K101 / K102 Final Exam 4 Study Guide, Fall 2014. 200 questions, you supply the answers!

Final Exam will consist of 100 questions: Some 2-pointers taken directly as written from this study guide, and some 1-pointers not
too far from the questions below. New (~50%) = Cumulative (~50%). Good luck!
Ch 27 Bacteria:
1. Some bacteria avoid a hosts immune system by means of:
a. efficient use of their flagella.
b. cloaking the cell with host proteins.
c. cloaking the cell with a watery capsule.
d. changing their cell wall structure to resemble that of their host.
e. eliminating the use of a membrane.
2. Even though bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles, such as chloroplasts and mitochondria, they can still perform the
functions of these organelles by localizing certain metabolic enzymes on:
a. the nuclear membranes.
b. the endoplasmic reticulum.
c. infoldings of the plasma membrane.
d. ribosomes.
e. the cell wall.
3. Extrachromosomal circles of DNA in bacteria called ______ often carry genes involved in _______:
a. capsids, bacterial reproduction
b. capsids, antibiotic resistance.
c. plasmids, viral resistance.
d. plasmids, antibiotic resistance.
4. Many Gram (+) Eubacteria like Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthraxis have the ability to survive harsh
environmental conditions by protecting their DNA in a dormant structure called a(n)
a. capsule
b. endospore
c. endotoxin
d. sporangium
e. capsid
5. Match the bacterium with the human disease it can cause
i) Clostridium tetani
a. Anthrax
ii) Clostridium botulinum
b. Gonorrhea
iii) Helicobacter pylori
c. Tetanus (Lockjaw)
iv) Bacillus anthraxis
d. Stomach ulcers
v) Neisseria gonorrhea
e. Botulism (food poisoning)
6. Once they appeared on Earth, ___ forever changed the atmosphere on earth by the production of large quantities of
oxygen gas.
a. Gm (+) eubacteria
b. archaebacteria
c. cyanobacteria
d. plants
e. Gm (-) rickettsias
7. Prokaryotes found inhabiting the Great Salt Lake would be the _____.
a. cyanobacteria
b. extreme halophiles
c. methanogens
d. extreme thermophiles
8. The structure in the accompanying figure labeled C (outermost layer) is ___, and the
structure indicated by the letter I is _____:
a. C - the plasma membrane, I the cilia.
b. C - the capsule, I the cilia
c. C - the capsule, I the flagella
d. C - the cell wall, I the flagella
e. C - the capsule, I the pilus
9. What is the function of the structures labeled B?
a. to adhere to host cells, or other bacteria, or solid substrates
b. to prevent phagocytosis by a white blood cell of the host
c. to transmit DNA from one cell to another
d. to exchange genetic material and genetic traits like antibiotic resistance between cells
e. All answers except B
1

10. The ____ Archaebacteria are typically found in extremely hot environments, whereas the _______ Archaebacteria are
typically found in swampy environments lacking oxygen.
a. Extreme halophile, methanogenic
b. Extreme thermophile, methanogenic
c. Pyrrhanogen, Extreme halophilic
d. Methanogens, Extreme thermophilic
e. Gram positive, Gram negative.
11. Organisms that share the most DNA homology to mitochondria and chloroplasts, respectively, are:
a. Proteobacteria, cyanoacteria.
b. Proteobacteria, green sulfur bacteria.
c. Eubacteria, green sulfur bacteria.
d. Eubacteria, cyanobacteria.
e. E. coli, green sulfur bacteria
12. What makes rRNA (or another sequence) a good evolutionary chronometer?
a. It is universally distributed across group chosen all organisms have rRNA.
b. It is functionaly similar between organisms rRNAs all participate in protein synthesis.
c. Its sequence changes slowly - good for looking across long periods of time
d. The rRNA sequences can be aligned, or matched up, between 2 organisms.
e. All of the above
13. The most significant difference between the Archaea and the Eubacteria is:
a. the lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea.
b. the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Eubacteria.
c. the presence of a single filament flagellum in the Eubacteria.
d. the small subunit (16 S) rRNA sequence.
e. All of the above.
14. The first indication that Archaea were different from the Eubacteria came from:
a. the absence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.
b. Ribosome size.
c. 16 S rRNA sequence.
d. nuclei.
e. response to antibiotics.
15. Most bacterial cells keep from bursting in a hypotonic environment by
a. an efficient water pump.
b. a tough cell membrane.
c. pumping large quantities of salts into the cell.
d. a rigid cell wall.
e. a stiff capsule.
16. Gram-positive bacteria stain _____ in a gram stain because of a thick layer of _____ in their cell walls
a. green; peptidoglycan
b. purple; peptidoglycan
c. green; cellulose
d. purple; polysaccharides
e. red; polysaccharides
17. Which of the following groups of prokaryotes contains the genus Clostridium, responsible for the human diseases tetanus
and botulism?
a. Spirochetes
b. Cyanobacteria
c. Methanogens
d. Gram Positive Eubacteria
e. Proteobacteria
18. Which of the following groups of prokaryotes in the figure above
contains the bacteria Helicobacter pylori, responsible for the
human ulcers, and E. coli, beneficial intestinal bacteria in
humans?
a. Thermophiles
b. Cyanobacteria
c. Methanogens
d. Gram Positive Eubacteria
e. Proteobacteria

19. Which of the following groups of prokaryotes might be found in the Great Salt Lake, the Red Sea, the Dead Sea, but NOT
necessarily in the ocean?
a. Cyanobacteria
b. Methanogens
c. Gram Positive Eubacteria
d. Proteobacteria.
e. Extreme Halophiles
Ch 28: Protists:
20. What type of protists have formed massive deposits of chalk, as seen in the White Cliffs of Dover?
a. Diatoms
b. Dinoflagellates
c. Alveolates (Ciliates)
d. Cercozoans (Forams)
e. Euglenas
21. Pseudopods are used by the members of clade Amoebozoa for ingesting food as well as for:
a. reproduction.
b. excretion.
c. digestion.
d. movement.
e. avoiding predation.
22. Which of the following is true about Radiolarans?
a. They cause periodic red tides, poisoning shellfish and the people who eat the shellfish
b. They capture prey through the use of thread-like pseudopods
c. They have a test (shell) of calcium carbonate (chalk)
d. B and c
e. All of the above
23. Entamoeba histolytica, a parasite that is the causative agent of Amoebic Dysentery, crawls through the small intestine of its
victims via pseudopod formation. Based on this information, Entamoeba histolytica is a member of the clade
a. Euglenozoa
b. Amoebozoa
c. Alveolata
d. Stramenopila
24. A commercially important unicellular protist whose silica shells are used in filters, polishes, toothpaste and various
industrial processes are the:
a. dinoflagellates.
b. euglenoids.
c. apicomplexans.
d. zooflagellates.
e. diatoms.
25. Protists like ________________ represent an intermediate stage in eukaryotic evolution when cells each had two haploid
nuclei but fusion to become a true diploid organism had not occurred.
a. Plasmodium
b. Amoeba
c. Euglena
d. Giardia
e. Paramecium
26. The parasitic protist that causes malaria, Plasmodium, must spend part of its life cycle in a nonhuman host. What
organism(s) serve(s) as the vector for this life cycle?
a. rats
b. sand flies
c. mosquitos
d. leeches
e. tse-tse flies
27. Trypanosomes are eukaryotes that are currently classified in the Clade
a. Amoebozoa, since Trypanosomes move by lobe-like amoeboid motion
b. Cercozoa, since Trypanosomes move by threadlike pseudopods
c. Stramenopilia (Heterokonts), since trypanosomes have a tinsel and a smooth flagella
d. Euglenozoa, since trypanosomes have a flagella with a spiral crystalline rod
e. Alveolata, since trypanosomes have sac-like alveoli underneath their plasma membrane
3

28. Which organisms are capable of producing a "red tide", secreting a nerve agent toxic to humans?
a. dinoflagellates
b. chrysophytes (diatoms)
c. sporozoans
d. euglenids
e. red algae
29. The mitochondria of eukaryotic cells most likely arose as a result of endosymbiosis between a eukaryotic cell and a
a. Cyanobacteria (Blue-green bacteria).
b. Gram (-) bacterium like Rickettsia.
c. Gram (+) bacterium like Bacillus
d. Gram (-) bacterium like E. coli
e. Spiral bacteria like spirochaetes
30. In paramecium and stentor, the surface of the cell is covered with thousands of short, hairlike _____:
a. pili
b. pseudopods
c. flagella
d. cilia
e. trichomes
31. Euglena and dinoflagellates show Secondary Endosymbiosis in that
a. they have both mitochondria and chloroplasts
b. they have two lipid bilayers around their mitochondria
c. they have chloroplasts, but they are non-functional
d. they have two lipid bilayers around their chloroplasts
e. they have three lipid bilayers around their chloroplasts.
32. Which parasitic protist has 2 haploid nuclei, 2 pairs of flagella, remnants of mitochondrial genes (but no intact
mitochondria) and lives and reproduces in the small intestines of mammals?
a. Chara
b. Giaridia
c. Amoeba
d. Stentor
e. Volvox
33. Evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory (Margulis, 1967) includes
a. similarity between bacterial size and the size of mitochondria and chloroplasts
b. the presence of a single circular chromosome in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts
c. reproduction by binary fission in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts
d. 70S ribosomes in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts
e. All of the above provides evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory.
34. Evidence that Chara is the direct ancestor of all land plants includes
a. the mechanism of cell wall synthesis in Chara and all land plants
b. the presence of vascular tissue in Chara and all land plants
c. the presence of homologous chloroplasts (chlorophylls a and b, as well as accessory pigments) in Chara and all land plants
d. the presence of a cuticle in in Chara and all land plants
e. A and C only.
35. Which example below is a characteristic shared by all excavates (diplomonads and parabasalids):
a. Both lack nuclei.
b. Both are adapted to anaerobic environments.
c. Both lack, or have highly reduced, mitochondria.
d. Both have a single flagellum.
e. Both have two nuclei and 4 flagella
36. Among the protists below, which typically moves with one tinsel flagella and one smooth flagella?
a. Stentor
b. Euglena
c. Trypanosoma
d. Plasmodium
e. Diatoms

Ch 31 FUNGI
37. Aspergillus soyae, one of the fungi used commercially to make soy sauce, reproduces asexually via conidia but has no
known sexual cycle. It is thus classified as one of the
a. Ascomycota
b. Basidiomycota
c. Deuteromycota
d. Zygomycota
e. Oomycota
38. A wildlife pathologist is examining some skin tissue from a dead frog. She notes the presence of a fungus. She cultures the
fungal cells and notices that some of the cells are flagellated. She concludes that the frog has a disease caused by
a. an ascomycete fungus.
b. a zygomycete fungus.
c. a basdiomycete fungus.
d. a chytridomycete fungus.
39. A coenocytic mycelium is:
a. A mesh of branched filaments produced by spores.
b. Formed of hyphae with chitin-reinforced walls.
c. A mycelium characterized by long hyphal cells with hundreds or thousands of nuclei.
d. Characteristic of the zygomycota
e. All of these are correct.
40. The cell walls of fungi are composed of:
a. cellulose.
b. lipids.
c. glycogen.
d. chitin.
e. chlorophyll.
Use the fungal life cycle figure at right to answer the following 2 questions
41. The cells in this mushroom are
a. 1= haploid,
2 = diploid
b. 1= dikaryotic,
2 = haploid
c. 1= diploid,
2 = haploid
d. 1= dilkaryotic
2 = diploid
e. 1= haploid,
2 = dikaryotic
42. The products of meiosis released by this fungus
3
(arrow indicated by 3):
a. Are haploid
b. Are diploid
c. Are called basidiospores
d. Are called conidia
2
1
e. A and b only
f. A and C only
43. The sac fungi are characterized by sexual
reproductive structures called__________ and
asexual reproductive structures called
_____________:
a. asci, conidia.
b. basidia, sporangia
c. gemmae cups, conidia.
d. conidiophores, ascocarps
e. conidia, asci
44. Claviceps purpurea infests grain like rye and produces _______________, a precursor of LSD which, if accidentally
ingested, can cause hallucinations and even death.
a. an ergot
b. a smut
c. a rust
d. a brown rot
e. a mildew

45. Consuming even a single mushroom of the genus _______________ can be fatal due to the irreversible inhibition of the
enzyme RNA polymerase.
a. Agaricus
b. Shittake
c. Portobello
d. Amanita
e. Oyster
46. DNA and rRNA analysis indicates that modern fungi descended from
a. Plants
b. Diatoms and other protists with a shell made of chitin
c. Colonial, flagellated protists similar to choanoflagellates
d. Colonial, photosynthesic protists similar to volvox
e. Protists that have large masses of amoeboid cells like plasmidial slime molds
47. Puffballs and shelf fungi are most closely related to:
a. molds.
b. truffles.
c. the common edible mushroom.
d. yeast.
e. the black bread mold.
48. Which two of the following choices (a-j) is mismatched?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Bread mold - zygomycetes

Sac fungi - Ascomycota
Yeast - Ascomycota
Amanita mushrooms Ascomycota
Shelf fungi Basidiomycota

f.
g.
h.
i.
j.

Mushroom Basidiomycetes
Sac fungi Ascomycetes
Club fungi Basidiomycetes
Puff balls Basidiomycetes
Corn smut - Ascomycetes

49. Mycorrhizal fungi benefits plants by:

a. increasing photosynthetic area.
b. increasing absorptive surface area of roots.
c. increasing chlorophyll content.
d. increasing leaf area.
e. All of the above.
50. The sexual spores produced by black bread mold, Rhizopus, are called
a. zygospores.
b. ascospores.
c. basidiospores.
d. conidia
e. puffballs.
51. Lichens reproduce primarily asexually by ______, which are fragments of the body of the lichen.
a. conidia
b. soredia
c. asci
d. thalli
52.
Ch 29 SEEDLESS PLANTS - NON-VASCULAR AND VASCULAR:
53. An important difference between plants and algae is the presence of :
a. chlrorophyll.
b. a waxy cuticle
c. lignin
d. stomata with guard cells
e. cellulose
54. Which is a key difference between alternation of generations in plants and sexual reproduction in non-plant
organisms?
a. In plants, the haploid and diploid stages are both multicellular.
b. In plants, only the haploid stage is multicellular.
c. In plants, the haploid generation is always dependent on the diploid generation.
d. In other sexually reproducing organisms, the haploid and diploid generations are both multicellular.
e. In other sexually reproducing organisms, the fusion of gametes forms a zygote before an embryo.
55.

56. When you see a green, "leafy" moss, you are looking at the _________ generation
a. haploid sporophyte
b. haploid gametophyte
c. diploid sporophyte
d. diploid gametophyte
e. structure where meiosis occurs
f. structure that results directly from a fertilized egg
57. The leafy fern that you might have as a house plant is the _____________________ generation.
a. diploid sporophyte
b. diploid gametophyte
c. haploid sporophyte
d. haploid gametophyte
58. Fertilization in moss occurs when sperm swim from a(n) _____ and down the neck of a(n)
a. antheridium ... sporangium
b. sporangium ... antheridium
c. antheridium ... archegonium
d. archegonium ... antheridium
e. sporangium ... archegonium
59. List the times each organism first appeared on earth: The last one has been done for you
a. First flowering plants
= _150MYA______________
b. First seed plants
= _360MYA_____________
c. First pteridophytes (ferns)
= _______________
d. First land plants (bryophytes)
= _______________
e. First animals (ie: jellyfish)
= _______________
f. First fungi
= _______________
g. First eukaryotes (protists)
= _______________
h. First photosynthetic bacteria
= _______________
i. First bacterial life (Archaea)
= 3.8 billion years ago
60. One type of asexual reproduction in liverworts involves formation of :
a. setae.
b. gemmae.
c. fronds.
d. archegonia.
e. prothalli.
61. The main advancement exhibited by ferns over mosses and other byrophytes is:
a. presence of leaves.
Haploid
b. presence of specialized vascular tissue.
c. presence of gametophyte generation and
sporophyte generation.
d. presence of seeds.
62. In the fern life cycle shown at right, where is the
process of meiosis taking place?
C
a. In the archaegonium - A
b. In the fern sori A
c. In the diploid zygote - B
d. In the heart-shaped Prothallus C
A
e. In the fiddlehead - D
63. The haploid gametohyte (C )
a. develops from meiosis in the sori
D
b. Has some cells that make flagellated sperm
c. Has some cells that make haploid eggs
d. Will nourish the young fern fiddlehead
e. All of the above
64. The "dots" on the underside of a fern frond are
spore cases; therefore, what is true of the plant to
Diploid
which the frond belongs?
a. It is a spore.
b. It is a sporophyte.
c. It is a gametophyte.
d. It is a spermatophyte.
8

65. The simplest vascular plants are the:

a. mosses.
b. whisk ferns.
c. charophytes.
d. hornworts.
e. liverworts.
66. The most recent group of plants to evolve are the:
a. gymnosperms.
b. hornworts.
c. angiosperms.
d. conifers.
e. gnetophytes.
67. In plants the fertilized egg develops into a multicellular _________ within a female
gametangium.
a. zygote
b. seed
c. embryo
d. endosperm
e. cotyledon
68. In the age of the dinosaurs (~100 million years ago), these plants were tree-sized and
the dominant plants of the Carboniferous period. (Today, only 1 genus remains).
a. Equisetum ,the horsetails
b. Lycopodium, the club moss
c. Psilotum, the whisk fern
d. Polypodium, a true fern

2
13
78

5 6

Ch 30 SEED PLANTS: GYMNOSPERMS AND ANGIOSPERMS

69. The eggs of seed plants are fertilized within ovules, and the ovules then develop into _____
a. seeds
b. spores
c. gametophytes
d. fruit
e. ovaries
70. In this extreme close-up of the female gametophyte of a flowering plant, which will be fertilized by the 2 pollen nuclei,
and what will happen as a result?
a. Cell 5 will be fertilized with a pollen nucleus, which will become the 2n embryo
b. Cell 2 will be fertilized with a pollen nucleus,, which will become the 2n embryo
c. Nuclei 7 and 8 will fuse with a pollen nucleus, which will become the 3n endosperm
d. Cells 4 and 6 will be fertilized with a pollen nucleus,, which will become the 3n endosperm
e. a and c
f. b and d
71. In angiosperms, double fertilization produces
a. twin embryos (diploid)
b. the 2n embryo and the 3n antipodals
c. the 2n embryo and the 2n seed coat
d. the 2n embryo and the 3n endosperm
e. the 3n endosperm and the 2n seed coat
72. Following fertilization, an unequal division of the cytoplasm occurs to split the embryo into two cells. Which of the
following is true?
a. The upper, terminal cell becomes the embryo and eventually the new plant
b. The lower, basal cell becomes the suspensor and anchors the embryo within the seed
c. The upper, terminal cell becomes the endosperm
d. a and b only
e. b and c only
73. Seeds have advantages over spores. For example, _____
a. seeds contain embryonic plants, an abundant food supply, and a protective covering
b. seeds can survive for extended periods of time at reduced metabolic rates
c. seeds are single cells, demanding fewer nutrients from the parent plants
d. seeds can survive even in conditions that are unfavorable for the parent plants
e. all answers except C
9

f. All of the aove

74. Pollen is __________ and contains __________.
a. diploid ... spores
b. diploid ... sperm nuclei
c. haploid ... spores
d. haploid ... sperm nuclei
75. The receptive portion of a flower that receives the pollen is the
a. ovary
b. stigma
c. anther
d. carpel
e. anther
76. In flowering plants one megaspore gives rise to _____ nuclei
a. four diploid
b. four haploid
c. eight haploid
d. eight diploid
e. microsporangia
77. The triploid nucleus of the embryo sac develops into the _____
a. embryo
b. endosperm
c. fruit
d. carpel
e. seed
78. A pea pod is formed from _____. A pea inside the pod is formed from _____.
a. an ovule ... a carpel
b. an ovary ... an ovule
c. an ovary ... a pollen grain
d. an anther ... an ovule
e. endosperm ... an ovary
79. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of dicots?
a. two seed leaves
b. parts of flowers in fours or fives
c. a taproot
d. vascular bundles arranged in a ring
e. veins in leaves usually parallel
Ch 35 PLANT ANATOMY:
80.Plant Anatomy: Match each of the descriptions with one of the cell types of a plant listed below (a-e).
i) Living cells that lack nuclei and ribosomes C
a) Chlorenchyma;
ii) Thin, tapered water transport cells with numerous pits D b) Collenchyma
iii) Thick, barrel shaped cells with end plate perforations E c) Sieve Tubes
iv) Cells with unevenly thickened primary walls that B
d) Tracheids
support young, growing parts of a plantA
v) Parenchyma cells specialized in function for photosynthesis
e) Vessel Elements
81. Water and dissolved minerals are conducted from the roots to the stems
and leaves via ___________, whereas sugar is conducted through
specialized cells known as _____________
a. Parenchyma, collenchyma
b. sieve tubes, xylem
c. xylem, companion cells
d. xylem, sieve tubes
e. phloem, companion cells
82. Secondary plant tissue produced by the vascular cambium includes all
of the following, except:
a. Vessel elements
b. Sieve cells
c. Tracheids
d. Trichomes
e. Companion cells
10

83. If you were able to start your car your car at the center of a large redwood tree and than drive out to the bark, as
above, you would cross, in this order:
a. Young wood, old wood, oldest wood, vascular cambium, phloem, periderm
b. Oldest wood, old wood, young wood, vascular cambium, phloem, periderm
c. Periderm, phloem, vascular cambium, oldest wood, old wood, youngest wood
d. Young wood, old wood, oldest wood, vascular cambium, periderm, phloem
e. Oldest wood, old wood, young wood, vascular cambium, periderm, phloem
84. Specialized cells of the dermal system in plants that function in gas exchange are called
a. Cuticle cells
b. Trichomes
c. Periderm
d. Guard cells
e. Companion cells
85.
86. CH 39: PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
87. Name that Hormone: For the next 8 questions, use the following 5 choices to answer:
(1) abscisic acid
(2) auxin
(3) cytokinin
(4) ethylene
(5) gibberellin
a) What is the hormone that promotes elongation by loosening plant cell walls to allow expansion due to turgor pressure?
b) What hormone is synthesized near the apical meristem and promotes apical dominance in plants?
c) What is the hormone that promotes seed dormancy and prevents seeds from germinating too soon in the winter?
d) What is the hormone that promotes stem elongation and was first discovered in "foolish seedling" disease in rice?
e) Which hormone promotes cell division and lateral root formation in plants?
f) Which hormone stimulates both leaf abscission and fruit ripening?
g) The "stress hormone" involved in stomatal closure during water stress is:
h) Unripe green fruits ripen quickly in supermarkets or commercial storage facilities after exposure to:
88. Sugar is translocated in phloem from a source, or an area of _____, to a sink, or an area of _____.
a. low sugar concentration; high sugar concentration
b. high sugar concentration; low sugar concentration
c. positive water potential; negative water potential
d. negative water potential; positive water potential
89. Plant growth in response to a mechanical stimulus, such as contact with a solid object is called.
a. Heliotropism
b. Phototropism
c. Gravitropism
d. Thigmotropism
e. Geotropic bending
90. Primary growth in a young stem occurs at the
a. Root apical meristem
b. Lateral meristem
c. Shoot apical meristem
d. Vascular cambium
e. Epidermis
91.
Ch 20 BIOTECHNOLOGY (from Powerpoint only, not Campbell)
92. By fusing protein-coding eukaryotic DNA with bacterial promoter sequences, scientists can ensure:
a. that bacterial DNA sequences will be inserted into the eukaryotic DNA sequence.
b. that the eukaryotic DNA can be expressed in bacterial cells.
c. that no mutations will occur within the eukaryotic sequence.
d. that transcription of the eukaryotic DNA will not occur.
e. that introns of the eukaryotic DNA will not be expressed.
93. Which of the recombinant DNA drugs is incorrectly matched with its indication (the disease it is prescribed to treat)?
a. Humulin (Lilly): Diabetes (Insulin)
b. Epogen (Amgen): Anemia (Erythropoetin)
c. Neupogen (Amgen): Mult iple sclerosis (interferon)
d. Activase/TNKase (Genentech): AMI - Acure myocardial infarction (heart attack)
e. Regranex (Novartis): Diabetic foot ulcers (PDGF)
11

94. In the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique, a heating phase and a cooling phase alternate in cycles. An
original sample of DNA would have to pass through how many total cycles to amplify the DNA ~1 billion times?
(What about 2 billion times? What about 1 trillion times?)
a. 20
b. 21
c. 30
d. 31
e. 40
95. Which of these statements is NOT TRUE regarding the procedure for making cloned animals?
a. The recipient egg is e-nucleated before the procedure
b. The donor nucleus can be either from a male or a female cell
c. The donor nucleus is from a haploid, quiescent cell
d. A brief electric shock is used to simulate fertilization
e. A surrogate mother is used to carry the pregnancy to term
96. Where would Biotech be without these scientists? Briefly describe the contribution (experiment, technique) of these
scientists in the timeline of Biotechnology
i) Ian Wilmut
d
a. First Human Gene Therapy
ii) Craig Venter
f
b. Dideoxy DNA Sequencing
iii) W. French Anderson a
c. Isolation of Bacterial Plasmids
iv) Fred Sanger
b
d. Cloning of Dolly the Sheep
v) Stanley Cohen
c
e. Derivation of Human Embryonic Stem Cells
vi) Kary Mullis (1993) g
f. Whole Genome Shotgun Sequencing
vii) Herb Boyer
h
g. Polymerase Chain Reaction
viii) James Thompson
e
h. Isolation of Restriction Enzymes, Founder of Genentech
97. Which of the following ingredients is/are necessary for PCR?
a. Template DNA
b. Deoxynucleotides
c. A thermostable DNA polymerase
d. DNA primers
e. All of the above
Use the figure above to answer the next 2 questions.
98. What process or enzyme was used for Step 1?
a. PCR
b. a bacteriophage
c. a reverse transcriptase
d. a DNA ligase
e. a restriction enzyme
99. The use of antibiotic medium at the end of this process:
a. selects against plasmids containing human DNA fragments.
b. selects for plasmids containing particular DNA fragments.
c. selects for bacteria containing plasmids.
d. selects for bacteria lacking plasmids.
e. prevents contamination of the medium
100.Match the cloned animal with their claim to fame:
i) Idaho Gem
C
a. First cloned housecat (female calico)
ii) Dolly
E
b. First cloned animal that was born from its genetic twin
iii) Prometia
B
c. First cloned mule
iv) Cc
A
d. First cloned piggie engineered for human organ transplants
v) Joy
D
e. First cloned mammal (1996)
101.Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule at right?
a. ligase
b. transcriptase
c. a restriction enzyme
d. RNA polymerase
e. DNA polymerase
102.Human embryonic stem cells (hES cells) may be useful in transplantation medicine
because
a. They are pleuripotent and can form virtually any cell type in the body with appropriate hormones and growth factors
b. They make the enzyme telomerase, allowing them to replicate indefinitely in tissue culture
c. They have the same genetic karyotype as a normal human cell
12

d. They can be prepared to provide an exact tissue match to a patient

e. All of the above
103.The sequencing gel below was produced from 4 samples of a DNA fragment that was incubated with chainterminating ddNTP nucleotides. What is the sequence of nucleotides (5 3) in the original single-stranded DNA
fragment?
CATG
a. 5'
TTCTACGCTACG
b. 5'
GCATCGCATCTT
c. 5'
AAGATGCGAAGC
d. 5'
CGTAGCGTAGAA
e. 5
GAATACACATGAG
104.The bacteria Bacillus
thurengiensis (Bt)
a. naturally makes a
crystal protein toxic to Lepidopteran insects
b. causes food
poisoning in people who eat the crystal protein
c. is the active
ingredient in the insecticide Dipel
d. all of the above
e. a and c
105.In genetic
engineering, the naturally-occurring plasmid from
Agrobacterium
tumefaciens is used to
a. insert any gene of
interest into plant chromosomes
b. cut DNA at a
specific base sequence
c. locate specific
genes on animal chromosomes
d. detect and correct
mistakes in DNA replication
e. do all of these
106.In 2000, scientists developed a crop called Golden Rice. This genetically modified food
a. contains 4 genes from daffodils and bacteria that together produce the pigment B-carotene in rice
b. holds the potential for preventing the deaths of millions of people every year
c. can help prevent blindness resulting from vitamin A deficiency
d. will be offered at low cost or no cost to developing countries
e. all of the above
107.Crops that are RoundUp Ready
a. Make the herbicide RoundUp in every cell of the plant
b. Kill weeds in the fields where they are growing
c. Are genetically modified to be resistant to treatment with RoundUp herbicide
d. Contain a mutant form of the enzyme EPSP synthase that is unaffected by RoundUp herbicide
e. c and d only
108.The results that have come from the Human Genome Project (HGP) include
a. A detailed map of the DNA sequence of virtually the entire Human Genome
b. Identification of over 2,000 disease genes for human genetic disorders
c. A prediction of ~25,000 genes, encoding ~100,000 proteins and thousands of miRNAs
d. The development of automated sequencing technology that has allowed scientists to determine the DNA sequence of
hundreds of genomes such as Drosophila melanogaster (fruitfly), Mus musculus (mouse), and Pan troglodytes
(Chimpanzee)
e. All of the above
109.
CH 18 Viruses and Prions
110. Viruses that attack bacteria are called:
a. phages.
b. bacteriods
c. prions.
d. virons.
e. viroids.
111. In the bacteriophage shown above, the functions of the structures labeled 2 and
3
are
a. 2= protection of the genetic material, 3= locomotion.
b. 2= mate recognition, 3= attachment to a host cell
c. 2= protection of the genetic material, 3= replication.
d. 2= to take over host cell mechanisms, 3= attachment to a host cell.
e. 2= protection of the genetic material, 3= attachment to a host cell
112.
13

113. Retroviruses like the HIV virus differ from other viruses by:
a. Using the enzyme reverse transcriptase to copy their RNA into DNA.
b. the shape of their capsid.
c. the way they infect their host cells.
d. the sugar coating on their capsids.
e. lytically destroying their hosts.
114. All of the following are DNA viruses except:
a. The Herpes virus that causes cold sores
b. The Influenza virus that causes the flu.
c. The Pox-viruses that cause chicken pox
d. The Human Papilloma virus that causes cervical cancer
e. The Parvoviruses that cause the common cold
115. The H5N1 Influenza virus
a. Caused a worldwide influenza pandemic in 1918
b. Caused the deaths of 40 million people worldwide during World War I
c. Is highly similar genetically to recent viruses responsible for deadly Bird Flu or Avian Flu
d. Is a retrovirus that mutates easily and often due to sloppy replication enzymes
e. All of the above
116. The five stages of a viral infection are attachment, penetration, _______, assembly, and release
a. Lysis
b. Integration
c. Lysogeny
d. Transduction
e. Replication
117. The Prion Hypothesis (Dr. Stanley Pruissner) states that
a. Mad cow disease is caused by eating beef tainted with abnormally folded prion proteins.
b. Cooking beef or lamb infected with prion proteins will destroy the prions, making the meat safe to eat.
c. Kuru, a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy in humans, can be caused by the religious practice of ritual
cannibalism.
d. Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies result from the conversion of normal PrP-c to an abnormally folded PrP-sc
state
e. Prion particles infect cells of the brain and redirect the cells protein synthesis machinery to replicate new prion particles
in the neurons responsible for memory
118. Prion diseases of humans include:
a. Kuru.
b. Scrapie.
c. Mad Cow Disease.
d. Variant Creutfeld-Jacob disease (vCJD).
e. A and D
119.
120.
121.CUMULATIVE FINAL QUESTIONS
122.Ch4 Organic Molecules
123.What do the four elements of life -carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen-have in common?
a. They all have the same number of valence electrons
b. Each element exists in only one isotopic form
c. They are equal in electronegativity
d. They are elements produced only by living cells
e. They all have unpaired electrons in their valence shells.
124. Using the functional group diagram at right answer
A E which of the following is incorrectly matched?:
a. A = amino group
b. B = thiol group
c. C = carbonyl (aldehyde)
d. D= organic phosphate
e. E= carboxyl group
125.In a single molecule of water, the two hydrogen atoms are bonded
to a single oxygen atom by
a. hydrogen bonds.
b. nonpolar covalent bonds.
14

c. polar covalent bonds.

d. ionic bonds.
126.Stanley Miller's 1953 experiments demonstrated conclusively that
a. life arose on Earth 3.8 bilion years ago from simple inorganic molecules.
b. organic molecules can be synthesized abiotically under conditions that may have existed on early Earth.
c. life arose on Earth from simple organic molecules, with energy from lightning and volcanoes.
d. the conditions on early Earth were conducive to the origin of life.
e. the conditions on early Earth were conducive to the abiotic synthesis of organic molecules.
127.Which functional group shown at right is:
i) is an acidic functional group that can release H+ into a solution?C
ii) a basic functional group that can accept H+?D
iii) can exist as a ketone or aldehyde configuration?B
iv) a characteristic of alcohols? A
v) helps stabilize proteins by forming covalent cross-links within or between
protein molecules?E
128.Water is able to form hydrogen bonds because
a. oxygen has a valence of 2.
b. the water molecule is shaped like a tetrahedron.
c. the bonds that hold together the atoms in a water molecule are polar covalent bonds.
d. the oxygen atom in a water molecule has a weak positive charge.
e. each of the hydrogen atoms in a water molecule is weakly negative in charge.
129.
130.CH 5 Macromolecules
131.Which modifications of fatty acids will best keep triglycerides solid at warmer temperatures?
a. creating cis double bonds to the fatty acids
b. adding hydrogens to the fatty acids
c. creating trans double bonds to the fatty acids
d. adding hydrogens and trans double bonds to the fatty acids
e. adding cis double bonds and trans double bonds to the fatty acids
132.Polysaccharides, triacylglycerides, and proteins are similar in that they
a. are synthesized from monomers by the process of hydrolysis.
b. are synthesized from subunits by dehydration reactions.
c. are synthesized as a result of peptide bond formation between monomers.
d. are decomposed into their subunits by dehydration reactions.
e. all contain nitrogen in their monomer building blocks.
133.Match the molecules shown below and to the right
a. cholesterol. 4
b. dipeptide. 5
c. saturated fatty acid.3
d. polyunsaturated fatty acid.2
e. glucose. 1
1.
134.
136.

135.
2.

3.

137.
4.
138.5.
139.Which of the following statements is/are true regarding chemical reaction (5) illustrated above?
a. It is a hydrolysis reaction.
b. It results in a peptide bond.
15

c. It joins two fatty acids together.

d. It is a hydrolysis reaction and it results in a peptide bond.
e. It is a hydrolysis reaction, it results in a peptide bond, and it joins two fatty acids together.
140.A molecule with the formula C18H36O2 is probably a ____ where one with the formula C6H12O6 is probably a ___
a. carbohydrate and fatty acid, respectively
b. fatty acid and monosaccharide, respectively
c. protein and monosaccharide, respectively.
d. nucleic acid and fatty acid, respectively.
e. fatty acid and nucleotide, respectively
141.
142.CH 6 7 Cells & Membranes
143.Match the following parts of the cell to its function
i) Nucleus
C
a. Sorting of proteins targeted for extracellular secretion
ii) Mitochondria
E
b. Site of cell-cell adhesion and cell recognition
iii) Nucleolis
F
c. Site of transcription of mRNA and tRNA for protein synthesis
iv) Rough ER
G
d. Synthesis of the steroid hormone testosterone
v) Golgi apparatus
A
e. Synthesis of ATP via oxidative phosphorylation
vi) Smooth ER
D
f. Site of rRNA for protein synthesis
vii) Extracellular Matrix B
g. Synthesis of the insulin receptor, a transmembrane glycoprotein
144.Proteins that are manufactured for secretion (export from the cell):
a. are made in the smooth ER and packaged in transport vesicles
b. have carbohydrates covalently added when the proteins are in transport vesicles
c. are made in the cytosol and transported across the ER membrane
d. are threaded through special pores in the plasma membrane
e. are made in the rough ER and packaged in transport vesicles
145.A bacterium engulfed by a white blood cells phagocytosis will be digested by enzymes within
a. peroxisomes.
b. lysosomes.
c. Golgi vesicles.
d. vacuoles.
e. secretory vesicles.
146.Which of the following would move through the plasma membrane most rapidly?
a. CO2 and O2
b. Glutamic acid, an amino acid
c. Glucose
d. NaCl and H2O
147.Mammalian blood contains the equivalent of 0.15 M NaCl. Seawater contains the equivalent of 0.45 M NaCl. What
will happen if red blood cells are transferred to seawater?
a. Water will leave the cells, causing them to shrivel and collapse.
b. NaCl will be exported from the red blood cells by facilitated diffusion.
c. The blood cells will take up water, swell, and eventually burst.
d. NaCl will passively diffuse into the red blood cells.
e. The blood cells will expend ATP for active transport of
B
C
NaCl into the cytoplasm.
A
148.All of the following are functions of integral membrane
proteins except
a. Cell cell adhesion.
b. Synthesis of hormones.
c. Active transport of ions.
d. Reception of hormone signals like epinephrine.
e. Attachment to the extracellular membrane.
E
149.Which of the following components of the plasma
D
membrane is incorrectly matched?
a. Cholesterol E/D
F
b. Glycolipid - A
c. Integral Membrane Protein - B
d. Peripheral Membrane Protein -F
e. Glycoprotein C
150.
16

151.

17

152.CH 8 - ATP & ENERGY

153.Which of the following types of reactions would decrease the entropy within a cell?
a. anabolic reactions
b. hydrolysis
c. respiration
d. digestion
e. catabolic reactions
154.Increasing the substrate concentration in a reaction could overcome which of the following?
a. denaturization of the enzyme
b. allosteric inhibition
c. competitive inhibition
d. saturation of the enzyme activity
e. insufficient cofactors
155.Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism?
a. Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic reactions.
b. It provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions.
c. Its terminal phosphate group has unusually strong covalent bonds that generate free energy.
d. A and B only
e. A, B and C
156.The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein is
a. phosphorylase.
b. phosphatase.
c. protein kinase.
d. ATPase.
e. protease.
157.
158.CH 9 & 10 Cellular Respiration and Photosynthesis
159.Why are carbohydrates and fats considered high energy foods?
a. They have a lot of oxygen atoms.
b. They have no nitrogen in their makeup.
c. They can have very long carbon skeletons.
d. They have a lot of electrons associated with hydrogen.
e. They are easily reduced.
160.In liver cells, the inner mitochondrial membranes are about five times the area of the outer mitochondrial
membranes. What purpose must this serve?
a. It allows for an increased rate of glycolysis.
b. It allows for an increased rate of the citric acid cycle.
c. It increases the surface for oxidative phosphorylation.
d. It increases the surface for substrate-level phosphorylation.
e. It allows the liver cell to have fewer mitochondria.
161.When skeletal muscle cells undergo anaerobic respiration, they become fatigued and painful. This is now known to be
caused by
a. buildup of pyruvate.
b. buildup of lactate.
c. increase in sodium ions.
d. increase in potassium ions.
e. increase in ethanol.
162.Which of the 4 kinase enzymes in
glycolysis might be the enzyme shown in
the figure below?
a. Hexokinase
b. Pyruvate Kinase (PK)
c. Phosphofructokinase (PFK)
d. Phosphoglycerokinase (PGK)
e. a and c
f. b and d
163.

18

164.P680+ is said to be the strongest biological oxidizing agent. Why?

a. It is the receptor for the most excited electron in either photosystem.
b. It is the molecule that transfers electrons to plastoquinone (Pq) of the electron transfer system.
c. It transfers its electrons to reduce NADP+ to NADPH.
d. This molecule has a stronger attraction for electrons than oxygen, to obtain electrons from water.
e. It has a positive charge.
165.One function of alcohol and lactic acid fermentation is to
a. reduce NAD+ to NADH.
b. reduce FAD+ to FADH2.
c. oxidize NADH to NAD+.
d. reduce FADH2 to FAD+.
166.Which of the following correctly describes the energy payoffs in cellular respiration (before oxidative
phosphorylation)?
a. Glycolysis: 2 ATPs net, 2 NADH
b. Transition reaction 2 NADH
c. Krebs cycle 4 NADH, 2 FADH2
d. All of the above
e. A and b only
167.Photosynthesis and respiration: Match with the correct location in the cell
a. Krebs cycle
i) Thylakoid membrane C
b. Calvin cycle
ii) Thylakoid lumen
E
c. Light reactions
iii) Mitochondrial inner membrane space
D
d. Proton Gradient in cellular respiration
iv) Chloroplast stromaB
e. Proton Gradient in Light reactions v) Mitochondrial matrix A
168.Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approximately what percentage of the ATP formed during glycolysis?
a. 0%
b. 2%
c. 10%
d. 38%
e. 100%
169.A C4 plant initially fixes CO2 into ____ where a C3 plant fixes CO2 into _______
a. Oxaloacetic acid using PEP carboxylase, PGA using Rubisco.
b. G3P using PEP carboxylase, PGA using Rubisco
c. Malic acid using Rubisco, PGA using PEP carboxylase.
d. RuBP using Rubisco, Oxaloacetic acid using PEP carboxylase
e. ATP using PEP carboxylase, PGA using Rubisco.
170.Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction?
171.
6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy C6H12O6 + 6 O2
a. C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced.
b. O2 is oxidized and H2O is reduced.
c. CO2 is reduced and O2 is oxidized.
d. CO2 is reduced and H2O is oxidized.
e. O2 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized.
172.The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event?
a. glycolysis
b. accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain
c. the citric acid cycle
d. the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
e. the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP
173.Which of the following is NOT true about Rubisco?
a. It is a carboxylase
b. It is an oxygenase
c. It is a kinase
d. It is the most abundant protein in the world
e. It fixes carbon dioxide into an organic form
174.
19

175.
176.CH 11 Cell Communication
177.Up to 60% of all medicines used today influence what structures in the cell membrane?
a. Receptor tyrosine-kinases
b. Epinephrine receptors
c. Growth factors
d. G-protein linked receptors
e. Steroid hormone receptors
178.Receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) are found at high levels on various cancer cells. A protein, Herceptin, has been
found to bind to an RTK known as HER2 if which of the following is true?
a. If Herceptin is found in the breast lymph nodes of the patient.
b. If HER2, administered by injection, is in sufficient concentration.
c. If the patient's breast cancer cells have detectable HER2.
d. If the patient's genome codes for the HER2 receptor.
e. If the patient's genome codes for the manufacture of Herceptin.
179.If you wish to design an experiment to block a G protein-coupled receptor interaction, the block would preferentially
affect which of the following?
a. the exterior (cytoplasmic) end of the receptor
b. the cytosolic end of the receptor
c. phospholipase C and IP3
d. the amino acid sequence in the binding site for the G protein
e. the amino acids in the binding site for adenylyl cyclase
180.The activation of receptor tyrosine kinases (R-TKs) is always characterized by
a. Dimerization and auto-phosphorylation.
b. Activation of adenylyl cyclase
c. A phosphorylation cascade.
d. GTP hydrolysis.
e. Phosphorylation of Protein Kinase A .
181.
182.Ch12 & 13 - Mitosis & Meiosis
183.For anaphase to begin, which of the following must occur?
a. Chromatids must lose their kinetochores.
b. Cohesin must attach the sister chromatids to each other.
c. Cohesin must be cleaved enzymatically.
d. Kinetochores must attach to the metaphase plate.
e. Spindle microtubules must begin to depolymerize.
184.If the cell whose nuclear material is shown at right continues toward completion of mitosis, which of the following
events would occur next?
a. cell membrane synthesis
b. spindle fiber formation
c. nuclear envelope breakdown
d. formation of telophase nuclei
e. synthesis of chromatids
185.In plants, triploid endosperm cells contain three sets of
chromosomes. If a plant species has 42 chromosomes per diploid
cell,
the triploid endosperm would be expected to have:
a. 63 chromosomes in 31 1/2 pairs
b. 63 chromosomes in 21 sets of 3
c. 63 chromosomes, each with three chromatids
d. 21 chromosome pairs and 21 unique chromosomes
186.If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of the same cell at
metaphase of meiosis I would be
a. 0.25x.
b. 0.5x.
c. x.
d. 2x.
e. 4x.
187.
20

188.Observations of cancer cells in culture support the hypothesis that cancer cells _____
a. have altered plasma membranes and cytoskeletal proteins
b. have mutations or deletions in tumor suppressors like p53
c. have the ability to stimulate new blood vessel formation
d. do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition of growth
e. all of the above
189.In an plant with a diploid chromosome number of 2n = 46, how many pairs of homologous chromosomes are present
in a cell that has just entered Meiosis II? (we want everyone correct!)
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 23
e. 46
190.Homologous chromosomes synapse or pair during:
a. anaphase I.
b. prophase I.
c. anaphase II.
d. telophase II.
e. prophase II.
191.
192.Ch14 and 15- Genetics
193.Mendel's law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the following events of meiosis?
a. synapsis of homologous chromosomes
b. crossing over in prophase
c. alignment of tetrads at the equator in metaphase
d. separation of homologs at anaphase
e. separation of cells at telophase
194.In a population with two alleles for cystic fibrosis, C and c, the frequency the recessive allele is 0.6. What percent of
the population would be heterozygous carriers for cystic fibrosis if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a. 16%
b. 36%
c. 40%
d. 48%
e. 64%
195.A fruitfly with red eyes and leg bristles (genotype RrBb) was mated with a white-eyed fly lacking bristles (rrbb). Five
hundred offspring were counted, with the following results:
196.
58 Rrbb offspring; 62 rrBb offspring; 200 RrBb offspring; 180 rrbb offspring.
197.Based on these results, how much distance is between these two genes on the chromosome?
a. 24% (24 map units)
b. 58% (58 map units)
c. 60% (60 map units)
d. 76 % (76 map units)
e. 100% (100 map units)
198.Match thje following human genetics disorders with their inheritance patterns? Answers (a-e) may be used more
than once
i) Marfans
a) Autosomal recessive condition B
ii) Tay Sachs
b) Autosomal dominant conditionA
iii) Cystic Fibrosis
c) Dominant lethal conditionA
iv) Hemophilia
d) X-linked conditionD
v) Achondroplasia
e) Multifactorial conditionC
vi) Schizophrenia
E
vii) Polydactyly
B
199.Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in a range of
symptoms. Which of the following terms best describes this?
a. incomplete dominance
b. multiple alleles
c. pleiotropy
d. epistasis
e. codominance
200.Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the
21

progeny of crosses BbTt BBtt will be expected to have black fur and long tails?
a. 1/16
b. 3/16
c. 3/8
d. 1/2
e. 9/16
201.The trait found in the individuals is represented by the shaded symbols. Which
of the following patterns of transmission for this gene is/are consistent with this
pedigree?
a. autosomal recessive
b. autosomal dominant
c. X-linked recessive
202.The pedigree at right shows a family with a disease pattern indicated by
shaded symbols. Which of the following patterns of transmission for this
gene are consistent with this pedigree?
a. autosomal recessive
b. autosomal dominant
c. X-linked recessive
203.
204.CH 16 & 17 DNA Replication, Transcription & Translation
205.In E. coli, a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the helicase enzyme. Which of the following would you expect
as a result of this mutation?
a. No proofreading will occur.
b. No replication fork will be formed.
c. The DNA will supercoil.
d. Replication will occur via RNA polymerase alone.
e. Replication will require a DNA template from another source.
f. It is not a ribonucleotide, but a deoxyribonucleotide
206.A double-stranded DNA molecule contains a total of 120 purines and 120 pyrimidines. This DNA molecule could be
comprised of , respectively,
a. 120 adenine and 120 uracil molecules.
b. 120 thymine and 120 adenine molecules.
c. 120 cytosine and 120 thymine molecules.
d. 120 adenine and 120 thymine molecules.
207.Match the following aspects of DNA replication (A-F) to their
correct descriptions
i) Site of action of DNA Ligase D
ii) Leading Strand
A
iii) Okasaki Fragments
E
iv) Lagging Strand
B
v) RNA primers
F
vi) DNA Template Strand
C
208.A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that
attaches a lysine
to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA instead of the normal phenylalanine.
The consequence of
this for the cell will be that
a. none of the proteins in the cell will contain phenylalanine.
b. proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at
amino acid positions specified by the codon
UUU.
c. the cell will compensate for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysine-specifying anticodons.
d. the ribosome will skip a codon every time a UUU is encountered.
e. none of the options will occur; the cell will recognize the error and destroy the tRNA.
209.In E. coli, there is a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the enzyme helicase. Which of the following would you
expect as a result of this mutation?
a. No proofreading will occur.
b. No replication fork will be formed.
c. The DNA will supercoil.
d. Replication will occur via RNA polymerase alone.
e. Replication will require a DNA template from another source.
210.In the figure to the right, mRNA transcription process initiates at the area labeled _______, The messenger RNA
transcript in the figure is labeled_____, and the template strand is labeled ______:
a. E;
D;
C
22

b. E
G,
D
c. A;
D;
C
d. A;
C;
D
e. A;
E
C
211. The component labeled B is:
a. DNase.
b. RNA primase.
c. Reverse transcriptase.
d. DNA polymerase.
e. RNA polymerase.
212.According to Beadle and Tatum,
how
many genes are necessary for the pathway shown below?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. It cannot be determined from the pathway.
213.A mutation results in a defective enzyme A. Which of the following would be a consequence of that mutation?
a. an accumulation of A and no production of B and C
b. an accumulation of A and B and no production of C
c. an accumulation of B and no production of A and C
d. an accumulation of B and C and no production of A
e. an accumulation of C and no production of A and B
214.The most commonly occurring mutation in people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of a single codon. This results in
a. a base-pair substitution.
b. a nucleotide mismatch.
c. a frameshift mutation.
d. a polypeptide missing an amino acid.
e. a nonsense mutation.
215.A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a
ribosome: 5' CCG-ACG 3' (mRNA). The dipeptide that will form will be
a. cysteine-alanine.
b. proline-threonine.
c. glycine-cysteine.
d. alanine-alanine.
e. threonine-glycine.
216.The anticodon loop of the first tRNA that will complement this mRNA is
a. 3' GGC 5'
b. 5' GGC 3'
c. 5' ACG 3'
d. 5' UGC 3'
e. 3' UGC 5'
217.When translating secretory ormembrane proteins, ribosomes are brought to the ER membrane by
a. a specific characteristic that identifies it as a bound ribosome itself.
b. a signal-recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane.
c. moving through a specialized channel of the nucleus.
d. a chemical signal given off by the ER.
e. a signal sequence of RNA that precedes the start codon of the message.
218.
CH 19 Gene Regulation
219.In human females, one X chromosome per cell is randomly inactivated during early embryonic development, forming
a Barr Body. Much of the DNA in this chromosome is then in the form of
a. Introns
b. Chromosome puffs
c. Heterochromatin
d. Euchromatin
e. Tetrads
220.Which of the following are correctly matched with their description
a. Enhancers (Distal Control Elements) = increase the rate of eukaryotic gene transcription; may be located upstream or
downstream from the genes they regulate
23

b.

Promoter TATA box = binding and attachment site for RNA polymerase; located 25-35 base pairs upstream of the
transcription start site
c. Proximal Control Elements = required for accurate transcription initiation; bind numerous transcription initiation
complex proteins
d. only a and b are correctly matched
e. all of the above are correctly matched
221.The human Crystalline gene is contained in the genome of every cell of a human, but is only expressed (made into
protein) in the lens of the eye. This is because
a. The crystalline gene is spliced out of the genome early in development in all cells in the body except lens cells
b. Activator proteins (transcription factors) that bind to regulatory regions of the crystalline gene are only found in the lens
cells
c. The crystalline gene has specific promoter and enhancer control elements that bind to only lens-specific activators
d. All of the above
e. b and c only
222.Which of the following is the attachment site for RNA polymerase?
a. the small subunit of the ribosome
b. the TATAAA box
c. the enhancer
d. the Upstream Promoter Elements
e. the AUG codon
223.Upstream (proximal) promoter elements in eukaryotes are:
a. nucleotide sequences that act as binding sites for RNA polymerase.
b. nucleotide sequences that regulate the efficiency of transcription initiation.
c. nucleotide sequences that contain the TATA box.
d. proteins that are required for RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter.
e. proteins that inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter.
224.Regulation of gene expression can be accomplished by controlling:
a. the amount of chromatin packing.
b. the amount of mRNA that is transcribed.
c. the rate of translation of mRNA.
d. the rate of mRNA degradation.
e. All of the above.
225.Eukaryotic enhancers are capable of which of the following?
a. regulating a gene even if they are cut out of the DNA and reinserted backwards
b. regulating a gene from very long distances
c. interacting with proteins that regulate transcription
d. increasing the rate of RNA synthesis after initiation
e. all of the above
226.Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your brain cells is true?
a. Most of the DNA codes for protein.
b. The majority of genes are likely to be transcribed.
c. Each gene lies immediately adjacent to an enhancer.
d. Many genes are grouped into operon-like clusters.
e. It is the same as the DNA in one of your heart cells.
227. Gene expression might be altered at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather than
prokaryotes because of which of the following?
a. Eukaryotic mRNAs get 5' caps and 3' tails.
b. Prokaryotic genes are expressed as mRNA, which is more stable in the cell.
c. Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns.
d. Prokaryotes use ribosomes of different structure and size.
e. Eukaryotic coded polypeptides often require cleaving of signal sequences before localization.
228.Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it?
a. a cyclin that usually acts in G1, now that the cell is in G2
b. a cell surface protein that requires transport from the ER
c. an mRNA that is leaving the nucleus to be translated
d. a regulatory protein that requires sugar residues to be attached
e. an mRNA produced by an egg cell that will be retained until after fertilization
229.MicroRNAs (miRNAs) and small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) both function to "silence" genes, by
a. Causing chromatin de-acetylation and tight winding of the DNA
24

b. Acting as a release factor to cause ribosome disassembly

c. Activating the Dicer enzyme to rapidly degrade the mRNA
d. Binding to complementary RNA sequences to prevent translation
e. Binding to complementary DNA sequences to prevent transcription
230.Alternative RNA splicing
a. is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription.
b. can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA.
c. can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs.
d. increases the rate of transcription.
231.Which of the following is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes?
a. elongation of the polypeptide
b. base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA
c. binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits
d. covalent bonding between the first two amino acids
e. the small subunit of the ribosome recognizes and attaches to the 5' cap of mRNA
232.Which of the following occurs in eukaryotic, but not prokaryotic, gene expression?
a. mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed.
b. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter.
c. A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an mRNA and a cap is added to the 5' end.
d. Transcription can begin as soon as translation has begun even a little.
e. RNA polymerase requires a primer to elongate the molecule.
233.Which of the following is a function of a signal peptide?
a. to direct an mRNA molecule into the cisternal space of the ER
b. to bind RNA polymerase to DNA and initiate transcription
c. to terminate translation of the messenger RNA
d. to translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane
e. to signal the initiation of transcription\
234.An experimenter has altered the 3' end of the tRNA corresponding to the amino acid methionine in such a way as to
remove the 3' AAC. Which of the following describes the most likely result?
a. tRNA will not form a cloverleaf.
b. The nearby stem end will pair improperly.
c. The amino acid methionine will not bind.
d. The anticodon will not bind with the mRNA codon.
e. The aminoacylsynthetase will not be formed.
235.What is the effect of a nonsense mutation in a gene?
a. It changes an amino acid in the encoded protein.
b. It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded
protein.
c. It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA.
d. It alters the reading frame of the mRNA.
e. It prevents introns from being excised.
236.The following questions refer to the codon chart.
237.An mRNA codon specifying leucine is
5-CUA-3. Its corresponding anticodon is:
a. 5-GAT-3.
b. 3-AUC-5.
c. 3-GAU-5.
d. 3-GAT-5.
e. 5-GAU-3.
238.What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the
following mRNA codon sequence?
239.5' AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG 3'
a. met-arg-glu-arg-glu-arg
b. met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
c. met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
d. met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
e. met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu
240.

25

241.In the pGLO lab, how could you confirm that a transformed cell was expressing the bla gene?
a. It would fluoresce green
b. It would grow on Amp plates
c. If would not grow on LB only plates
d. If would only grow on LB only plates
242.After transformation of HB101 by pGLO, why are the cells grown in LB broth for 20 minutes before plating on Amp
plates?
a. The Green Fluorescent Protein takes 20 minutes to be transcribed and translated
b. The pGLO plasmid does not fully enter the HB101 cells until 20 minutes after the heat shock
c. The Arabinose promoter needs at least 20 minutes before RNA polymerase can bind to the promoter
d. There is a phenotypic lag of ~20 minutes before the b-lactamase gene for Amp resistance can be expressed
e. The HB101 bacteria are weak after the heat shock treatment, and need 20 minutes to recover
243.E. coli can absorb the sugar Arabinose from its surroundings. When Arabinose is present,
a. It binds to a repressor protein at the promoter of the Arabinose Operon
b. It changes the conformation of the repressor protein such that RNA polymerase can begin transcribing the Ara operon.
c. It binds to DNA and functions as an enhancer to turn on the Green Fluorescent Protein
d. a and b
e. All of the above
244.
245.
246.

247.
Reminder: K101/ K102 Final Exam
Fall 2014. 200 questions, you supply the answers!
Final Exam will consist of 100 questions: Some 2-pointers taken directly as written from this study guide, and
some 1-pointers not too far from the questions below. New (~50%) = Cumulative (~50%). Good luck!
K101: Final Exam will be open between Tuesday 12/16 (9 am) Friday 12/19 (8 pm) in the Testing Center
K102: Final Exam is Wednesday 12/17 between 8-10 am in IT 073

26