Act 1

ACT A
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1
ENGLISH TEST
45 Minutes75 Questions
DIRECTIONS: In the five passages that follow, certain

words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In
the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the
underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the
one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement
appropriate for standard written English, or is worded
most consistently with the style and tone of the passage
as a whole. If you think the original version is best,
choose NO CHANGE. In some cases, you will find in
the right-hand column a question about the underlined
part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.
You will also find questions about a section of the passage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions
do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but
rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.
For each question, choose the alternative you consider
best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer
document. Read each passage through once before you
begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For
many of the questions, you must read several sentences
beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure
that you have read far enough ahead each time you
choose an alternative.
PASSAGE I
Ring Around the Collar

Ring around the collar was a problem long before it
is employed as a catchphrase to market laundry detergent.
1
In fact, ring around the collar is particularly troubling

2
hundreds of years ago, since most washing used to be done

by hand. On the contrary, it was tedious to wash entire
3
shirts when only the collars were dirty, many individuals
1. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
being marketed as the catchphrase for
was employed as a catchphrase to market
will be employed as a catchphrase to market
2. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
were
was
has been
3. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
In addition,
Thus,
Because
4. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
her husbands shirts.
her husbands shirts.
her husbandss shirts.
5. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
will advertise her invention
is advertising her innovative invention
advertised her invention
tried to solve this problem.

[1] In 1827, Montague, fed up with the time she
was spending on laundry, cut a collar off of one of
her husbands shirts. [2] Hannah Montague was one such
4
individual. [3] Montague was thrilled with the results and

had advertised her innovative invention through her quiet
5
c 2010 Academic Approach, LLC

ACT A
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
1
6. F.
G.
H.
J.
town of Troy, New York. [4] She then washes it and sewed
6
it back on to the shirt.
NO CHANGE
wash
washed
washing
7. Which of the following sequences of sentences makes

this paragraph most logical?
A. NO CHANGE
B. 2, 4, 3, 1
C. 2, 1 ,4, 3
D. 4, 1, 2, 3
This innovation changed not only the average
household and the town of Troy. Small garment

8
factories began to appear all over town to have filled

9
the growing need for detachable collars, and orders
8. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
yet
but also
however,
9. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
to fill
to find filling for
to have been filling
for the collars came from around the country.

10. F. NO CHANGE
G. Detachable cuffs had money-making potential.
H. Detachable cuffs and gold mine were synonyms.
J. OMIT the underlined portion.
Detachable cuffs were an enormous money maker. By

10
1897, there were twenty-five manufacturers in Troy.
11. The writer is considering deleting this sentence. If the

sentence were deleted, the essay would primarily lose:
A. a stylistic embellishment.
B. a precise illustration of how high production was in
Troy.
C. a theory about why the collars were so popular at
that moment.
D. an illustration of American ingenuity.
They were producing a total of eight million collars per

11
year. Collars were offered in a wide array of styles, and the

11
starched white collar became the status symbol of the
newly emergent population of office workers.

ACT A
12. The writer wants to add a sentence to further emphasize the association between businessmen and the
collared shirt. Which of the following sentences does
that best?
F. These office workers were referred to as white
collar workers as a result of their style of dress.
G. Every person who appreciated a clean-cut appearance wore a detachable collar.
H. Troy benefited from this rise in business culture, becoming an epicenter of the fashion world.
J. A new industry selling dickies, detachable shirt
fronts, emerged in a neighboring town.
12
Although the dress shirt with detachable collar

13
was a staple in businessmens attire from the 1840s
13. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
Therefore
In opposition,
Moreover,
14. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
a more casual style, and detachable
a more casual style; detachable
a more casual style. Detachable
until the 1920s, after World War I the stiff and formal
collars fell out of fashion. As the trend shifted toward
a more casual style, detachable collars were left behind.
14
These casual shirts were more easily laundered, making

the detachable collar less of a necessity.
15. The writer would like to add a sentence that would emphasize the detachable collars lasting impact on Troy.
Which of the following choices would do this most effectively?
A. Indeed, the white collar has remained a central part
of the western business attire and is a sign of professionalism and success.
B. Despite this shift in fashion trends, the town of Troy
still identifies proudly with its past and is known
today as Collar City.
C. The invention of the washing machine also played
a role in helping to reduce household labor and
phasing out the detachable collar.
D. In conclusion, the more casual look that men
adopted offered them more freedom of movement,
which was important to many.
15
PASSAGE II
Not Just Rats with Wings

Most people think of pigeons as rats with
wings, but you dont know that pigeons have played
16
important roles in history. One famous pigeon was
16. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
but they dont know
but we dont know
but it doesnt know
17. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
Cher Ami, which means dear friend in French.
Cher Ami which means dear friend, in French.
Cher Ami (which means dear friend in French.
18. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
telegraph, but
telegraph, so
telegraph for
even responsible for saving the lives of over 200 men

during World War I. That pigeons name was
Cher Amiwhich meansdear friend in French.
17
During World War I, messages were most often

transmitted by telegraph so telegraphs could not easily be
18

ACT A
sent from the field. Because soldiers often carried several

19
carrier pigeons, which was useful tools for communication.

20
An important message could be written on a piece of paper,

folded tightly, and securing it in a small canister that was
21
attached to a pigeons leg.

22
19. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
As a result,
Despite this fact,
In conclusion,
20. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
which had been useful tools
which contained useful tools
which were useful tools
21. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
secure in a small canister
having been secured in a small canister
secured in a small canister
22. The writer would like to add a sentence to transition

from the previous paragraph to this one. Which of the
following would be effective for this purpose?
F. During World War I, a brave carrier pigeon transported a message that saved hundreds of lives.
G. World War I took place between 1914 and 1918.
H. The canister that was attached to a carrier pigeon
was made of a lightweight metal.
J. Sometimes carrier pigeons reached their destinations and sometimes they did not.
The 77th Division of the U.S. Army, now
known as The Lost Battalion, were stranded behind

23
enemy lines. The Battalions soldiers needed urgently to
23. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
is
was
will be
24. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
by their fellow soldiers.
by the people on their side, now on the other side.
by soldiers.
25. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
pigeons, all of the pigeons,
pigeons (all of the pigeons)
pigeons, all of the pigeons
26. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
barbaric
traumatized
patriotic
27. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
its foot
its foot
itss foot
28. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
fire, and many lives
fire, many lives
fire, but many lives
send communication, since they mistakenly were being

fired at by their fellow soldiers from their own side.
24
In an attempt to stop the enemy fire, the soldiers of

the Lost Battalion sent notes using carrier
pigeons. All of the pigeons they sent were shot down.
25
The desperate soldiers tried one final time, sending up a

26
pigeon named Cher Ami. Cher Ami made it to the base

camp. When the pigeon arrived, its foot was hanging
27
by a tendon, but the canister with the note was still intact.
After reading the note, the soldiers knew to hold their
fire many lives were saved.
28

ACT A
Cher Ami the French Croix de Guerre Medal for his

29. The best placement for the underlined portion would
be:
A. where it is now.
B. after Medal.
C. after Ami.
D. after for.
heroic was awarded service. He died at Fort Monmouth,

29
NJ, on June 13, 1919, as a result of his wounds.
30
30. The writer would like to add a sentence to give another

example of the degree to which Cher Ami was honored
for his service. Which of the following would most effectively accomplish this?
F. Cher Ami had flown at least twelve other missions
during his military career, all of which were great
successes.
G. After tests were run on Cher Amis eyes, it became
clear that the pigeon had superior vision to aid him
in flight.
H. Cher Ami, because of his brave service, is now on
display in The Smithsonian Institute in Washington,
D.C.
J. Another pigeon, named G.I. Joe, saved over 2,000
men during the war.
After
hearing of a pigeon as noble as this, it is hard to consider it

a rat with wings.
PASSAGE III
The following paragraphs may or may not be

in the most logical order. Each paragraph is numbered in brackets, and question 44 will ask you to
choose the most logical order of paragraphs.
A Toast To Good Health

[1]
When people engage in a toast, most of them
is not thinking about being poisoned. It is also unlikely that
31
they have pieces of burned bread in their glasses.
31. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
was not thinking
are not thinking
hadnt been thinking
32. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
significant historical importance
historical significance
significant historic
Nevertheless, it is clear that the toast retains its underlying

significant historical past in that it serves as a communal
32
gesture of cheer and goodwill.

ACT A
1
[2]
33. A. NO CHANGE
B. (who were similarly preoccupied with the threat of
poisoning)
C. (who were similarly preoccupied) with the threat of
poisoning,
D. who were similarly preoccupied with the threat of
poisoning
The Romans (who were similarly preoccupied with

33
the threat of poisoning, shared this tradition of drinking in

33
sequence. Modifying the custom slightly,
34. F. NO CHANGE
G. they put a burned piece of bread in each glass.
H. the glass was the place where a burned piece of
bread was put.
J. OMIT the underlined portion.
a burned piece of bread was in each persons glass. This act

34
was thought to reduce the wines acidity, making it more

35
able to be drank. Eventually, the word for the piece of

36
burned bread referred back to the act itself, the toast.

37
[3]
Anyone whom has ever toasted a friends health or
38
good fortune may have wondered about the origin of the
35. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
the winess acidity,
the wines acidity,
the wines acidity,
36. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
better to be drank.
good for drinking.
drinkable.
37. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
backward
in a way that referenced
OMIT the underlined portion.
38. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
that
which
who
39. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
is coming from
comes from
had came from
40. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
originated
originated its creation
originate
custom. He or she also may have wondered about how the

custom got its name. Actually, the toast, along with its
name, come from an interesting combination of Greek and
39
Roman traditions.
[4]
The ritual of drinking in someones
honor originating with the Greeks as early as
40
the sixth century B . C . The custom came

ACT A
1
41. A.
B.
C.
D.
about for practical reasons guests wanted to be sure

41
that the wine they were offered was not poisoned.
NO CHANGE
about for practical reasons; guests wanted to be sure
about for practical reasons, guests wanted to be sure
about for practical, reasons guests, wanted to be
sure
42. Which of the alternatives provides a new, specific detail

about why the Greeks were worried about drinking
poisoned wine?
F. NO CHANGE
G. Hemlock is a highly poisonous plant of the parsley
family.
H. In Greece at that time, the poisoning of wine was a
common and effective means to murder a political
or romantic rival.
J. Greeks also believed that their soft cheeses could
be poisoned and took great care to examine them
before consumption.
Being poisoned by drinking wine was on the minds of the

42
Greek people. To prove that wine was safe, the host would
42
take the first sip from the decanter. If satisfied, guests
43. A.
B.
C.
D.
would raise their glass and drink. This drinking sequence,

43
in which guests followed their host, came to symbolize a
NO CHANGE
its glass
his glasses
their glasses
pledge of friendship and goodwill.

.
Questions 44 and 45 ask about the preceding passage as a whole.
44. The paragraphs would make most sense in what

order?
F. NO CHANGE
G. 4, 2, 1, 3
H. 3, 4, 2, 1
J. 3, 1, 2, 4
45. Suppose the writer had intended to write an essay about

how to give a toast. Would this essay successfully fulfill
the writers goal?
A. No, because the essay recounts the historical
context in which the toast received its name.
B. No, because the essay advises people not to toast.
C. Yes, because the essay talks about specific words
and phrases that are useful in toasts.
D. Yes, because the essay details the process involved
in crafting a proper toast.
PASSAGE IV
Enjoying a Day at the Fair

I go to the state fair each year, and it is a fact that
46
I always enjoy myself. Every year, there is a

just recently developed attraction that surprises and charms
47
me, but usually I just go to do my favorite things. I most

ACT A
46. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
it is a known truth that
you can be sure that
47. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
new
recent and on the cutting edge
brand new and recent
enjoy eating cotton candy, to ride in the bumper cars, and

48
seeing the butter sculptures. Actually, the cotton candy

49
stand is always my first stop at the fair. Cotton candy is
50
Just a tip: I would advise eating the cotton candy soon after
NO CHANGE
(Begin new paragraph) The
(Do NOT begin new paragraph) Consequently, the
(Do NOT begin new paragraph) That is why the
52. The writer wants to emphasize how important it is to

know how to operate the bumper car. Which of the
choices would most successfully achieve this effect?
F. NO CHANGE
G. One aspect
H. The most crucial thing to know
J. An interesting fact to learn
52
about bumper cars is that when you turn the wheel all the
way in either direction the car can go in reverse.
[3] Knowing this fact will prevent you to getting stuck in
53. A.
B.
C.
D.
53
a pile-up! [4] Bumper cars are called dodgem cars
NO CHANGE
provide prevention
preventing of
prevent you from
54. Which of the following sentences in this paragraph is

LEAST relevant to the focus of the paragraph and,
therefore, could be deleted?
F. Sentence 1
G. Sentence 2
H. Sentence 3
J. Sentence 4
54

ACT A
49. A.
B.
C.
D.
51. The writer is considering adding another sentence that

would inform the reader about the consequences of not
following the advice he has just offered. Which sentence
would do this best?
A. Cotton candy usually comes in pastel colors like
pink or blue.
B. The candy becomes sticky and damp when it is in
contact with moisture and is much less enjoyable.
C. It is also possible to purchase cotton candy at some
ballparks.
D. Heeding my advice is always a good decision.
51
[1] My next stop is the bumper cars. [2] The thing
in England.
NO CHANGE
having ridden
riding
a ride
50. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined

portion would NOT be acceptable?
F. tub, and it is
G. tub; in fact, its
H. tub: its
J. tub, its
made in a large metal tub. Its actually spun onto the stick.
buying it, especially if it is humid outside.
48. F.
G.
H.
J.
[1] Last year, the butter sculptor

created a cow a farmer, and a dog out of butter.
55
[2] There was also a butter owl on a butter tree branch!

[3] They should allow themselves some time to see the
56
55. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
created, a cow, a farmer, and a dog
created a cow, a farmer, and a dog
created a cow a farmer and a dog
56. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
Visitors
You
A person
57. For the sake of the logic and coherence of this paragraph, this sentence should be placed:
A. where it is now.
B. before Sentence 1.
C. after Sentence 1.
D. after Sentence 2.
butter exhibit since lines can be long. [4] The last thing
57
that I do at the state fair is visit the butter sculpture.

57
Sometimes as Im leaving the state fair after doing all

of my favorite things, I feel depressed that it will be an
58
entire year before I can do them all again. Nevertheless, its

exciting to think that my favorite activities will be waiting
59
for me next year.
58. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
favorite things; I feel
favorite things: I feel
favorite things. I feel
59. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
your favorite activities
our favorite activities
my favoritest activities
Question 60 asks about the preceding passage

as a whole.
60. Suppose the writer had been assigned to write a brief

essay that gives advice about how to enjoy the state fair.
Would this essay successfully fulfill this goal?
F. Yes, because all people automatically love state
fairs.
G. Yes, because the writer not only talks about his favorite activities, but also gives tips on how to enjoy
each activity.
H. No, because the essay does not include an annotated
map of the fair.
J. No, because the essay does not explain the history
of the fair and how it has changed over time.

ACT A
10
PASSAGE V
Odd Jobs
When you ask most people what you do for a living,
61. A.
B.
C.
D.
61
NO CHANGE
people what they do
persons what he does
people what I do
62. The writer would like to edit this sentence to include a

few examples of ordinary jobs. Which of the following would be most appropriate in the context of this
essay?
F. they will tell you what you want to hear.
G. you will hear a familiar response: waiter, accountant, doctor, lawyer, actor.
H. you can be sure that they will tell you about their
recognizable jobs.
J. you will be entertained with tales about lion tamers
and pet detectives.
you most likely will have heard what they do before. Its
62
far less likely that theyll tell you that theyre farriers,
historical interpreters, or baby wranglers. These careers
63. A.
B.
C.
D.
that I am mentioning are just a few of those available to

63
people who want to do something out of the ordinary.
NO CHANGE
that youre being told about
mentioned to you here
Farriers have a variety of duties related to the care and

64. The writer would like to edit the sentence to convey
more information about the farriers responsibilities.
Given that all are true, which of the following sentences
would add the most detail to the description of a farriers
duties?
F. Horses can stay healthy with the help of a good
farrier.
G. It can be hard to find and hire a competent farrier.
H. Farriers are like pedicurists for horses, both
trimming their hooves and applying new horseshoes
to their feet.
J. Veterinary medicine is one aspect of the farriers
education.
upkeep of horses. Their main duty is to help the horse. In

64
order to be a farrier, one must attend a farrier school and
65. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined

portion would NOT be acceptable?
A. apprentice, and veterinary
B. apprentice; veterinary
C. apprentice, veterinary
D. apprentice. Veterinary
serve as an apprenticeveterinary training is also helpful.

65
A living history museum is a place where historical
66. F.
G.
H.
J.
interpreterspeople, dressed up like, historical figures

66
interact with visitors and teach them about aspects of daily
NO CHANGE
people, dressed up, like historical figures
people dressed up like historical figures
people dressed up, like historical figures
life during a particular historical period. The interpreters

are experts on specific periods. Someone dressed as Martha
Washington, for example, would be conversant with

ACT A
11
activities from her period, running a colonial household,

67
being a woman in politics, and to dress in in fashions

68
appropriate to her period.
67. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
from her period: running
from her period running
from her period; running
68. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
dressing in fashions
dresses
dressed fashionably
69. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
theyre
youre
your
[1] Baby wranglers also stand to the side of a TV

or movie set, trying to get babies to crawl from one
place to another on cue. [2] Few people outside of
Hollywood know what baby wranglers are, but Hollywood
insiders agree that their very important.
69
70. The writer wants to emphasize that this job requires a

person to be calm and collected. Which of the choices
would most successfully achieve this effect?
F. NO CHANGE
G. requires a lot of patience.
H. demands a lot of strength.
J. can be extremely rewarding.
[3] Needless to say, this job is not for everybody.

70
[4] A baby wranglers job includes coaxing smiles or coos
71. A.
B.
C.
D.
71
out of babies who are supposed to be enjoying a new toy or

a new brand of baby food.
72. Which of the following sequences of sentences will

make this paragraph most logical?
F. NO CHANGE
G. 2, 3, 4, 1
H. 2, 4, 1, 3
J. 4, 3, 2, 1
72
They reach the end of their careers and wonder if they
73. A.
B.
C.
D.
73
NO CHANGE
Many people
You
Those who
74. The writer has decided that this phrase is too vague
and that it doesnt specifically address the themes of the
passage. Which of the following would be a better way
to begin the passages final paragraph?
F. spent more time with their families.
G. saved more money for retirement.
H. been a farrier.
J. done something more interesting as a job.
could have done another thing with their lives. Its easy to
74
avoid this type of regret, though. With a little research, its

not hard to find an exciting and unusual career.

ACT A
NO CHANGE
wranglerss
wranglers
wranglers
12
1
75. The writer would like to conclude the essay with some
examples of unusual careers not yet mentioned in the
essay. Which of the following options, if added here,
would most effectively accomplish this goal?
A. If you would like to find some examples of
unusual careers, you could always contact a career
counselor.
B. A career as a greeting card writer, a dog walker, or a
zookeeper is certainly interesting enough to prevent
regrets later on.
C. There are so many options for unusual careers that
the possibilities are endless.
D. Working as a farrier, a historical interpreter, or a
baby wrangler might be more interesting than other,
more common jobs.
There are plenty of options for you to choose from!

75
END OF TEST 1
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

ACT A
13
2
MATHEMATICS TEST
DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem, choose the correct

answer, and then fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document.
but some of the problems may best be done without

using a calculator.
Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should
be assumed.
Do not linger over problems that take too much time.

Solve as many as you can; then return to the others in
the time you have left for this test
1.
2.
3.
4.
You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You

may use your calculator for any problems you choose,
11. What is the value of

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
(b+2)3
for b = 2 ?
b
Illustrative figures are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.

Geometric figures lie in a plane.
The word line indicates a straight line.
The word average indicates arithmetic mean.
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
2
4
8
16
32
12. Ben received scores of 85, 88, and 94 on his first 3 tests.
What is the minimum score Ben would need to earn on
his fourth test to have an average score of 90 for all
4 tests?
F. 89
G. 90
H. 91
J. 92
K. 93
13. If 3(x + 5) + x = 31, what is the value of x ?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 10
E. 15

ACT A
14
2
14. In a certain right triangle, the measure of the smallest

angle is 30. Which of the following could be the
measure of another of the angles in the triangle?
F. 30
G. 45
H. 60
J. 120
K. 150
15. If f (x) = (2x 2)2, what is f (4) ?

A. 0
B. 6
C. 18
D. 36
E. 100
16. In the figure below, line l is parallel to line m. What is

the value of x ?
x
l
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
15
35
75
105
115
75
17. In the standard (x, y) coordinate plane, what is the slope

of the line given by the equation 4x 3y = 2 ?
1
A. 2
2
B. 3
3
C. 4
4
D. 3
E. 4

ACT A
15
2
18. If
2
3x+6 9
5 = 7 , then x = ?
F. 7
2
G. 5
3
H. 4
4
J. 5
5
K. 3
19. A university recently increased its tuition by 20%. The

cost of attendance is now $18,000 per year. What was
the yearly tuition before the recent increase?
A. $12,000
B. $14,000
C. $15,000
D. $21,600
E. $24,000
10. Which of the following is equivalent to (x 2)(x + 3) ?

F.
2x + 1
G.
2x 5
2
H. x 2x 6
J. x2 + 2x 6
K. x2 5x 6
11. Which of the following is NOT part of the domain of the

x+5
function g(x) = x4 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
x = 5
x = 4
x = 4
x = 5
The domain includes all real numbers.

ACT A
16
2
12. In the figure below, an octagon is shown on a grid. The

dashed lines are evenly spaced 1 unit apart, producing
identical squares. Each of the octagons vertices is
located at the intersection of 2 grid lines. What is the
area of the octagon, in square units?
F. 25
G. 22
1
H. 20 2
J. 20
K. 19
13. The table below shows the monthly rent for the 5
remaining office spaces in Toms building. What is the
mean of the 5 monthly rents?
Monthly Rent
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Unit 1
Unit 2
Unit 4
Unit 5
Unit 9
$675
$750
$800
$560
$700
$680
$697
$700
$727
$750
14. A car travels at 70 miles per hour for 2.5 hours. A

motorcycle travels 55 miles an hour for 3 hours. What
is the difference between the number of miles traveled
by the car and the number of miles traveled by the
motorcycle?
F. 10
2
G. 19 3
H. 10
J. 15
K. 25
15. If 4ABC is an isosceles triangle and ABC measures
110, what is the measure of BCA ?
A. 25
B. 35
C. 45
D. 70
E. 110

ACT A
17
2
16. 6 (6) = ?
F. 36
G. 6
H.
0
J.
6
K. 36
17. The triangle below has vertices at the three labeled

points. What is the area of the triangle?
y
8
( 6, 6)
(6, 6)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
24
48
60
72
120
( 6, 4)
x
4
4
8
18. If 4x = 4 and y = 1, then x3 y2 + xy2 = ?

F. 60
G. 2
H.
0
J.
12
K. 60
19. In the rectangle ABCD shown below, AB is 21 inches

long. If the rectangles perimeter is 58 inches, how
many inches long is BC ?
A
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
8
12
16
18
24

ACT A
21
18
20. If x 9 is a real number, then which of the following

must be true?
F. x 9
G. 9 < x < 0
H. x = 0
J. 0 < x < 9
K. x 9
21. Which of the following is a factored form of

4x2 4x + 1 ?
A. 4(2x 1)(2x + 1)
B. 4(2x 1)(2x 1)
C. 4(4x 1)(4x 1)
D. 4(4x + 1)(4x + 1)
E. 4(4x 1)(4x + 1)
22. In the right triangle below, what is the length, x, of the

vertical leg?
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
3
5
7
9
11
13
12
23. Kara bought 2 new pairs of shoes and 3 skirts. The shoes
are normally $75 for each pair, but Kara bought them for
30% off. She purchased the skirts, normally $120 each,
for 25% off. How much money did Kara spend?
A. $135
B. $229.50
C. $337.50
D. $375
E. $820.50

ACT A
19
2
24. What is the midpoint of the line segment with endpoints

of (8, 4) and (6, 7) ?
F. (2, 1.5)
G. (2, 5)
H. (1, 1.5)
J. (1, 4)
K. (2, 1.5)
25. Roman wants to increase his endurance by crosscountry skiing. He plans to travel 8 miles on the first
day of his workout. He will then increase his daily
distance by 1.5 miles per day until he reaches 17 miles
traveled on a single day. Then he plans to continue
skiing 17 miles every day. How many total miles will
Roman have skied after 8 days of skiing?
A. 73.5
B. 95.5
C. 104.5
D. 106.5
E. 136.5
26. If a line passes through the origin and (5, 2), what is
the equation of the line?
5x
F. y = 2 2
2x
G. y = 5 2
2x
H. y = 5
5x
J. y = 2
K. y = x
27. For which of the following equations are x = 3 and

x = 7 the only possible answers?
A. (x 3)(x + 7) = 1
B. (x + 3)(x 7) = 0
C. (x 3)(x + 7) = 0
D. x 21 = 0
E. x + 3 7 = 0

ACT A
20
2
28. Which of the following lists all solutions of the equation

2x2 + 11x 20 = 5x + 12 ?
F. x = 1.7, x = 9, or x = 7
G. x = 4 or x = 1.5
H. x = 4
J. x = 0.8, x = 3, or x = 8
K. There are no solutions.
29. Which of the following graphs represents the solution of

3x 1 > 2(x + 3) ?
A.
6 5 4 3 2 1 0 1 2 3 x
B.
6 5 4 3 2 1 0 1 2 3 x
C.
6 5 4 3 2 1 0 1 2 3 x
D.
6 5 4 3 2 1 0 1 2 3 x
E.
6 5 4 3 2 1 0 1 2 3 x
30. A rectangular picture frame measures 7 inches by 12

inches along its outer edges. The frame itself is made of
1
strips of wood that are 1 2 inches wide. What is the
area, in square inches, of the inner rectangular space
surrounded by the frame?
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
36
38
48
57.75
84
31. If the graphs of y = 4x 3 and y = mx + 2 are parallel in

the standard (x, y) coordinate plane, then m = ?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
1
D. 4
1
E. 4

ACT A
21
2
32. Rianna has 3 scarves, 6 blouses and 2 jackets. How

many distinct outfits are possible if each outfit includes
1 scarf, 1 blouse, and 1 jacket?
F. 11
G. 15
H. 20
J. 36
K. 42
Use the following information to answer

questions 3335.
The table below shows the average price of a gallon of milk

in the United States from 1994 through 2007.
Average Price of Milk, by Year
Year
Price
per Gallon
Year
Price
per Gallon
1994
1995
1996
1997
1998
1999
2000
$1.45
$1.52
$1.60
$1.62
$1.83
$1.85
$1.93
2001
2002
2003
2004
2005
2006
2007
$2.08
$2.12
$2.15
$2.23
$2.30
$2.43
$2.51
33. During which of the following periods did the price per
gallon of milk in the United States increase the most?
A. 19951996
B. 19971998
C. 20002001
D. 20032004
E. 20052006
34. If the average U.S. household purchased 2.25 gallons of

milk per month, what was the annual cost increase, per
household, for milk from 1998 to 2004?
F. $110.80
G. $149.41
H. $160.21
J. $109.62
K. $115.02

ACT A
22
2
$2.60
$2.40
$2.20
$2.00
$1.80
$1.60
$1.40
B
C
D
20
06
20
04
20
02
20
00
19
98
19
96
19
94
price per gallon of milk
year
35. The points on the graph above illustrate the price data,
and the graph includes 5 lines that represent possible
models for the data. Of the 5 lines, which is the best
model for the changing price of milk?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
36. A triangle has sides of length 7 and 24. Which of

the following CANNOT be the length of the remaining
side?
F. 15
G. 20
H. 24
J. 25
K. 30
37. It costs $5 to purchase x softcover books and $12 to

purchase y hardcover books. Which of the following
is an expression for the cost, in dollars, of 7 softcover
books and 3 hardcover books?
7(5) 3(12)
x + y
7(5)
x
B. 3(12) + y
A.
C. 7(5) + 3(12)
y
7(5)
x + 3(12)
3(12)
x
E. 7(5) + y
D.

ACT A
23
2
38. Side BC of the parallelogram ABCD below shares a

side with the equilateral triangle BCE; ECD is a right
angle. What is the measure of ADC ?
D
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
30
90
120
150
170
39. If f (x) = x2 2 and g(x) = 4x 3, what is g( f (3)) ?

A. 7
B. 9
C. 16
D. 25
E. 79
40. If the circumference of circle O, shown below, is 48,

how long is arc AXB ?
F.
48
G.
18
H.
18
J.
183
A
135
O
K. 6,480
41. Travis casts a shadow that extends 2.2 feet in front of

him on flat ground. The angle of elevation from the tip
of the shadow to the top of Traviss head is 70 . How
tall is Travis, in feet?
A. 2.2 sin 70
B. 2.2 tan 70
2.2
C. cos 70
cos 70
2.2
tan 70
E. 2.2
D.

ACT A
24
2
1
42. The width of a rectangle is 7 of its length. If the

perimeter of the rectangle is 48 inches, what is its width,
in inches?
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
1
3
6
6.9
7
43. Under certain conditions, the height of a projectile is

given by the equation h = 4t 2 + 20t + 24, where h is
the height above the ground t seconds after the launch.
How many seconds after the projectile is launched will
it hit the ground?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
4
5
6
9.8
44. Which of the following is equivalent to 3x2

F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
3
9x5
27x5
9x6
27x6
27x8
45. In the right triangle below, which of the following

expressions gives the correct value of b ?
A. 13 sin 35
b
B. 13 cos 35
13
C. sin 35
13
35
D. 13 tan 35
E.
sin 35
13

ACT A
25
2
46. The sum of 4 consecutive integers is 54. What is the

least of the integers?
F. 11
G. 12
H. 13
J. 14
K. 15
47. A cylinder, pictured below, has a radius of 2.5 and a

height of 7. What is the volume of the cylinder?
2.5
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
35
40
41.5
43.75
47.5
48. Arlens chemistry class was given a quiz; the class got
an average of 78% of the questions correct. Arlens
percentage correct was 4 percentage points higher than
the class average. If there were 50 questions on the quiz,
how many quiz questions did Arlen answer correctly?
F. 40
G. 41
H. 42
J. 43
K. 82
49. Which of the following is equivalent to

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
4
81x12 ?
3x
9x2
3x3
9x3
9x4

ACT A
26
50. If z = 5n and w = 2n 5n , then what is w in terms of n

and z ?
F. w = 2n
2
G. w = z
2n
H. w = z
J. w = 2z
1
K. w = z
51. A diameter of a circle has endpoints at (7, 2) and

(5, 3) in the (x, y) coordinate plane. What is the area of
the circle?
3
A. 4
B. 13
C. 42.25
D. 56.25
E. 169
52. A plank of wood that is 63 centimeters long is cut into

3 pieces. The lengths of the pieces are in the ratio 3:2:4.
What is the length of the longest piece, in centimeters?
F. 14
G. 15.75
H. 21
J. 28
K. 36
53. Georgia hikes 9 miles in 4 days. At this rate, how many

miles does she hike in 4 + x days?
A. 4 + 9x
B. 4x + 9

9x
C. 4 + 4
9+9x
4
9x
E. 9 + 4
D.

ACT A
27
2
54. The average of a set of 7 integers is 27. When an eighth

number is included in the set, the average of the set
increases to 32. What is the eighth number?
F. 32
G. 35
H. 40
J. 67
K. 70
55. The inside of a circular above-ground pool must be

painted with a sealant to prevent the pool from leaking.
The pool is a right cylinder with a diameter of 20 feet
and a height of 6 feet, as shown below. If a 1-gallon can
of sealant costs $5.50, and each can covers 25 square
feet, approximately how much will it cost to seal the
inside of the pool?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
$125.50
$147.75
$188.00
$128.25
$154.00
6 feet
20 feet
56. If logx 32 = 5, what is the value of x ?

F. 25
G. 2
32
H. 5
J. 232
K. 322
57. While watching a football game on TV from 7:05 P. M .

to 9:35 P. M ., Eli counts 55 commercials, each 45
seconds long. What percent of the time that Eli watches
TV, to the nearest tenth of a percent, is taken up by
commercials?
A. 7.5%
B. 16.5%
C. 27.5%
D. 41.3%
E. 68.8%

ACT A
28
2
58. Which of the following is an equation of the largest

circle that can be inscribed in the ellipse with equation
( y2)2
( x+5)2
=1?
36 +
4
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
( x2
+ ( y2
= 144
2
(x
+ ( y2
= 136
2
2
( x + 5) + ( y 2) = 144
( x + 5)2 + ( y 2)2 = 136
( x + 5)2 + ( y 2)2 = 144
59. Rashid takes the 7-A . M . train into the city every sixth
day. Amanda takes the 7-A . M . train into the city every
fourth day. If they both ride the same train into the city
on a Tuesday, how many days will pass before they next
ride the same train on a Tuesday?
A. 12 days
B. 17 days
C. 24 days
D. 84 days
E. 97 days
60. Bruce and his friends want to make a bike ramp for
jumping, but in order to complete a clean jump the
minimum angle of elevation of the board must be
23 degrees. If the starting end of the ramp touches the
ground and the take-off end is 5 feet above the ground,
how long, to the nearest tenth of a foot, will the board
need to be to allow for a clean jump?
F. 2.0
G. 5.4
H. 7.8
J. 11.8
K. 12.8
END OF TEST 2
DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.

ACT A
29
3
READING TEST
DIRECTIONS: There are four passages in this test. Each
passage is followed by several questions. After reading
a passage, choose the best answer to each question
and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer
document. You may refer to the passages as often as
necessary.
Passage I
3 detective force. Fortunately I arrived in time, though the

4 chief of the force, the celebrated Inspector Blunt, was
45 just on the point of leaving for his home. He was a
6 man of middle size and compact frame, and when he was
7 thinking deeply he had a way of knitting his brows and
8 tapping his forehead reflectively with his finger, which
9 impressed you at once with the conviction that you stood
50 in the presence of a person of no common order. The very
1 sight of him gave me confidence and made me hopeful.
2 I stated my errand. It did not flurry him in the least; it
3 had no more visible effect upon his iron self-possession
4 than if I had told him somebody had stolen my dog. He
55 motioned me to a seat, and said, calmly: Allow me to
6 think a moment, please.
PROSE FICTION: This passage is adapted from Mark Twains

The Stolen White Elephant.
1
The following curious history was related to me by a
2 chance railway acquaintance. He was a gentleman more
3 than seventy years of age, and his thoroughly good and
4 gentle face and earnest and sincere manner imprinted the
5 unmistakable stamp of truth upon every statement which
6 fell from his lips. He said:
7
You know in what reverence the royal white
8 elephant of Siam is held by the people of that country.
9 You know it is sacred to kings, only kings may possess
10 it, and that it is, indeed, in a measure even superior to
1 kings, since it receives not merely honor but worship.
2 Very well; five years ago, when the troubles concerning
3 the frontier line arose between Great Britain and Siam, it
4 was presently manifest that Siam had been in the wrong.
15 Therefore, every reparation was quickly made, and the
6 British representative stated that he was satisfied and
7 the past should be forgotten. This greatly relieved the
8 King of Siam, and partly as a token of gratitude, partly
9 also, perhaps, to wipe out any little remaining vestige
20 of unpleasantness which England might feel toward him,
1 he wished to send the Queen a presentthe sole sure
2 way of propitiating an enemy, according to Oriental
3 ideas. This present ought not only to be a royal one, but
4 transcendently royal. Wherefore, what offering could be
25 so royal as that of a white elephant? My position in the
6 Indian civil service was such that I was deemed pecu7 liarly worthy of the honor of conveying the present to her
8 Majesty. A ship was fitted out for me and my servants
9 and the officers and attendants of the elephant, and in due
30 time I arrived in New York harbor and placed my royal
1 charge in admirable quarters in Jersey City. It was nec2 essary to remain awhile in order to recruit the animals
3 health before resuming the voyage.
4
35
6
7
8
9
40
7
So saying, he sat down at his office table and leaned
8 his head upon his hand. Several clerks were at work at the
9 other end of the room; the scratching of their pens was all
60 the sound I heard during the next six or seven minutes.
1 Meantime the inspector sat there, buried in thought. Fi2 nally he raised his head, and there was that in the firm
3 lines of his face which showed me that his brain had done
4 its work and his plan was made. Said heand his voice
65 was low and impressive:
6
This is no ordinary case. Every step must be war7 ily taken; each step must be made sure before the next
8 is ventured. And secrecy must be observedsecrecy
9 profound and absolute. Speak to no one about the matter,
70 not even the reporters. I will take care of them; I will see
1 that they get only what it may suit my ends to let them
2 know. He touched a bell; a youth appeared. Alaric,
3 tell the reporters to remain for the present. The boy
4 retired. Now let us proceed to businessand system75 atically. Nothing can be accomplished in this trade of
mine without strict and minute method.
All went well during a fortnightthen my calamities began. The white elephant was stolen! I was
called up at dead of night and informed of this fearful
misfortune. For some moments I was beside myself with
terror and anxiety; I was helpless. Then I grew calmer
and collected my faculties. I soon saw my coursefor,
indeed, there was but the one course for an intelligent
man to pursue. Late as it was, I flew to New York and
got a policeman to conduct me to the headquarters of the

ACT A
30
1. According to the passage, the King of Siam chose to

send a royal white elephant to the Queen of England
because:
A. Europeans have white elephants at their royal
palaces.
B. he wanted to impress England with the superior
riches of his country.
C. he wanted to send a civil servant to England to
gather information.
D. the gift of a royal white elephant was considered a
certain message of apology.
6. The word conviction in line 49 most nearly means:

F. confident belief.
G. exuberant understanding.
H. uncanny insight.
J. eccentric idea.
7. Which of the following can be inferred from the storytellers statement that there was but the one course
(line 40)?
A. The only way of getting the elephant from Jersey
City to New York required consent from the
inspector.
B. No one else would have done what he did in
response to the elephants disappearance.
C. In order to prevent the King of Siam from being
angered, the elephants disappearance must be kept
a secret.
D. The elephants disappearance was of such great
importance that it should be handled by the chief
of detectives.
2. In the first paragraph, the narrator mentions the storytellers sincere manner to reinforce the point that:
F. the reader should be wary of the truth of the story to
follow.
G. the storyteller was an old friend of the narrators.
H. while the story seems somewhat improbable, it
could very well be a truthful account.
J. the old gentleman was confused about his journey.
3. All of the following statements are true according to the
passage EXCEPT:
A. The royal white elephant is revered and worshiped
by the people of Siam.
B. A civil servant held in high esteem was chosen to
accompany the elephant to England.
C. Only people from the Orient send gifts to apologize
to western European monarchs.
D. The dispute between England and the King of Siam
was over territory.
8. Which of the following best characterizes the chief of

detectives in New York City?
F. Capable but easily flustered
G. Incompetent and irreverent
H. Fastidious and thoughtful
J. Obsessive and controlling
4. According to the passage, the ship carrying the royal

elephant stopped in New York because:
F. airplanes were not large enough to transport it
directly to its destination.
G. the King of Siam did not want the elephant to
experience anxiety.
H. the sailors needed to change crews.
J. the health and safety of the animal was considered
by such a plan.
9. The use of the phrase transcendently royal in the

second paragraph indicates that white elephants were:
A. no longer worshiped.
B. revered as nearly divine.
C. inhuman.
D. the only beings worshipped in Siam.
5. In the fifth paragraph, the inspector most likely tells the

storyteller to speak to no one because:
A. he wants to make sure that the public knows an
untainted version of the truth.
B. he believes that everyone is a person of suspicion.
C. he wants the media to know only what he deems fit.
D. he does not want anyone to know his minute
method.
10. It can be inferred from the passage that the storytellers

journey:
F. was long and full of difficulties from the start.
G. started out well but became quite complicated.
H. was a complete disaster, since the elephant was
never found.
J. was one of the most arduous attempts at international reconciliation.

ACT A
31
Passage II
8
To investigate this question, the researchers made an
9 interesting link. At first sight, helping charities looks
50 to be at the opposite end of the selfishness spectrum
1 from conspicuous consumption. Yet they have something
2 in common: both involve the profligate deployment of
3 resources.
SOCIAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from the article

c 2007 by
Blatant benevolence and conspicuous consumption (
The Economist Newspaper, Ltd.).
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Charity is just as selfish as self indulgence

Geoffrey Miller is a man with a theory that, if true,
will change the way people think about themselves. His
idea is that the human brain is the anthropoid equivalent of the peacocks tail. In other words, it is an organ
designed to attract the opposite sex. Of course, brains
have many other functions, and the human brain shares
those with the brains of other animals. But Dr. Miller,
who works at the University of New Mexico, thinks that
mental processes which are uniquely human, such as
language and the ability to make complicated artifacts,
evolved originally for sexual display.
4
55
6
7
8
9
60
1
2
3
4
There is, of course, a lot of evidence for the first part

6 of this conjecture. Everybody knows that fast cars attract
7 fast women. The second, though, may come as a surprise.
8 So the team did an experiment to compare them.
65
2
One important difference between peacocks tails
3 and human minds is, of course, that the peahens
4 accoutrement is a drab affair. No one could say the same
15 of the human female psyche. That, Dr. Miller believes, is
6 because people, unlike peafowl, bring up their offspring
7 in families where both sexes are involved in parenting. It
8 thus behooves a man to be as careful about choosing his
9 wife as a woman is about choosing her husband.
9
70
1
2
3
4
Both sexes, therefore, have reason to show off. But

1 men and women will have different criteria for making
2 their choices, and so the sexual-display sides of their
3 minds may differ in detail.
20
4
25
6
7
8
9
30
1
2
75
35
6
7
8
9
40
1
2
They divided a bunch of volunteers into two groups.

Those in one were put into what the researchers hoped
would be a romantic mindset by being shown pictures
of attractive members of the opposite sex. They were
each asked to write a description of a perfect date with
one of these people. The unlucky members of the other
group were shown pictures of buildings and told to write
about the weather.
7
The participants were then asked two things. The
8 first was to imagine they had $5,000 in the bank. They
9 could spend part or all of it on various luxury items such
80 as a new car, a dinner party at a restaurant or a holiday in
1 Europe. They were also asked what fraction of the hypo2 thetical 60 hours of leisure time during the course of a
3 month they would devote to volunteer work.
Testing this hypothesis will be a long haul. But in a

paper he has just published in the Journal of Personality
and Social Psychology, in collaboration with Vladas
Griskevicius of Arizona State University, Dr. Miller goes
some way towards it. He, Dr. Griskevicius and their
colleagues look into two activitiesconspicuous consumption and altruism towards strangersto see if these
support the mating mind hypothesis, as Dr. Miller has
dubbed his idea. Their conclusion is that they do.
4
85
3
4
That is characteristic of the consequences of sexual

selection. An individual shows he (or she) has resources
to burnwhether those are biochemical reserves, time,
or, in the human instance, moneyby using them to
make costly signals. That demonstrates underlying
fitness of the sort favored by evolution. Viewed this
way, both conspicuous consumption and what the researchers call blatant benevolence are costly signals.
And since they are behaviors rather than structures, and
thus controlled by the brain, they may be part of the
mating mind.
6
7
8
9
Things are seldom what they seem

Altruism, according to the textbooks, has two forms.
One is known technically as kin selection, or familiarly
as nepotism. This spreads an individuals genes collaterally, rather than directly, but is otherwise similar to his
helping his own offspring. The second form is reciprocal
altruism, or you scratch my back and Ill scratch yours.
It relies on trust, and a good memory for favors given and
received, but is otherwise not much different from simultaneous collaboration (such as a wolf pack hunting) in
that the benefit exceeds the cost for all parties involved.
90
1
2
3
4
95
The results were just what the researchers hoped

for. In the romantically primed group, the men went
wild with the Monopoly money. Conversely, the women
volunteered their lives away. Those women continued,
however, to be skinflints, and the men remained callously indifferent to those less fortunate than themselves.
Meanwhile, in the other group there was little inclination
either to profligate spending or to good works. Based
on this result, it looks as though the sexes do, indeed,
have different strategies for showing off. Moreover, they
do not waste their resources by behaving like that all the
time. Only when it counts sexually are men profligate
and women helpful.
3
Humans, however, show a third sort of altruism
4 one that has no obvious pay-off. This is altruism towards
45 strangers, such as charity. That may enhance reputation. But how does an enhanced reputation weigh in the
Darwinian balance?

ACT A
32
3
16. The function of the third paragraph in relation to the
passage as a whole can best be described as:
F. introducing new ideas.
G. defining key terms from the previous discussion.
H. providing examples for the previous discussion.
J. offering a preliminary conclusion that the rest of the
passage will elaborate on.
11. It can be inferred from the passage that the author

believes which of the following about Dr. Millers
theory?
A. It could offer unique insight into why people spend
their leisure time as they do.
B. It will not have real consequences in terms of what
people do or think.
C. It has resulted in a dramatic change in how women
and men understand themselves.
D. It has the potential to change the way we understand
how certain aspects of our mental processes
function.
17. Which of the following are included in the description

of altruism discussed in this passage?
I. Kindness to animals
II. Reciprocal giving
III. Kindness to relatives
12. The author most likely uses the analogy of the

peacocks tail in order to illustrate the point that:
F. human behavior can best be understood in the
context of the natural world, just like the peacock.
G. male peacocks and male humans have uncannily
similar courtship practices.
H. like the peacocks tail, the human mind may have a
sexual function.
J. despite the beauty of the peacocks tail, there is no
evidence that it serves any real function.
A.
B.
C.
D.
18. As discussed in the passage, the mating mind refers to

which of the following ideas?
F. One of the primary functions of the human brain is
to exhibit attributes that will help attract a mate.
G. Human beings who are overly focused on finding a
mate can engage in dangerous practices.
H. Minds that are similar to one another are often
attracted to one another.
J. Human male intelligence directly correlates with
successful courtship of females.
13. The authors statement in the second paragraph that It

thus behooves a man to be as careful about choosing
his wife as a woman is about choosing her husband
indicates that:
A. the difference in peacock parenting behavior and
human parenting behavior results in different
mating displays for the sexes of each species.
B. unlike humans, peacocks are not monogamous.
C. the grandeur of male peacocks tails often creates
unforeseen hazards for them.
D. if human husbands are not careful about whom they
choose to mother their children, their sexual appeal
could diminish.
19. The experiment mentioned in the passage was designed

to address which one of the following questions?
A. Are men smarter than women?
B. Do women spend more money than men?
C. What is the role of intelligence in monetary
success?
D. Is there an evolutionary explanation for apparently
altruistic behavior?
14. In line 14, the word accoutrement most nearly

means:
F. accompaniment.
G. apparition.
H. decorative accessory.
J. incentive.
20. Which of the following statements would the author of

this passage most likely agree with?
F. Though the mating brain theory is interesting, it
challenges the idea that women are as intelligent as
men.
G. Though the mating brain theory could be difficult
to prove, it helps explain why human beings show
off in certain circumstances.
H. The mating brain theory undermines most
experts beliefs about altruistic behavior.
J. Even if it proves true, the mating brain theory will
not explain why human beings nearly always want
more than they have.
15. The authors tone towards Dr. Millers theory can best
be described as:
A. arrogant.
B. cautiously excited.
C. ambitious.
D. nostalgic.

ACT A
I only
II and III only
I and III only
I, II, and III
33
Passage III
55
6
7
8
9
HUMANITIES: This passage is adapted from an essay in Sister

Bernadettes Barking Dog: The Quirky History and Lost Art of
Diagramming Sentences, by Kitty Burns Florey.
60
1
Diagramming sentences is one of the lost skills, like
2 darning socks or playing the sack, that no one seems to
3 miss. Invented, or at least codified, in an 1877 text called
4 Higher Lessons in English, by Alonzo Reed and Brainerd
5 Kellogg, it swept through American public schools like
6 the measles, and was embraced by teachers as the way to
7 reform students who were engaged in the cold-blooded
8 murder of the English tongue (to take Henry Higgins
9 slightly out of context). By promoting the beautifully
10 logical rules of syntax, diagramming would root out evils
1 like its me and I aint got none, until everyone wrote
2 like Ralph Waldo Emerson, or at least James Fenimore
3 Cooper.
4
15
6
7
8
9
20
1
2
3
4
25
6
7
21. Which of the following sentences best expresses the

main idea of the passage?
A. Diagramming sentences is taught in nearly every
school.
B. Nuns such as Sister Bernadette should focus on
religious education, not on grammar skills.
C. Some students are better at diagramming sentences
than others are.
D. Diagramming sentences, though not often taught
anymore, is valuable in that it teaches students how
to make sense of rules they may already know.
In my own youth, many years after 1877, diagramming was still serious business. I learned it in the sixth
grade from Sister Bernadette. I can still see her: a tiny
nun with a sharp pink nose, confidently drawing a deadstraight horizontal line like a highway across the blackboard, flourishing her chalk in the air at the end of it,
her veil flipping out behind her as she turned back to
the class. We begin, she said, with a straight line.
And then, in her firm and saintly script, she put words
on the line, a noun and a verbprobably something like
dog barked. Between the words she drew a short vertical slash, bisecting the line. Then she drew a road that
forked off at an angle, a short country lane under the word
dog, and on it she wrote The.
22. Which of the following statements best describes the

authors attitude toward sentence diagramming?
F. She thought it was an exercise that helped students
to appreciate the necessity of taking direction and
practicing proper work presentation.
G. While she understands the purpose of sentence
diagramming in learning the fundamentals of
English, she does not believe the exercise teaches
anything about finer points of grammar.
H. She regrets that diagramming sentences can only be
taught presently in seventh and eighth grades.
J. She appreciates diagramming as a logical and
enjoyable exercise but understands that it is not
necessary for learning the basic rules of the English
language.
8
That was it: subject, predicate, and the little modify9 ing article that civilized the sentence, all of it made into
30 a picture that was every bit as clear and informative as
1 an actual portrait of a beagle in mid-woof. The thrilling
2 part was that this was a picture not of the animal but of
3 the words that stood for the animal and its noises. It was
4 a representation of something both concrete and abstract.
35 The diagram was a bit like art, a bit like mathematics. It
6 was much more than words uttered or words written; it
7 was a picture of language.
8
I was hooked. So, it seems, were many of my
9 contemporaries. Among the myths that have attached
40 themselves to memories of being educated in the
1 fifties is the notion that activities like diagramming
2 sentences (along with memorizing poems and adding
3 long columns of figures without a calculator) were
4 pointless and monotonous. I thought diagramming was
45 fun, and most of my friends who were subjected to
6 it look back with varying degrees of delight. Some
7 of us were better at it than others, but most of us
8 considered it a kind of treat, a game that broke up
9 the school day. You took a sentence, threw it against
50 the wall, picked up the pieces and put them together
again, slotting each word into its pigeonhole. When
you got it right, you made order and sense out of
what we used all the time and took for granted: sentences. Today, diagramming is not exactly dead, but for

ACT A
many years it has been in sharp decline. This is partly

because diagramming sentences seems to double the task
of the student, who has to learn a whole new set of
ruleswhere does that pesky line go, and which way
does it slantin order to illustrate a set of rules that, in
fact, has been learned pretty thoroughly simply by immersion in the language from birth.
23. In the passage, the author makes the statement

that sentence diagramming was a representation of
something both concrete and abstract (lines 3334)
primarily to suggest that:
A. deciphering the true meaning of a word requires
proper diagramming.
B. using creative and artistic metaphors can help one to
memorize sentence diagramming.
C. in diagramming a sentence, one could clearly see
how words work together to represent real things.
D. sentence diagramming was a useful aid in learning
the grammar of foreign languages.
34
3
28. According to the passage, diagramming sentences was
embraced by teachers (line 6) primarily because:
F. American students grammar skills were comparatively lower than those of students from other
countries.
G. it allowed the teachers to show the students the
elegant logic of the English language.
H. it gave the teachers a way to help students
understand the meaning of words.
J. teachers of the time were skeptical of so-called
experts such as Alonzo Reed and Brainerd
Kellogg.
24. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that

the author believes the sharp decline of sentence
diagramming is due to:
F. poor teacher training in that area.
G. the fact that todays students are incapable of
learning the necessary skills to diagram a sentence.
H. the fact that teachers are emphasizing rote memorization of poetry over grammar skills.
J. the fact that sentence diagramming is not essential
for learning the basics of grammar.
25. The use of the words highway and a short country
lane in the authors description of Sister Bernadettes
diagrams (lines 1627) indicates that:
A. the author thought of sentence diagramming as an
instructive exercise that lead somewhere.
B. the author thought Sister Bernadettes diagrams
were far too messy to be helpful.
C. the author is trying to liken sentence diagramming
to city planning.
D. the author used her prior knowledge of city planning
to help her understand sentence diagramming.
29. The following statements are true according to the

passage EXCEPT:
A. Diagramming was developed in the latter part of the
19th century.
B. Education in the 1950s was largely based upon
English worksheets and mathematics practice
examples.
C. Learning to diagram sentences might be most
helpful to those for whom English is a second
language.
D. Sentence diagramming is not taught as frequently
now as it used to be.
26. The main function of the first paragraph in relation to

the passage as a whole is to:
F. argue for the idea that sentence diagramming is
utterly useless.
G. point out the relevancy of sentence diagramming to
our current educational concerns.
H. explain why some have believed that sentence
diagramming was important.
J. illustrate how sentence diagramming has shaped the
authors generation.
30. According to the author, most students in Sister

Bernadettes class considered the assignment of
diagramming:
F. a process of constructing sentences in order to write
novels.
G. the art of using words that had positive
connotations.
H. a pleasant activity that helped them understand
sentence construction.
J. constructing word patterns that made colorful
puzzle games.
27. As it is used in line 29 the word civilized most nearly

means:
A. bludgeoned.
B. separated.
C. harnessed.
D. completed.

ACT A
35
Passage IV
55 they help to cool the Earth by reflecting sunlight away
6
7
8
9
NATURAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from the article

c 2007 by The Economist Newspaper, Ltd.).
Gray-sky thinking (
1
Without understanding clouds, understanding the
2 climate is hard. And clouds are the least understood
3 part of the atmosphere. CLOUDY. As a metaphor, that
4 is not a bad description of the science of climate fore5 casting. The general trends are clear, but the details are
6 obscure. As it happens, however, the description is not
7 merely metaphoricalfor of all the elements that make
8 up the climate, and have to be accounted for in models of
9 it, it is clouds that are the most obscure.
60
Improving this understanding is the purpose of two

new missions by NASA, Americas National Aeronautics and Space Administration. One of these missions,
a satellite called Aeronomy of Ice in the Mesosphere,
or AIM, was launched in April to study so-called noctilucent clouds, the highest layer of clouds in the atmosphere. These have been getting brighter and more
common in recent years, and also seem to be moving to
lower altitudes. The other mission, the Tropical Composition, Cloud and Climate Coupling (TC4) project, will
begin on July 16th.
70
10
1
2
3
4
15
6
7
8
9
20
1
2
3
4
65
6
7
8
9
1
2
Certainly, model-comparison projects alone will
3 not solve the cloud problem. Too much still remains
4 unknown about the physical mechanisms that determine
75 cloud behavior. That is why new and better observations
6 are needed to improve the fundamental assumptions on
7 which the models are based. The TC4 project will gener8 ate new data on the icy cirrus clouds that are formed in the
9 upper atmosphere by heat-driven, or convective, storm
80 systems that coalesce over warm waters in the tropics.
1 By studying these clouds from every angle and at every
2 point in their life cycle, researchers hope to learn more
3 about how these storms, which can drive air more than
4 13km above the Earths surface, will contribute to climate
85 change in a warming environment. In addition to the TC4
6 campaign and AIM, a string of NASA climate-sensing
7 satellites called the A-train is providing a global survey
8 of the vertical profile of clouds. One of these satellites,
9 CloudSat, has given the first glimpses of the middle layer
90 of clouds in the Earths atmosphere. Meteorologists were
1 once limited to a top-down or bottom-up look at clouds.
2 Since April 2006, CloudSats radar has, however, been
3 providing a globe-circling slice of the middle layer, a pre4 viously unobserved part of the atmosphere.
1
The link Dr. Knight is examining, between clouds
2 and what researchers call climate sensitivity (the degree
3 to which a particular input is likely to change the
4 climate), has been apparent for nearly 20 years. But
25 because clouds take different forms at different scales
6 from microscopic water droplets to weather fronts that
7 span hundreds of kilometersthey are devilishly hard to
8 describe in models that work by manipulating virtual
9 chunks of the atmosphere that are 100km (62 miles)
30 across and 100km high.
1
Only recently have such international undertakings
2 as the Cloud Feedback Model Intercomparison Project
3 (CFMIP) and the Cloud System Study of the Global En4 ergy and Water Cycle Experiment begun a systematic
35 comparison of the effects of clouds on dozens of the most
6 important climate models, allowing researchers to start to
7 unravel more precisely the role that clouds play in climate
8 change. In a recent paper in Climate Dynamics, Mark
9 Webb of Britains Hadley Centre for Climate Change and
40 his colleagues reported that clouds account for 66% of the
1 differences between members of one important group of
2 models and for 85% of them in another group.
3
These findings have now been complemented
4 by Dr. Knights project, which made use of
45 climateprediction.net, a network of personal com6 puters on which processing time is volunteered by
7 members of the public, to compile 57,000 different
8 runs of a global-climate model developed at the Hadley
9 Centre. She and her colleagues found that 80% of the
50 variation in the climate sensitivity predicted was due to
changes in how clouds were described in the model.
The reason why clouds matter so much to the
climate, and their role is so tricky to determine, is because
they play two contradictory roles. At low altitudes
ACT A
from it. At the high altitudes studied by AIM and TC4,

however, they trap radiant heat from below, warming
things up. At the moment, many researchers believe it
is low-level clouds that matter most. In its first phase,
participants in the CFMIP analyzed a subset of the 23
models used to compile the most recent report from the
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change. They concluded that changes in low-level clouds contributed most
to differences in the degree of warming those models
predicted. Low-level clouds are thought to matter more
than high-level ones because they are more prevalent and
because they are better at reflecting solar heat away from
the Earth than they are at trapping it, blanket-like, as high
clouds do. However, results from AIM and TC4 may
modify this viewwhich is the main point of deploying
them.
Another A-train satellite, the Cloud AerosolLidar and Infrared Pathfinder Satellite Observation
(CALIPSO)launched simultaneously with CloudSat
will map the location of layers of small particles called
aerosols that promote cloud formation. Such particles
100 act as nuclei for the condensation of water vapor into the
1 droplets of which clouds are composed.
95
6
7
8
9
2
Natural aerosols are produced by sea salt, desert
3 dust, volcanic eruptions and smoke from forest fires.
4 Aerosols are also released when cars are driven, chem105 icals manufactured and fossil fuels burned. Little is cur6 rently known about where such particles end up in the
7 atmosphere and what overall effect they have on the
8 climate. CALIPSO will help to correct that. It has al9 ready produced pictures of the volcanic plumes created
110 when part of the Soufri`ere Hill volcano on the island of
Montserrat collapsed last year, sending ash clouds high
into the atmosphere. Such gritty reality, when combined
with the models, should bring some clarity to the problem
of clouds.
36
3
36. The sixth paragraph describes:
F. the purpose of clouds for proper ecosystem
formation.
G. the dual-role of clouds to both cool and heat the
earth.
H. the importance of high-level clouds in reducing the
effects of global warming.
J. the ability of sophisticated programs such as AIM
and TC4 to track high-altitude clouds.
31. The author considers cloudy to be an appropriate

metaphor for climate forecasting because:
A. the weather in his area is often overcast.
B. from a meteorological perspective, there is no way
to account for all the complexities of the climate.
C. experts at the Hadley Centre for Climate Change
have been using that metaphor for decades.
D. predicting the climate is difficult because, although
the big picture is clear, the specific details are often
hard to see.
32. Which generalization about clouds is most strongly
supported by the passage?
F. Because clouds vary so much in terms of type,
location, and size, it is often difficult to create
models that accurately describe their effects on the
climate.
G. Clouds, though fascinating in their complexity, are
not a central element of climate forecasting.
H. The metaphor cloudy does not actually apply to
clouds, which are really quite transparent.
J. Though there are many varieties of clouds, only
aerosol clouds indicate the threat of a hurricane.
37. According the passage, many experts believe which of

the following about low-level clouds?
A. They may have a significant impact on earths
climate since they deflect heat away from the earth.
B. High-level clouds should be cultivated, since more
of them will help decrease the effects of global
warming.
C. Low-level clouds and higher altitude clouds, despite
their differences, often produce nearly identical
results.
D. The results from AIM and TC4 campaigns have
completely undermined the idea that low-level
clouds are the most important.
33. In the third paragraph, the author characterizes climate

models as:
A. well-refined enough to calculate subtle differences
in clouds.
B. unable to offer scientists any helpful conclusions
about how clouds affect the climate.
C. in need of more technicians who are trained to read
them.
D. mostly designed to handle aspects of the climate
larger and less subtle than many types of clouds.
38. According to the passage, the significance of the

A-train climate-sensing satellites is that they enable
meteorologists to:
F. view a layer of clouds that they had been previously
unable to see.
G. calculate the distance between the top and bottom
layers of clouds.
H. facilitate more international collaboration.
J. prove the theories of Dr. Knight.
39. The word convective in the seventh paragraph most
nearly means:
A. collapsed.
B. free-floating.
C. made of air.
D. controlled by heat.
34. The second paragraph functions in relation to the first

paragraph to:
F. elaborate on the problem introduced in the first
paragraph.
G. show that there are current attempts to deal with the
problem introduced in the first paragraph.
H. liken the discovery mentioned in the first paragraph
with a discovery made previously.
J. discredit the experts quoted in the first paragraph.
40. The author apparently believes which of the following

about the cloudy problems of clouds and climate
change?
F. The effort of scientists will not yield any useful
results.
G. The description of clouds would best be left to poets
rather than to scientists.
H. The combination of models and the information
from new satellites will likely broaden scientists
understanding of how clouds effect climate change.
J. Deep understanding of clouds requires the scientific
community to invest more resources in new
technology.
35. According to the passage, most current attempts to

understand how clouds affect the climate try to:
A. isolate the most important types of clouds and study
only those.
B. use non-computer based modeling systems.
C. compare the data from many different models
and sources in order to better understand the
complexities.
D. deploy solar heat to read the density of clouds.
END OF TEST 3
DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.
ACT A
37
4
SCIENCE TEST
DIRECTIONS: There are seven passages in this test.
Each passage is followed by several questions. After
reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
You are NOT permitted to use a calculator on this test.
Passage I
At high temperatures, phospholipid bilayers melt

and become more fluid, allowing looser packing and more
lateral diffusion. A bilayer composed entirely of phospholipid A was heated and the fluidity was measured as
a fraction of the bilayer melted. The melting temperature
(Tm ) of a bilayer is defined as the temperature at which half
of the bilayer has melted. The procedure was repeated with
phospholipids B and C. The results are shown in Figure 1.
Cells are surrounded by a lipid bilayer, which

is composed of many different types of phospholipid
molecules. Phospholipids consist of a polar head group
and two hydrocarbon tail groups. A phospholipid is categorized by the nature of its head group and by the lengths
and levels of saturation of its tail groups. Table 1 lists the
properties of six phospholipids found in eukaryotic lipid
bilayers.
Key
phospholipid A
phospholipid B
phospholipid C
fraction melted
1.0
Phospholipid
Head group
Charge
Carbons / tail
% saturation
Table 1
phosphatidylcholine
neutral
17
100.0
phosphatidylcholine
neutral
17
196.9
phosphatidylcholine
neutral
17
193.9
phosphatidylserine
negative
18
100.0
phosphatidylserine
negative
18
197.1
phosphatidylserine
negative
18
194.3

ACT A
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
10 20
30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
temperature (C)
Figure 1
1. According to the information in Table 1, which of the

following phospholipids is the least saturated?
A. Phospholipid A
B. Phospholipid B
C. Phospholipid C
D. Phospholipid D
38
4
5. A majority of the phospholipids on the intracellular
side of the membrane of red blood cells contain the
phosphatidylserine head group. Given this information,
what overall charge would the intracellular side of the
red blood cell membrane be expected to have?
A. Electric
B. Negative
C. Neutral
D. Positive
2. Based on Figure 1, at what temperature does the bilayer

composed of phospholipid C reach a fraction melted
of 0.8 ?
F. 39 C
G. 47 C
H. 54 C
J. 63 C
3. It was hypothesized that the bilayer composed of the
least saturated phospholipid would have the highest
melting temperature (Tm ). Is this hypothesis supported
by the data?
A. Yes; phospholipid A has the highest melting
temperature (Tm ).
B. Yes; phospholipid C has the highest melting
temperature (Tm ).
C. No; phospholipid C has the lowest melting
temperature (Tm ).
D. No; phospholipid A has the lowest melting
temperature (Tm ).
6. To investigate only the impact of the lengths of a phospholipids carbon tails on the effect of temperature on
bilayer fluidity, a scientist should design experiments
using phospholipids with:
F. varying carbon tail lengths, head group charges,
and percent saturations.
G. varying carbon tail lengths and head group charges,
but identical percent saturations.
H. varying carbon tail lengths and percent saturations,
but identical head group charges.
J. varying carbon tail lengths, but identical head
group charges and identical percent saturations.
4. Which of the following factors was controlled by the

experimenter?
F. Fraction melted
G. Shape of the bilayer
H. Fluidity of the bilayer
J. Temperature

ACT A
39
Passage II
Study 3
Next, the students examined the plants for flowering
and recorded the color when flowers were present. The
results are shown in Table 2.
The plant life cycle is made up of four major phases:

(1) sprouting, (2) growth, (3) flowering, and (4) seeding. A
group of students conducted experiments to determine the
effect of soil pH on the plant life cycle.
Table 2
Study 1
The students collected soil samples from four areas
around their school and measured the pH of each sample.
Their results are shown in Table 1.
Location
Flower color
Playground
Baseball field
Front entrance
Garbage dumpster
no flowers
no flowers
purplish-pink
blue
Table 1
Location
pH
Playground
Baseball field
Front entrance
Garbage dumpster
7.5
8.3
6.1
5.2
7. Based on Figure 1, on the days height was measured,

the plant with the greatest height was grown in soil from
which location?
A. Playground
B. Baseball field
C. Front entrance
D. Garbage dumpster
8. In Study 2, if the height of the plant grown in soil from
the front entrance had been measured on day 26, it
would have been approximately:
F. 3 cm.
G. 4 cm.
H. 5 cm.
J. 6 cm.
Study 2
The students planted hydrangea in each type of soil
collected. They placed all of the plants by a window and
measured the plant growth twice a week for one month. The
results appear in Figure 1.
Key
playground
dumpster
9. Based on the results of Studies 1 and 2, as the pH of

the soil in which the plants were grown increased, the
height of the plants grown:
A. increased.
B. decreased.
C. increased, then decreased.
D. decreased, then increased.
entrance
field
10. Which of the following is a weakness of the design of

the studies?
F. Each of the soils used had a different pH.
G. Factors other than pH may have varied between the
different soils.
H. The heights were not measured frequently enough.
J. The heights were measured for too few days.
plant height (cm)
7
6
5
4
3
11. According to Table 2, the plants grown in soil from the

playground and in soil from the baseball field did not
produce flowers. Study 2 supports the conclusion that
the plants grown in soil from these locations did not
flower because:
A. children contaminated the soil in these locations.
B. these plants did not grow large enough to bloom.
C. pesticides had been used in these locations.
D. these plants were not flowering plants.
2
1
0
10
14
17
day
21
24
28
Figure 1

ACT A
40
4
12. Based on the data in Table 1, which of the iodide (I)
salts was the least soluble?
F. BaI2
G. NiI2
H. AgI
J. CaI2
Passage III
The solubility of a metal salt is determined by the ionizability of the compound. Salts that more easily dissociate
are likely to more easily dissolve in a solvent. The solubility
product, Ksp , of a metal salt is an ionization constant that
indicates to what extent a salt will dissociate in an aqueous
solution.
13. According to Table 1, what was the mass of precipitate

produced when silver(II) sulfide (Ag2 S) was formed?
A. 0.032
B. 0.057
C. 0.063
D. 0.116
Double replacement reactions between anionic and

cationic solutions were used to test for the solubility of
the resulting metal salt. 5 mL each of a cation source and
an anion source were mixed in a clear, plastic tube. The
combined solutions were vacuum filtered and the captured
solids were dried on tared filter paper at 50 C for 24 hours.
The filter paper was weighed to determine the weight of the
solid precipitate. The results are recorded in Table 1.
Table 1
14. Which of the following ions is a cation?

F. OH
G. I
H. S
J. Ba
Weight of solids (g)
Anions
Cations
Ba
Ca
Ni
Ag
OH
None
0.011
0.022
0.063
None
None
None
0.116
SO4
0.115
0.059
None
0.032
None
None
0.046
0.057
15. According to Table 1, which of the cations produced the

fewest soluble metal salts?
A. Ni
B. Ag
C. Ba
D. Ca
The weights of the solid precipitates resulting from

the double replacement reactions were used to calculate the
solubility products for the compounds formed. These are
shown in Table 2.
16. Table 2 lists the solubility products calculated for nine

of the sixteen metal salts formed during the experiment. Why were solubility products not calculated for
the remaining salts?
F. Not enough solid precipitate was formed to
calculate the solubility products of the remaining
salts.
G. The remaining salts were insoluble.
H. The solubility products of the remaining salts were
difficult to calculate.
J. The remaining salts do not have solubility products.
Table 2
Compound
Formula
Ksp
Barium sulfate
BaSO4
1.1 1010
Calcium hydroxide
Ca(OH)2
5.5 106
Calcium sulfate
CaSO4
9.1 106
Nickel(II) hydroxide
Ni(OH)2
5.4 1016
Nickel sulfide
NiS
3.1 1019
Silver hydroxide
AgOH
1.5 108
Silver iodide
AgI
8.5 1017
Silver(II) sulfate
Ag2 SO4
1.2 105
Silver(II) sulfide
Ag2 S
6.2 1030

ACT A
17. When a salt dissociates into its constituent ions in a oneto-one ratio, its solubility product is equivalent to the
square of the concentration of the dissolved salt at saturation. Which of the following salts has the highest
dissolved concentration at saturation?
A. Calcium sulfate
B. Barium sulfate
C. Nickel sulfide
D. Silver iodide
41
Passage IV
typically arranged in stacks, and the power of a fuel stack

depends on the size and number of individual cells. Since
fuel cells rely on chemistry and not combustion as typical
car engines would, they give off no harmful emissions and
instead release water and water vapor from their tailpipes.
Unlike petroleum, hydrogen can be produced from renewable energy sources.
The need for renewable, environmentally-friendly fuel

sources has increased considerably in recent years. As the
number of cars, one of the primary consumers of nonrenewable petroleum-based fuels, has increased dramatically in the last forty years, so too has the demand for
petroleum. Increased demand has led to environmental
damage as a result of increased extraction of new petroleum
deposits. The growing number of vehicles on the road
has also caused significant environmental damage due to
the increase in harmful emissions from these vehicles. As
a result, more car manufacturers are looking for alternative methods of powering new vehicles to reduce their
petroleum consumption and their emissions. Four alternative powering technologies are discussed below.
18. Which of the technologies discussed describe fuel

systems that still require petroleum?
F. Technologies 1 and 3
G. Technologies 2 and 3
H. Technologies 2 and 4
J. Technologies 1 and 4
Technology 1
A battery electric vehicle (BEV) is an electric vehicle that utilizes chemical energy stored in a rechargeable battery pack instead of relying on an internal
combustion engine. BEVs are more energy-efficient than
any petroleum-powered internal combustion vehicle. A
gasoline-powered internal combustion engine is only 25%
energy efficient. An Alternating Current Induction electric
motor like those found in BEVs is approximately 95% energy efficient. BEVs consume no petroleum directly and
produce no exhaust fumes.
19. Renewable fuel sources are explicitly cited as a benefit

in the discussion(s) of which of the technology(ies)?
A. Technology 1
B. Technologies 3
C. Technologies 4
D. Technologies 1 and 4
20. The tailpipes of cars with each type of engine
were hooked up to an emissions-testing apparatus to
determine the composition of the exhaust. Which of
the following represents the emissions from a car with
a hydrogen fuel cell?
F. Carbon monoxide
G. Water
H. Nitrous oxide
J. Hydrocarbons
Technology 2
The density of diesel fuel is about 850 grams per
liter, whereas the density of gasoline is about 720 gram
per liter. Upon combustion, diesel typically releases about
40.9 megajoules (MJ) per liter, whereas gasoline releases
34.8 MJ/L, about 15% less. Diesel is generally simpler to
refine than gasoline and often costs less. Diesel engines
get about 40 percent better mileage. This greater fuel economy is due to the higher per-liter energy content of diesel
fuel and also to the intrinsic efficiency of the diesel engine.
Diesel-powered cars also emit less carbon dioxide than gaspowered cars.
21. Supporters of all four technologies would most likely

agree with which of the following statements?
A. A primary goal of alternative powering technologies is to reduce harmful emissions.
B. A primary goal of alternative powering technologies is to eliminate consumption of petroleum
products.
C. A primary goal of alternative powering technologies is to reduce the cost of operating a vehicle.
D. A primary goal of alternative powering technologies is to increase the emission of water.
Technology 3
Gasoline/electric hybrid cars combine a standard internal combustion engine with a rechargeable electric battery. The inclusion of both electric and gasoline power
means that a hybrid can switch back and forth between the
two power sources to achieve maximum performance. For
instance, when the car needs extra power to climb a hill,
both gas and electricity kick in. Downhill, the gas engine
quits and the car converts the motion of the vehicle, which
would normally be lost as heat from braking, into electricity to regenerate the battery. Using a combination of
gasoline and electric power reduces harmful emissions and
petroleum consumption.
22. Which of the following is an assumption underlying the

potential environmental benefits of Technology 1 ?
F. Consumers will prefer battery electric vehicles to
gasoline/electric hybrid cars.
G. Charging battery electric vehicles will be cheaper
than refueling a gasoline-powered engine.
H. Modern refining techniques have made gasoline
nearly as efficient as electricity.
J. The electricity used to power the vehicle must
come from clean, renewable sources.
Technology 4
Hydrogen fuel cells make electricity from hydrogen
and oxygen; hydrogen reacts with oxygen inside the fuel
cells, producing electricity to power the motor. The cells are

ACT A
42
4
24. According to the passage, gasoline/electric hybrids
reduce petroleum consumption by:
F. reducing the energy required to brake.
G. shutting off the internal combustion engine during
times of reduced power requirement.
H. shutting off the electric battery during times of
increased power requirement.
J. requiring the gasoline engine and the electric
battery to operate simultaneously at all times.
23. Which of the following, if true, would most undermine

the benefits of Technology 2 ?
A. Diesel-powered engines are often more powerful
than otherwise comparable gasoline-powered
engines.
B. Refining diesel is only slightly cheaper than
refining gasoline.
C. Diesel combustion emits more harmful sulfurcontaining compounds than gasoline combustion.
D. Diesel fuel is not readily available at most service
stations.

ACT A
43
Passage V
Key
alpha
beta
gamma
Amylases are enzymes that catalyze the breakdown of

starch into sugars. Specific forms of amylase differ from
each other in their optimal conditions for activity. Each
form of amylase catalyzes the production of different sugars
from starch. Experiments were performed to characterize
three forms of amylase: alpha, beta, and gamma.
starch consumed (%)
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
Experiment 1
The effect of temperature on amylase activity was examined by adding each form of amylase to solutions containing equal amounts of starch at pH 7. Each solution was
then incubated at a different temperature. After 15 minutes,
iodine, which combines with starch to form a blue complex,
was added to each solution and used to estimate the fraction
of starch broken down. The results are shown in Figure 1.
Figure 2
Experiment 3
Alcohol fermentation is a process in which yeast
convert simple sugars into ethanol and carbon dioxide.
Alcohol fermentation was used to gauge the extent to
which the starch breakdown catalyzed by each amylase had
produced simple sugars. Each form of amylase was added
to solutions containing equal amounts of starch at the optimal pH for the form of amylase being tested, then incubated at the optimal temperature. After 15 minutes, a small
amount of yeast was mixed into each solution and uninflated
balloons were stretched over the open ends of the tubes.
The tubes were then incubated at 20 C. After 60 minutes,
the balloons had become inflated. The diameters of the balloons were measured. The results are shown in Table 1.
70
60
50
40
30
20
Table 1
10
0
5
pH
Key
alpha
beta
gamma
starch consumed (%)
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
temperature (C)
Amylase
Balloon diameter (cm)
Alpha
Beta
Gamma
1.20
0.73
2.60
Figure 1
25. The results of Experiment 1 support the conclusion

that, for a given form of amylase, as the temperature
decreases, the activity:
A. increases, then decreases.
B. decreases, the increases.
C. remains constant.
D. varies, but with no particular trend.
Experiment 2
Each form of amylase was added to solutions of varying pH containing equal amounts of starch. Each solution
was incubated at the optimal temperature for the form of
amylase being tested. After 15 minutes, iodine was added
to each solution and used to estimate the fraction of starch
broken down. The results are shown in Figure 2.

ACT A
44
26. At a pH of 7, which of the following lists the amylases

in order from the lowest to the highest temperature of
maximum activity?
F. Alpha, beta, gamma
G. Alpha, gamma, beta
H. Beta, alpha, gamma
J. Beta, gamma, alpha
28. Based on Figure 2, at what pH do all three amylases

have the same activity?
F. 5.1
G. 5.6
H. 8.8
J. There is no pH at which all three amylases have the
same activity.
29. In Experiment 3, the inflated balloons measured at the
end of the experiment contain what gas?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Helium
D. Ethanol
27. Based on the results of Experiment 3, which amylase

catalyzed the breakdown of starch into the most simple
sugars?
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Gamma
D. Alpha and gamma

ACT A
30. In Experiment 2, the pH dependence of alpha amylase

activity was determined at what temperature?
F. 7 C
G. 22 C
H. 32 C
J. 37 C
45
Passage VI
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
10
Students performed the following experiments to

determine the hardness of six commonly available mineralbased materials: ceramic tile, chalk, graphite, plate glass,
porcelain, and pumice.
Experiment 1
To characterize the relative hardness of the six materials, the students performed an experiment to determine
which materials can be scratched by the others. The students attempted to scratch the surface of a piece of each
material with another piece of each material. The results
are recorded in Table 2.
Graphite
Chalk
Glass
Pumice
Ceramic
Porcelain
Graphite
Chalk
Glass
Pumice
Ceramic
Porcelain

ACT A
Graphite
Chalk
Glass
Pumice
Ceramic
Porcelain
31. On the Mohs scale, which reference mineral is capable

of scratching the nine other reference minerals?
A. Talc
B. Apatite
C. Quartz
D. Diamond
Table 2
Surface
Surface
Quartz
Talc
Gypsum
Calcite
Fluorite
Apatite
Orthoclase
Quartz
Topaz
Corundum
Diamond
Orthoclase
Hardness
Apatite
Material
Fluorite
Table 3
Calcite
Table 1
Gypsum
Scratch resistance is one measure of a minerals

hardness. Scratch resistance is often measured on the Mohs
scale of mineral hardness. The scale characterizes the
hardness of various minerals through the ability of a harder
material to scratch a softer material. The Mohs scale is
based on ten reference minerals as shown in Table 1.
Experiment 2
To determine the hardness on the Mohs scale of each
of the six materials, the students performed an experiment
to identify which of the materials can be scratched by six of
the Mohs scale reference minerals. The students attempted
to scratch the surface of a piece of each material with a
piece of each of the six reference minerals. The results are
recorded in Table 3.
32. According to Table 2, which of the materials tested

could scratch graphite?
F. Only graphite
G. Only graphite and chalk
H. All of the materials
J. None of the materials
33. Based on the results of Experiment 2, which two materials tested could have the same hardness on the Mohs
scale?
A. Graphite and chalk
B. Graphite and glass
C. Chalk and pumice
D. Glass and pumice
46
4
35. In Experiment 2, porcelain was not scratched by any of
the Mohs scale reference minerals used. Therefore, it
can be concluded that the hardness of porcelain on the
Mohs scale is:
A. 5.
B. 6.
C. 7.
D. greater than 7.
34. A second group of students tested a copper penny for its

scratch resistance to the same six Mohs scale reference
minerals. They found the penny could not be scratched
by gypsum or calcite, but could be scratched by fluorite
and the three other minerals. Which of the following
lists all of the materials tested, including the penny, in
increasing order of hardness?
F. Porcelain, ceramic, pumice, glass, penny, chalk,
graphite
G. Porcelain, ceramic, penny, pumice, glass, chalk,
graphite
H. Graphite, chalk, penny, glass, pumice, ceramic,
porcelain
J. Graphite, chalk, glass, penny, pumice, ceramic,
porcelain

ACT A
47
Passage VII
Camera tilted up at an angle
A bellows camera is an assembly composed of a flexible mid-section (the bellows); a device that holds the film
(the rear standard); and a similar device at the front that
holds the lens (the front standard). The front and rear
standards are not fixed relative to each other: movement
of the front and rear standards allows the photographer
to move the lens and film plane independently for precise
control.
film
plane
film
holder
rear
standard
Camera at ground level and parallel to the building
lens
plane
Convergence correction with lens parallel to the building
lens axis
base
rise/
fall
front
standard
Figure 2
Figure 1
Rise and fall are the vertical movements of the front

standard. Rise is a very important movement, especially
in architectural photography. One way to photograph a
tall building is to point the camera upwards. Since objects
farther away tend to appear smaller than objects that are
nearby, the sides of the building appear to converge at the
top even though the two sides of the building are, in reality,
parallel to each other. In photography, this phenomenon is
referred to as vertical convergence.
The physics behind convergence correction depends

on the shape of the lens. When light hits an object, it is bent;
this is called refraction. The shape of the lens determines
how the lens will bend or refract light. Cameras use lenses
that are biconvex, that bulge out on both sides, instead of
concave lenses that curve inward. Biconvex lenses refract
light inward and produce an image of the object that is
upside down relative to the original object. Thus, in order to
accurately capture a building in a photograph, the refracted
light from the top of the building must hit the bottom of the
film. Adjusting the rise is one way to accomplish this.
Vertical convergence is captured on film to give the

appearance that the top of the building is smaller than the
bottom of the building. As a result, the building will appear
on film as though it is falling over backwards. To correct
the appearance of the convergence of parallel lines, the photographer must increase the rise. In other words, the lens is
moved vertically along the lens plane in order to change the
portion of the image that will be captured on the film.
The path of light through a biconvex lens

s1
f
real image
Generally, the lens produces a larger image than the

film can record. This is especially true of most large
format lenses. By moving the lens up, the image is effectively moved down such that the top of the building can be
captured on the film. Adjusting the rise eliminates the optical illusion that tall buildings are falling over backwards
as shown in Figure 2.

ACT A
s2
object
Figure 3
48
36. The reason a photograph of a building looks like the

building is falling over backwards is that the picture
was taken with:
F. the film parallel to the building.
G. the film perpendicular to the building.
H. the film at an angle relative to the building.
J. the film is at the height of the top of the building.
39. A biconvex lens such as that diagrammed in Figure 3

refracts light waves toward the center of the lens such
that they converge. What would you predict a biconcave lens would do?
A. Refract light waves toward the edges of the lens
such that they diverge
B. Refract light waves toward the center of the lens
such that they diverge
C. Refract light waves away from the center of the lens
such that they converge
D. Refract light waves toward the edges of the lens
such that they converge
37. When two parallel lines appear to come together in the

distance, this phenomenon is called:
A. rise.
B. fall.
C. vertical convergence.
D. refraction.
38. The method of correcting convergence when taking a
picture of a tall building on a bellows camera is to:
F. adjust the distance between the rear standard and
the front standard such that they are farther apart.
G. adjust the tilt to keep the film plane parallel to the
building.
H. adjust the height of the film plane to include the top
of the building.
J. adjust the rise to keep the film plane parallel to the
building and include the top of the building.
40. When light waves pass through a biconvex lens, the real
image is:
F. larger than the object.
G. farther away than the object.
H. inverted relative to the object.
J. out of focus.
END OF TEST 4
STOP! DO NOT RETURN TO ANY OTHER TEST.

ACT A
49

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ACT A

DIRECTIONS: In the five passages that follow, certain

Ring Around the Collar

In fact, ring around the collar is particularly troubling

hundreds of years ago, since most washing used to be done

shirts when only the collars were dirty, many individuals

tried to solve this problem.

individual. [3] Montague was thrilled with the results and

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it back on to the shirt.

7. Which of the following sequences of sentences makes

This innovation changed not only the average

household and the town of Troy. Small garment

factories began to appear all over town to have filled

the growing need for detachable collars, and orders

for the collars came from around the country.

Detachable cuffs were an enormous money maker. By

1897, there were twenty-five manufacturers in Troy.

11. The writer is considering deleting this sentence. If the

They were producing a total of eight million collars per

year. Collars were offered in a wide array of styles, and the

starched white collar became the status symbol of the

newly emergent population of office workers.

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Although the dress shirt with detachable collar

was a staple in businessmens attire from the 1840s

These casual shirts were more easily laundered, making

Not Just Rats with Wings

important roles in history. One famous pigeon was

even responsible for saving the lives of over 200 men

During World War I, messages were most often

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sent from the field. Because soldiers often carried several

carrier pigeons, which was useful tools for communication.

An important message could be written on a piece of paper,

attached to a pigeons leg.

22. The writer would like to add a sentence to transition

The 77th Division of the U.S. Army, now

known as The Lost Battalion, were stranded behind

enemy lines. The Battalions soldiers needed urgently to

send communication, since they mistakenly were being

In an attempt to stop the enemy fire, the soldiers of

The desperate soldiers tried one final time, sending up a

pigeon named Cher Ami. Cher Ami made it to the base

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Cher Ami the French Croix de Guerre Medal for his

heroic was awarded service. He died at Fort Monmouth,

NJ, on June 13, 1919, as a result of his wounds.

30. The writer would like to add a sentence to give another

hearing of a pigeon as noble as this, it is hard to consider it

The following paragraphs may or may not be

A Toast To Good Health

they have pieces of burned bread in their glasses.

Nevertheless, it is clear that the toast retains its underlying

gesture of cheer and goodwill.

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The Romans (who were similarly preoccupied with

the threat of poisoning, shared this tradition of drinking in