ECA Prelims 2015 Test Series - Exam Report

ECA Prelims 2015 Test series | Exam Report
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Exam Details
Exam Name
POLITY-PART I (GS-01)
Total Questions
100
Exam Date
2014-12-16 15:56:27
IP Address
115.241.79.35
Time Spent
00:51:11 (hh:mm:ss)
Score
89.56
Rank
4/129
Section Analyse
ALL Q/A
1)
Consider the following statements with regard to constituent Assembly of INDIA?
A] The constituent assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the cabinet mission plan.
B] The constituent assembly had representation from both provinces & princely states.
C] The constituent assembly was partly elected & partly nominated body.
D] The constituent assembly had all important personalities of INDIA at that time, including Mahatma Gandhi & M.A.
Jinnah.
Which of the statements given above is/are not incorrect ?
A , B & D only
A, B & C only
A & B only
All of the above
Your Answer : A, B & C only

Correct Answer : A, B & C only
Solution:
Constituent assembly - constituted in 1946 under cabinet mission plan.
Had representation from Both Princely states & provinces
Partly elected + partly nomination
Mahatma Gandhi & M.A. Jinnah were not part of constituent assembly
2)
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Consider the following with regard to committees of the constituent assembly

A) Union powers committee
B) Union Constitution committee
C) States committee (Committee for negotiating with states)
Which of the above committees is /are not headed by Jawaharlal Nehru?
C only
A only
B only
None of the above
Your Answer : C only

Correct Answer : None of the above
Solution:
constituent assembly - had 8 major committee. Union powers , union constitution & states committee - all headed by Jawaharlal Nehru.
-Provincial constitution committee Sardar Patel
-Drafting committee on fundamental rights & minorities Sardar Patel.
-Rules of Procedure committee & steering committee.
3)
Consider the following statements with regard to drafting committee of constituent assembly
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the chairman of the drafting committee.
B) Nehru & Vallabhbhai Patel were members of drafting committee.
C) Among all committee of constituent assembly , its considered to be the most important committee.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
A only
A & B only
A & C only
All of the above
Your Answer : All of the above

Correct Answer : A & C only
Solution:
drafting committee is the most important committee in constituent assembly.
7 members Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (Chairman)
N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar
Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
Dr.K.M.Munishi
Syed Mohamed Soadullah
N. Madhava rau (Replaced by B.L.Mitter)
T.T. /krishnamachari (replaced by D.P.Khaitan).
4)
Consider the following
A) Lengthiest written constitution
B) Blend of rigidity & flexibility
C) Drawn from various sources
D) Federal system with more powers to the states
Which of the following is/are salient features of Indian constitution.
A, B & C only
A & C only
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A , C & D only
All of the above
Your Answer : A, B & C only

Solution:
federal system with unitary bias is a features of Indian constitution. Residuary powers lies in the Hands of central government . Hence they
enjoy more powers than the states.
Remaining options are correct.
5) The fundamental rights provided the constitution of India are meant for promoting idea of
economic democracy
Social democracy
Political democracy
All of the above
Your Answer : Political democracy

Correct Answer : Political democracy
Solution:
The fundamental rights provided in the Indian constitution are meant for promoting Idea of Political democracy.
6)
Consider the following Articles of Indian constitution
A) Article 15
B) Article 16
C) Article 30
D) Article 28
Which of the above provisions of the constitution does not reveal the secular character of the Indian state
A & B only
A only
D only
None of the above
Your Answer : D only

Solution:
Art 15 - State shallnt discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion
Art 16 - Equality of oppourtunity for all citizens in matters of public employement.
Art 30 - all minorities have rights to establish educational institution of their choice.
Art 28- No religions instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the state.
7)
Consider the following with respect to the parts in Indian constitution
A) Part 11- deals with The scheduled & Tribal areas.
B) Part 14-A Deals with Tribunals.
c) Part 18 deals with Amendment to the constitution
D) Part 20 deals with emergency provisions
Which of the following is/are correctly matched.
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A & B only
B only
A & D only
None of the above
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B only
Solution:
Part 11 - Relation between union & states
Part 14-A- Tribunals
Part 18 - emergency provisions
Part 20 - Amendment to the constitution
8) Adjudication of relating to waters of Inter-State river (or) river valleys provisions are contained in
Article 263
Article 261
Article 262
Article 260
Your Answer : Article 262

Correct Answer : Article 262
Solution:
Article 262 - adjudication of disputes relating waters of inter state river (or) river valleys.
9)
Consider the following with regard to schedules of the constitution of INDIA
A) Second schedule Forms of oaths & affirmations
B) Fourth schedule - Provisions relating to administration & control of scheduled areas & scheduled Tribes.
C) Tenth schedule - Anti-defection law
D) Seventh schedule - language recognized by the constitution.
Which of the above is/ are correctly matched ?
A , B & C only
B & C only
C only
A, B & D only

Correct Answer : C only
Solution:
second schedule - Provisions relating to emoluments allowances & privileges of certain categories of persons.
Fourth schedule Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha to the states and union.
Tenth schedule Anti-defection law.
10)
Consider the following statements
A) India has Indirect form of democracy also known as representative democracy.
B) Referendum , Initiative , recall & plebiscite are devices of direct democracy.
C) Direct democracy is better form of democracy , compared to Indirect democracy.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
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A & B only
B & C only
C only
B only

Solution:
Democracy - Direct + Indirect.
Switzerland - Direct
India - Indirect (or) Representative.
Device of Direct
Democracy - Referendum , Initiative , Recall, Plebiscite
No proof to say direct democracy is better than indirect democracy.
11)
Consider the following with respect to the means by the each of the princely states were integrated with Indian Union.
A) Hyderabad - Instrument of Accession
B) Junagarh - Police Action
C) Kashmir - Referendum.
Which of the above is/are correct ?
C only
B only
A & B only
None of the above
Your Answer : None of the above

Solution:
Hyderabad - police action
Junagarh - Referendum
Kashmir - Instrument of Accession.
12)
A) Gujarat
B)Sikkim
C)Nagaland
D)Mizoram
E) Uttarakhand
Select the correct chronological order in which the above mentioned states have been created.
A-C-D-B-E
A-D-C-B-E
A-C-B-D-E
A-B-C-D-E
Your Answer : A-C-B-D-E

Correct Answer : A-C-B-D-E
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Solution:
Gujrat - 1960
Nagaland - 1963
Sikkim - 1975(36th const. amendment act)
Mizoram - 1987
Uttarakhand - 2000
13)
A) In India only citizens by birth & not naturalized citizen is eligible to contest for the office of President.
B) In USA both a citizen by birth as well as Naturalized citizen are eligible to contest for the office of the President.
Choose the incorrect answer the statements given above
A only
B only
Both A & B
Neither A nor B
Your Answer : Both A & B

Correct Answer : Both A & B
Solution:
India - Natural + Naturalized [eligible]
USA - only natural (By birth)
14)
A) Indian constitution provides for only single citizenship.
B) The Federal states like USA, Switzerland & Canada provides for dual citizenship (i.e) citizenship to central government & also to a
particular state of the Individual.
C) the freedom of movement & residence (under article 19) to an Indian citizen is subjected to protection of interest of any scheduled
Trible.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
A & C only
C only
B only
None of the above
Your Answer : A & C only

Solution:
India Single citizenship.
USA & Switzerland - Double citizenship.
Canada - single citizenship.
Freedom of movement (under article 19) - subject to protection of Interest of scheduled tribe.
15)
Consider the following statements with regard to features fundamental rights guaranteed in the constitution.
A) Fundamental rights are absolute
B) they are both negative & positive in character.
C)They are sacrosanct (or) permanent
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D) Their application to armed forces , paramilitary , policies forces & other analogous services can be restricted (or) abrogated by the
Parliament.
Which of the above statements is/ are True ?
B & D only
A & C only
A , B & D only
All of the above
Your Answer : B & D only

Correct Answer : B & D only
Solution:
fundamental rights - not absolute but qualified.
(ie.) state can improve reasonable restrictions.
-Both negative & positive
-Negative - place limitation on authority of the state
-Positive - conferring certain privileges on the citizen
-They are not Sacrosanct (Or) Permanent can be amended by the Parliament.
-Application to armed forces etc.. can be restricted (art. 33)
16)
The term Law in article 13 has been given wide connotation (or) meaning. Which of the given below is / are not included within
the connotation (or) meaning of law.
A) Permanent laws enacted by the parliament (or) state legislature.
B) Temporary laws like ordinances by the president (or) the state governors.
C) statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation like order, bye-law , rule, regulation (or) notification.
D) non-legislative sources of law, that is customs (or) usage having the force of law.
Select the correct answer from the options given below
B , C& D only
C & D only
D only
None of the above

Solution:
All the 4 are included within the connotation of the term Law under article.B.
17) Which of the following is not a fundamental right available only to citizens & not to foreigners.
Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (article 16)
Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
Prohibition of discrimination on the ground of religion , race, caste , sex (or) place of British (Article 15)
Right of minorities to establish & administer educational Institutions.(Art .30)
Your Answer : Right of minorities to establish & administer educational Institutions.(Art .30)
Correct Answer : Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
Solution:
Protection in respect of conviction for offences (article 20) is available for both citizen & foreigners.
Remaining art.16 , 15 & 30 are available only to citizen.
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18)
Which of the following is/are provisions of article 20 of the constitution aimed at giving protection in respect of
conviction for offences
A) No ex-post facto law
B) No Double jeopardy
C) No self incrimination
D) Quo warranto
Select the correct answers from the options given below
A & B only
B & C only
A , B & C only
All of the above
Your Answer : A , B & C only

Correct Answer : A , B & C only
Solution:
Article 20 -Three provisions
1)No ex-post facto law - No retrospective effect [violation of law in force at present]
2)No double Jeopardy - cant be punished (or) prosecuted mote than once for the same punishment.
3)No-self incrimination - Accused person shall not be compelled to be a witness against himself.
19)
Which of the following right is / are not conferred to a person by art.22 of the constitution
A) Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest
B) Right to consult & be defended by a legal practitioner.
C) Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours excluding journey time.
D) Right to be released after 24 hours unless the magistrate authorizes further detention.
Select the correct answer from the option given below?
D only
C& D only
B only
None of the above

Solution:
All the four rights are conferred to a person by art.22 of the constitution.
20)
Consider the following statements.
A) Art.32 of the constitution empowers supreme court & high court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
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B) Parliament can empower any other court to issue writs of any kind.
C) The high court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights where as supreme court can issue writs for other
matters as well apart from enforcement of fundamental rights.
A & B only
A& C only
All of the above
None of the above
Your Answer : A& C only

Correct Answer : A& C only
Solution:
Article 32- empowers only supreme court
Article 226 - empowers High court
Parliament can empower any other court apart from H.C & supreme court.
High court writ jurisdiction is wider where as supreme court only for fundamental rights.
21)
A) The supreme court & high court can issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights under Article 32.
B) The Parliament under Article 226 can empower any other court to issue these writs.
C) The writs issued by supreme court & High court for enforcement of fundamental rights are generally in the nature of Habeas
corpus , mandamus . prohibition , certiorari & Quo-warranto
Which of the statements given above is/are True ?
A & C only
C only
B & C only
A, B & C

Solution:
Supreme court - writ under Article 32
High court - writ under Article 226.
Parliament under Article 32 can empower any other court to issue such writs.
Writs - Habeas corpus, mandamus , Prohibition , certiorari & Quo-warranto .
22)
Which of the following writs are correctly matched ?
A) Habeas corpus - to have the body of
B) Mandamus
- By what authority
C) Quo-warranto
we command
A only
A & C only
B & C only
All of the above
Your Answer : A only
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Correct Answer : A only

Solution:
Habeas corpus to have the body of
Mandamus we command
Quo warranto - by what authority
Prohibition to forbid
Certiorari to be certified (or) to be informed
23)
A) The writ of Prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court (or) tribunal to prevent the later from exceeding its jurisdiction.
B) The Writ of prohibition can be issued against Judicial , Quasi-Judicial & administrative authorities.
A only
B only
Both A & B
Neither A nor B
Your Answer : B only

Solution:
-Prohibition To forbid
-Issued by higher court to lower court (or) tribunal to prevent later from exceeding jurisdiction.
-Write of prohibition can be issued only against Judicial & Quasi Judicial authorities & not against administrative , legislative bodies & private
individuals.
24)
Consider the following differences between writ of prohibition & certiorari
A) Prohibition is only preventive , whereas , certiorari is both prevention & curative.
B)Certiorari can be issued against Judicial , Quasi-Judicial & Administrative authorities whereas Prohibition only against Judicial &
Quasi- Judicial authorities.
Which of the statements given above is are not incorrect ?
A only
B only
Both A & B
Neither A nor B
Your Answer : Neither A nor B

Correct Answer : Both A & B
Solution:
Prohibition preventive only against judicial & Quasi-Judicial authorities.
Certiorari Prevention & curative
Against judicial , Quasi-Judicial & Administrative authority by 1991, supreme court order.
25) Article 22 of the Indian constitution deals with

Prohibition of traffic in human being & forced labour
Protection against arrest & detention in certain cases
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Protection in respect of conviction for offences

None of the above
Your Answer : Protection against arrest & detention in certain cases

Correct Answer : Protection against arrest & detention in certain cases
Solution:
Prohibition of traffic article 23
Protection against arrest & detection article 22
Protection in respect of conviction for offences article 20.
26)
A) Directive principles of state policy (DPSP) is borrowed from Australian constitution.
B) Directive principles constitute a very comprehensive Economic, Social & Political programme.
C) Directive principles resemble the Instrument of Instructions enumerated in government of India act of 1935.
Which of the statements given above is/ are incorrect ?
A only
A & C only
C only
None of the above

Solution:
DPSP - Derived from Irish constitution. They constitute comprehensive Economic + social + political programme. They resemble instrument of
instruction enumerated in Government of India act 1935.
27) Which one of the following is not classified as socialist principle among the given directive principles of state policy
To make conditions for just & humane conditions for work & relief (Article 43)
To raise the level of nutrition & the standard of living of people & to improve public health (Article 47)
To promote equal justice & to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39A)
To Organize agriculture & animal husbanding on modern & scientific lines (Article 48)
Your Answer : To Organize agriculture & animal husbanding on modern & scientific lines (Article 48)
Correct Answer : To Organize agriculture & animal husbanding on modern & scientific lines (Article 48)
Solution:
DPSP -Socialistic + Gandhian + Liberal Intellectual.
To organize Agriculture & animal husbandry on modern & scientific lines - Liberal intellectual principle.
28)
A) Fundamental duties are borrowed from constitution of Ireland.
B) There was 10 fundamental duties when the constitution was adopted in 1949.
C) Fundamental duties are justiciable in Nature
A & B only
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A only
C only
None of the Above
Your Answer : None of the Above

Correct Answer : None of the Above
Solution:
Fundamental duties are inspired from constitution of erstwhile USSR.
Original constitution doesnt have provisions for fundamental duties. Added during 42nd cons. Amd. Act of 1976
They are non-justiciable in nature.
29) Which of the following is not a fundamental duty enumerated in the constitution of INDIA.
to value & preserve the rich heritage the countrys composite culture
Duty to pay taxes.
to safeguard public property & to abjure violence
to defend the country & render national service when called upon to do so.
Your Answer : Duty to pay taxes.

Correct Answer : Duty to pay taxes.
Solution:
Duty to pay Tax is not enlisted in fundamental duties of the constitution.
30)
Consider the following statements with respect to right to freedom contained in article 19 of the constitution.
A) Right to property was deleted by 42nd constitutional Amendment act.
B) The six rights in right to freedom are protected against only state action & not private individuals.
C) These rights are available both to citizens & foreigners.
Which of the statement given above is/are True ?
A & B only
A & C only
B only
All of the above

Solution:
Right to property removed through 44th constitutional amendment act 1978.
Provide protection only against state actions & not private individual.
Availability only to citizen & not to foreigners , companies or corporates.
31)
On which of the following grounds the state can impose reasonable restriction on the freedom of movement of Individuals.
A) in the interest of general public
B) Sovereignty & integrity of INDIA
C) Protection of interest of any scheduled tribe.
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B only
A & B only
A & C only
All of the above

Solution:
Restriction to freedom of movement can be done only on two grounds In the interest of general public
Protection of interest of any scheduled tribe.
Freedom of assembly restrictions
Sovereignty & integrity of INDIA
Maintenance of public order
Freedom of association restrictions
Sovereignty & integrity of INDIA
Public order & morality
32)
The union executive consists of
A) President
B) Vice President
C) Prime Minister
D) Union council of ministers
E) Attorney General
Select the correct answer from the option given below
A, C & D only
A, B, C & D only
C & D only
All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above
Solution:
Union executive comprises of President + Vice President + Prime minister + Union council of ministers +attorney general of India.
33)
The electoral college of the president comprises of
A) Elected members of both the houses of parliament.
B) Elected members of legislative assemblies & legislative council of the states.
C) Elected members of the legislative assemblies of the union territories of Delhi, Pondicherry & Chandigarh.
Which of the above is/are not correct ?
B only
A & C only
B & C only
None of the above
Your Answer : B & C only

Correct Answer : B & C only
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Solution:
Elected college comprises of
Elected members of both houses of parliament
Elected members of legislative assemblies of state.
Elected members of legislative assemblies of Delhi & Pondicherry in case of UTs.
34)
Consider the following with regard to qualification for election as president.
A) He /She should be citizen of India by birth.
B) He/She should have completed 30 years of age.
C) He/She should be qualified for election as a member of Parliament.
B only
A & C only
All of the above
None of the above

Solution:
Citizen of India [both natural + naturalized ]
Should have completed 35 years of age.
Should be qualified for election as a member of Lok Sabha.
Should not hold any office of profit.
35)
A) Person holding the office of election is eligible for re-election to that office in India.
B) An election to fill vacancy caused by expiration of the term of office of a president should be completed within 6 months after the
expiration of the term.
C) The election of a person as president can be challenged on the ground that the elected college was incomplete.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
C only
A &B only
B & C only
B only

Solution:
President can stand for reelection to the same office again.
Election to fill vacancy due to expiration of term of office of president should be held before such expiry.
Election of a person as president can not be challenged on the ground that the electoral college was in complete.
36) which of the following is not a legislative power enjoyed by the President of India ?
To summon (or) Prorogue the Parliament & dissolve the Lok Sabha.
Power to nominate members to Rajya Sabha
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Power to appoint Prime Minister & other ministers .

Power to decide on questions as to disqualification of members of Parliament in consultation with election commission.
Your Answer : Power to decide on questions as to disqualification of members of Parliament in consultation with election
commission.
Correct Answer : Power to appoint Prime Minister & other ministers .
Solution:
Power to appoint Prime minister & other minister is an executive power of the President & not legislative power.
37) The Indian President enjoys a variety of veto powers , which of the following is not enjoyed by him.
Absolute veto
Suspensive veto
Pocket veto
Qualified veto
Your Answer : Qualified veto

Correct Answer : Qualified veto
Solution:
Absolute veto - Withholding of assent to the Bill passed by the legislature
Suspensive veto - can be over ridden by legislative with ordinary majority.
Qualified veto - can be over ridden by legislature with Higher majority.
Pocket veto - taking no action on the bill passed by legislature.
Indian president doesnt enjoy Qualified Veto
38)
The president can proclaim emergency in the entire country (or) in any part of it on the grounds of
A) war
B) External aggression
C) Internal disturbance
D) Armed rebellion
Which of the given above is/are True ?
A, B & C only
A, B & D only
A, C & D only
All of the above

Correct Answer : A, B & D only
Solution:
National emergency can be declared by president to whole (or) any part of the on the grounds of
War
External aggression
Armed rebellion
Internal disturbance criteria was changed to Armed rebellion by 44th constitutional amendment act.
39)
Consider the following articles of Indian constitution & their subject matter
A) Article 62 procedure for implement of president.
B) Article 72 Council of ministers to Aid & Advice the president.
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C) Article 123 Power of the president to promulgate ordinance.

Which of the above is/are correctly matched ?
C only
A only
B & C only
A & C only

Solution:
Article 61 procedure for impeachment of president
Article 72 Powers of president to grant pardon
Article 123 Power of president to promulgate ordinance.
40)
A) The prime minister shall be appointed by the president & other ministers by the Prime minister.
B) The ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the prime minister.
C) The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha .
Which of the statement given above is/are not True ?
C only
B only
A & B only
All of the above
Your Answer : A & B only

Correct Answer : A & B only
Solution:
Ministers are appointed by president on the advice of prime minister
Minister shall hold office during pleasure of the president.
The council of ministers shall collectively responsible to Lok Sabha.
41) Which of the following emergency has so far not been declared by the president of India?
Financial emergency
National emergency
State emergency
none of the above
Your Answer : Financial emergency

Correct Answer : Financial emergency
Solution:
Financial emergency has not been declared, So for in INDIA.
42)
Consider the following statements with regard to veto powers of the President.
A) The President can ratify , reject (or) return an ordinary bill in case of both central & state legislation.
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B) With regard to money bill of central (or) state legislation the president can either ratify (or) return but cannot reject the bill.
C) With regard to constitutional amendment bill in case of central legislation the president can not either reject (or) return but is
bound to ratify the bill.
A & C only
A & B only
B only
B & C only

Solution:
Ordinary bill - President can ratify , reject & return both central & state legislation.
Money bill - President can ratify (or) reject but can not return.
Constitutional amendment bill - Bound to give his assent.
Cannot reject (or) return.
24th const. Amendment act made this mandatory.
43)
Consider the following with respect to ordinance making power of the President.
A) The ordinance making power is the most important executive power of the President.
B) The ordinance promulgated by the president ceases to operate on expiry of six months from the date of reassembly of parliament if
it takes no action on the ordinance.
C) An ordinance can be given retrospective effect.
A & B only
C only
B & C only
All of the above

Solution:
Ordinance making power - important legislative power.
Ordinance ceases to be operative after 6 weeks from the reassembly of parliament if they take no action.
Ordinance like any other legislation can be retrospective.
44)
A) Vice-President is elected by an electoral college comprising of only elected members of both the houses of parliament.
B) It also includes elected members of state legislative assemblies.
C) The election of vice president is held in accordance with system of proportional representation by means of single transferable
vote & the voting is by secret ballot.
Which of the statements given above is/are not true ?
C only
A only
B only
A & B only
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Solution:
Electoral college of Vice president - Both elected + nominated members of parliament.
No representation from state legislature.
Election system : Proportional representation + single transferable vote + secret ballot.
45)
A) A person who is not a member of either house of the parliament can be appointed as a minister.
B) A minister who is member of one house of parliament has the right to speak & vote in the other house of Parliament also.
A only
B only
Both A & B
Neither A nor B
Your Answer : Both A & B

Solution:
A person not a member of either house of parliament can be appointed as a minister , but with six months he should become a member (either
by election (or) nomination ) of either house of parliament.
A minister who is member of a particular house has the right to speak & participate in the proceeding of other house but can vote only in house
where he is a member.
46)
What are the qualification laid down by the constitution for the appointment of a person as Governor
A) He should be citizen of India.
B) He should have completed 30 years of age.
C) He shall not hold any office of Profit.
Which of the statements given above is/are true?
A & B only
A & C only
A only
All of the above

Solution:
Constitution has laid down only 2 conditions for appointment of a person as governor.
1) He should be a citizen of India.
2) Should have completed 35 years of age.
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In Addition following conventions are followed

1) He should be an outsider should not belong to the state where he is appointed.
2) While appointing Governor, the president required to consult chief minister of the state.
47)
Which of the following is / are not the powers enjoyed by the governor.
A) Emergency
B) Diplomatic
C) Financial
D) Judicial
E) Executive
Select the correct answer from the option given below?
A , B & C only
A & C only
A & B only
None of the above

Solution:
Powers enjoyed by Governor are 1.Executive
2. Legislative
3. Financial
4. Judicial
Governor Doesnt enjoy 1) diplomatic
2) Emergency
3) Military
48)
Under what conditions the governor can reserve the bill for the consideration of the president
A) When the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of state high court.
B) When the bill is apposed to the directive principles of state policy.
C) when the bill is against the larger interest of the country.
D) when the bill is Ultra vires , that is , against the provisions of the constitution.
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A only
A & D only
A, C & D only
All of the above
Your Answer : A, C & D only

Solution:
Governor can reserve the bill for consideration of the president under following conditions.
1) When position of state high court is endangered.
2) When its ultra vires, that is, against the provisions of the constitution.
3) Opposed to directive principles of state policy.
4) Of grave national importance.
49)
A) The constitution contains specific procedure for selection & appointed of chief ministers
B) A person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly, before he is appointed as chief minister.
C) A person who is not a member of state legislature can be appointed as chief minister for six months.
Which of the statements given above is/are not true?
A only
A & C only
A & B only
B only

Solution:
Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for selection of chief minister.
The Governor may appoint a person as the chief minister & then ask him to prove his majority.
A person who is not a member of state legislature can be appointed as chief minister for six months , with in which he should be
elected to the state legislature, failing which he ceases to be a chief minister.
50)
A) Governor allocates & reshuffle the portfolios among ministers.
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B) Chief Minister can ask a minister to resign or advise the governor to dismiss him in case of difference of option.
C) Art. 164 only says that the chief minister shall be appointed by the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/true?
B only
A & B only
C only
B & C only
Your Answer :
Solution:
Chief ministers allocates & reshuffles portfolios among ministers.
Rest of the statement B & C are true.
51)
Which of the following statements are true about the governor of a state ?
A) He holds office during the pleasure of the president
B) The executive power of the state is vested in him
C) The grounds for his removal are laid down in the constitution.
A & B only
A & C only
B & C only
All of the above

Solution:
The executive power of a state is vested in him.
He holds office during the pleasure of the president.
The grounds for his removal is not laid down in the constitution.
52) Which of the following constitutional amendment act provided for appointment of the same person as Governor for two (or) more
states ?
1st Amendment
7th Amendment
24th Amendment
42nd Amendment
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : 7th Amendment
Solution:
7th constitutional Amendment act provided for appointed of the same person as governor for two or more states.
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53)
Which of the following is/are not a federal feature of Indian constitution ?
A) All India Services
B) Supremacy of constitution
C) Bicameral legislature
D) Integrated judiciary
E) Single citizenship
Select the correct option from given below
A, B & E
A, D & E
A, C, D & E
A, C & D
Your Answer : A, D & E

Correct Answer : A, D & E
Solution:
Federal feature - Supremacy of constitution Bicameral legislature
Non federal features - all India services Integrate judiciary single citizenship.
54) The term cabinet is mentioned which of the following articles of the constitution ?
Article 123
Article 110
Article 352
Article 356

Solution:
The word cabinet is mentioned in art.352 by 44th constitutional amendment act.
55) Which of the following is not a feature of the Government of India act, 1935?
Bicameralism in Provinces
Provincial Autonomy
All India Federation
Diarchy at the centre as well as in Provinces
Your Answer : Bicameralism in Provinces

Correct Answer : Diarchy at the centre as well as in Provinces
Solution:
Features of Government of India act, 1935
All India federation (Provinces + Primary states)
Provincial autonomy
Diarchy at the centre
Bicameralism in Provinces.
56) The resolution for removing the vice-president can be moved in the
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Rajya Sabha alone

Lok Sabha alone
Either houses of parliament
Joint sitting of Parliament
Your Answer : Rajya Sabha alone

Correct Answer : Rajya Sabha alone
Solution:
The resolution for removing via President can be moved only in Rajya Sabha.
57)
Which of the following is/are not correctly matched ?
A) Article 155 Appointed of Governor
B) Article 213 Power of Governor to promulgate ordinances
C) Article 217 Appointed of district judges by Governor.
Select the correct answers from the options given below ?
A only
A & B only
B & C only
A, B & C

Solution:
Article 155 appointment of Governor
Article 213 ordinance making power
Article 217 Governor being consulted by the president in matter of the appointed of judges of high court.
58) The constitution says that the state council of ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. The words Pleasure
of the Governor in reality means
Pleasure of the chief minister

Pleasure of the President
Pleasure of legislative assembly
None of the above
Your Answer : Pleasure of legislative assembly

Correct Answer : Pleasure of legislative assembly
Solution:
As long as the council of ministers enjoy the confidence of the house (legislative assembly) they can continue to hold office.
59)
Which of the following articles of the constitution broadly govern the relationship between the chief minister & the Governor ?
A) Article 163
B) Article 164
C) Article 167
A & B only
A & C only
A only
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All of the above
Your Answer :
Solution:
Article 163 council of minister to aid & advice Governor (key role to chief minister)
Article 164 (Appointment of chief minister & other ministers by governor)
Article 167 - Duties of chief minister regarding furnishing of Information to governor & so on..
60)
Which of the following is/are correctly matched regarding features of Indian constitution borrowed from other countries .
A) Japanese constitution procedure for amendment of the constitution.
B) Canadian constitution Joint sitting of two houses of parliament.
C) U.S constitution
fundamental rights.
Choose the correct answer from options given below
A & C only
C only
B & C only
All of the above

Solution:
Procedure for Amendment of the constitution ? South Africa.
Joint sitting of two houses of Parliament ? Australia.
Fundamental rights united states.
61)
which of the following is/are not correctly matched ?
A) Part 9(A) the panchayats
B) Part 16 Provisions relating to SC, ST,OBC & Anglo Indians.
C) Part 5 union Government.
B & C only
A & B only
A & C only
C only
Your Answer :
Solution:
Part 9(A) the municipalities .
Part 16 Provisions relating to SC, ST, OBC & Anglo Indians.
Part 5 Union Governments.
62)
A) Article 370 is contained in part 21 of the constitution.
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B) Jammu & Kashmir is the only state in Indian union that enjoys special status.
C) Under instrument of accession signed between Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru & Maharaja Hari Singh the state (J&K) surrender only four
subjects (defence , external affairs , communications & Internal security) to the dominion of India.
A & B only
A only
B & C only
All of the above

Solution:
Article 370 is contained in part 21 of the constitution.
Jammu & Kashmir is the only state in Indian union that has separate constitution. Apart from Kashmir there are 10 other states that enjoy
special status.
Under instrument of Accession , the state of J&K surrendered 3 subjects (Defence , external affairs & communications) to the dominion of India.
63)
A) The name, area (or) boundary of state of Jammu & Kashmir can not be changed by the union without the consent of its state
legislature.
B) The Prevention detention laws made by the parliament are not applicable to the state of J&K.
C) the fundamental right of Right to property is still guaranteed in the state of Jammu & Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect ?
B & C only
C only
A & C only
All of the above

Solution:
The name, area & boundary of state of Jammu & Kashmir cannot be changed by the union without the consent of the state legislature . due to
special status enjoyed by it.
Laws of Prevention made by union are not applicable to the state. The power lies with state legislature
The fundamental right of right to property is still guaranteed in the state.
64)
Consider the following statements with regard to special status enjoyed by state of Jammu & Kashmir.
A) The high court of J&K can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights & not for any other purpose.
B) The directive principles of state policy (DPSP) & fundamental duties are applicable to the state.
C) The president can declare Financial emergency in relation to the state.
Which of the following statements is/are True ?
A only
B & C only
C only
A & C only
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Solution:
High court of J&K can issue writs only for enforcement of fundamental rights. High courts of other states can issue writs for other purpose as
well.
DPSP & fundamental duties are not applicable to the state of J&K.
The president cannot declare financial emergency to the state.
65)
Which of the following is /are correctly matched
A) Article 371-A
B) Article 371-C
C) Article 371-G
D) Article 371-H
- special provisions for Nagaland.

- special provisions for Manipur.
- special provisions for Mizoram.
- special provisions for Assam.
Select the correct option from below
A & B only
A, C & D only
A, B & C only
B,C & D only
Your Answer :
Solution:
371
371 A
371 B
371 C
371D
371 E
371 F
371 G
371 H
371 I
- Maharashtra & Gujrat

- Nagaland
- Assam
- Manipur
- Andra Pradesh
- Andra Pradesh
- Sikkim
-Mizoram
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Goa.
66)
Consider the following statement
A) The fifth schedule of the constitution deals with the administration & control of scheduled areas & scheduled tribes in states of
Assam , Meghalaya , Tripura & Mizoram.
B) The governor of the state is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area within the state.
C) The Governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of parliament (or) the state legislature does not apply to a scheduled
area or apply with specified modifications & exceptions.
A & C only
A & B only
C only
B & C only

Solution:
Schedule 5 Deals with Administration & control of scheduled areas & scheduled tribes in any state except Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura &
Mizoram.
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The President is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area in consultation with governor of the state.
The Governor is empowered to direct any particular act of parliament (or) the state legislature does not apply to a scheduled area (or) apply with
specified modifications & exceptions.
67)
A) Part 16 of the constitution deals with official language.
B) The constitution specifies the official language of different states.
C) Hindi written in Devanagiri script is the official language of the union.
Which of the statements given above is / are true ?
B & C only
A only
A & C only
C only

Solution:
Part 17 of the constitution deals with official language.
The constitution does not specify the official language of the state, but left it to the state legislature to adapt its official language.
Hindi written in Devanagiri script is the official language of the union.
68) Which of the following is not added to the Eighth schedule of the constitution by the 92nd Amendment act of 2003.
KonKani
Dongri
Maithili
Santhali
Your Answer : KonKani

Correct Answer : KonKani
Solution:
92nd Amendment act Bodo , Dongri , Maithili & santhali were added.
71st Amendment atc KonKani, Manipuri, Nepali were added.
21st Amendment act Sindhi was added.
69) Which of the following article provides safeguard for civil servants against any arbitrary dismissal from their posts.
Article 309
Article 310
Article 311
Article 312

Solution:
Article 311 provides the following safeguard
1. A civil servant cannot be dismissed (or) removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed.
2. A civil servant cannot be dismissed (or) removed (or) reduced in rank , except after an inquiry in which he has been informed of the charges
against him & given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of the charges.
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70) Which of the following is not an All-India service.

Indian Police service(IPS)
Indian Forest Service (IFS)
Indian Foreign Service (IFS)
Indian Administrative service (IAS)
Your Answer : Indian Foreign Service (IFS)

Correct Answer : Indian Foreign Service (IFS)
Solution:
At present there are 3 All India Services.
They are follows..
1)IPS
2)IAS
3)Indian Forest Service (IFS)
71)
A) The 44th constitutional Amendment act of 1978 added a new part 24-A to the constitution.
B) The part contains only two articles 323(A) dealing with Administrative Tribunals & 323(B) dealing with Tribunals for other matters.
A only
B only
Both A & B
Neither A nor B
Your Answer :
Solution:
42nd const. Amendment act 1976, added part 24-A to the constitution.
72)
Consider the following statements regarding central Administrative Tribunal.
A) The members of central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) are drawn only from judicial streams.
B) The CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the civil procedure code of 1908.
C) The members of defense forces , officers & servants of supreme court & the secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered
under the jurisdiction of CAT.
Which of the statements given above is /are True ?
B only
A & B only
B & C only
A, B & C
Your Answer :
Solution:
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CAT- members from Both Judiciary & administrative Streams.

Established in 1985
Not bound by civil procedure code.
Members of defense , officers & staffs of supreme court, secretarial staff of parliament are not covered under Jurisdiction of CAT.
73) The President can set up a National Commission for scheduled tribes according to the provisions in which Article of the
constitution.
Article 338
Article 338-A
Article 339
Article 340
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : Article 338-A
Solution:
Article 338(A) empower president to set up national Commission for scheduled tribes to investigate all matters relating to constitutional
safeguards for the ST & to report to him.
74)
A) No criminal proceedings can be stared against the President & the governors in respect of their personal acts nor can they be
arrested or imprisoned.
B) Ministers do not enjoy any immunity for their personal acts & can be sued for crimes as well as torts in the ordinary courts like
common citizen.
Which of the statements given above is/are not true ?
A only
B only
Both A & B
Neither A nor B

Correct Answer : Neither A nor B
Solution:
Both the statements are True.
75) Anti-Defection law was passed by

92nd Amendment act
91st Amendment act
90th Amendment act
93rd Amendment act
Your Answer : 92nd Amendment act

Correct Answer : 91st Amendment act
Solution:
Anti-Defection law 91st constitutional Amendment act.
76)
A person who is convicted for the offences under the prevention of insults to National honour act of 1971 is disqualified to contest in
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the elections to the parliament & state legislature for 6 years. Which one of the following is/are covered under the act.
A) offence of Insulting the National flag
B) Offence of Insulting the constitution of India
C) Offence of Preventing the singing of the National Anthem.
Select the correct option
A only
B & C only
A & C only
All of the above

Solution:
All the three are covered under Prevention of insults to National honour act of 1971.
77)
Consider the following statements with respect to fundamental duties enumerated in Indian constitution
A) Fundamental duties were added to Indian constitution by the recommendation of Swaran Singh committee.
B) Fundamental duties were added to the constitution by 44th constitutional Amendment act.
C) There are ten fundamental duties enumerated in Article 51 of the constitution.
A & B only
A only
B only
All of the above

Solution:
Swaran Singh committee recommended the addition of Fundamental duties into India constitution , Based on which the government added it by
42nd constitutional Amendment act of 1976.
There are 11 fundamental duties enumerated in Article 51A of the constitution.
78)
A) The federal structure of Indian Polity can be amended by a special majority of the parliament & also with the consent of Half of the
State legislature by a simple Majority.
B) In case of amendment to the federal structure of Indian Polity the states should give their consent within 6 months to the bill.
A only
B only
Both A & B
Neither A nor B

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Solution:
Statements A True.
Statement B is false because , there is no time limit for the states to give their consent.
79)
Which of the following is provided under Article 39 of Indian constitution
A) Right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens.
B) Prevention of contribution of wealth & means of Production.
C) Equal pay for equal work for Men & Women.
D) To promote equal justice & to provide free legal aid to the poor.
Choose the correct answer from options below
A & B only
A, C & D only
A, B & C only
All of the Above

Solution:
Except statement D all are provided by Article 39. Article 39(A) provides for equal justice & to provide free legal aid for the poor.
80)
A) Article 13 empowers the courts to declare laws of legislature & orders of executive as unconstitutional & illegal if they violate any
of the fundamental rights.
B) Originally , the constitution provides for seven fundamental rights , but the right to property was deleted by 42nd constitutional
Amendment act.
Which of the statements given above is / are true ?
A only
B only
Both A & B
Neither A nor B

Solution:
Statement A is true. However statement B wrong because 44th constitutional amendment act deleted right to property from
fundamental rights
81) Which of the following is not a fundamental right ?

Prohibition of traffic in human being & forced labour , that is beggar
Protection of interest of Minorities regarding language, Script & culture.
To promote Equal justice & to provide free legal aid to the Poor.
Protection of Life & liberty.
Your Answer : To promote Equal justice & to provide free legal aid to the Poor.
Correct Answer : To promote Equal justice & to provide free legal aid to the Poor.
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Solution:
Except statement 3 all are fundamental rights. Statement 3 is provided under Article 39(A) of DPSP.
82)
Consider the following with respect to discretionary power enjoyed by the President.
A) Appointment of Prime Minister when no party has clear cut majority in the Lok Sabha.
B) Dismissal of council of ministers when it cannot prove confidence of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the above statements is/are True ?
A only
B only
Both A & B only
Neither A nor B

Correct Answer : Both A & B only
Solution:
Both the statements A& B are true.
83) The word cabinet has been inserted in Article 352 of the constitution by
44th constitutional Amendment act
42nd constitutional Amendment act
7th constitutional Amendment act
73rd constitutional Amendment act
Your Answer : 44th constitutional Amendment act

Correct Answer : 44th constitutional Amendment act
Solution:
word cabinet was introduced into the constitution by 44th constitutional Amendment act in Article 352
84)
A bill passed by the state legislature which is reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President , the President can
A) Give his assent to the bill
B) Direct the Governor to return the bill (if not a money bill) for the reconsideration of state legislature.
C) Cannot withhold his assent to the bill.
Which of the above is/are not true ?
B & C only
B only
C only
None of the above

Solution:
Statement A & B are True. Statement C is wrong because the President can also withhold his assent to the bill when its passed by
the state legislature & reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President.
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85)
A) At present, Tobacco product companies can sponsor any sports events like IPL.
B) At present, it is mandatory for tobacco producing companies to print graphic warning pictures on both sides of cigarette packages.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct ?
A only
B only
Both A and B
Neither A nor B

Correct Answer : Both A and B
Solution:
Statement A Wrong Tobacco product companies cannot sponsor any sports and cultural events in India.
Statement B wrong Because it is mandatory for tobacco product companies to print graphical warning pictures on only one side in India
not on both sides as mandated by WHO framework convention on Tobacco control (FCTC).
86)
Consider the following statements with reference to Dengue fever
A) Dengue fever is a mosquito-borne bacterial infection
B) Dengue occurs mainly in temperature regions of the world.
C) Aedes Aegypti mosquito is responsible for spreading Dengue fever.
D) Recently Indian scientists development vaccine (CYD-TDV vaccine) against dengue fever
Which of the above statement(s) is/are wrong?
A and C only
B only
A, B & C only
A, B only

Correct Answer : A, B only
Solution:
Statement A- wrong Dengue fever is a mosquito borne viral infection caused by Dengue virus (DEN 1,2,3&4 subtypes )
Statement B Wrong- Dengue fever is mostly present in tropical and sub-tropical regions. Because it is a mosquito borne disease.
Mosquitos is commonly present in tropical and sub-tropical region
Statement C- Correct (Aedes is responsible for spreading dengue fever)
Statement D Correct (not yet licensed. But under phase 1 of clinical trial stage)
87)
Recently Physics Noble Prize 2014 was awarded for the invention of Blue LED. In this background, consider the following statements
with reference to LED & LCD Televisions.
A. LED TV consumes more power but provides a brighter display with better contrast when compared to LCD TV.
B .LED TV provides lesser heater dissipation than conventional LCD TV
Which of the above statements (s) is/are correct ?
A only
B only
Both A and B
Neither A nor B
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Solution:
Statement A- wrong LED TV provides better contrast . brighter display and also consume less power.
Statement B- Correct- LED provides lesser heater dissipation than conventional LED.
88)
Consider the following statements with reference to Model code of conduct.
A) If Bye-Election to a particular constituency is announced , Model code of conduct become applicable to the entire district in which
the constituency falls.
B) Central government can transfer civil servants without prior permission of election commission , when model code conduct is in
operation
C) Ministers cannot announce new schemes / grants when Model code of conduct is in operation.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true ?
A & B only
B & C only
C only
A & C only

Solution:
Statement A- Correct If by election is announced to a particular constituency , Model code of conduct will be in force for the entire district ,
if a constituency falls in more than one district . MCC will be become operational in all those district.
Statement B wrong central government cannot transfer an official where MCC is in operational
Statement C- correct ministers cannot announce new schemes / grants.
89)
Recently cyclone Hudhud hit Andhra Pradesh. In this background consider the following statements
A)Cyclones rotate clock-wise in Northern Hemisphere
B)Center of the cyclone has high pressure when compared to the periphery of a cyclone.
C)Cyclones are unique to earth. The other planets of our solar system do not experience cyclonic storms.
Which of the above statement(s) is/ are not incorrect ?
A only
B only
C only
None of the above

Solution:
Statement A- Wrong Cyclones rotate anti-clockwise in northern hemisphere & clockwise in southern hemisphere
Statement B wrong Cyclones have low pressure at the center.
Statement C- wrong- cyclones are not unique to earth cyclonic storms are common on Jovian planets (gas giants)
Jovian planets Jupiter , Saturn , Uranus & Neptune.
90)
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Teesta river water dispute is coming in the news frequently , in the background consider the following statements with reference to
Teesta river
A) Teesta river is considered as lifeline of west Bengal.
B) Teesta river originates in Tibet and flows through Sikkim & West Bengal.
C. Teesta river joins Ganga as a tributary in Bangladesh.
Which of the above statement(s) is /are wrong ?
A & B only
C only
B only
All of the Above

Correct Answer : All of the Above
Solution:
Statement A- wrong Teesta river is considered as life line of Sikkim. Because it flows through entire length of Sikkim. Almost Sikkim is
completely dependent on the Teesta river.
Statement B- wrong Teesta river originates in Northern Sikkim.
Statement 3 wrong teesta river joins Brahmaputra as its tributary.
91)
Consider the following statements with reference to Line of Actual Control (LAC) & Line of control (LOC)
A) Line of control is a de-facto border whereas line of actual is a legally recognized border.
B) Line of actual control was accepted legally following the simla agreement.
C) Line of control is lengthier than Line of actual Control
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
A & C only
B only
A & B only
None of the above

Solution:
Statement A Wrong Line of control is a de-facto border between India and Pakistan & the line of Actual control is a de-facto line (or) not
legally recognized border between India & China.
Statement B- Wrong - Line of control was established after simla agreement & not line of actual control.
Statement C- wrong- Line of actual control is lengthier (4000+kms) than line of control
92)
Consider the following statements with reference to Asian Games
A. Asian Games is a multi-sport event held every four years once among athletes from all over Asia.
B. Asian Games is considered as third largest multi-sport event after the Olympic & Commonwealth games.
C. Indian finished 8th in the medal tally in the recently held Asian Games 2014 - Incheon, south Korea.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true ?
A only
B & C only
A & B only
A & C only
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Solution:
Statement A correct
Statement B- Asian games is considered as second largest multi-sport event after the Olympic games.
Statement C- Correct
93)
Match he List I (Island) with List II (Island disputed between) correctly
List I
List II
1.Paracel Island
2.Senkaku Islands
3. Falkland Islands
4. New moore Islands
A. Japan & china

B. China, Taiwan & Vietnam
C. UK & Argentina
D. India-Bangladesh
Codes given below
1-C , 2-A , 3-D, 4-B

1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
1-B , 2-C, 3-A , 4-D
Your Answer : 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D

Correct Answer : 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
Solution:
Paracel island disputes china , Taiwan & Vietnam
Senkaku (Diaoyu) island dispute Japan & china
Falkland island dispute UK & Argentina
New moore land island dispute - India Bangladesh (settled recently)
94)
In the background recent Hong Kong political crisis. Consider the following statements with reference to one country two system model
A. Under this model , special administrative regions of china can have a different political system.
B. Hong Kong follows capitalist system but foreign policy and defense affairs are controlled by peoples Republic of China
C. At Present , Hong Kong is the only special administrative region coming under one country two system model of china.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct ?
A and B only
B and C only
B only
C only
Your Answer : A and B only

Correct Answer : A and B only
Solution:
Statement A- correct
Statement B Correct
Statement C- wrong Macau & Hong Kong are well known special administrative regions of china. The position of Taiwan is disputable (some
consider is as Independent nation & some consider it part of special administrative region of China)
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95)
Consider the following statements with reference to Indian regional navigation satellite system(IRNSS)
A. IRNSS is a satellite based positioning system developed by India with the help of Russia.
B. IRNSS has seven satellites. 4 satellites in geostationary earth orbit & 3 satellites in geosynchronous earth orbit.
C. The main objective of IRNSS is to provide reliable position , Navigation & Timing services all over the world.
A & B only
A & C only
B only
B & C only

Solution:
Statement A- wrong IRNSS is independently & Indigenously development by India.
Statement B correct
Statement C- wrong- it will provide reliable position . navigation & timing services over India & its neighbours ( all over the world)
96)
Which of the following is/are correctly matched
Nobel Prize Winner
A. Patrick modiano
B. Jean Tirole
C. Hiroshi Amano
D. Edward Moser
Field
- Literature
- Economics
- Physics
- Medicine
Codes given below
A & B only
A, C & D only
B & D only
All of the above
Your Answer :
Solution:
Choice A, B,C & D all are correct.

So the answer 4
Nobel Prizes
Field
Kailash satharthi Malala yousafzai
Peace Prize
Patrick modiano
Literature
Jean Tirole
Economics
Isamu Akasaki Hiroshi amano shuji nakamurar
Physics
Eric Betzig Stefan W.Hell William Moern
Chemistry
Jhon O Keefe May-Britt Moser Edward Moser
Chemistry
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97)
A. National investigation Agency (NIA) can not investigate a case of schedule offence without the concurrence of concerned state.
B. National security guards (NSG) can take over the functions of state police forces even without the concurrence of concerned state
under exceptional situations
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not incorrect ?
A only
B only
Both A & B
Neither A nor B

Correct Answer : Neither A nor B
Solution:
Statement A- wrong NIA can investigate any scheduled offences in any part of India with or without the concurrence of state government.
Statement B- wrong- NSG is not designed to undertake the functions of the state police forces (or) other paramilitary forces of the union of India.
NSG is a force specially equipped & trained to deal with specific situations & therefore is used only in exceptional circumstances (to assist state
police forces)
98)
Considered the following statements with respect to thirty meter telescope.
A) Once constructed , thirty meter telescope will become the worlds largest & most powerful radio telescope on the earth.
B) It will be constructed on Hawaii island which belongs to Japan.
C) India is a founding member of thirty meter telescope project.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct ?
A & C only
B & C only
C only
A & B only

Solution:
Statement A- wrong TMT will become worlds largest optical telescope.(not radio telescope)
Statement B- Wrong Hawaii island, belong to USA, located in Pacific Ocean
Statement C- correct India , china , USA, japan & Canada are founding members.
99)
Considered the following statements with reference to recently launched saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
A. The scheme encourages members of parliament from both houses to identify & develop one village from their constituency as a
model village by 2016 , and two more by 2019.
B. Member of parliament from Rajya sabha can select any village of the state that he or she represents
C. Nominated members of parliament can not participate in saansad adarch gram yojana
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A only
B & C only
B only
C only

Solution:
Statement A- correct
Statement B- correct
Statement C- wrong nominated members of parliament (Lok sabha + Rajya Sabha) can choose any village in the country to develop as
model villages
100)
Consider the following statements with reference to Generic Drugs Vs Branded Drugs
A) Generic drugs are considered as inferior to branded drugs in terms effects , safety & strength concerned.
B) Under present IPR (Intellectual property rights) rules, Pharma companies can produce generic drugs only twenty years after
registration of branded drugs.
C) Generic drugs are cheaper when compared to branded drugs because of low quality & low dosage of generic drugs.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
A & B only
A & C only
B only
B & C only

Solution:
Statement A- wrong Generic drugs are similar to branded drugs in terms of dosage intended use, effects , safety & strength as original drug.
Statement B- correct Branded drugs get patent rights for twenty years.
Statement C- wrong quality of both drugs are same. Generic drugs does not require to invest in Research & development. So the cost of
generic drugs are less.
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Which of the statements given above is/are not incorrect ?

Your Answer : A, B & C only