ANALOG IAS INSTITUTE TEST SERIES - 2015

C.S.(P)-2015

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C. : P-PFC-L-CGJB
TEST BOOKLET SERIES
Serial No.

TEST BOOKLET
CSAT (PAPER II)

GRAND TEST - 4
Time Allowed: Two Hours

Maximum Marks: 200

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CSAT TEST SERIES 2015

Number of Questions: 80

Marks: 200

Directions: Read the following passages

and answer the items that follow each
passage. Your answers to these items
should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE : 1
The
suicide
attacks
by
militant
Palestinian groups killing large numbers of
Israeli civilians and the harsh Israeli response,
have raised the renewed hopes of peace in the
region. It is Arafats leadership and authority
that are being severely tested in the latest
phase of the west Asian crisis.
By accusing the Palestinian Authority (PA)
of supporting terrorism by groups, Israel hopes
to put pressure on Arafat to act. Arafat, on the
other hand, has never looked a less powerful
force than he does today. If he acts against the
militants and elements in his own Fatah
movement sympathetic to them, he risks a
Palestinian civil conflict. But if he chooses to
do nothing, he faces erosion of his authority
and all claim to a central role in the peace
process.
Whatever he does, sections of the
Palestinians will hold that he has gone too far
and Israel that he has not gone far enough.
This is, of course, why Arafat has invariably
shrunk from hard decision. He has refrained
from curbing the militant groups, explaining
his inaction as necessary to maintain
Palestinian unity.
The Palestinian leaderships inability to
improve economic conditions for its people has
been a decisive factor in the erosion of its
ability to act.
Palestinians in Gaza have
targeted the PA as being responsible for their
condition. The Militant organizations have
capitalized on the PAs failure to establish a
functioning administrative infrastructure by

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Time : 120 Min

setting up a parallel welfare system with the

help of the millions of dollars.
Though the
Palestinian security forces claim to have
arrested more than 100 militants after the
suicide bomb attacks in Israel, the other
similar militant groups remain defiant,
confident of their popular support and of the
certainty that in the ultimate analysis the PA
leadership will stop short of decisive action
against them.
That the militant groups enjoy popular
support in Gaza is hardly surprising. The
Gaza Strip today resembles a vast prison camp
in which some 1.2 million Palestinians are
crammed. Despite the Oslo Accord, 7000
Israeli settlers still remain in 20 percent of the
Gazas area and are protected by heavily
armed Israeli forces. With its recent blockade
of and extensive incursion into PA controlled
territories, the Israeli government has placed
the whole civil society in Palestine under siege.
Over 450 NGOs, eight universities and
numerous other educational, civic, social,
developmental and health institutions have
had their work impeded and their vital services
to the population blocked. An international
conference on Israels treatment of human
rights in West Bank and Gaza, attended by
signatories to the 1949 Geneva Conventions,
that has opened in Switzerland overriding
Israeli and American protests, is expected to
censor Israel for its treatment of civilians in the
Palestinian territories.
Arafats standing among Palestinians
rests on the authority conferred on the PA by
the international community to represent and
speak for the Palestinians. Even the major
militant group has so far never openly
challenged Arafats leadership. Israels latest
vicious attacks directed against the PA and
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Arafat present the international community

with the danger that this precarious balance of
power in the Palestinian community may be
destroyed. Continuance of the Israeli attacks
can only further radicalize and harden the
attitudes of ordinary Palestinians. On the
other hand, Israeli moves to freeze further
expansion of Jewish settlements in the West
Bank and Gaza and, as soon as security
conditions permit it, ease the economic
blockade of Palestinian towns however remote
such measures appear just now alone can
restore the authority of the PA and give it a
chance to get a grip on Palestinian militancy.
1.

5.

6.

Which of the following is the most

similar word as accusing as used in the
passage?
(a) Abusing
(b) Blaming
(c) Charging
(d) Responding
Which of the following is the expected
outcome of International Conference
which is in progress in Switzerland?
(a) To revoke 1949 Geneva Convention
(b) Impose censorship on propaganda of
PA
(c) To build cordial relations between
Conflicting parties
(d) To put a curb on Israels policies
while treating civilians in an alien
territory
Which of the following best explains the
word remote as used in the passage?
(a) Far away from reality
(b) Distant
(c) Most likely to happen
(d) Control in someone elses hand
Who according to the passage conferred
the authority to PA?
(a) Arafat
(b) Israel
(c) Militant groups
(d) International community
Which of the following can restore the
degenerating authority of the PA?
I.
Arresting the expansion of Jewish
settlements
II. Easening the economic blockade of
Palestinian towns
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Either I or II
(d) Both I and II together
What may be the affect of continuous
Israeli attacks?
(a) It may harness a negative attitude
amongst the civil Palestinians
(b) It may destroy militancy from its
basic roots
(c) It may revitalize the weakening
leadership of the PA
(d) It may enhance militant activities

Which of the following factors have

raised the hope for peace in West Asia?
7.
I.
Killings of Israeli civilians
II.
Harsh response of Israelites
III. Revocation of Oslo Accord
(a) Only A and C
(b) Only B and C
(c) Both A and B
8.
(d) Either A or B
2.
Which of the following explains the lack
of action on the part of Palestinian
leader?
(a) He fears the army action against him
(b) This according to him will fasten
9.
peace process
(c) He feels that this step will keep
Palestinians united
(d) He is seriously worried about the
degeneration of his power base
3.
What is ultimate analysis of other
similar militant groups?
(a) The PA leadership will only act if a
definite forceful action is taken on
the PA
10.
(b) The suicidal attacks will only
aggravate the situation
(c) The PA leadership should be changed
(d) None of these
4.
Which of the following best describes the
meaning of the word challenged as used
in the passage?
(a) Questioned
(b) Accepted
(c) Attacked
(d) Scared
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11.

What dangers are being perceived by the

International Community?
(a) Both the nations may get destroyed if
war erupts
(b) The PA and Israel will never strike a
deal
(c) The attacks against the PA may
destroy the balance of power in
Palestinians
(d) The militancy may spread in other
countries also
Directions for questions 12 to 15:
i.
Alex, Betsy, Chole, Dennis, Edward,
Fiona, Giles and Herbert are gamblers
sitting around a round table facing the
center.
ii.
Dennis is the neighbor of Alex but not of
Herbert.
iii.
Betsy is the neighbor of Fiona and 4th to
the left of Dennis.
iv.
Edward is the neighbor of Herbert and
3rd to the right of Fiona.
v.
Chole is neither the neighbor of Alex nor
of Giles.
12. Which of the following is wrong?
(a) Betsy to the immediate left of
Herbert.
(b) Herbert is to the immediate left of
Edward.
(c) Dennis is the 4th to the right of Fiona.
(d) All are correct.
13. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Dnnis is to the immediate left of
Giles.
(b) Alex is between Chole and Denns.
(c) Fiona is 3rd to the right of Dennis.
(d) Edward is between Herbert and
Betsy.
14. Which of the following groups has the
2nd person sitting between the 1st and
the 3rd?
(a) Alex-Fiona-Chole
(b) Giles-Alex-Dennis
(c) Betsy-Edward-herbert
(d) Herbert-Fiona-Betsy

15.

Which of the following pairs has the 1st

person sitting to the immediate right of
second?
(a) Betsy-Herbert
(b) Fiona-Betsy
(c) Edward-Chole
(d) Alex-Dennis
Directions for questions 16 to 20:
i.
Six picture cards P,Q,R,S,T and U are
framed in six different colors blue, red,
green, grey, yellow and brown and are
arranged from left to right (not
necessarily in the same order).
ii.
The pictures are of King, Princess,
queen, palace, joker and prince.
iii.
The picture of the palace is in the blue
color frame but is not on card S and
card P which is of the queen, is in the
brown frame and is placed in the
extreme right.
iv.
The picture of the princess is neither on
card S nor on card T and is not in either
the green or the yellow frame. Card R
has a picture of the King in a grey frame
and it is the fifth from right and next to
card Q having the picture of the
princess.
16. If the princesss card is immediately
between the card of the palace and the
prince, then at what number is the
jokers card placed from left?
(a) Fifth
(b) Second
(c) First
(d) Data inadequate
17. Which of the correct combination of card
and frame colors?
(a) T-Yellow
(b) U-Red
(c) Q-Green
(d) Data adequate
18. The picture of the joker is in which color
frame?
(a) Yellow
(b) Green
(c) Blue
(d) Data inadequate

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19.

The picture of the palace is printed on

which card?
(a) S
(b) T
(c) U
(d) Data inadequate
20. If the photo frame of the princes and
joker is interchanged, then the color of
frame of the prince
(a) Green
(b) Yellow
(c) Blue
(d) Data inadequate
Directions for questions 21 to 25:
In a bike racing competition, ten selected
bikers from a city were to compete in various
stunts. The structure of competition requires
all bikers to compete in five events before the
elimination round begins so as to choose the
top five bikers who will participate from that
city at the national level. The ranks attained by
each biker in the five events from first to tenth
are:
NAMES

EVENT-A

EVENT-B

EVENT-C

EVENT-D

EVENT-E

Alex
Ben
Charlie
Devon
Ethan
Frank
Garry
Harry
Ian
John

2
8
5
1
9
6
3
10
7
4

5
1
6
10
4
7
2
8
9
3

8
7
1
2
9
6
3
5
10
4

5
1
4
10
2
6
7
3
8
9

1
2
9
3
7
8
4
10
5
6

It is also stated that:

(a)
The biker with first rank in most events
get to eliminate the biker with the last
rank in most of the events.
(b)
The rank holder of event E is not be
eliminated.
(c)
A biker whose highest rank and the
lowest rank difference is the second
highest among all bikers is not be
eliminated.
(d)
A biker who does not rank in the top five
positions in any of the five events gets
eliminated.

(e)

The biker with same rank in most of the

events gets to eliminate that event E
biker with an immediately lower rank
than his same ranks in all events.
(f)
A biker who got second highest rank in
event D gets to eliminate the biker who
got the same rank in event B.
(g)
Any biker who gets the first in two or
more events will not be eliminated.
(h)
Among the bikers who get the lowest
rank in event B and the one who get the
9th rank in event D, the one who get
higher rank in event E gets to eliminate
the other.
(i)
The biker who sum of all ranks in the
event is the highest and does not get
eliminated by any other condition will
not be eliminated.
It is also known that if more than five people
are getting eliminated by one rule or the other
then it is allowed. However, if less than five
people are getting eliminated, then there is a
tossup between the remaining ones and the
results are determined by the toss of a coin.
21. Who among the following is a biker who
does not get a chance to eliminate
another biker?
(a) Ben
(b) Charlie
(c) Devon
(d) Frank
22. Who among the following is a biker who
does not rank in the top four positions
in any of the five events but does not get
eliminated?
(a) Ethan
(b) Frank
(c) Harry
(d) Ian
23. If a new condition is included in the
problem stating that any biker who gets
second rank in any event will not to be
eliminated, then who among the
following will not to be eliminated?
(a) Garry
(b) Harry
(c) Ian
(d) John

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24.

25.

Which of the following condition is not

included in the problem that does not
change the final solution?
(a) b
(b) d
(c) f
(d) h
It is found that the result of event D are
wrong and the last two ranks have been
mistakenly interchanged, then who
among the following bikers cannot be
definitely eliminated in the elimination
round?
(a) Ethan and Devon
(b) Garry and John
(c) Harry and Devon
(d) John and Devon

PASSAGE : 2
Methods for typing blood were developed
around the turn of the century, about the
same time that fingerprints were first used for
identification. Only in the last decade or two,
however, have scientists begun to believe that
genetic markers in blood and other bodily
fluids may someday prove as useful in crime
detection as fingerprints.
The standard ABO blood typing has long
been used as a form of negative identification.
Added sophistication came with the discovery
of additional subgroups of genetic markers in
blood and with the discovery that genetic
markers are present not only in blood but also
in other bodily fluids, such as perspiration and
saliva.
These discoveries were of little use in
crime detection, however, because of the
circumstances in which police scientists must
work. Rather than a plentiful sample of blood
freshly drawn from a patient, the crime
laboratory is likely to receive only a tiny fleck of
dried blood of unknown age from an unknown
donor on a shirt or a scrap of rag that has
spent hours or days exposed to air, high
temperature, and other contaminants.
British scientists found a method for
identifying genetic markers more precisely in
small samples. In this process, called
electrophoresis, a sample is placed on a tray

containing a gel through which an electrical

current is then passed. A trained analyst reads
the resulting patterns in the gel to determine
the presence of various chemical markers.
Electrophoresis made it possible to
identify several thousand subgroups of blood
types rather than the twelve known before.
However, the equipment and special training
required were expensive. In addition, the
process could lead to the destruction of
evidence. For example, repeated tests of a
blood-flecked shirtone for each markerled
to increasing deterioration of the evidence and
the cost of a week or more of laboratory time.
It remained for another British
researcher, Brian Wrexall, to demonstrate that
simultaneous analyses, using an inexpensive
electrophoresis apparatus, could test for ten
different genetic markers within a 24-hour
period. This development made the study of
blood and other fluid samples an even more
valuable tool for crime detection.
26. The author of the passage is primarily
concerned with describing
(a) How advances in crime detection
methods have led to new discoveries
in science
(b) Various ways in which crime
detection laboratories assist the
police
(c) The development of new scientific
tools for use in crime detection
(d) Areas of current research in the
science of crime detection
27. It can be inferred from the passage that
electrophoresis resembles fingerprinting
in that both
(a) Provide
a
form
of
negative
identification in crime detection
(b) Were first developed by British
scientists
(c) May be used to help identify those
who were present at the time of a
crime
(d) Were developed by scientists at
around the same time

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28.

29.

30.

31.

The author sets off the word donor

with quotation marks in order to
(a) Emphasize that most of the blood
samples
received
by
crime
laboratories come from anonymous
sources
(b) Underscore the contrast between the
work done in a crime laboratory and
that done in a blood bank
(c) Call attention to the fact that,
because of underfunding, crime
laboratories are forced to rely on
charitable contributions
(d) Indicate that the blood samples
received by crime laboratories are not
given freely
The passage contains information that
would answer which of the following
questions?
(a) Is evidence of genetic markers in
bodily fluids admissible in court?
(b) Can electrophoresis be used to
identify genetic markers in saliva?
(c) How many subgroups of blood types
are currently identifiable?
(d) How accurate is the process of
electrophoresis?
According to the passage, all of the
following may reduce the usefulness of a
fluid sample for crime detection EXCEPT
(a) The passage of time
(b) Discoloration or staining
(c) Exposure to heat
(d) The small size of the sample
The passage implies that electrophoresis
may help scientists determine
(a) Whether or not a sample of blood
could have come from a particular
person
(b) The age and condition of a dried
specimen of blood or other bodily
fluid
(c) When and where a crime was
probably committed
(d) The cause of death in homicide cases

32.

According to the passage, Brian

Wrexalls refinement of electrophoresis
led to
(a) More accurate test results
(b) Easier availability of fluid samples
(c) Wider applicability of genetic analysis
(d) More rapid testing
33. Which of the following statements about
genetic markers can be inferred from the
passage?
I.
They carry an electrical charge.
II. They cannot be identified through
standard ABO blood typing.
III. They were of no use in crime
detection before the invention of
electrophoresis.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) II and III only
Directions for questions 34 to 36:
Geetika, Deep, Niharika, Shwetabh, Akansha,
Aishwarya and Aprajita are travelling in three
vehicles. There are at least two passengers in
each vehicle-Maruti, Santro, Octavia and only
none of them is a male. There are two
engineers, two doctors and three teachers
among them.
(i)
Niharaka is a lady doctor and does not
travel with pair of sister, Geetika and
aishwarya.
(ii)
Deep a male engineer, travels with only
Aprajita, a teacher in a Maruti.
(iii) Shwetabh is a male teacher.
(iv) Two persons belonging to same
profession do not travel in the same
vehicle.
(v)
Geetika is not an engineer and travels in
vehicle santro.
34. What is Aishwaryas profession?
(a) Engineer
(b) Teacher
(c) Doctor
(d) Data inadequate
35. In which vehicle does Niharika travel?
(a) Maruti
(b) Santro
(c) Octavia
(d) Santro and Octavia

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36.

Which of the following represents the

three teachers?
(a) Aparajita, Akansha, Aishwarya
(b) Aprajita, Akansha, Geetika
(c) Aprajita, Akansha and Aishwaryaor
Aprajita, Akansha and Geetika
(d) Data inadequate
Directions for questions 37 and 38:
Seven specialist persons Bebe, Meme, Pepe,
Dede, Fefeand he visit an office on four daysTuesday, Wednesday, Friday and Saturday in
a week. At least one person but not more than
two persons visit the office on each of these
days. Each of them is a specialist in different
fields-Paramedic,
Bussiness,
Engineering,
Genetics, Biometrics, Defence, and biotech.
(i)
Pepe visits on Friday with a specialist in
Defence.
(ii)
The Engineer does not visit on Saturday
nor with Dede and Hehe.
(iii) The Biotech specialist Fefe visits alone
on Tuesday.
(iv) Meme visits on Wednesday and he is not
Engineer.
(v)
Keke visits on Wednesday. He is not a
specialist in Defence.
(vi) The engineer visits the paramedic
specialist.
(vii) The genetic specialist visits on Friday.
(viii) Bebe is neither Business specialist nor a
specialistin Defence.
37. What is the specialist of Bebe?
(a) Biometrics
(b) Paramedics
(c) Engineer
(d) Data inadequate
38. On Which day of the week does Dede
visit?
(a) Wednesday
(b) Saturday
(c) Wednesday or Saturday
(d) Friday
PASSAGE : 3
The delegates to the Constitutional
Convention were realists. They knew that the
greatest battles would take place after the

convention, once the Constitution had already

been drafted and signed. The delegates had
overstepped their bounds. Instead of amending
the Articles of Confederation by which the
American states had previously been governed,
they had proposed an entirely new
government. Under these circumstances, the
convention was understandably reluctant to
submit its work to the Congress for approval.
Instead, the delegates decided to pursue
what amounted to a revolutionary course.
They declared that ratification of the new
Constitution by nine states would be sufficient
to establish the new government. In other
words, the Constitution was being submitted
directly to the people. Not even the Congress,
which had called the convention, would be
asked to approve its work.
The leaders of the convention shrewdly
wished to bypass the state legislatures, which
were attached to states rights and which
required in most cases the agreement of two
houses. For speedy ratification of the
Constitution, the single-chambered, specially
elected state ratifying conventions offered the
greatest promise of agreement.
Battle lines were quickly drawn. The
Federalists, as the supporters of the
Constitution were called, had one solid
advantage: they came with a concrete
proposal. Their opponents, the Antifederalists,
came with none. Since the Antifederalists were
opposing something with nothing, their
objections, though sincere, were basically
negative. They stood for a policy of drift while
the Federalists were providing clear leadership.
Furthermore,
although
the
Antifederalists claimed to be the democratic
group, their opposition to the Constitution did
not necessarily spring from a more democratic
view of government. Many of the Antifederalists
were as distrustful of the common people as
their opponents. In New York, for example,
Governor George Clinton criticized the people
for their fickleness and their tendency to
vibrate from one extreme to another. Elbridge
Gerry of Massachusetts, who refused to sign

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the Constitution, asserted that the evils we

experience flow from the excess of democracy,
and John F. Mercer of Maryland professed
little faith in his neighbors as voters when he
said that the people cannot know and judge
the character of candidates.
39. The author is primarily concerned with
(a) Contrasting the opposing sides in a
battle
(b) Analyzing the effects of an event
(c) Urging a reassessment of history
(d) Describing the background of conflict
40. According to the passage, the delegates
to the Constitutional Convention did not
submit their work to Congress for
approval because
(a) They knew that most members of
congress would want to broaden the
powers of the national government
(b) It was unclear whether Congress had
the legal right to offer or withhold
such approval
(c) They considered it more democratic
to appeal directly to the citizens of
the separate states
(d) They believed that Congress would
not accept the sweeping changes
they had proposed
41. According to the passage, in contrast to
most state legislatures, state ratifying
conventions were
(a) Elected
(b) Unicameral
(c) Characterized by strong leadership
(d) Nearly unanimous in their support of
the new Constitution
42. The author characterizes the leaders of
the Constitutional Convention as
(a) Shrewd and visionary
(b) Liberal and enlightened
(c) Radical and idealistic
(d) Clever and pragmatic
43. In stating that the Antifederalists were
opposing something with nothing the
author suggests that the Antifederalists
(a) Based most of their arguments on
their antidemocratic sentiments

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

(b) Lacked leaders who were as

articulate as the Federalist leaders
(c) Were unable to rally significant
support for their position among the
populace
(d) Offered no alternative plan of
government of their own
Which of the following statements about
Elbridge Gerry can be inferred from the
passage?
(a) He
was
a
delegate
to
the
Massachusetts
state
ratifying
convention.
(b) He
was
a
delegate
to
the
Constitutional Convention.
(c) He was the architect of the policy of
drift (line 30) advocated by the
Antifederalists.
(d) He claimed to have a more
democratic view of government than
the Federalists.
The authors quotation of John F.
Mercer serves which of the following
functions in the passage?
(a) It summarizes the last paragraph.
(b) It furnishes a concrete example.
(c) It articulates the main point of the
passage.
(d) It clarifies the preceding quotation.
What is the total number of customers
in a shop on a particular day, when 31%
of them purchase on credit, and the
number of those who do cash purchase
exceeds the number of credit purchases
by 247?
(a) 605
(b) 560
(c) 650
(d) 1650
The total production of 10 tea estates is
550 tones. By opening two new estates,
the average increases by 3 tones. The
average production of these two new tea
estates (in tones) is:
(a) 70
(b) 64
(c) 67
(d) 73
A man divides his property so that ratio
of his sons share to his wifes and the
ratio of the wifes share to his daughter

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49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

are both 3:1.if the daughter gets Rs.

10,000 less than the son, then the total
worth of his property is:
(a) Rs 25,000
(b) Rs 16,250
(c) Rs 65,000
(d) None
Rs. 120 is divided between X, Y and Z,
so that Xs share is Rs. 20 more than Y
and Rs. 20 less than that of Z. The
share of Y will be,
(a) Rs. 30
(b) Rs. 60
(c) Rs. 50
(d) Rs. 20
A dishonest hairdresser uses a mixture
having 5 parts after-shave lotion and 3
parts water. After taking out some
portion of the mixture, he adds equal
amount of water to the remaining
portion of mixture such that the amount
of after-shave lotion and water become
equal. Find the part of mixture taken
out:
(a) 1/5
(b) 1/3
(c) 3/5
(d)4/5
If 8 men or 17 boys can do a piece of
work in 26days, how many days will it
take for 4 men and 24 boys to a piece of
work 50 x 0.9 times as great?
(a) 680 days
(b) 612 days
(c) 61 days
(d) 68 days
Miti and Aditi can do a piece of work in
45 days and 40 days respectively. They
began to work together but Miti leaves
after x days and Aditi finished the rest
of the work in (x+14) days. After how
many days did Miti leave?
(a) 19
(b) 11
(c) 9
(d) 12
A cistern is filled by two taps in a hours
and b hours respectively and is then
emptied by a tap in c hours. If all three
taps are open, the cistern is filled in F
hours. The relation between F, a, b and
c are given by,
(a) F = (a + b) - c
(b) F = a x b/c
(c) 1/F =1/((1/a)+(1/b)-(1/c))
(d) F = (ab + bc)/ac

54.

55.

56.

Code:

57.

A shopkeeper purchased an electric

heater marked at Rs. 200 at successive
discounts of 10% and 15% respectively.
He spent Rs. 7 on packaging and sold
the electric heater for Rs. 200.Find his
gain percent.
(a) No loss or Gain
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 40
Two trains are travelling in opposite
directions at uniform speeds of
50Km/hour
and
60Km/hour
respectively. They take 6 seconds to
cross each other. If the two trains had
travelled in the same direction, then a
passenger sitting in the faster train
would have overtaken the slower train I
27 seconds. The length of the faster
train is more than the slower train by:
(a) 108.33 m
(b) 75 m
(c) 150 m
(d) 33.33 m
Statement: The lack of employment and
income during economics depression
leads to an increase in the crime rates.
Course of action: (i) The government
should provide an unemployment
compensation as done in advanced
companies .
(ii) The government should encourage
greater economic activity and increase
the number of industries in order to
reduce crime rate.
(a) Only i follows
(b) Only ii follows
(c) Both i and ii follows
(d) Neither of them follows
AXB implies A+B ,
AYB implies A-B
AZB implies (A+B)
AMB IMPLIES (A-B)
calculate the value of (4X5)Y(6X7)
(a) 5544
(b) -5544
(c) 500
(d) None of the above

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PASSAGE : 4
Four legal approaches may be followed
in attempting to channel technological
development in socially useful direction:
specific
directives,
market
incentive
modifications, criminal prohibitions, and
changes in decision-making structures.
Specific directives involve the governments
identifying one or more factors controlling
research, development, or implementation of a
given technology. Directives affecting such
factors may vary from administrative
regulation of private activity to government
ownership of a technological operation. Market
incentive
modifications
are
deliberate
alterations of the market within which private
decisions regarding the development and
implementation of technology are made. Such
modifications may consist of imposing taxes to
cover the costs to society of a given technology,
granting subsidies to pay for social benefits of
a technology, creating the right to sue to
prevent certain technological development, or
easing procedural rules to enable the recovery
of damages to compensate for harm caused by
destructive technological activity. Criminal
prohibitions may modify technological activity
in areas impinging on fundamental social
values, or they may modify human behavior
likely
to
result
from
technological
applicationsfor example, the deactivation of
automotive pollution control devices in order to
improve vehicle performance. Alteration of
decision-making structures includes all
possible modifications in the authority,
constitution, or responsibility of private and
public
entities
deciding
questions
of
technological
development
and
implementation. Such alterations include the
addition of public-interest members to
corporate boards, the imposition by statute of
duties on governmental decision-makers, and
the extension of warranties in response to
consumer action.
Effective use of these methods to control
technology depends on whether or not the goal
of regulation is the optimal allocation of

resources. When the object is optimal resource

allocation, that combination of legal methods
should be used that most nearly yields the
allocation that would exist if there were no
external costs resulting from allocating
resources through market activity. There are
external costs when the price set by buyers
and sellers of goods fails to include some costs,
to anyone, that result from the production and
use of the goods. Such costs are internalized
when buyers pay them.
Air pollution from motor vehicles
imposes external costs on all those exposed to
it, in the form of soiling, materials damage,
and disease: these externalities result from
failure to place a price on air, thus making it a
free good, common to all. Such externalities
lead to non optimal resource allocation,
because the private net product and the social
net product of market activity are not often
identical. If all externalities were internalized,
transactions would occur until bargaining
could no longer improve the situation, thus
giving an optimal allocation of resources at a
given time.
58. The passage is primarily concerned with
describing
(a) Objectives and legal method for
directing technological development
(b) Technical approaches to the problem
of controlling market activity
(c) Economic procedures for facilitating
transactions between buyers and
sellers
(d) Reasons for slowing the technological
development
in
light
of
environmentalist objections
59. The author cites air pollution from
motor vehicles in order to
(a) Revise cost estimates calculated by
including the costs of resources
(b) Evaluate legal methods used to
prevent technological developments
(c) Give examples of costs not included
in buyer-seller bargains
(d) Refute hypotheses not made on the
basis of monetary exchange values

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60.

61.

62.

63.

According to the passage, transactions

between private buyers and sellers have
effects on society that generally
(a) Are harmful when all factors are
considered
(b) Give rise to ever-increasing resource
costs
(c) Reflect an optimal allocation of
natural resources
(d) Encompass more than the effects on
the buyers and sellers alone
It can be inferred from the passage that
the author does NOT favor which of the
following?
(a) Protecting the environment for future
use
(b) Changing the balance of power
between opposing
interests
in
business
(c) Intervening in the activity of the free
market
(d) Causing technological development
to cease
If there were no external costs, as they
are described in the passage, which of
the following would be true?
(a) All
technology-control
methods
would be effective.
(b) Some resource allocations would be
illegal.
(c) Prices would include all costs to
members of society.
(d) Some decision-making structures
would be altered.
The
author
assumes
that,
in
determining what would be an optimal
allocation of resources, it would be
possible to
(a) Assign monetary value to all damage
resulting from the use of technology
(b) Combine legal methods to yield the
theoretical optimum
(c) Convince buyers to bear the burden
of
damage
from
technological
developments
(d) Predict the costs of new technological
developments

64.

65.

66.

67.

On the basis of the passage, it can be

inferred that the author would agree
with which of the following statements
concerning technological development?
(a) The
government
should
own
technological operations.
(b) The
effect
of
technological
development cannot be controlled.
(c) Some technological developments are
beneficial.
(d) The current state of technological
development results in a good
allocation of resources.
The passage contains information that
would answer which of the following
questions about the carbon cycle?
I.
What are some of the compounds
that are broken down in the carbon
cycle?
II. Why are some compounds that are
involved in the carbon cycle less
reactive than others?
III. What role do bacteria and fungi
play in the carbon cycle?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I and III only
The author implies that which of the
following is the primary reason that
degradation is as important as synthesis
to the smooth operation of the carbon
cycle?
(a) Most of the polymers and organic
compounds found in the plant
kingdom are chemically unstable.
(b) The synthesis of some organic
material deprives life processes of an
energy source.
(c) Decomposition permits the recycling
of carbon that would otherwise be
fixed in certain substances.
(d) Many organisms cannot use plants
as a source of food, but can feed on
bacteria and fungi.
The authors contention about the
importance of bacteria and fungi in the
production of energy for life processes
would be most clearly strengthened if

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which of the following were found to be

true?
(a) Both aerobes and anaerobes provide
sources of energy through the
decomposition of organic material.
(b) Most compounds containing carbon
are unavailable as energy sources
except to some bacteria and fungi.
(c) Bacteria and fungi break down inert
material in ways that do not involve
oxidation.
(d) Many compounds remain inert, even
in the presence of bacteria and fungi.
Directions for questions 68 to 70:
In the MC Graw Hill Mind workzz Quiz held
last year, participants were free to choose their
respective areas from which they were asked
questions. Out of 880 participants, 224 chose
Mythology, 240 choose Science and 336 chose
sports, 64 chose both sports and science, 80
chose Mythology and sports, 40 chose
Mythology and science and 24 chose all the
three areas.
68. The percentage of participants who did
not choose any area is
(a) 23.59%
(b) 30.25%
(c) 37.46%
(d) 27.27%
69. Of those participating, the percentage
who choose only one area is
(a) 60%
(b) More than 60%
(c) Less than 60%
(d) More than 75%
70. Number of participants who chose at
least two areas is
(a) 112
(b) 24
(c) 136
(d) None of these
71. There are three cities A, B and C. Each
of these cities is connected with the
other two cities by at least one direct
road. If a traveler want to go from one
city (origin) to another city (destination),
she can do so either by traversing a road
connecting the two cities directly, or by
traversing
two
roads,
the
first
connecting the origin to the third city
and the second connecting the third city

72.

73.

to the destination. In all there are 33

routes from A to B (including those via).
Similarly there are 23 routes from B to C
(including those via).How many roads
are there from A to C directly?
(a) 6
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 10
A group of investors took a fair sample
of 1972 children from the general
population and found that there are
1000 boys and 972 girls. If the
investigators claim that their research so
accurate that the sex of a new born
child can be predicted based on the ratio
of the sample of the population, then
what is the expectation in terms of the
probability that a new child born will be
a girl?
(a) 243/250
(b) 250/257
(c) 9/10
(d) 243/493
The digit in the units place of the
number 17999 7999 3999 4999 is:

74.

75.

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9
John has the camera that takes the film
that allows 24 exposures, whereas
Nancy has a camera that takes film that
allows 36 exposures. Both of them want
to able to take the same number of
photographs and complete their rolls of
film. How many rolls should each buy?
(a) 12
(b) 72
(c) 3 and 2
(d) 6
Introducing a boy Ralf said His mother
is the only daughter of my mother-inlaw. How is Ralf related to boy?
(a) Uncle
(b) Father
(c) Brother
(d) Husband

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Answer questions 76 to 80 based on the

following information

There are 2500 students in all selection

combined
76.

Total
7

11

15

78.

(b) 650

(c) 660

(d) 675

What is the angle subtended by the

(a) 43.20

(b) 430

(c) 42.80

(d) 450

What is the ratio of the number of girls

in section c to that in section E?

F
79.

Percentage of Girls

(a) 2 : 5

(b) 5 : 2

(c) 4 : 3

(d) 3 : 4

The number of boys in section F is what

approximate percentage of the number

16%

24%

of girls in section A?
10%

80.

(a) 350

(b) 320

(c) 300

(d) 330

What is the difference between the

number of students in section D and

16%

section E?

24%
10%

(a) 700

number of students in section B?

25

30

77.

12

How many boys are there in section D?

(a) 350

(b) 300

(c) 400

(d) 375

*****

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Place for Rough Work

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Place for Rough Work

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