.
301
Pharmacy
1928.
1307.
1929.
1308.
1930.
1309.
1310.
1931.
1932.
1311.
1933.
1312.
1934.
1313.
1935.
1314.
1936.
1315.
302
Pharmacy
1937.
1316.
1938.
1317.
1939.
1318.
1319.
1940.
1941.
1320.
1321.
1942.
1322.
1943.
1944.
1323.
1324.
1945.
1325.
1946.
303
Pharmacy
1947.
1326.
1948.
1327.
1328.
1949.
1329.
1950.
1330.
1951.
1331.
1952.
1953.
1332.
1333.
1954.
1955.
1334.
304
Pharmacy
1956.
1335.
1957.
1336.
1337.
1958.
1338.
1959.
1960.
1339.
1961.
1340.
305
Pharmacy
1962.
1341.
1963.
1342.
1964.
1343.
1965.
1344.
1966.
1345.
1967.
1346.
306
Pharmacy
1347.
1968.
1348.
1969.
1970.
1349.
1971.
1350.
1351.
1972.
1973.
1352.
307
Pharmacy
1974.
1353.
1975.
1354.
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
vomiting
depression
schizophrenia
none of the above
1976.
1356.
Cetirizine is a
A. H1 agonist
B. H2 antagonist
C. H1 antagonist
D. None of the above
1977.
1357.
1978.
1360.
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
308
Pharmacy
1979.
1361.
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
1362.
1980.
1981.
1363.
1982.
1364.
1983.
1365.
1984.
1367.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
309
Pharmacy
1985.
1368.
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
1986.
1369.
1987.
1370.
1371.
1988.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
III only
I and II only
I, II, and III
1372.
1989.
1990.
1373.
1374.
1991.
310
Pharmacy
1992.
1375.
I only
III only
I and II only
I, II, and III
1376.
1993.
1994.
1377.
1378.
1995.
1379.
1996.
1997.
1380.
1998.
1381.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III
How does rifampin decrease the efficacy of certain oral
contraceptives (OC)?
A. Increase OC renal clearance
B. Increase OC metabolism via hepatic enzyme induction
311
Pharmacy
1382.
1999.
1383.
2000.
1384.
2001.
1385.
2002.
1386.
2003.
1387.
2004.
2005.
1388.
312
Pharmacy
1389.
2006.
2007.
1390.
1391.
2008.
1392.
2009.
1393.
2010.
1394.
2011.
1395.
2012.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III
Naratriptan is useful in the treatment of acute migraine via
its action as a
A. serotonin agonist
B. serotonin antagonist
C. histamine antagonist
D. histamine inhibitor
Which of the following drugs has an FDA pregnancy
category X rating?
A. Lorazepam
B. Warfarin
C. Penicillin
D. Isotretinoin
Cystic fibrosis patients routinely need supplementation with
A. Fat soluble vitamins
B. carbohydrates
C. mannitol
D. water soluble vitamins
Immune globulin is administrated parenterally to provide
passive immunity to patients with which of the following
disease states?
A. Bone marrow transplant
B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
C. AIDS
D. All of the above
There are many preparations of salbutamol available in the
market for the use in asthma and other conditions of reversible
airways obstructions and premature labour. Which of the
following are the route of administration of salbutamol?
A. By mouth
B. Bu subcutaneous
C. Intramuscular
D. All of the above
All of the following are effective in the treatment of acute
gouty arthritis EXCEPT:
A. colchicine
B. indomethacin
C. corticosteroids
D. Allopurinol
Signs and symptoms of theophylline toxicity include
A. sinus tachycardia
B. insomnia
C. seizures
D. all of the above
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Pharmacy
1396.
2013.
1397.
2014.
2015.
1398.
1399.
2016.
2017.
1400.
2018.
1401.
2019.
1402.
1403.
2020.
2021.
1404.
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Pharmacy
2025.
1553. Which of the following oral medications could be used in a
31-year-old woman to treat vulvovaginal candidiasis?
A.
Butoconazole
B.
Fluconazole
C.
Amphotericin B
D.
Terconazole
2026.
1554. Which of the following are clinical uses of metronidazole?
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Intestinal amebiasis
D. All of the above
2027.
1555. What are the side effects of metronidazole?
A. Disulfiram like effect
B. Metallic taste
C. Anorexia
D. All of the above
1556. Ferrous sulfate is valuable for the treatmentof which of the following
2028.
disorders in a 26 year old pregnant woman?
A. Pernicious anemia
B. Macrocytic anemia
C. Hypochromic anemia
D. Trifacial neuralgia
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Pharmacy
2030.
1635. Which one of the following is LEAST likely to be seen in a person
taking glucocorticoids?
A. osteoporosis
B. hyperglycemia
C. mood depression
D. electrolyte imbalance
2031.
1636. Which one of the following has the strongest sodium-retaining
activity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cortisol
Cortisone
Oprednisolone
Corticosterone
2032.
1637. Which one of the following has the most potent anti-inflammatory
effect?
A. Corticosterone
B. Desoxycorticosterone
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B