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Duties & Responsibilities

Welding Terms & Definitions
Welding Imperfections
Mechanical Testing
Welding Procedures & Welder approval
Materials Inspection
Codes and Standards
Welding Symbols on Drawings
Introduction to Welding Processes
Manual Metal Arc Welding
Tungsten Inert Gas Welding
Metal Inert/Active Gas Welding
Submerged Arc Welding
Welding Consumables
Non Destructive Testing
Weld Repairs
Residual Stress & Distortion
Heat Treatment of Steels
Oxy-Fuel Gas Welding Brazing and Bronze Welding
Thermal Cutting Processes
Welding Safety
Weld ability of steels
The Practice of Visual Welding Inspection
Visual Welding Inspection Practical Forms

1 A duty not normally undertaken by a welding inspector is to:

a Check the condition of the parent material.
c
b Check the condition of the consumables.
c
c Measure residual stress.
c
d Check calibration certificates.
c
2 When measuring the welding parameters with the MMA welding process for the purpose of approving
a As close to the welding arc as possible.
a
b Anywhere along the welding cable.
a
c Always from the voltmeter on the welding plant.
a
d As near to the welding terminals as possible.
a
3 When carrying out visual inspection, the specification makes no mention of the requirements for visua
a Carry out normal visual inspection.
b
b Seek advice from higher authority.
b
c Carry out no visual inspection.
b
d Re-write the requirements of the specification.
b
4 Under most circumstances, which of the following do you consider to be duties of a welding inspector?
a The supervision of welders.
c
b Procedure writing.
c
c Qualifying welders
c
d All of the above.
c
5 A welding inspectors main attributes include:
a Knowledge.
d
b Honesty and integrity.
d
c Good communicator.
d
d All of the above.
d
6 Assuming that the applicable specification makes no mention of arc strikes, what would you expect to
a Have the welder re-qualified.
c
b Ignore them.
c
c Have the area checked for possible cracking.
c
d Cut out the entire weld where the arc strikes exist.
c
7 You are to oversee the arc welding of some machined fittings and find that they are cadmium plated. W
a Permit the welding to proceed.
c
b Permit the welding to proceed with fume extraction.
c
c Stop the operation at once.
c
d Advise the welders to drink milk then proceed.
c
8 When visually inspecting the root bead of a single-V butt weld is should be checked for
a Lack of root penetration
a
b HAZ hardness
a
c Tungsten inclusions
a
d All of the above.
a
9 The EN standard for NDE of Fusion welds by Visual Examination is
a EN 288
d
b EN 499
d
c EN 287
d
d EN 970
d
10 When visually inspecting the face of a finish weld it should be assessed for

a maximum excess weld metal height

b toe blend
c inter-run blend
d All of the above.
11 Heavy porosity on the surface of some MMA welds made on a construction site is most likely to be cau
a use wrong class of electrodes
c
b the use of excessive current
c
c moisture pick-up in the electrode covering
c
d
c
a bad batch of electrodes.
12 Which group of welders is most likely to require continuous monitoring by a welding inspector?
a concrete shuttering welders
b
b overland pipeline welders
b
c tack welders
b
d maintenance welders
b
13 If a Welding Inspector detects a type of imperfection not allowed by the Application Standard he must
a Request further NDT
b
b Reject the weld
b
c Prepare a concession request
b
d Only reject the weld if he considers it to be harmful
b
14 Repair welding of in-service plant and equipment may be more difficult than making repairs during in
a the material may be contaminated
d
b access to repair area may be difficult
d
c positional welding may be needed
d
d
d
of any of the above
15 The Main responsibility of the welding inspector are:
a Code compliance and Visual Inspection
b
b Code compliance, workmanship and Documentation Controls.
b
c Prepare Inspection & Test Plan
b
d All of the above.
b
16 A welding inspector should have the quality such as:
a Honest, Integrity and be physical fit
d
b Be a good cummunicator and knowledgeable
d
c Able to look after the welders
d
d a and b
d
17 All welding machines must be checked for
a The display panel
d
b Open Circuit Voltage
d
c Duty Cycle
d
d
d
Calibration validity
18 Visual Examination shall be carried out by
a The Welder Foreman
b
b A Qualified Welding Inspector
b
c A Qualified Welder
b
d Production Supervisor
b
19 Which of the items below is not the tools of welding inspector
a Electrode quiver
a
d
d
d
d

a
a
a

b
c
d

Various type of welding gauges

Flash or torch lights
Steel rule and measure tape

s for the purpose of approving a welding procedure, the Welding Inspector should measure the voltage:

n of the requirements for visual inspection, in this situation what should you do?

duties of a welding inspector?

kes, what would you expect to do as a welding inspector if arc strikes were found on a component made of a high tens

at they are cadmium plated. What would you do in this situation?

be checked for

ion site is most likely to be caused by

by a welding inspector?

Application Standard he must always

than making repairs during initial fabrication because

ure the voltage:

mponent made of a high tensile strength material.

1 Which of the following butt-weld preparations is usually the most susceptible to lack of sidewall fusion
a
a A double-U butt.
a
b A single-V butt.
a
c A double-V butt.
a
d It is not normally a defect associated with the MMA welding process.
2 What is the leg length of a fillet weld?
c
a The distance from the toe to face.
c
b The distance from the root to face centre.
c
c The distance from the root to the toe.
c
d Its 0.7 of the design throat thickness.
3 What is the throat thickness of a fillet weld (equal leg lengths)?
b
a The distance from the toe to the face.
b
b The distance from the root to the face centre.
b
c The distance from the root to the toe.
b
d The distance from toe to toe.
4 Compound welds:
c
a
Always contain butt and fillet welds
c
b
Joints, which combinations of welds have made by different welding processes.
c
c Combinations between two different weld types
c
d
All of the above.
5 Under most conditions, which of the following welding positions will deposit the most weld metal.
a
a PG
a
b PE
a
c PC
a
d PA
6 What is meant by the term weld junction?
c
a The area containing the HAZ and the weld metal.
c
b The weld metal and parent metal.
c
c The boundary between the fusion zone and the HAZ.
c
d The part of the weld, which has undergone metallurgical changes due to the heat from welding.
7 The strength of a fillet weld is primary controlled by:
a
a Leg length.
a
b Design throat thickness.
a
c Actual throat thickness.
a
d All of the above.
8 What is the term given for the area of a welded joint just outside the weld metal that has undergone m
a
a Heat affected zone.
a
b The weld zone.
a
c Fusion zone.
a
d All of the above terms may be used.
9 On a single-V butt weld, the distance through the centre of the weld from root to face is called:
c
a Reinforcement.
c
b Penetration.
c
c Throat thickness.
c
d None of the above.
10 The throat thickness of a inch fillet weld is?

c
c
c
c

a 27.5 mm
b 24 mm.
c 13.5 mm.
d 12.5 mm.
11 A code of practice for visual inspection should cover:
a
a Before, during and after welding.
a
b Before welding activities only.
a
c After welding activities only.
a
d None of the above.
12 What is the ratio between the leg length and the design throat thickness on a mitre fillet weld with equ
c
a 1 to 1
c
b 2 to 1
c
c 1.414 to 1
c
d All of the above it depends upon the leg length size.
13 Why is the arc shielded, when using an arc welding process?
c
a To eliminate hydrogen from the arc.
c
b To retard the cooling rate of the solidifying metal.
c
c To excluded the atmosphere from the arc region.
c
d The arc is not always shielded when using an arc welding process.
14 For full penetration single - sided butt joints, root bead penetrantion and profile are mainly influenced
c
a root face
c
b bevel angle
c
c root gap
c
d included angle
15 A code of practice is
b
a a standard for workmanship quality only
b
b a set of rules for manufactoring a specific product
b
c a specification for the finished product
b
d All of above
16 Which of the following fillet welds is the strongest (all are same conditions)
a
a 8 mm throat of a mittre fillet
a
b 7 mm leg + 2 mm excess weld metal
a
c Mitre fillet with 10 mm leg
a
d concave fillet with 11 mm leg
17 A typical included angle for MMA welding of a full penetration pipe butt joint is
b
a 35
b
b 70
b
c 90
b
d dependent on the pipe diameter
18 The fusion boundary of a fillet weld is
a
a The boundary between the fusion zone and the HAZ.
a
b The boundary between individual weld runs
a
c the depth of root penetration
a
d the boundary between the HAZ and parent metal
19 When 02 different material types are welded together, the joint is referred to as
b
a a composite joint

b
b
b

b
c
d

a transition joint
an autogenous weld
all of the above

eptible to lack of sidewall fusion during the manual metal arc process?

g processes.

eposit the most weld metal.

ue to the heat from welding.

eld metal that has undergone microstructure changes?

m root to face is called:

s on a mitre fillet weld with equal leg lengths

nd profile are mainly influenced by

utt joint is

red to as

d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
c
c
c
c
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
d
d
d
d

1 What meant by the term crater pipe:

a Another term for concave root
b Another term given for a burn through.
c A type of gas pore, found in the weld crater.
d A shrinkage defect, found in the weld crater.
2 Root concavity is caused by:
a Excessive back purge pressure and shrinkage
b Excessive back purge pressure and very high heat inputs
c Excessive root grinding and a slow travel speed
d Excessive root grinding and excessive back purge pressure
3 Which of the following is most likely to cause a burn through?
a Root gap too small.
b Travel speed too fast.
c Root face too small
d All of the above.
4 When carrying out visual inspection, which defects is likely to be missed?
a Linear misalignment.
b Cap undercut.
c Porosity.
d Lack of fusion (inter run).
5 Cold lapping is another term for:
a Lack of fusion at the toe of a weld.
b Lack of fusion between weld metal and weld metal.
c Undercut at the toe of a weld.
d Both a and b.
6 Incomplete root penetration is most likely due to:
a Welding speed too slow.
b Welding current too high.
c Root gap too small.
d Electrode diameter too small.
7 Crater cracks are caused mainly by:
a Excessively fast welding speeds
b Improper electrode angle
c Hot shrinkage.
d Improper joint design.
8 Movement of the arc by magnetic forces in an arc welding process is termed:
a Arc deviation.
b Arc misalignment.
c Arc blow.
d Strike arc.
9 Lamellar tearing is best prevented by:
a The use of plate materials containing low levels of impurities.
b The use of buttering runs.
c Post weld stress relief.
d Both a and b.
10 Which of the following is applicable to a plate lamination?

c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
c

a They are best detected by radiography.

b They are mainly caused by hydrogen entrapment.
c They originate in the parent material.
d They are caused when welding stresses act parallel with the rolled direction of the parent plate.
11 A Fatigue cracks fracture surface is:
a Rough randomly torn.
b Smooth.
c Step like appearance.
d Bright crystalline.
12 Lamellar tearing is:
a A product defect caused during the manufacturing of certain steels
b A crack type, which occurs in the parent material due to welding strains acting in the short transverse
c A type of hot crack associated with impurities (sulphur, carbon and phosphorous).
d A type of crack that occurs in the weld or parent material due to cyclic stresses.
13 The main reason for toe blending on certain welded components is:
a Corrosion considerations.
b Fatigue life.
c Appearance.
d All of the above
14 A crater crack may be caused by:
a Loss of shielding gas.
b Poor toe blend.
c Fast cooling.
d None of the above
15 A fabrication procedure calls for the toes of all welds to be "blended in" by grinding. The most likely
a make the weld suitable for liquid (dye) penetrant inspection
b improve the fatigue life
c reduce residual stresses
d improve the general appreance the of welds.
16 Under cut may need to be accessed according to
a depth
b length
c sharpness/ profile/ blend
d all of above
17 Incomplete root penetration in a Single V butt joint may be caused by
a an excessive root face
b an excessive root gap
c the current setting too low
d both a and c
18 Incomplete root fusion in a Single V butt joint may be caused by
a Linear misalignment.
b the root gap being too large
c root faces being too small
d all of above
19 A burn through may occur if
a the current is too low

c
c
c
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
c
c
c
c
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
d
d

b the root face is too large

c the root gap is too large
d all of above
20 A solid inclusion in a weld may be
a entrapped slag
b entrapped gas
c lack of inter-run fusion
d all of above
21 Which of the following is a planar imperfection?
a a lack of side wall fusion
b a slag inclusion
c linear porosities
d root concavities
22 Slag inclusions may be present in
a Manual metual arc welds
b metal inert gas welds
c submergerd arc welds
d both a and c
23 The main cause of undercut is
a Excessive amps
b Excessive volts
c Excessive travel speed
d all of above
24 An arc strike (stray flash) on a steel component is regarded by some codes as unacceptable because
a it will cause copper contamination
b it may cause hard spots
c it may give cracking
d of both b & c
25 The surface of a fatigue crack will
a be rough and torn
b have sharp chevron markings
c be smooth
d have shear lips
26 Lamellar tearing is happened in the steel fabrication. What technique could have been used to find it
a X-ray examination
b liquid penetrantion examination
c ultrasonic examination
d it could not have been found by any inspection method.
27 Undercuts normally happens at the
a Toes of the weld
b Center of the weld metal only
c Only at the root of the weld
d In the filler passes
28 When inspecting a critical component, the toes of a weld must be:
a Always ground flush.
b Must always overlap at least 1.5 mm onto the parent material.

d
d
b
b
b
b

c Must always be inspected using a crack detection method (MPI, DPI).

d None of the above can be selected specification requirements unknown.
29 Lamellar tearing is the result of material with
a High Chromium Content
b Poor through Thickness Ductility
c Weld made using high dilution process
d Weld made using wrong electrode

rection of the parent plate.

ns acting in the short transverse direction of the parent material.

hosphorous).

by grinding. The most likely reason for doing this is to

es as unacceptable because

ould have been used to find it before the weld was made?

b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b
a
a
a
a

1 The likelihood of a brittle fracture in steels will increase with:

a The formation of a fine grain structure.
b A reduction in-service temperature to sub-zero conditions.
c A slow cooling rate.
d All of the above.
2 Which of the following destructive tests would indicate the toughness value of the weld metal/parent m
a Macro.
b Nick break.
c Tensile.
d Charpy Vee notch.
3 In which of the following mechanical tests would you expect to use a comparison from ductile to brittl
a Tensile test.
b Charpy test.
c Fusion zone test.
d All of the above
4 What is the purpose of microscopic examination of a weld?
a To determine the number and type of defects present.
b To determine the grain size.
c To determine the strength of the weld.
d Both a and b.
5 Which of the following units is a tensile specimen usually measured in?
a Pounds per square inch.
b Newton per square inches.
c Joules.
d Both a and b.
6 What is the purpose of a transverse tensile test?
a To measure ultimate tensile strength.
b To measure the elongation of a material
c To measure the yield strength of a material
d All of the above.
7 Which of the following mechanical tests can be used to give a quantitative measurement of weld zone
a Tensile test.
b Bend test.
c Charpy V notch test.
d All of the above.
8 Which of the following are true with regards to a charpy test.
a Its a static test used to determine a materials notch toughness in the weld region.
b Its a dynamic test used to determine a materials notch toughness in the weld region.
c Its a destructive test to give a measurement of through thickness ductility.
d None of the above.
9 The hardest part of a multi-pass welded joint, assuming no post weld heat treatment has have taken p
a The HAZ of the cap.
b The HAZ of the root.
c The root.
d The cap.
10 Which of the following statements is true if applicable to a charpy vee notch impact test?

c
c
c
c
a
a
a
a
c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
b
b
b
b
d

a Its a destructive test used to assess materials ductility in the weld zone.
b Its a mechanical test used to determine a welds resistance to creep.
c Its a dynamic test, which is used to give a measure of notch toughness.
d Its a static test used to determine materials toughness in the notch region.
11 What would be a typical appearance of a ductile fracture surface?
a Rough randomly torn and a reduction in area.
b Smooth fracture surface displaying beach marks
c Step like appearance.
d Bright crystalline fracture with very little reduction in area.
12 Which of the following charpy test pieces form a carbon manganese steel weld, welded with a high he
a Test piece taken from parent metal.
b Test piece taken from weld metal.
c Test piece taken from HAZ.
d All of the above values will be the same.
13 Which is the best destructive test for showing lack of side wall fusion in a 25mm thick butt weld?
a Nick break.
b Side bend
c Charpy impact
d A face bend test
14 In a bend test, when the face of specimen is in tension and root is in compression, the test is called
a a root bend
b a side bend
c a face bend
d a longitudinal bend
15 Nick break and fillet fracture tests are used for
a assessing weld quality
b assessing weld metal ductility
c assessing weld metal toughness
d all of above
16 In a transverse tensile test, brittleness would be indicated if
a there is a reduction in cross section at the position of fracture
b the fracture surface is flat and featureless but has a rough surface
c fracture occurred in the weld metal
d the fracture face shows beach marks
17 A STRA test is used to measure
a the tensile strength of the welded joint
b the level of residual stress in butt joints
c the fracture toughness of the HAZ
d the throught thickness ductility of a steel plate (the "Z" direction)
18 A macro section is particularly good for showing
a the HAZ microstructure
b overlap
c the weld metal microstructure
d all of the above
19 The temperature range over which a steel goes from having high toughness to low toughness is called
a the critical transformation temperature

d
d
d
b
b
b
b
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d

b the ductility dip temperature

c the bi-modal temperature
d the transition temperature
20 A transverse tensile test, from a Weld Procedure Approval Record (WPAR) test plate, is used to measu
a the tensile strength of weld
b the tensile strength of joint
c the stress/strain characteristic of the weld
d the stress/strain characteristic of the joint
21 The mechanical properties of welds made with SMAW process comes from
a The mixture of Parent metal with electrode core wire
b The parent metal only
c The core wire of the electrode only
d The flux covering of the electrode
22 Mechanical testing that has Unit of evaluation is termed as ..
a Bend test.
b Quantitative Testing
c Qualitative Testing
d Metallographic Testing
23 The differences between Micro and Macro testing are ..
a Magnification for Macro is by Microscope
b The Finish surface of macro is polished with 1000 macron grit
c Macro is used to reveal the weld grain structure
d None of the above.

lue of the weld metal/parent metal and HAZ?

mparison from ductile to brittle transition curve.

ve measurement of weld zone ductility?

weld region.
he weld region.

at treatment has have taken place is:

otch impact test?

l weld, welded with a high heat input is likely to have the lowest toughness value?

a 25mm thick butt weld?

pression, the test is called

ess to low toughness is called

AR) test plate, is used to measure

d
d
d
d
b
b
b
b
c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d

1 Which of the following butt weld preparations is most likely to be considered for the welding of a 6mm
a Double-V butt.
b Asymmetrical double-V butt.
c Single-U butt.
d Single-V butt.
2 Which of the following is the most likely to be considered an essential variable for a welder qualificati
a A change from an electrode classified to BS EN 499 as an E46 3 INI B to an electrode classified to A
b A change of pipe wall thickness by at least 15 mm.
c A change in pre-heat temperature from 50oC to 100oC.
d All of the above.
3 Which of the following is likely to be considered an essential variable on a welder qualification test?
a A change from an electrode classified to AWS E6011 to an electrode E6012.
b A change in preheat temperature from 50oC to 100oC.
c A change in welding position from PA to PF.
d All of the above
4 Which of the following welding processes would be the most suited for the welding of carbon steel in e
a Tungsten inert gas
b Electro-slag
c Manual metal arc.
d Plasma arc.
5 Which of the following welding process is most likely to be used for the welding of a small diameter st
a GTAW
b SMAW.
c Submerged arc welding.
d GMAW.
6 Which of the following welding process, after the weld is completed normally requires a post weld hea
a ESW.
b MMA.
c MAG.
d All completed welds require a post heat treatment, regardless of welding process.
7 What do you understand by the term minimum interpass temperature?
a Minimum post weld heat treatment applied to a weld.
b Minimum stress relief temperature.
c The lowest temperatures to be used during preheat.
d The lowest temperature allowed during welding and between weld passes.
8 The principle purpose of a welder qualification test is
a to test the skill of the welder
b to access the weldability of the materials
c to decide which NDT methods to be use
d to give the welder practice before doing production welding
9 The majority of welder qualification tests are carried out using an unbaked joint. This is because ..
a it is quicker, cheaper, if back-gouging is not required
b if the welding process is not TIG, back purging is not required
c all welder qualification tests are done on small diameter pipe
d it requires more skill and increases the welder's qualification range
10 A WPS may specify a maximum width for individual weld beads (the "weave" width) when welding C

b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c

a lack of inter-run fusion

b a reduction in HAZ toughness
c lack of sidewall fusion
d all of above
11 A welder approval certificate should be withdrawn if ..
a he has not done any welding for a period of 04 months
b he has been absent from work for a period of 07 months
c the repair rate for his welds exceeds 1%
d all of above
12 The document used to carry out Test Weld is called ..
a Welding Procedure Approval Record
b Welding Procedure Specification
c Welding Procedure Qualification Record
d Preliminary Welding Procedure Specification
13 Welding Procedure Specification is used ..
a give information to the welder
b guidance to welding inspector to carry out inspection
c give consistent weld quality no mater where or when the weld is made
d all of the above
14 A Qualified Welding Procedure Specification is that has been ..
a subject to Mechanical Testing for Mechanical properties
b restraint during Testing weld process
c chemical cleaning after welding
d non-Destructive testing only
15 Essential Veriables in the Welding ProcedureSpecication is critical because it ..
a give different weld result every time the welder is changed
b It needs the requalification if it is changed beyond the allowable limits
c It changes the mechamical properties of the weld, if it is changed beyond the allowable limits
d b and c
16 Welder Qualification Test is normally carried out using non backing joint. This is for the purpose of ..
a to save the testing time, and thus save cost
b to avoid the welder from producing an unacceptable root
c to give a higher Qualification range to the welder
d the root penetration is no important to welder Qualification
17 Which of the following is not an essential variable for welder qualification?
a A change in welding position from PA to PE
b A change of Welding process
c A change from 01 project to another
d All of the above
18 Welding Procedure Specification is normally approved by ..
a Welding Engineer
b Quality Asurance Manager
c The Client
d Any of the above

dered for the welding of a 6mm thick plate?

riable for a welder qualification test?

B to an electrode classified to AWS A5.1 as an E7018.

a welder qualification test?

he welding of carbon steel in excess of 100 mm thickness?

welding of a small diameter stainless steel pipe, 6mm-wall thickness?

mally requires a post weld heat treatment to restore toughness values?

ing process.

ked joint. This is because ..

weave" width) when welding C-Mn steels. If the width is exceeded it may cause

ond the allowable limits

nt. This is for the purpose of ..

c
c
c
c

1 Transfer of material identification by hard stamping is sometimes not allowed for high integrity applic
a it is too slow
b it can be a safety hazard
c it may be damaging to the material
d all of the above

lowed for high integrity applications because

EN ISO 5817 (Level C) specified that the limit for the diameter (D) of a single pore in a weld is
1 D 0.3s, but max. 4mm where s is material thickness.
For which of the following situations is the pore acceptable?
c
c
c
c

a
b
c
d

s = 20mm, measured pore diameter = 5.0mm

s = 15mm, measured pore diameter = 4.5mm
s = 10mm, measured pore diameter = 3.0mm
s = 10mm, measured pore diameter = 3.5mm

EN ISO 5817 (Level B) specified that the limit for Excess Weld Metal (h) on a butt weld as:
2 h 1mm + 0.1b, but max. 5mm where b is weld width.
In which of the following situations is the measured Excess Weld Metal acceptable?
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b

a b = 10mm, measured Excess Weld Metal = 2.5mm

b b = 20mm, measured Excess Weld Metal = 3.5mm
c b = 35mm, measured Excess Weld Metal = 4.5mm
d b = 45mm, measured Excess Weld Metal = 5.5mm
3 BS EN 288 is a specification for
a welder approval testing
b welding equipment calibration
c welding procedure approval
d consumables for submerged arc welding
4 BS EN 970 allows the use of a magnifying glass for visual inspection but recommends that the magnific
a x2
b x2 to x5
c x5 to x10
d not greater than x20

single pore in a weld is

h) on a butt weld as:

acceptable?

t recommends that the magnification is

1 What does the 70 represent on an E7010 AWS A5.1 classified electrode?

d
d
d
d
c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b

a 70 N/mm2 minimum UTS.

b 70 joules minimum impact strength.
c 70,000 p.s.i. Minimum yield strength.
d 70,000 psi minimum UTS.
2 From the following electrode coding in BS EN 499, E50 3 1Ni B 140 0 1 H5 , what does the 3 represe
a A minimum charpy value of 30 joules.
b A minimum impact value of 47 Joules.
c A minimum impact temperature of 30oC at a given Joule value.
d None of the above.
3 A tee joint on a support bracket is to be welded both sides using a 5 mm leg length fillet weld, each w
a
5 x 50
b
5
50 (25)
5
(25)
a.
b.
c
5 x 50 (25)
50 (25)
5
5
d

c.

b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
c
c
c
c

25 (50)

25 (50)

d.

5 x 50 (25)
5 x 50
(25)

4 How can you tell the difference between an EN/ISO weld symbol and a BS weld symbol?
a The EN/ISO weld symbol will always have the arrow side weld at the top of the reference line.
b The EN/ISO symbol has the welds elementary symbol placed on a dashed line lying above or below
c The EN/ISO symbol has a fillet weld throat thickness identified by the letter z.
d Both b and c.
5 The number 135 is placed at the end of the reference line on a weld symbol. According to ISO 2553 w
a The welding process is stated as MMA
b The welding process is stated as TIG
c The welding process is stated as SAW
d None of the above
6 In EN 499, what does the number 50 represent in the following electrode classification? E 50 3 1Ni B
a A minimum of 50 N/mm2 yield strength.
b A minimum of 500 N/mm2 tensile strength.
c A minimum of 50000 psi yield strength
d None of the above.
7 A black triangular flag used in conjunction with a weld symbol as to EN 22553 means:
a A specific welding process is required.
b The weld is to be made under constant supervision of a qualified welding inspector.
c Welding to be carried out on site (field weld).
d The weld must be subjected to NDT.
8 From the following electrode coding E50 4 B 160 20 H5, the compulsory part is:

c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b

a E50 4 B 160 20 H5.

b B 160 20 H5.
c E50 4 B.
d None of the above.
9 For the fillet weld, it is normal practice in the UK, USA to measure
a throat thickness
b leg lengths
c penetration depths
d both a and c
10 Which of the following electrodes is classified to BS EN 499?
a
a E 38 3 R
BS EN
a
b E 6013
AWS
a
c E 7018 - G
AWS
a
d E 51 33 B
BS
11 According to AWS 2.4 a weld sysbol for the "other" side is placed
c
a above the dashed line
c
b below the dashed line
c
c above the solid line
c
d below the solid line
12 BS EN 22533 Welding symbol has Identification line (dash line), to indicate weld to made ..
c
a on arrow side
c
b on both side
c
c on other side
c
d intermittent
13 As per BS EN 22533, All symbols placed on the left of the weld symbol are ..
c
a Linear Dimension
c
b Numberical Dimension
c
c Cross sectional Dimension
c
d None of the above
14 Welds to be made at site, all round, toes to be blend are ..
a
a Supplementary symbols
a
b Elementary symbols
a
c Support symbols
a
d Basic symbols
15 No of weld elements, length of weld elements and pitch between weld elements are classified as ..
b
a Supplementary symbols
b
b Linear Dimension
b
c Cross sectional Dimension
b
d Scaled Dimension
16 The convention for both BS EN and AWS for the arrow line is ..
d
a arrow line must touch the part where joint to be made
d
b it should not be parallel to the bottom of the drawing sheet
d
c it must point to the part to be prepaired if only single part preparation
d
d All of the above

H5 , what does the 3 represent

leg length fillet weld, each weld is to be intermittent 50 mm in total length, the gap between each weld is to be 25 mm

BS weld symbol?
e top of the reference line.
shed line lying above or below the solid reference line to indicate a weld on the other side.
e letter z.

bol. According to ISO 2553 what does this number indicate?

e classification? E 50 3 1Ni B 160 0 1 H5.

22553 means:

ding inspector.

ate weld to made ..

ments are classified as ..

een each weld is to be 25 mm. Which of the following is the correct symbol in accordance with ISO 2553?

ce with ISO 2553?

b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
c
c
c
c
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b
c
c
c
c
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d

1 In an arc welding process, which of the following is the correct term used for the amount of weld met
a Filling rate.
b Deposition rate.
c Weld deposition.
d Weld duty cycle.
2 The need for pre-heat for steel will increase if:
a The material thickness reduces.
b Faster welding speeds
c The use of a larger welding electrode
d All of the above.
3 Movement of the arc by magnetic forces in an arc welding process is termed:
a Arc deviation.
b Arc misalignment.
c Arc blow.
d Stray arc.
4 Which of the following processes joins metals plastically.
a Friction welding.
b Resistance welding.
c Arc welding.
d All of the above.
5 Which of the following statements is false?
a In the MMA welding process electrode DC + produces a deep narrow weld pool, which is fast freez
b DC electrode positive is used for the MAG welding of steel plate.
c In the MAG welding process the wire feed speed remains constant during the welding operation
d The word calcium carbonate means limestone
6 What is purpose of a rectifier in a welding sets electrical circuit?
a To keep the arc stable when using low current settings
b To convert AC current to DC current.
c To convert DC current to AC current.
d To initiate the arc at start up.
7 Which of the following steel types would give rise to the formation of porosity when autogenously we
a Fully killed steel.
b Semi killed steel.
c Rimming steel.
d Balanced steel.
8 Which is the correct heat input for the following parameters, amps 350, volts 32 and the travel speed
a 2.16 kJ/mm.
b 0.036 kJ/mm.
c 2160 kJ/mm.
d 3.6 kJ/mm.
9 With regards to a welding procedure, an essential variable may:
a Change the properties of the weld.
b Influence the visual acceptance.
c Require re-approval of a weld procedure.
d All of the above
10 Is it permissible to allow a multi-pass butt weld to cool down between weld passes?

d
d
d
d
c
c
c
c
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b
d

a It should be up to the welding inspector.

b No the weld must be kept hot at all times.
c It depends on the welder
d It depends on the specification requirements.
11 Which of the following welding process uses a resistive heating system to achieve weld metal depositi
a MMA
b Resistant spot welding.
c Electro-slag.
d Friction welding.
12 What is the Arc energy for the following welding process parameters? Amps 140, Volts 21, Travel spe
a 0.7 KJ/mm
b 0.6 KJ/mm
c 0.01 KJ/mm
d 0.7 J/mm
13 Which of the following welding process require a drooping characteristic power source?
a TIG and MMA.
b MIG/MAG and MMA.
c TIG and SAW (less than 500 amps)
d All of the above.
14 A qualified WPS is used to
a give instruction to the welder
b give information to the welding inspector
c give confidence that welds will have the specification properties
d All of the above.
15 If welding travel speed is double, but the current and voltage remain the same, the heat input will
a be reduced by 50%
b be increased by a factor of two
c be about the same
d be reduced by approximately 25%
16 The first procedure that is prepared for a Weld Procedure Qualification test weld is a
a pWPS
b WPS
c WPQR
d WPAR
17 In the friction welding, the metal at the interface when the joining occurs is describled as being in the
a liquid state
b inner-critical state
c plastic state
d elastic state
18 SMAW and GTAW are 02 arc welding process that operates manually. What is the electrical characte
a Constant Voltage Characteristic
b Constant Current or Drooping Characteristic
c Alternating Current Characteristic
d Reverse polarity Characteristic
19 When welding of 02 different material, it is called ..
a differenr metal welding

d
d
d

b
c
d

mixed metal welding

complex welding
transition welding

d for the amount of weld metal deposited per minute?

w weld pool, which is fast freezing.

uring the welding operation

rosity when autogenously welded with an arc welding process

volts 32 and the travel speed 310 mm/minute (MMA welding process)?

eld passes?

o achieve weld metal deposition?

mps 140, Volts 21, Travel speed 250mm/min.

c power source?

same, the heat input will

test weld is a

s is describled as being in the

What is the electrical characteristic for these 02 process

a
a
a
a
c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
c
c
c
c
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
c
c
c
c

1 In the MMA welding process, which of the following is most likely to be caused by a welder with a poo
a Deep weld craters/crater cracks.
b Copper inclusions
c Hydrogen cracks
d All of the above.
2 What type of power source characteristic is required for a manual process?
a Constant voltage.
b Flat characteristic.
c Drooping characteristic.
d None of the above.
3 If arc blow exists when welding with the MMA welding process, this can be best reduced or eliminated
a A change from AC to DC current.
b A change from DC to AC current.
c A change from DC +ve to DC ve.
d A change from DC ve to DC +ve.
4 In a MMA welding process, which of the following statements are false?
a An arc gap, which remains almost constant even if as usual the welder varies the position of the elect
b A voltage, which remains almost constant even if as usual the welder, varies the arc gap.
c A current, which remains almost constant even if as usual the welder, varies the arc gap.
d a and b.
5 For a given voltage and current settings on a MMA welding plant, when the arc length is shortened, w
a The current will increase.
b The current will decrease.
c The voltage will decrease.
d The voltage will increase.
6 Degreasing components are essential for quality welding but when welded some agent may:
a Cause corrosion problems.
b Leave residues
c Give off toxic gases.
d All of the above.
7 In MMA welding, penetration is principally controlled by ...?
a
Arc voltage
b welding speed
c ferro-silicon in the electrode coating
d current
8 Weld spatter during MMA welding is most likely to be caused by
a Excessive current
b Incorrect baking and storage of electrodes
c A bad batch of electrodes
d All of the above.
9 A C-Mn steel is being welded by MMA and the electrode run-out lengths that have been used are muc
a an increased risk of hydrogen cracking
b an increased risk of solidification cracking
c lower value of HAZ toughness
d higher value of HAZ toughness

caused by a welder with a poor technique?

be best reduced or eliminated by:

er varies the position of the electrode.

, varies the arc gap.
varies the arc gap.
the arc length is shortened, which of the following will be most affected.

ed some agent may:

s that have been used are much shorter than specified by the WPS. This deviation may give

a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b
c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b

1 Which of the following electrodes and current types may be used for the TIG welding of nickel and it
a Cerium electrode, DC ve.
b Zirconium electrode, AC.
c Thorium electrode, DC +ve.
d
All of the above may be used.
2 The main reason for using a back purge when welding 18-8 stainless steel with the TIG welding proce
a Improve positional welding.
b Prevent the possibility of porosity.
c Prevent excessive root penetration
d Prevent the formation of a dense oxide layer forming in the root.
3 When considering the tungsten arc welding process what is the purpose of the down-slope (slope-out)
a Ensure good penetration.
b To prevent arc striking on the parent material.
c To help prevent the formation of crater pipe and possible cracking.
d To help prevent tungsten inclusions during welding.
4 Which of the following current types would you expect to be used for the welding of aluminium with
a DC -ve.
b DC +ve.
c AC
d All of the above.
5 For TIG welding, what benefit does a current slope-out device have?
a it reduces Tungsten spatter
b it reduces the risk of crater cracking
c it reduces the risk of arc strikes
d it reduces the interpass temperature
6 Pipe bores of some materials must be purge with Argon before and during TIG welding in order to
a prevent linear porosity
b prevent burn-throught
c prevent oxidation of the root bead
d eliminate moiture pick-up in the root bead
7 A fusible insert for TIG welding helps to
a reduce porosity
b give controlled root penetration
c avoids the need for a back purge
d All of the above.
8 The normal polarity used for TIG welding of all materials is
a DC -ve.
b DC +ve.
c AC
d any polarity can be used
9 Initiation of a TIG arc by using a High Frequency spark may not be allowed because
a it often causes tungsten inclusions
b it can damage electronic equipment
c it is an electrical safety hazard
d it often causes stop/start porosity

TIG welding of nickel and its alloys?

el with the TIG welding process is to:

of the down-slope (slope-out) control?

e welding of aluminium with the TIG welding process?

ng TIG welding in order to

wed because

a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
b
b
b
b
a
a
a
a

1 The inclusion of an inductance in the welding circuit when using MIG/MAG welding process is to:
a Control the rate of spatter in the dip transfer mode.
b It enables the welder to weld in position with the spray transfer mode.
c It allows for thicker filler wires to be used (2.6-3.6mm diameter).
d It allows full control over droplet size in the spray transfer mode.
2 When welding with the MIG welding process using pure argon as the shielding gas on carbon steel
a Copper inclusions and excessive cap heights.
b Excessive root penetration and porosity.
c Slag inclusions and crater pipe.
d Lack of fusion and poor cap profiles.
3 When considering the MIG/MAG welding process which of the following metal transfer modes wo
a Dip transfer.
b Pulse transfer.
c Spray transfer.
d Globular transfer.
4 When calibrating a mechanised MAG welding plant, which of the following applies (WFS = Wire f
a Check WFS, current, volts and wire diameter.
b Check WFS, joint set-up, gas flow rate and WFS.
c Check Gas flow rate, stick out length, WFS and current.
d All of the above.
5 When welding with the MIG welding process using pure argon as the shielding gas on carbon steel
a Copper inclusions and excessive cap heights.
b Excessive root penetration and porosity.
c Slag inclusions and crater pipe.
d Lack of fusion and poor cap profiles.
6 For GMAW the burn-off rate of the wire is directly related to
a the stick-out length
b wire feed speed
c the arc voltage
d the travel speed
7 MIG/MAG welding has a tendency to give lack of sidewall fusion when
a Spray transfer conditions are used
b 100% CO2 shielding gas is used
c pulse current is used
d dip transfer conditions are used
8 The dip transfer mode (or short circuiting mode) of metal transfer used for MIG/MAG welding is c
a giving deep penetration
b being suitable for positional welding
c giving low spatter
d All of the above.
9 Spray Mode of Transfer is associated with GMAW process. But it is limited to
a PA. PB and PC position
b Gives high deposition rate
c Produced a lot of spatter
d All of the above.

MAG welding process is to:

ielding gas on carbon steel, which of the following problems are likely to occur?

g metal transfer modes would be the best suited to the welding of thick plates over 25 mm, flat welding position.

wing applies (WFS = Wire feed speed)?

ielding gas on carbon steel, which of the following problems are likely to occur?

for MIG/MAG welding is characterised by

m, flat welding position.

a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
b
b
b
b
c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b
a
a
a
a

1 A crack type most associated with the submerged arc welding process is:
a Hydrogen cracking in the HAZ.
b Solidification cracking.
c Lamellar tearing.
d Fatigue cracking.
2 When welding a double-V butt weld with the submerged arc welding process the presence of centre
a Damp flux.
b Contamination on the weld preparations.
c Incorrect flux depth
d All of the above.
3 Which of the following best describes a semi-automatic welding process?
a The welder is responsible for the maintaining the arc gap and travel speed.
b The welder is responsible for travel speed only; arc gap is kept constant by the welding plant.
c Both travel speed and arc gap is controlled by the welding plant
d All of the above.
4 Which of the following butt weld preparations would normally be considered for a mechanised wel
a Single-V butt, root gap 2.5 mm (welded from on side only).
b Double-V butt-welded both sides, root gap 2.0 mm.
c Single-U butt with backing.
d None of the above can be used for mechanised welding.
5 In the submerged arc welding process, the use of excessive high voltages would result in?
a Insufficient flux melting.
b Excessive flux melting
c Slag removal difficulties.
d Excessive spatter.
6 For SAW, what is the effect of raising arc voltage but keeping with all parameters the same?
a the weld bead width will increase
b the depth of penetration will decrease
c the weld bead width will increase
d the depth of penetration will decrease

ocess the presence of centre line porosity may be due to:

ant by the welding plant.

dered for a mechanised welding process

would result in?

arameters the same?

d
d
d
d
b
b
b
b
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
c
c
c
c
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a

1 Flux cored wires may be advantages over solid wires because:

a Higher deposition.
b Lower hydrogen contents in the deposited welds.
c Easy addition of alloying elements.
d Both a and c.
2 In a semi-automatic welding process, which of the following shielding gas/gas mixtures would normal
a 100% argon.
b 100% CO2.
c 75% argon + 25% CO2.
d All of the above would give the same depth in penetration.
3 What constituent is needed in a coating of an electrode to prevent the formation of porosity when weld
a Iron powder.
b Potassium silicate.
c Silicon
d Calcium carbonate.
4 Cellulose electrodes are often used for the deposition of a root pass on pipes welded in the field. This is
a Hydrogen control is required.
b The high deposition rate due to the iron powder content.
c The hydrogen gas produced in the flux increases the arc voltage.
d All of the above.
5 Which of the following additions may be added to an electrodes flux to act as a stabilizer?
a Sodium silicate
b Silicon
c Manganese
d Titanium dioxide.
6 Basic coated electrodes have which of the following properties.
a High mechanical properties may be used to produce welds of high deposition rates and to produce w
b Friable slag, high mechanical strength, and to produce welds of a low hydrogen content.
c Low hydrogen content welds, good stop/start properties and high strength.
d Low carbon content welds, friable slag and high strength.
7 Cellulose electrodes have which of the following properties?
a Viscous slag, large volumes of shielding gas and UTS values above 90,000 psi.
b Large volumes of shielding gas, high spatter contents and hydrogen levels < 15 ml per 100g of weld
c Large volumes of shielding gas, hydrogen contents > 15 ml per 100g of weld metal deposited and sh
d High spatter contents, high deposition and large volumes of gas shield.
8 Which of the following is applicable to electrode efficiency?
a The mass of metal deposited as a percentage of the mass of core wire melted.
b Iron powder electrodes have efficiencies above 100%.
c Electrodes of high efficiencies tend to produce welds of a smooth flat profile.
d Both a and b.
9 E6013 electrode would most probably used for welding:
a Low pressure pipework.
b High-pressure pipework.
c Vertical down welding on storage tanks.
d In a situation where low hydrogen welds are specified.
10 An MMA electrode classified as E7018 is:

a
a
a
a

b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b
a

a A basic low hydrogen electrode containing iron powder.

b A rutile electrode containing iron powder.
c A cellulose electrode suitable for welding in all positions.
d A basic electrode depositing weld metal with yield strength of a least 70,000 psi.
11 Which of the following statement maybe considered correct when dealing with agglomerated fluxes?
1 Easy addition of additive
2 Theyre less hygroscopic than other types
3 Flaky appearance
4 Need to bake, prior to their use
5 Less dust tendency
a Statements 1 & 4 are correct
b Answer 1 and 3 are correct
c Answer 4 and 5 are correct
d Statements 1, 2,4 and 5 are correct
12 A welding process where the welding plant controls the travel speed and the arc gap, but under consta
a A manual MAG process.
b A semi-automatic MAG process.
c A mechanised MIG process.
d A mechanised MAG process.
13 Which of the following additions to an electrode flux acts as a stabilizer?
a Sodium silicate.
b Silicon.
c Phosphorous.
d Sulphur.
14 Electrodes used in manual metal arc welding can be grouped into three main types, these are:
a Oxidising, basic and rutile.
b Cellulose, basic and acidic.
c Granular, rutile and basic.
d Rutile, basic and cellulose.
15 Which of the following electrodes is the most likely to contain the largest quantity of combustible orga
a Basic.
b Acidic.
c Rutile.
d Cellulose.
16 Basic electrode provided in a standard packaging:
a Should be baked as to manufactures recommendations prior to use.
b The baking conditions depend upon the welder.
c Are recommended for use where porosity free welds are required.
d Are only suitable for welding in the flat, vertical, and down hand positions.
17 Which of type of electrode is used for "stove-pipe" welding for overland pipelines construction?
a rutile
b cellulosic
c high recovery rutile
d all of the above
18 The three main types of MMA electrodes used for welding C & C-Mn steels are
a basic, cellulosic and rutile

a
a
a
c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
b
b

b neutral, cellulosic and rutile

c basic, cellulosic and neutral
d rutile, low hydrogen and basic
19 You notice that MMA electrodes, with the flux covering removed, are being used as filter rods for TIG
a it is wasteful
b the rod diameter be too large
c the weld metal composition may be wrong
d the rod is too short
20 The chemical composition of the weld metal deposited by a C-Mn steel MMA electrode is usually cont
a the core wire composition
b additions in the flux coating
c iron powder in the flux coating
d dilution from the base material
21 Silicon is added to steel, and the covering of MMA electrodes, in order to give
a deoxidation
b improve strength
c improve toughness
d more resistance to hydrogen cracking
22 When low hydrogen MMA electrodes are specified for what type of covering will they have?
a cellulosic
b rutile
c acid
d basic
23 A hydroen controlled MMA electrode can always be recognised by the
a EN code letter (or AWS code number)
b Electrode length
c Trade name
d Colour of the covering
24 Which type of submerged arc welding flux is susceptible to moisture pick-up?
a neutral
b agglomerated
c fused
d they are all about the same
25 Which of the following is a suitable shielding gas for FCAW of stainless steel?
a 100% Argon.
b 70% Argon + 30% Heli
c Argon + 5% Hydrogen
d Argon + 20% CO2
27 A suitable gas/gas mixture, for GMAW of aluminum is
a 100% Argon.
(in dip & spray transfer)
b 100% CO2.
c 80% argon + 20% CO2.
d 98% argon + 02% O2.
28 Which type of SAW flux is susceptible to breaking down into fine particles during circulation?
a neutral
b agglomerated

b
b
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d

c fused
d alloyed
29 What type of covering will an electrode have that is suitable for welding 6mm C-Mn steel and give goo
a rutile
b basic
c cellulosic
d choice will depend on welding position
30 Which the following AWS A5.1 electrodes has a rutile covering
a E6010
b E7016
c E7018
d E6013
31 When the MAG welding in dip transfer mode (short circuiting mode) spatter can be reduced by
a using inductance
b using 100% CO2
c using Ar + 30% He
d increasing the stick out length

as/gas mixtures would normally give the deepest penetration on steel?

rmation of porosity when welding rimming steel?

pes welded in the field. This is because?

ct as a stabilizer?

position rates and to produce welds of low hydrogen content.

w hydrogen content.

evels < 15 ml per 100g of weld metal deposited

of weld metal deposited and should be never baked.

70,000 psi.
g with agglomerated fluxes?

the arc gap, but under constant supervision using a shielding gas mixture of 80% argon 20% carbon dioxide is term

main types, these are:

t quantity of combustible organic compounds?

pipelines construction?

eels are

ing used as filter rods for TIG welding. This should not be allowed because

MMA electrode is usually controlled by

ring will they have?

es during circulation?

6mm C-Mn steel and give good weld metal toughness at -50oC

atter can be reduced by

n 20% carbon dioxide is termed:

c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b

b
b
b
b
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
b
b
b
b
c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b
c
c
c
c
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
c
c
c
c
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
c
c
c
c
a
a
a
a
c
c
c
c

1 Which of the following is applicable for none planar defects?

a They are always repaired.
b Their existence will result in the removal of the entire weld.
c They are not usually as significant as planar defects.
d They can only be detected using radiography.
2 Which of the following NDT methods can only detect surface breaking defects?
a MPI
b DPI.
c UT & RT
d Both a & b
3 Which of the following defects would show up as light indications on a radiograph?
a Slag inclusions and copper inclusion.
b Tungsten inclusions and excessive root penetration.
c
Cap undercut and root piping.
d Excessive cap height and incomplete root penetration
When considering radiography using X-ray, which of the following techniques is most likely to be used for a pipe
4 to pipe weld (circumferential seam), 610mm diameter with no internal access?
a SWSI.
b DWSI.
c DWDI.
d SWSI-panoramic.
5 On a radiograph, the most likely appearance of lack of root fusion on a single-V butt weld is:
a A dark straight line with a light root.
b A dark root with straight edges.
c A dark uneven line following the edge of the root
d None of the above lack of root fusion can not be seen on a radiograph.
6 Which of the following NDT methods would be the least effective on an austenitic stainless steel butt weld.
a UT.
b RT.
c DPI.
d MPI.
7 The usual method of assessing the sensitivity and density of a radiograph is by means of:
a Densitometer and dosimeter.
b Penetrameter and a densitometer.
c IQI and a dosimeter.
d IQI and a fluxmeter.
8 When considering the advantages of site radiography over ultrasonic inspection which of the following applies?
a A permanent record produced, good for detecting lack of sidewall fusion in a single U butt weld and defect identification.
b A permanent record produced, good for the detection of all surface and sub-surface defects and assessing the through thickness depths of defects.
c Permanent record produced, good for defect identification and not as reliant upon surface preparation.
d No controlled areas required on site, a permanent record produced and good for assessing pipe wall thickness reductions due to intern
9 Austenitic stainless steel can be identified by:
a Very shiny appearance.
b Lack of magnetic attraction.
c Its extreme hardness.
d None of the above
10 Ultrasonic testing is preferable to radiographic testing due to:
a Its ability to detect all defects.
b Lower amount of operator skill required.
c Its ability to detect laminations.
d Its ability to detect both sub-surface and surface defects in Austenitic stainless steel.
11 Generally the most suitable method of detecting lack of sidewall fusion on a single-V butt weld (30o to 35o bevel angles) would be:
a Ultrasonic testing.
b Radiographic testing
c Magnetic particle testing
d Both a and b.
12 Lamellar tearing has occurred in a steel fabrication BEFORE welding, which of the following test methods could have detected it?
a Radiographic testing.
b Ultrasonic testing.
c Magnetic particle testing.
d It could not be found by any testing method.
13 In X-ray radiography, if the kilo voltage is increase:
a The radiographic sensitivity will increase.
b The depth of penetration will reduce.
c The depth of penetration will increase.
d Kilo voltage has very little effect on penetration.
14 Which of the following steels is non-magnetic?
a 18%Cr, 8% Ni
b 2.25 Cr 1 Mo
c 9% Cr, 1 Mo
d 9% Ni
15 What determines the penetrating power of Gamma rays?
a time
b type of isotope
c source-to-film distance
d source strength
16 A penetrameter is used to measure
a the side of the discontinuity in a weld joint
b the density of a radiographic film
c the degree of film contrast
d the quality of the radiographic technique
17 Which of following would be classed as the most serious type of defect?
a a buried linear slag inclusion
b buried lack of inter-run fusion
c surface breaking lack of sidewall fusion
d surface porosity
18 Ultrasonic testing has an advantage over other NDT methods for the detection of
a lack of side wall fusion
b root undercut
c incomplete fillet groove
d root concavity
19 For Gamma radiography of a steel weld at THK35mm, the recommended isotope is
a Thulium 170
b Ytterbium 169
c Iridium 192
d Cobalt 60

1c

2b

3b

4b

5a

6d

7b

8c

9b

10c

11a

12d

13c

14a

15b

16d

17c

18a

19c

b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
c
c
c
c
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d

20 The sensitivity of radiograph is assessed

a by using a densitometer
b by using an image quality indicator (IQI)
c from the kVA used
d from stand-off used
21 Dye Penetrant testing (PT) is good for defects
a That is buried under the weld surface
b With surface opening
c On materials of porous charactistic
d All of the above
22 Surface defects on Austenic Stainless Steel is detectable with
a Magnetic Particale Testing (MT)
b Visual Inspection (VI)
c Hardness Testing (HT)
d Dye penetrant testing (PT)
23 Various methods of applying Magnetism to testing components are
a Flexible cable
b Prods
c AC and DC yoke
d All of the above
24 The instrument used to access the radiograph quality is
a Dosimeter
b Image Quality Indicator
c Densitometer
d Survey meter
25 The radioraphy technique where the image is ellipse and applied on pipe with diameter < 100 mm is
a DWDI.
b SWSI - paronamic
c DWSI
d SWSI
26 Which of the substance below is not an Isotope?
a Iridium 192
b Cobalt 60
c Cobalt 59
d All of the above
27 Ultrasonic testing is an advantage over radiographic testing due to
a It can detect lamination the the plate
b It good for detecting Internal Lack of sidewall fusion
c It can be used for thickness gauging
d All of the above
28 The different type of probes used for Ultrasonic testing are
a Compression and Shear probes
b Square probes
c Single crystal probes
d Twin crystal probes
29 Disadvantage of UT compare to RT is
a Need a smooth surface preparation
b Surface may contaminate due to excess couplant
c Can Identify Defect type
d a and b
30 Which is the following Isotope woud be the longest half-life?
a Iridium 192 (Ir)
b Ytterbium 169 (Yb)
c Cobalt 60 (Co)
d Caesium 137 (Cs)

20b

21b

22d

23d

24d

25a

26c

27d

28a

29d

30d

d
d
d
d
b
b
b
b

1 Which of the following welding processes/technique is likely to be used for the repair welding of loc
a MMA, PG position.
b Mechanised MAG.
c Submerged arc.
d None of the above.
2 Defects outside the permissible limits of the applicable specification should be:
a The decision is up to the welding inspector.
b Repaired.
c Always double checked using NDT.
d All of the above.

or the repair welding of localised porosity in a butt weld?

a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
c
c
c
c
d
d
d
d
c
c
c
c

1 Austenitic stainless steels are more susceptible to distortion when compared to ferritic steels this is beca
a High coefficient, low thermal conductivity.
b High coefficient, high thermal conductivity.
c Low coefficient, high thermal conductivity.
d Low coefficient, low thermal conductivity,
2 A multi-pass MMA butt weld made on carbon steel consists of 5 passes deposited using a 6mm diameter
a A lower heat input and a higher degree of grain refinement.
b A lower heat input and a coarse grain structure.
c A lower amount of distortion and a higher degree of grain refinement.
d A higher amount of distortion and a lower degree of grain refinement.
3 A balanced welding technique for example back step welding is most often used for:
a Controlling lamellar tearing.
b Increasing weld toughness.
c Reducing weld zone hardness.
d Reducing distortion.
4 Which of the following will influence the amount of distortion on a component during and after welding
a Heat input.
b Lack of restraint.
c Material properties.
d All of above
5 Which of the following procedures would be expected tp produce the least distortion in 15 straight butt
a TIG weld with single sided, multi passes
b MMA weld with single sided, multi passes
c MMA weld with double sided, multi passes
d SAW weld with 01 pass per side
6 In order to improve resistance to service failure caused by cyclic loading, it is good practice to
a use low heat input welding
b use steel with a low CEV
c ensure there are no features that give hight stress concentration
d All of above
7 When welding thin plate, distortion can be minimised by
a using back-step welding
b minimising weld volume
c using bridge tacks
d All of above
8 Distortion and Residual stress is the result of
a Alloying elements in the parent metal
b Flux covering if welded with SMAW process
c Expansion and Contraction due to welding heat
d Arc gap being too large during welding

ared to ferritic steels this is because:

deposited using a 6mm diameter electrode. A 12-pass weld made on the same joint deposited using a 4mm diameter ele

en used for:

ponent during and after welding?

st distortion in 15 straight butt weld?

, it is good practice to

ited using a 4mm diameter electrode on the same material will have:

c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
c
c
c
c
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b

1 What are the possible results of having a heat input to low?

a An increase in hardness, lower yield strength and lack of fusion.
b A reduction in toughness, hydrogen entrapment and an increase in hardness.
c Entrapped hydrogen, an increase in hardness and lack of fusion
d Entrapped hydrogen, a reduction in carbon content and lack of fusion.
2 The possible effects of having a travel speed too fast:
a Low toughness, slag inclusions and cap undercut.
b High hardness, slag inclusions and a narrow thin weld bead.
c High hardness, excessive deposition and cold laps
d Low toughness, poor fusion and slag inclusions.
3 Pre heat prior to the welding of a carbon steel butt weld:
a Must always be carried out.
b Is always carried out using a gas flame
c Need not be carried out if post weld heat treatment is to follow
d None of the above.
4 Which of the following are considerations for the selection of a preheat temperature:
a Carbon equivalent, joint design, welding process type and plate material quality.
b All Joints over 25 mm thick, hydrogen levels, welding process, carbon equivalent.
c Arc energy, material thickness, hydrogen scale and carbon equivalent.
d All of the above are considerations for the selection of a preheat temperature.
5 Welds made with high heat inputs show a reduction in one of the following properties?
a Ductility.
b Toughness.
c Elongation.
d Penetration.
6 The HAZ associated with a fusion weld:
a Can not be avoided.
b Usually has the highest tensile strength.
c Is usually martensitic.
d Both a and b.
7 What four criteria are necessary to produce hydrogen induced cold cracking?
a Hydrogen, moisture, martensitic grain structure and heat.
b Hydrogen, poor weld profiles, temperatures above 200oC and a slow cooling rate.
c Hydrogen, a grain structure susceptible to cracking, stress and a temperature below 200oC.
d Hydrogen, existing weld defects, stress and a grain structure susceptible to cracking.
8 A carbon equivalent (CE) of 0.5%:
a Is high for carbon manganese steel and may require a preheat over 100oC
b Is generally significant for carbon for manganese steels and is certainly not to be taken into considera
c Is high for carbon manganese steels and may require a preheat temperature over 300oC as to avoid c
d Is calculated from the heat input formula.
9 In a martensitic grain structure what would you expect to increase?
a Ductility.
b Hardness.
c Toughness.
d All of the above.
10 Which of the following heat treatments on steel cools down in air from the austenite region?

a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
d
d
d
d
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
d

a Normalising.
b Annealing.
c Tempering.
d Stress relieving.
11 Assuming that the welding process, material thickness, carbon equivalent and the welding parameter
a Edge joint.
b Lap joint.
c Butt joint (single-V).
d Tee joint (fillet welded).
12 Which of the following will most likely require the preheat temperature to be increased?
a An Increase in travel speed.
b A reduction in material thickness
c An increase in electrode diameter.
d None of the above.
13 Which of the following properties may be applicable to a carbon steel weld (CE 0.48) welded without
a Narrow heat affected zone and hardness value in excess of 400 HV.
b Broad heat affected zone and hardness values in excess of 400 HV.
c
A very tough and narrow heat affected zone.
d Narrow heat affected zone and low hardness values.
14 Which of the following test pieces taken from a charpy test on a carbon-manganese steel weld, welded
a Test piece taken from parent metal.
b Test piece taken from weld metal.
c Test piece taken from HAZ.
d All of the above values will be the same.
15 Which of the following are reasons for applying preheat?
a The removal of residual stress.
b To aid slow cooling and reduce the carbon content.
c To reduce the chance of a brittle grain structure and to reduce the chance of hydrogen entrapment.
d Increase the ultimate tensile strength values and increase overall weldability.
16 Which of the following applies to the heat treatment process of tempering
a It is always carried out at a temperature above upper critical limit.
b It is carried out to increase the strength and toughness of weldments.
c Tempering is generally carried out before quench hardening.
d None of the above
17 Welding a steel plate with a CE of 0.45 would require preheating to?
a Prevent the formation of sulphides.
b Prevent hardening in the HAZ.
c Prevent the formation of carbides.
d To reduce the amount of current required.
18 What is the effect of tempering after quenching?
a Toughness and strength are increased.
b Toughness and strength are reduced.
c Toughness reduced and strength increased
d Toughness increased and strength reduced
e Toughness increased and hardness increased
19 The toughness and yield strength of steel is reduced by:

b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
b
b
b
b
a
a
a
a
d

a Reducing the grain size

b Increasing the heat input.
c Reducing the heat input.
d Both a and b.
20 What is the possible effect of having the heat input too low during welding?
a Low toughness, entrapped hydrogen and low hardness.
b High hardness, lack of fusion and entrapped hydrogen.
c Entrapped hydrogen, low toughness and high ductility.
d Lack of fusion, low toughness and a reduction in ductility.
21 Increasing the carbon content of a steel will:
a Increase the hardness and toughness
b Decrease the hardness and toughness
c Increase hardness, decrease toughness
d Decrease hardness, increase toughness
22 Which of the following is applicable for the HAZ on a C/Mn steel weld if the heat input increases:
a Both hardness and width is increased.
b Hardness decreases, width increases.
c Both hardness and width decreases.
d Hardness increases, width decreases.
23 What is the main reason for the application of pre-heat
a To change the chemical composition of the weld and parent material.
b The control the hydrogen and prevent cracking.
c To remove residual stresses.
d Both b and c
24 What is the effect of full annealing compared to normalizing?
a A reduction in grain size.
b An increase in grain size.
c An increase in toughness
d The grain size will not be affected.
25 Which of the following is applicable to the heat treatment process of normalising carbon-manganese s
a It is always carried out below the lower critical limit.
b It is carried out to ensure the material has maximum tensile strength.
c It is carried out to ensure the material is of maximum ductility and malleability in preparation for ext
d It is carried out at approximately 910oC for the purpose of grain refinement
26 The heat affected zone of a carbon steel fusion weld
a Usually has the highest tensile strength and highest toughness values
b Usually has the lowest toughness values and cannot be avoided
c Is usually gamma iron phase and cannot be avoided
d All of the above.
27 Which of the following is applicable if the heat input is too high during the deposition of a weld made
a Low toughness.
b High susceptibility to hydrogen entrapment.
c High hardness.
d High susceptibility to lack of fusion.
28 The heat affected zone associated with a fusion weld:
a Usually has the highest tensile strength.

d
d
d
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
c
c
c
c
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
b
b

b Always exists in a fusion-welded joint.

c Is usually the area of a welded joint that is the most susceptible to HICC?
d All of the above.
29 The purpose of normalising steel:
a To modify the grain structure by making it more uniform in order to improve mechanical properties.
b To soften a material for extensive machining.
c To reduce fracture toughness.
d To reduce ductility.
30 The need for pre-heat for steel will increase if:
a The material thickness reduces.
b Faster welding speeds
c The use of a larger welding electrode
d All of the above.
31 Preheating for arc welding applies to:
a Assembly and tack welding only.
b Joint over 25 mm thick only.
c When using the MMA welding process only.
d Both a and b.
32 A large grain size, in the HAZ of a C-Mn steel weld joint, may have
a low ductility
b low toughness
c hight toughness
d hight tensile strength
33 The property of a material that has the greatest influence on welding distortion is the
a yield strength
b co-efficient of thermal expansion
c elastic modulus
d co-efficient of electrical conductivity
34 Pre-heat a low alloy steel prior to welding is done to minimise the risk of
a porosity
b excessive distortion
c HAZ cracking
d lack of fusion
35 Typical temperature used for normalising a C-Mn steel plate are
a 600 - 650oC
b 1000 - 1100oC
c 700 - 800oC
d 880 - 920oC
36 For MMA welding of a 60mm wall nozzle to a 100mm wall vessel shell, pre-heat temperature should b
a before welding starts/re-starts
b on the shell and the nozzle
c at point at least 75mm from the joint edge
d all of the above
37 The maximum hardness in the HAZ of a steel will increase if the
a heat input is increased
b CEV is increased

b
b
b
b
b
b
a
a
a
a
c
c
c
c
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b

c joint thickness is decreased

d all of the above
38 Which is following would be considered to be high Heat input welding?
a 550 J/mm
b 55 J/mm
c 5.5 J/mm
d 5.0 KJ/mm
39 Pre-heating a steel plate with a carbon equivalent value (CEV) of 0.48 may be required in order to
a drive out moisture from the plate
b prevent excessive hardning in the HAZ
c Prevent the formation of carbides.
d improve the mechamical properties of the weld metal
40 Exceeding the maximum inter-pass temperature specified for a C-Mn steel weld joint, may give
a excessive porosity
b burn through
c lower toughness
d all of the above
41 The highest and lowest heat input position are considered to be
a PB highest; PA lowest
b PE highest; PC lowest
c PD highest; PB lowest
d PF highest; PG lowest
42 During PWHT of a complex fabrication, it is heated to the soak temperature at a much higher rate th
a cause excessive oxidation
b not allow sufficient time to relieve stresses
c introduce excessive compressive stresses
d cause distortion
43 The HAZ of the welded joint is the most critical area. This is because
a It has undergone microstructure change
b No change takes place due to the welding heat
c It is the last area to solidified
d The hottest area in the weld zone
44 When the HAZ is wider then specified by the WPS, this shows that the welding done is ..
a High heat input
b small electrode size
c weld travel speed to low
d a and c
45 The 03 main factors to be considerred and monitored during conducting any heat treatment process a
a material thickness, method of applying heat and temperature
b Heat rate, Temperature and Soaking time, Cooling rate
c Material thickness, soaking time and temperature
d None of the above

emperature:
rial quality.
n equivalent.

ng properties?

cooling rate.
erature below 200oC.
ble to cracking.

ly not to be taken into consideration for preheat temperatures.

rature over 300oC as to avoid cracking

he austenite region?

nt and the welding parameters to be the same, which of the following joint types would normally require the highest p

to be increased?

eld (CE 0.48) welded without preheat?

manganese steel weld, welded with a high heat input is most likely to have the lowest toughness?

nce of hydrogen entrapment.

f the heat input increases:

malising carbon-manganese steel?

alleability in preparation for extensive cold working operations.

he deposition of a weld made using the MMA welding process?

mprove mechanical properties.

tortion is the

pre-heat temperature should be check.

ay be required in order to

eel weld joint, may give

ture at a much higher rate than specified by the procedure. This may

welding done is ..

g any heat treatment process are ..

normally require the highest preheat temperature.

d
d
d
d

1 It is a requirement to excavate a crack in a low carbon steel welded component; the defect is at least
a Arc air, ground finish and check with DPI
b Thermal gouging, ground finish and check with MPI.
c Oxy-gas cutting, ground finish and checked with crack detection.
d Both a and b.

ponent; the defect is at least 25 mm in depth, which of the following would you expect to be done to remove the defect

o be done to remove the defect?

c
c
c
c
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a

1 When considering thermal cutting local hardening can be reduced by:

a Increasing the cutting speed.
b The use of propane as a fuel gas.
c Pre heating the material to be cut.
d All of the above.
2 The main usage of the arc air process is:
a The cutting of a weld preparation.
b The removal of defective welds.
c For the cutting of non-ferrous materials only.
d For the cutting of ferrous materials only.
3 Which of the following flame types would you expect to be used for the cutting of mild steel?
a Carburising flame.
b Oxidising flame.
c Reducing flame.
d Neutral flame.
4 Which of the following cutting methods is suitable for cutting stainless steel?
a plasma
b oxy-acetylene
c oxy-propane
d All of the above.

cutting of mild steel?

d
d
d
d
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d

1 An undesirable property of aluminium oxide residue, when welding is that it:

a Decrease welds pool fluidity.
b Requires more heat to melt it when compared to aluminium.
c Causes the welder to travel to quickly.
d The presence of the oxide makes aluminium impossible to weld.
2 When considering hydrogen, which of the following welding process would produce the lowest levels
a MMA.
b SAW.
c TIG.
d FCAW.
3 In steel the element with the greatest effect on hardness is:
a Chromium.
b Manganese.
c Carbon.
d Nickel.
4 Hydrogen cracking in HAZ is most likely to occur when welding:
a Carbon manganese steels.
b Austenitic stainless steel.
c Micro alloyed steel (HSLA).
d Low carbon steel.
5 Which of the following elements, which may be added to steel, has the greatest affect on creep strengt
a Tungsten.
b Manganese.
c Carbon.
d Molybdenum.
6 Which of the following materials is considered to be the easiest to weld?
a Mild steel.
b Medium carbon steels.
c Martensitic stainless steel
d Forging steel.
7 In the welding of austenitic stainless steels, the electrode and plate materials are often specified to be
a To prevent the formation of cracks in the HAZ.
b To prevent the formation of chromium carbides
c To prevent cracking in the weld.
d Minimise distortion.
8 Hot cracking in steel weldments occurs:
a Along the fusion line.
b In the last metal to solidify.
c Weld centre line
d In areas of the lowest dilution.
9 Which element in steel if present in significant amounts may lead to hot shortness?
a Phosphorus.
b Manganese.
c Silicon.
d Sulphur.
10 Which of the following is most likely to increase the chance of solidification cracking?

b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
b
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
c
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
b

a Reduction in sulphur content of the parent material

b Increased restraint on the joint during welding.
c Increase in weld hydrogen content from 15 ml/100 g to 25 m/l100 g.
d Both a and b.
11 Which of the following elements if present in significant quantities in steel may lead to cold shortness
a Sulphur.
b Phosphorous
c Manganese.
d Silicon
12 Which of the following materials are the most susceptible to HICC in the weld zone
a Carbon Manganese steel
b Micro alloyed steel (HSLA).
c Austenitic steel
d Both a and b
13 What four criteria are necessary to produce hydrogen induced cold cracking?
a Hydrogen, moisture, martensitic grain structure and heat.
b Hydrogen, poor weld profiles, temperatures above 200oC and a slow cooling rate.
c Hydrogen, a grain structure susceptible to cracking, stress and a temperature below 200oC.
d Hydrogen, existing weld defects, stress and a grain structure susceptible to cracking.
14 A typical temperature range for baking low hydrogen electrodes is
a 150 to 200oC
b 200 to 250oC
c 300 to 350oC
d 350 to 450oC
15 The risk of hydrogen cracking is higher when MMA welding of
a C-Mn steels
b austenitic stainless steels
c low alloy steels for elevated temperature service
d low carbon steel for cryogenic service
16 The presence of iron sulphides in the weld bead may cause
a Solidification cracking
b hydrogen cracking
c lamellar tearing
d weld decay
17 Which of the following is associated with SAW more often than it is with MMA weld is?
a Hydrogen cracking in the HAZ
b Solidification cracking in the weld metal
c re-heat cracking during PWHT
d lamellar tearing
18 The crack running along the centerline of a weld bead could be caused by
a use of damp flux
b lack of pre-heat
c arc voltage being too high
d weld bead being too deep and very narrow
19 The use of low carbon austenitic stainless steel and stabilised stainless steel will minimise the risk of
a HAZ cracking

b
b
b
b
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d

b weld decay
c weld metal cracking
d distortion
20 Carbon equivalent value (CEV) are used to determine the how to avoid the risk of
a Solidification cracking
b hydrogen cracking
c lamellar tearing
d weld decay
21 With reference to the various grades of stainless steel, which of the following statements is true?
a they are all non-magnetic
b they all require 100%Ar for GMAW
c they all have very high thermal conductivity
d only certain grades can be used for service at very low temperature
22 Cold or Delay cracking is
a Type of cracking due to mainly of Hydrogen
b Lack of fusion between weld metal and parent metal
c Type of cracking happened both in weld and parent metal
d Both b and c
23 Residual element such as Sulphur would give high possibility of
a Hydrogen Induced Cold Cracking
b Solodification or Hot cracking
c Inter crystalline crossion
d Fatique cracking
24 Chromium molybdenum steels for high temperature service typically have their carbon contents belo
a Vanadium
b Selenium
c Sulphur
d Nickel
25 Which is following could be used to prevent intercrystalline corrosion in Austenitic Stainless Steel?
a Vanadium
b Selenium
c Sulphur
d Niobium

uld produce the lowest levels in the completed weld (under controlled conditions)

reatest affect on creep strength?

rials are often specified to be low carbon content. The reason for this:

shortness?

ion cracking?

el may lead to cold shortness?

e weld zone

cooling rate.
erature below 200oC.
ble to cracking.

MMA weld is?

eel will minimise the risk of

the risk of

wing statements is true?

ave their carbon contents below 2% What other element is added to the steel to creat a stable at elevated temperatures

Austenitic Stainless Steel?

able at elevated temperatures?