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Entrance preparation model questions prepared by SaraswatiShrestha

Medical surgical nursing


1. A nursing diagnosis represents the:
a. represent the proposed plan of care
b. clients health problems
c. assessment of clients data
d. actual nursing diagnosis
2. When a physically ill client is being overtly verbally hostile, the most
appropriate nursing response would be a:
a. verbal defense of the staffs actions
b. reasonable exploration of the situation
c. silent acceptance of the clients behavior
d. complete physical withdrawal from the client
3. The family of a client who is terminally ill is likely to require more
emotional nursing care than the client when the client reaches the
stage of:
a. anger
b. denial
c. depression
d. acceptance
4. W reaching the point of acceptance in the stages of dying, a clients
behavior may reflect: (MN entrance 2011-IOM)
a. apathy
b. euphoria
c. detachment
d. emotionalism
5. The effectiveness of nurse- client communication is best validated by:
(MN entrance 2008-IOM)
a. client feedback
b. medical assessment
c. health team conference
d. client physiological adaptation
6. Example of intentional tort include: (MN entrance 2011- IOM)
a. malpractice and assault
b. malpractice and negligence
c. false imprisonment and battery
d. negligence and invasion of privacy
7. Elderly people have a high incident of hip fracture because of:
a. carelessness
b. fragility of bone
c. sedentary existence
d. rheumatoid diseases

8. When formulating the nursing care plans for elderly clients, the nurse
should include special measures to accommodate for aged- related
sensory losses such as:
a. difficulty in swallowing
b. increased sensitivity to heat
c. diminished sensation of pain
d. heightened response to stimuli
9. The two body systems that interact with the bicarbonate buffer system
to preserve the normal body fluid PH of 7.4 are the:
a. skeletal and nervous system
b. circulatory and urinary system
c. respiratory and urinary system
d. respiratory and endocrine system
10.
The most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid is:(MN
entrance 2008, 2011-IOM)
a. sodium
b. calcium
c. chloride
d. potassium
11.
The principal electrolyte of extracellular fluid is:
a. sodium
b. potassium
c. calcium
d. magnesium
12.
The nurse understands that a client with albuminuria has edema
cause by a:
a. fall in tissue hydrostatic pressure
b. raised in plasma hydrostatic pressure
c. fall in plasma colloid oncotic pressure
d. raise in tissue colloid oncotic pressure
13.
The nurse must assess the client with gastric lavage or
prolonged vomiting for : ( MN 2010/11 entrance IOM)
a. alkalosis
b. acidosis
c. loss of oxygen from the blood
d. loss of osmotic pressure of the blood
14.
The ratio between the acid and base of the body fluid is :
a. 20:1
b. 1:20
c. 2:20
d. 1:10
15.
The chief extracellular buffer system is :
a. protein buffer system
b. phosphate buffer system
c. bicarbonate buffer system
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d. renal system
16.
The nurse must assess the client with prolonged diarrhea for :
a. metabolic acidosis
b. metabolic alkalosis
c. respiratory acidosis
d. respiratory alkalosis
17.
The health care provider must assess the client with chronic
pneumonia for :
a. metabolic acidosis
b. metabolic alkalosis
c. respiratory acidosis
d. respiratory alkalosis
18.
The health care provider must assess the client with chronic
fever for :
a. metabolic acidosis
b. metabolic alkalosis
c. respiratory acidosis
d. respiratory alkalosis
19.
Before giving a client digoxin, the nurse should assess the :
a. apical heart rate
b. radial pulse in both arms
c. radial pulse on left side
d. difference between apical and radial pulses
20.
Evaluation of the effectiveness of nitroglycerine SL is based on :
a. relief of anginal pain
b. improved cardiac output
c. a decrease in blood pressure
d.
21.
The drug the nurse should expect the physician to order if
symptoms of warfarin overdose are observed would be :
a. heparin
b. vitamin K
c. protamine sulfate
d. iron-dextran
22.
Which of the following vitamin is synthesized in bowl:
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin C
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
23.
Pyridoxine is given prophylactically to prevent neurotoxicity in a
patient receiving :
a. isoniazid
b. ethambutol
c. rifampicin
d. streptomycin
3

24.
Which of the following has been identified as a potential risk
factor for development of cancer of colon:
a. high fiber diet
b. long term use of laxatives
c. history of smoking
d. history of inflammatory bowel disease
25.
When admitting a client with fractured extremity , the nurse
should focused assessment on firstly :
a. the area proximal to the fracture site
b. the actual fracture site
c. the opposite extremity
d. the area distal to the fracture
26.
One of the responsibilities of a nurse towards a patient with
water seal drainage is to:
a. observe for sputum characteristics
b. monitor base line vitals
c. observe for fluctuation of fluid
d. select appropriate chest tube
27.
Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is given with isoniazid (INH) because it:
a. enhances tuberculostatic effect of isoniazid
b. improves the immunologic response of the client
c. provides the vitamin when isoniazid is interfering with natural
vitamin synthesis
d. accelerates destructions of remaining organisms after inhibition of
their reproduction by isoniazid
28.
The receptors for the regulation of the body water through
detection of osmotic pressure are located in the:
a. blood
b. hypothalamus
c. kidney tubules
d. neurohypophysis
29.
A nurse administers an intravenous solution of 0.45% sodium
chloride. With respect to human blood cells, this solution is:
a. isotonic
b. isomeric
c. hypotonic
d. hypertonic
30.
The nurse is aware that the fluid deficit can most accurately be
assessed by:
a. a change in a body weight
b. the presence of dry skin
c. a decrease in blood pressure
d. an altered general appearance
31.
The ammonia is excreted by the kidney to help maintain :
a. osmotic pressure of the blood
4

b. acid base balance of the body


c. low bacterial levels in the urine
d. normal red blood cell production
32.
The coronary care unit nurse draws an arterial blood sample to
assess a client for acidosis. A normal PH for arterial blood is: (MN
entrance 2008-IOM)
a. 7.0
b. 7.30
c. 7.42
d. 7.50
33.
A client is to have gastric gavage. In which position should the
nurse place the client when the gavage tube is being inserted?
a. Supine position
b. mid-fowlers position
c. high fowlers position
d. trendelenburg position
34.
The nurse must assess a client experiencing excessive
production of anti-diuretic hormone for :
a. polyuria
b. dehydration
c. hyponatremia
d. hyperglycemia
35.
Under production of thyroxin produces:
a. myxedema
b. acromegaly
c. graves disease
d. cushing syndrome
36.
The nurse suspects hypokalemia is present when a client has:
a. edema, bounding pulse, confusion
b. spasm, diarrhea, irregular pulse rate
c. apathy, weakness, abdominal distention
d. a sunken eye ball, kussumaulbreathing, thirst
37.
Infection with group A beta hemolytic streptococci is associated
with: (MN entrance 2008-IOM)
a. rheumatic fever
b. hepatitis type A
c. spinal meningitis
d. rheumatoid arthritis
38.
Precaution should be taken to the patient with renal calculus is:
a. antibiotics must not be given
b. never irrigate the catheter of the patient without order
c. never give fruit juices
d. given calcium tablets to prevent reoccurrences
39.
To control hyperkalemia and advancing uremia, most patients in
acute renal failure requires:
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a. bladder irrigation
b. stomach wash
c. dialysis
d. normal saline IV
40.
Peptic ulcer is most common in a person with blood group:
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O
41.
The following organ act as a Blood Bank is:
a. kidney
b. heart
c. spleen
d. liver
42.
The commonest type of heart disease in Nepal is: (MN entrance
2010-IOM)
a. rheumatic fever
b. hypertension
c. mitral stenosis
d. angina
43.
The immediate objective of nursing care for an overweight,
mildly hypertension client with urethral colic and hematuria is to
decrease in following clinical indicator:
a. weight
b. pain
c. hematuria
d. hypertension
44.
to understand the diabetes insipidus, the nurse must be aware
that an antidiuretic substance important for maintaining fluid balance
is released by the:
a. adrenal cortex
b. adrenal medulla
c. anterior pituitary
d. posterior pituitary
45.
The major group of cell depleted in AIDS is:
a. T- helper lymphocytes
b. T- suppressor lymphocytes
c. B- lymphocytes
d. Macrophages
46.
The hormone that tends to decrease calcium concentration in the
blood is:
a. calcitonin
b. aldosterone
c. thyroid gland
d. parathyroid gland
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47.
After a brain attack a client remains unresponsive to sensory
stimulation. The nurse understand general sensation such as heat,
cold pain , and touch are registered in the :
a. frontal lobe
b. parietal lobe
c. occipital lobe
d. temporal lobe
48.
The nurse in the coronary care unit (CCU) should observe for one
of the more common complications of myocardial infraction , which is :
(MN entrance 2011-IOM)
a. hypokalemia
b. anaphylactic shock
c. cardiac dysrhythmia
d. cardiac enlargement
49.
The pathology report states that a clients urinary calculus is
composed of uric acid.
Which should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
a. eggs
b. fruits
c. organ meats and extracts
d. raw vegetables
50.
When an intestinal obstruction is suspected a client has
nasogastric tube inserted and attached to suction. critical assessment
of this client includes observation for:
a. edema
b. belching
c. dehydration
d. excessive salivation
51.
A client with acute renal failure complains of tingling of the
fingers and toes and muscle twitching .this is caused by: (MN entrance
2011-IOM)
a. acidosis
b. calcium depletion
c. potassium retention
d. sodium chloride depletion
52.
The purpose of peritoneal dialysis is to:
a. reestablish kidney function
b. clean the peritoneal membrane
c. provide fluid for intracellular
d. remove toxins and metabolic wastes
53.
The secondary disability in skeletal system is : ( MN entrance
2011-IOM)
a. Wasting muscle
b. Contracture
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c. amputation
d. pressure sore
54.
When teaching a female client with recurrent urinary tract
infection ,the nurse states that women are most susceptible because
of:
a. inadequate fluid intake
b. poor hygienic practices
c. the length of urethra
d. continuity of mucus membrane
55.
When assessing the urine of a client with a urinary tract
infection, each specimen of urine should be assessed for :
a. clarity
b. viscosity
c. specific gravity
d. sugar and acetone
56.
The gland that regulates the rate of oxygenation in all over the
body is the:
a. adrenal gland
b. thyroid gland
c. pituitary gland
d. pancreas
57.
The kidney dialysis machine primarily makes use of :
a. osmosis
b. ultra-filtration(dialysis)
c. filtration
d. diffusion
58.
Postural changes immediately after spinal anesthesia may result
in hypotension because there is :
a. dilation of capacitance vessels
b. decrease response of baroreceptors
c. decrease strength of cardiac contraction
d. interruption of cardiac accelerator pathway
59.
When a client is receiving anticoagulants the nursing care
should include observation for:
a. nausea
b. epistaxis
c. headache
d. chest pain
60.
A client is scheduled for colonoscopy and physician order or tap
water enema. In which position should the nurse place the client?
a. sams position
b. back lying position
c. knee-chest position
d. mid-fowlers position
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61.
When taking an admission history of a client with right
ventricular heart failure, the nurse would expect to the client to
complain of :
a. dyspnea, edema, fatigue
b. weakness ,palpitation, nausea
c. fatigue, vertigo, headache
d. a feeling of distress when breathing
62.
The assessment of a client that would be most indicative
diabetes insipidus is:
a. increased blood glucose
b. low urinary specific gravity
c. elevation of blood pressure
d. decreased serum osmolarity
63.
Following a hypophysectomy the nurse specifically should
observe the client for signs of:
a. urinary retention
b. respiratory distress
c. bleeding in the suture line
d. increased intracranial pressure
64.
The most appropriate diet for a client with graves diseases
would be:
a. soft
b. high calorie
c. low sodium
d. high roughages
65.
As a result of low levels of T3 and T4 the nurse should expect the
client to exhibit:
a. irritability
b. tachycardia
c. cold intolerance
d. profuse diaphoresis
66.
The initial treatment of diabetic acidosis will include
administrations of:
a. IV fluids
b. potassium
c. NPH insulin
d. sodium polystyrene sulfonate
67.
A client with untreated with type 1 diabetes mellitus may lapse
into a coma because of acidosis is directly caused by an increased
concentration in the serum of:
a. ketones
b. glucose
c. lactic acid
d. Glutamic acid
9

68.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Diabetic acidosis is precipitated by:


breakdown of fat stores for energy
ingestion of too many highly acidic foods
excessive secretion of endogenous insulin
increased concentrations of cholesterol in the extracellular
compartment
69.
In Menieres disease, the main symptom is: (MN entrance 2011IOM)
a. high grade fever
b. nystagmus
c. chronic cough
d. vision loss
70.
What is the main nursing intervention of acute crisis situation?
(MN entrance 2011 IOM)
a. strengthening the ego centrism
b. tell him/her false as much as possible
c. help the person in crisis with everyday tasks
d. discourage him/her to face the crisis
71.
Fragments of cells in the bloodstream that break down on
exposure to injured tissue and begin the chain reaction leading to a
blood clot are known as:
a. platelets
b. leukocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. red blood cells
72.
The nurse understands that thromboplastin, which initiates the
clotting process, is found in:
a. bile
b. plasma
c. platelets
d. erythrocytes
73.
Vitamin K is essential for normal blood clotting because it
promotes:
a. platelet aggregation
b. ionization of blood calcium
c. fibrinogen formation by the liver
d. prothrombin formation by the liver
74.
The main side effect of long term using corticosteroids are
except(MN entrance 2011-IOM)
a. central edema
b. white straie on abdomen
c. ..
d. .

10

75.
In panic condition which coping mechanisms technique is the
best? (MN entrance 2011-IOM)
a. meditation
b. biogenic muscle relaxation
c. bio feedback training
d. development of rational philosophy of life
76.
Pain intensity is high in superficial burn because : (MN entrance
2011 IOM)
a. sensory nerve endings is present in superficial layer
b. motor nerve endings is present in superficial layer
c. both motor and sensory nerve endings are present in superficial
layer
e. more motor and less sensory nerve endings are present in
superficial layer
77.
Antibodies are produced by:
a. eosinophil
b. plasma cells
c. erythrocytes
d. lymphocytes
78.
when administering the method of oxygen administration to be
used for a specific client, the major concern is:
a. level of activity
b. facial anatomy
c. pathologic condition
d. age and mental capacity
79.
The position in which a client with dyspnea should be placed in
the:
a. supine position
b. orthopnea position
c. sims position
d. trendelenburg position
80.
Which clinical indicator should be the nurse expects the client
with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis to experience?
a. double vision
b. resting tremors
c. flaccid paralysis
d. mental retardation
81.
The nurse should observe a client with Addisons diseases
closely for sign of infectious complication because there is a
disturbances in :
a. metabolic process
b. respiratory function
c. electrolytic balances
d. inflammatory effects
11

82.
Ketone bodies appear in the blood and urine when fats are being
oxidized in great amount. This condition is associated with:
a. starvation
b. alcoholism
c. bone healing
d. positive nitrogen balance
83.
The most common cause of diabetics ketoacidosis is caused by:
a. emotional stress
b. presence of infection
c. increase insulin dose
d. inadequate food intake
84.
The type of insulin that is use for the emergency treatment for
ketoacidosis:
a. regular insulin
b. Insulin zink suspension
c. Isophane insulin suspension
d. Insulin zink suspension extended
85.
When caring for client who is HIV positive , a primary
responsibility of the nurse is to explain how the client can prevent :
a. AIDS
b. social isolation
c. other infections
d. kaposis sarcoma
86.
Hypoventilation such as emphysema , pneumonia may cause :
(MN entrance 2011-IOM)
a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis
87.
The increased tendency towards coronary and cerebral
thrombosis seem individual with polycythemia vera is attributable to
the :
a. increased the viscosity
b. fragility of the cells
c. elevated blood pressure
d. immaturity of red blood cells
88.
As a result of a serious automobile accident, a client is admitted
with multiple traumas including a ruptured spleen.Asplenectomy is
performed because:
a. the spleen is a highly vascular organ
b. it is anatomically adjacent to the diaphragm
c. the spleen is the largest lymphoid organ in the body
d. rupture of the spleen can cause disease of the river

12

89.
In the postoperative period following a splenectomy, the nurse
especially should observe the client for:
a. shock and infection
b. intestinal obstruction and bleeding
c. hemorrhage and abdominal distention
d. peritonitis and pulmonary complications
90.
A client is in a state of uncompensated acidosis. The nurse would
expect the arterial blood ph to be approximately:
a. 6.9
b. 7.2
c. 7.45
d. 7.48
91.
Acromegaly is produced by an over production of:
a. testosterone
b. growth hormone
c. thyroid hormone
d. thyroid stimulating hormone
92.
The reabsorption of water from glomerular filtrate( in the kidney
tubule), the flow of water between the intracellular and interstitial
compartments, and the exchange of fluid between the plasma and
interstitial fluid spaces are caused by:
a. dialysis
b. osmosis
c. diffusion
d. active transport
93.
A client has undergone a supra pubic prostectomy. The nurse can
expect the client to return from the post anesthesia care unit with
which type of tube?
a. cystostomy
b. nasogastric
c. nephrostomy
d. ureterostomy
94.
A client is admitted to the emergency department with a brain
injury as a result of an automobile collision. The nurse understands the
injury isw more likely to cause death if it involves the:
a. pons
b. medulla
c. midbrain
d. thalamus
95.
The nurse is aware that ascites can be related to:
a. portal hypertension
b. kidney malfunction
c. diminished plasma protein
d. decreased the production of potassium
13

96.
The nurse explains to a client that it is not advisable to take
bicarbonate os soda regularly. This statement is based on knowledge
that bicarbonate of soda can acuse:
a. gastric distension
b. metabolic alkalosis
c. chronic constipation
d. cardiac dysrthythmias
97.
Following a head injury a client develops a deficiency of
antidiuretic hormone. Normally secretion of ADH causes:
a. serum osmolarity increase to increase
b. urine concentration to decrease
c. glomerular filtration to decrease
d. tubular reabsorption of water to increase
98.
Hypotension associated with addisons disease involves a
disturbance in the production of:
a. estrogen
b. androgens
c. glucocorticoids
d. mineralocorticoids
99.
Increased blood concentration of cortisol (hydrocortisone):
a. tends to accelerate wound healing
b. impairs glucogenesis in the liver
c. decrease the anterior pituitary secretion of ACTH
d. makes the body less able to resist stress successfully
100.
When caring for an anxious, fearful client, the nurse would
identify which of the following as an indication of sympathetic nervous
system control?
a. dry skin
b. skin pallor
c. constrictions of pupils
d. pulse rate of 60beats/minute
101.
AIDS is caused by:
a. single stranded RNA virus
b. double stranded RNA virus
c. single stranded DNA virus
d. double stranded DNA virus
102.
Client is receiving Coumadin. The test that would be most
specific for calculating the daily dosage of this anticoagulant would be
the:
a. INR
b. clotting time
c. bleeding time
d. sedimentation rate

14

103.
The nurse suspects a client is in cardiogenic shock. The nurse
understands that this type of shock is:
a. an irreversible phenomenon
b. a failure of the circulatory pump
c. usually a fleeting reaction to tissue injury
d. generally caused by decreased blood volume
104.
The nurse would prioritize care and provide treatment first for a
client with:
a. head injuries
b. a fractured femur
c. ventricular fibrillation
d. a penetrating abdominal wound
105.
The nurse realizes that a pacemaker is used in some clients to
serve the function normally performed by the:
a. AV node
b. SA node
c. bundle of His
d. accelerator nerves to the heart
106.
When ventricular fibrillation occurs in a coronary care unit, the
first person reaching the client should:
a. administer the oxygen
b. defibrillate the client
c. initiate the cardiopulmonary resuscitation
d. administer the sodium bicarbonate intravenously
107.
A 55 year client is admitted with the diagnosis of possible
myocardial infraction. The physician orders enzyme studies for the
client. The nurse knows the first enzyme to change in the presence of a
myocardial infraction is:
a. ALT
b. AST
c. total LDH
d. troponin T
108.
When caring for a client with an impaired immune system. The
nurse recognizes that the blood protein involved is:
a. albumin
b. globulin
c. thrombin
d. hemoglobin
109.
the osteoarthritis patient has demonstrated the lump gate during
walking is due to:(MN entrance 2011 IOM)
a. stiffness of hip
b. .
c. ..
d. ..
15

110.
The nurse recognizes that digitalis preparation promotes diuresis,
should evaluate the clients for a depletion of:
a. sodium
b. calcium
c. potassium
d. phosphate
111.
The nurse administer the serum albumin to a client to assess in:
a. clotting of blood
b. formation of red blood cells
c. activation of WBC
d. development of oncotic pressure
112.
In general, the higher the RBC counts:
a. the higher the blood ph
b. lower the hematocrit
c. the greater the blood viscosity
d. the less its contributes the immunity
113.
with an oxygen debt, muscle shows:
a. low levels of ATP
b. high levels of calcium
c. high levels of glycogen
d. low levels of lactic acid
114.
A client is admitted with suspected atelectasis. When assessing
the individual, the nurse would expect:
a. slow deep respiration
b. diminished breath sounds
c. a dry, unproductive cough
d. a normal oral temperature
115.
To monitor for the complications of emphysema after the
insertion of chest tubes, the nurse should:
a. asses for the presence of a barrel- shaped chest
b. auscultate the breath sounds for crackles and rhonchi
c. palpate around the chest tube insertion sites for crepitus
d. compare the length of inspiration with the length of expiration
116.
After a thoracotomy and right lower lobe lobectomy the nurse
can most accurately detect atelectasis during the clients
postoperative period by the presence of:
a. bilateral crackles and lethargy
b. increased heart rate and cyanosis
c. decreased breath sounds and fever
d. a cough and splinting of the affected side
117.
A client with degenerative joint disease asks the nurse, my
doctor mentioned something about synovial fluid and joint. What is
that? What is the nurses best response? The synovial fluid of the
joints minimizes:
a. efficiency
16

b. work out put


c. friction of the joints
d. velocity of the joints
118.
A client with cushing syndrome may manifest the signs of
diabetes mellitus because:
a. the cortical hormones created too rapid weight loss
b. excessive ACTH secretion will damage pancreatic tissue
c. a negative nitrogen balance resulted from the tissue catabolism
d. the excessive glucocorticoids secreted by the adrenal gland caused
excessive tissue catabolism and gluconeogenesis
119.
A client had surgery for a perforated appendix with localize
peritonitis. In which position should the nurse place this client?
a. sims position
b. trendelenburgs position
c. semi fowlers position
d. dorsal recumbent position
120.
A cluster of cells with same function is known as:
a. ganglia
b. tract
c. nuclei
d. center
121.
Acetylcholine is the neuro transmitter, which for has:
a. excitatory effect
b. inhibitory effect
c. both inhibitory and excitatory effect
d. more excitatory and low inhibitory effect

122.
when the patients neck is flexed, flexion of hip and knees is the
sign of meningeal irritation known as:
a. brudzinski s sign
b. kernings sign
c. nuchal rigidity
d. stiff neck
123.
Earliest sign of increased ICP is:
a. change in the level of consciousness, restlessness, confusion
b. change in the level of the restlessness, hypertension
c. change in the level of the consciousness, bradycardia, hypertension
d. headache, restlessness, confusion
124.
A client who has acromegaly and diabetes mellitus has a
hypophysectomy. The nurse recognizes that further teaching about the
hypophysectomy is necessary when the client states, I know I will:
a. be sterile for the rest of life
b. requires larger doses of insulin I did preoperatively
17

c. have to take thyroxine (or a similar preparation) for the rest of my


life
d. have to take cortisone (or a similar preparation) for the rest my life
125.
When taking the blood pressure of a client who has had a
thyroidectomy , the nurse notices that the client is pale and has
spasms of the hand and notifies the physician. While awaiting the
physicians order, the nurse should prepare for the replacement of:
a. calcium
b. magnesium
c. bicarbonate
d. potassium chloride
126.
oral hypoglycemic agents may be used for clients with:
a. ketosis
b. obesity
c. type1 diabetes
d. some insulin production
127.
In an emergency the rapid adjustments made by the body are
associated with the increased activity of the:
a. thyroid gland
b. adrenal gland
c. pituitary client
d. pancreas gland
128.
the nurse understands that the cause of Cushings syndrome is
most commonly:
a. pituitary hypoplasia
b. insufficient ACTH production
c. hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex
d. deprivation of adrenocortical hormones
129.
Glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids are secreted by the:
a. gonads
b. pancreas
c. adrenal gland
d. anterior pituitary
130.
An accidental removal of parathyroid glands during a
thyroidectomy would cause:
a. myxedema
b. tetany and death
c. hypovolemic shock
d. adrenocortical stimulation
131.
The two inter balanced regulatory agent that control overall
balance calcium balance in the body are :
a. Phosphorous & ACTH
b. Vitamin A & thyroid gland
c. ascorbic acid & growth hormone
d. vitamin D & parathyroid hormone
18

132.
When assessing for complications of hyperparathyroidism, the
nurse should monitor the client for:
a. tetany
b. siezures
c. graves disease
d. bone destruction
133.
Best position for assessing the characteristics of the prostate
gland is:
a. semi fowler position
b. fowlers position
c. supine position
d. modified standing position
134.
Which sequence about the MASLOWs hierarchy of human needs
is correct:
a. physiological, safety/security, self-esteem, love and belonging, selfactualization
b. physiological , safety/security, love and belonging, self-esteem, selfactualization
c. self-esteem,
self-actualization,love
and
belonging,safety/security,physiological
d. physiological, safety/security, self-esteem, self-actualization ,love
and belonging
135.
In prolonged exposure of earth crust ,portion may (suffering
from) get following disease:
a. asbestosis
b. tuberculosis
c. silicosis
d. mesothelioma
136.
When receiving an enema, the client should be placed in the :
(MN entrance 2008-IOM)
a. sims position
b. back lying position
c. knee-chest position
d. mid fowlers position
137.
The movement of solvent from its lower concentration to its
higher concentration through semi permeable membrane is:
a. osmosis
b. diffusion
c. actives transport
d. perfusion
138.
The arteriole which bring blood to the glomerular capsule is :
a. afferent arteriole
b. glomerulus
c. efferent arteriole
19

d. renal artery
139.
The disease associated with decreased dopamine levels due to
destruction of pigmented neuronal cells in the substantial nigra in the
basal ganglia is :
a. myasthenia gravis
b. gullianbaree syndrome
c. parkinsons disease
d. multiple selerosis
140.
When formulating nursing care plans for older adults, the nurse
should include special measure to accommodate for age related
sensory losses such as:
a. difficulty in swallowing
b. increase sensitivity to heat
c. diminished sensation of pain
d. heightened response to stimuli
141.
After a mastectomy, the nurse should position the client s arm
on the affected side:
a. in adduction supported by sandbags
b. in adduction surrounded by sandbags
c. on pillows with the hand higher than the arm
d. with the arm lower than the level of the heart
142.
The assessment that is most indicative of SLE is :
a. bufferfly rashes
b. firm skin
c. fixed two tissue
d. muscle mass degeneration
e. an inflammation of small arties
143.
A skin graft that is taken from another portion of clients one day
is known as :
a. an allow graft
b. an auto graft
c. a homo graft
d. a hetero graft
144.
To best evaluate fluid loss due to burns, the nurse should monitor
the:
a. BUN
b. blood Ph
c. hematocrit
d. sedimentation rate
145.
The purpose of peritoneal dialysis is to:
a. reestablish kidney function
b. clean the peritoneal membrane
c. provide fluid for intracellular space
d. remove toxin and metabolic waste
146.
Rehabilitation of a client with an amputation should begin :
20

a. before surgery
b. during convalescent phase
c. on discharge from hospital
d. when it is time for a prosthesis
147.
A client with dysphagia may experience difficulty in:(MN
entrance 2008-IOM)
a. writing
b. focusing
c. swallowing
d. understanding
148.
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of chronic renal
failure who has just been told by the physician that hemodialysis is
necessary. The nurse understands that the reason why hemodialysis is
necessary because the client now has:
a. Ascites
b. acidosis
c. hypertension
d. hyperkalemia
149.
Before giving the NG tube feeding , the nurse should:(MN
entrance 2011 IOM)
a. ..
b. aspirated the abdominal; content
c. check the aspirated fluid that blue litmus paper change to red
litmus paper
d. check the aspirated fluid that red litmus paper change to blue
litmus paper
150.
For glomerulonephritis cases the best method to measure the
fluid retention is by: (MN entrance 2011-IOM)
a. weight the baby at the same time
b. intake and output charting
c. .
d. ..
151.
For the right hip fracture case which is the best position? (MN
entrance 20011-IOM)
a. right hip abducted with pillow
b. left hip abducted with pillow
c. right hip adducted with pillow
d. left hip adducted with pillow
152.
strict vegetarian diet results in the deficiency of:
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B complex
c. biotin
d. vitamin D

21

Social science
1. Which of the following food comes under the hot food?
a. mango
b. cucumber
c. buffalo meet
d. sheep meet
2. Father of sociology is:
a. Emile Durkeheim
b. August Comte
c. E. Pavlov
d. Sigmud Fred
3. The folkways which are considered by the group to be essential for its
essential for its welfare and existence are called: (MN entrance 2011IOM)
a. norms
b. mores
c. folk ways
d. cultural lag
4. The things, which religion or custom regards as forbidden among a
group or societies known as: (MN entrance 2011-IOM)
22

a. belief
b. taboo
c. value
d. customs
5. Illness is a:
a. physiological concept
b. psychological concept
c. sociological concept
d. psychosocial concept
6. Sickness is a:
a. sociological concept
b. psychological concept
c. physiological concept
d. psychosocial concept
7. Ascribed status is given to an individual by:
a. his/her effort
b. his/her capacity
c. his/her personality
d. his/her family and society
8. Achieved status is given to an individual by:
a. his/her age
b. his/her family
c. his/her society
d. his/her effort and competition
9. The smallest unit of culture is:
a. cultural lag
b. cultural trait
c. cultural shock
d. ethno culture
10.
The expected pattern of behavior, group shared expectation is
known as:
a. mores
b. belief
c. norms
d. tradition
11.
Doing pray for god is: (MN entrance 2011-IOM)
a. belief
b. habit
c. tradition
d. value
12.
It is a belief upon which a man acts by preference:
a. belief
b. value
c. satisfaction
d. habit
23

13.
The repeated action and observed by others is: (MN entrance
2011-IOM)
a. tradition
b. habit
c. value
d. custom
14.
Which disease is said to be caused by Sitalaama:
a. small pox
b. typhoid
c. jaundice
d. leprosy
15.
The Newar ceremony Yihee is related to:
a. marriage
b. menarchey
c. birth
d. pasni
16.
Illness believed to be caused by witches is interpreted in terms
of:
a. naturalistic cause
b. personalistic cause
c. biological cause
d. cultural cause
17.
The student of medical anthropology should understand illness
according to:
a. sign of illness
b. symptom of illness
c. psychological context of the illness
d. sociocultural context of illness
18.
behavior pattern of everyday life, which unconsciously arises
with in a group is known as:
a. tradition
b. customs
c. folkways
d. taboo
19.
rules formally enacted by a political authority and is backed by
the [power of the state is:
a. norms
b. mores
c. folkways
d. law
20.
when conjunctions of two cultures occurs causing cultural growth
and they are intimately related to each other rather than identified by
its own process is:
a. cultural diffusion
24

b. acculturation
c. assimilation
d. enculturation
21.
when one culture becomes so intimate with other culture as it
loses its individuality is:
a. assimilation
b. acculturation
c. accumulation
d. ethnocentrism
22.
the experience gained which is accumulated and passed on one
generation to its successive generations through social heritage is:
a. tradition
b. custom
c. accumulation
d. enculturation
23.
when a growing child learns to confirm to his/her own cultural
traditions is:
a. ethnocentrism
b. enculturation
c. assimilation
d. accumulation
24.
it is the belief that ones own culture is superior to all others and
using it as preference to ones own self or group or relatives is:
a. ethnocentrism
b. assimilation
c. tradition
d. custom
25.
it is a practice which is handed down from generation to
generation without any change in their picture is:
a. habit
b. custom
c. tradition
d. norms
26.
the pattern of behavior shared by some or all members of the
society is:
a. customs
b. tradition
c. habit
d. mores
27.
in the ritual practice associated with healing, who make much
use of liquor: (MPH entrance 2008 IOM)
a. Dhami
b. Jhankri
c. Fedanwa
d. Guvaju
25

28.
Dhami is a person who: (MN entrance 2008 IOM)
a. evokes the mastors or kuldevta
b. sacrifies the animal
c. use of liquor
d. generally put on white gown
29.
Fedangwa is a priest of:
a. Limbu community
b. Rai community
c. Newar community
d. Brahmin community
30.
Guvaju is a traditional healer in which of the following
community?
a. Limbu community
b. Rai community
c. Newar community
d. Tamang community
31.
Socially accepted behavior which are important in times of
festivals and religious celebration is:
a. rituals
b. customs
c. traditions
d. habit
32.
a combination of treating and blowing mantras is:
a. indigenous practice
b. jharphuk
c. modern medicine
d. lagu spirits
33.
which is not the indigenous practitioners:
a. brahmin priest
b. astrologers
c. baidhyas
d. physician
34.
the fever is caused by following cause in tradition belief in
Nepalese societies:
a. sour food
b. hot food
c. hot water
d. sweet food
35.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Satvik food is:


non vegetarian
strictly vegetarian
neither vegetarian nor non vegetarian
partially vegetarian

26

36.
the food which is believed to generate goodness, joy and inspire
all novel virtue and action is:
a. rajasa foods
b. tamasi foods
c. satavik foods
d. tamasi and rajasa foods
37.
those foods are believed to produce egoism, selfishness,
violence, jealousy and ambition are:
a. rajasa foods
b. satavik foods
c. cold foods and hot foods
d. satavik foods and tamasi foods
38.
Bijuwa is a priest of:
a. Gurung
b. Newar
c. Magar
d. Rai
39.
Lama is a priest of:
a. Gurung
b. Newar
c. Magar
d. Rai
40.
Gaijatra is festival of:
a. memory of dearest person
b. memory of dead person
c. memory of colleagues
d. memory of god
41.
Losar is festival of:
a. Gurungs new year
b. Newars new year
c. Magars new year
d. Rais new year
e.
42.
Oedipal complex means:
a. feeling of hate towards the father and love toward the mother by
son
b. feeling of love towards the father and hate towards the mother by
son
c. feeling of hate towards the father and love towards the mother by
daughter
d. feeling of love toward the father and hate towards the mother by
daughter
43.
Electra complex means:
a. feeling of hate towards the father and love towards the mother by
son
27

b. feeling of hate towards the father and love towards the mother by
daughter
c. feeling of hate toward the mother and love towards the father by
daughter
d. feeling of love towards the father and hate towards the mother by
son
44.
Attitude is:
a. objective data
b. subjective data
c. both objective and subjective data
d. neither subjective nor objective data
45.
anthropology studies:
a. human kind and his behavior
b. culture and ethnicity
c. human society
d. both human and society
46.
in Nepalese culture, during postnatal period green vegetables
like sag is considered as:
a. hot foods
b. cold foods
c. normal foods
d. nutritious foods
47.
sudeni is also known as Ajima in:
a. Limbu community
b. Magar community
c. Newar community
d. Rai community
48.
An individual is permitted to have only one spouse is:
a. monogamy
b. polygamy
c. polygyny
d. polyandry
49.
an individual is permitted to have more than one spouse is:
a. monogamy
b. polygamy
c. polygyny
d. polyandry
50.
when a man marries two or more sisters is:
a. monogamy
b. polygamy
c. soronal polygyny
d. fraternal polyandry
51.
when a woman marries two or more brothers is:
a. monogamy
b. polygamy
28

c. soronal polygyny
d. fraternal polyandry
52.
permition of marriage among the members of in/ defined group
only is:
a. endogamy
b. polygamy
c. polyandry
d. polygyny
53.
the practice of marriage of one man to two or more women is:
a. endogamy
b. polygamy
c. polyandry
d. polygyny
54.
the practice of marriage of one woman to two or more men is:
a. endogamy
b. polygamy
c. polyandry
d. polygyny
55.
a pattern of behavior that are tradition and are strongly baked
community by reward and punishment is:
a. mores
b. tradition
c. folkways
d. customs
56.
society is defined as:
a. a group of people bound by rules
b. an association with regulated membership
c. an association patterned on norms of interaction
d. a group of people only
57.
in a social group, a social act which is considered natural and
right is referred to as:
a. taboo
b. ritual
c. custom
d. tradition

29

Health economics
1. all following are the factor of production except:
a. land
b. labour
c. capital
d. input output
2. all costs and benefits of a health programme are valued in money term
in
a. cost benefit analysis
b. cost utility analysis
c. cost effectiveness analysis
d. cost consequences analysis
3. all are the problems of health economics except: (MN entrance 2010
IOM)
a. what to produce?
b. how to produce?
c. for whom to produce?
d. when to produce?
4. The ability to pay and willing to pay is:
a. demand
b. supply
c. cost
d. cost benefit
5. all are the vital process of demand except:
a. production
30

b. distribution
c. consumption
d. verification
6. the sum of fixed cost and variable cost is:
a. total cost
b. fixed cost
c. variable cost
d. average cost
7. the amount of expenditure made on factor of production to produce
goods and services are:
a. cost
b. utility
c. elasticity
d. equilibrium
8. the cost incurred changes by production of one additional output is:
(MN entrance 2011-IOM)
a. variable cost
b. fixed cost
c. marginal cost
d. average cost
9. the cost incurred during production process instilled in fixed items is:
a. fixed cost
b. variable cost
c. marginal cost
d. average cost
10.
the cost which directly varies to the number of output:
a. fixed cost
b. variable cost
c. marginal cost
d. average cost
11.
the total cost divided by total number of activity is:
a. fixed cost
b. variable cost
c. marginal cost
d. average cost
12.
the value of alternatives or other opportunity which have been
forgone in order to achieve a particular thing is:
a. fixed cost
b. variable cost
c. marginal cost
d. opportunity cost
13.
if the other things are constant, the main factor that affect the
demand is:
a. price
b. fashion
31

c. population
d. preference
14.
demand
varies
inversely
with
price,
not
necessarily
proportionately is called:
a. law of demand
b. law of supply
c. income demand
d. price demand
15.
the willing and ability to sell by producer is:
a. demand
b. supply
c. income
d. price
16.
monitoring value of all final goods and services produced in
domestic tertiary as a country in a year is: (MN entrance 2011- IOM)
a. GDP (gross domestic product)
b. GNP (gross national product)
c. NI(national income)
d. NNP (national net national product
17.
Monitoring value of all final goods and services produced by the
domestically owned factor of production during a year is: (MN entrance
2008-IOM)
a. GDP (gross domestic product)
b. GNP (gross national product)
c. NI(national income)
d. NNP (national net national product
18.
The sum of individually income in a country with in a year is:
a. GDP (gross domestic product)
b. GNP (gross national product)
c. NI(national income)
d. NNP (national net national product
19.
An average income of an individual in a country during a year is:
a. GDP (gross domestic product)
b. GNP (gross national product)
c. NI(national income)
d. Per capita income
20.
Which of the following cost is incurred when even the production
is zero:
a. fixed cost
b. variable cost
c. marginal cost
d. total cost
21.
which of the following cost is increase as output is increase:
a. fixed cost
b. variable cost
32

c. marginal cost
d. total cost

22.
population theory is discovered by: (MN entrance 2011 IOM)
a. Malthus
b. Bar Bara Wotton
c. Alfred Marshal
d. Adam Smith
23.
The maximum satisfaction and advantages from production is
(MN entrance 2011-IOM)
a. utility
b. benefit
c. equilibrium
d. elasticity
24.
micro economics is also called:
a. price theory
b. income theory
c. demand theory
d. supply theory
25.
macro economics is also known as:
a. price theory
b. income theory
c. demand theory
d. supply theory
26.
the unit of payment of free for service is:
a. each item of service use
b. per person registered
c. unit of time worked
d. both per person registered and unit of time worked
27.
the unit of payment of salary is:
a. each item of service use
b. per person registered
c. unit of time worked
d. both per person registered and unit of time worked
28.Which the sign and symptom is not present in meningitis? (MN
entrance 2011- IOM)
a. irritability
b. bulging of fontanels
c. increased intra cranial pressure
d. high pitched cry

33