Preguntas Itil v3

Question 1 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A Problem Management may be involved when a major incident occurs

B The Service Desk monitors problems throughout their lifecycles
C Problem Management is responsible for managing the resolution of problems
D Problem Management is responsible for Error Control
Answer: B
Question 2 For which of the following activities is the Service Desk NOT responsible?
A Impact analysis
B Root cause identification
C Categorisation and prioritisation
D Escalation
Answer: B
Question 3 Which of these is not part of Capacity Management?
A Tuning
B Demand Management
C Application sizing
D Maintainability
Answer: D
Question 4 Following the release of a software upgrade to fix a known error, which process is
responsible for ensuring that the CMDB has been updated correctly?
A Change Management
B Problem Management
C Configuration Management
D Release Management
Answer: C
Question 5 Consider the following situations:
1. An incident exceeds the downtime stipulated within a SLA
2. The business impact of an incident increases due to unforeseen circumstances
3. The number of users impacted by an incident is greater than first thought
4. A senior manager in the customers organisation complains about the lack of progress being
made on a particular incident
Which of the above could be valid reasons for the Service Desk to invoke escalation procedures?
A All four
B 2, 3 & 4
C 1, 2 & 3
D 1, 3 & 4
Answer: A
Question 6 A customer has requested a review of charges for services provided under an SLA
Within the SLA there is provision for this. Who will review the charges with the customer?
A The IT Finance Manager
B The Configuration Manager
C The Service Level Manager
D The Change Manager
Answer: C
Question 7 Which of the following is the last activity in the Problem Management process?
A The referral of any associated RFCs to Change Management
B Log the problem
C Closing the Problem Record, having completed all Problem Management activities
D Initiating a review of the problem and its impact
Answer: C
Question 8 Which of the following could be considered a valid reason for a business not having
any continuity plans for a specific IT service?
A The IT department does not have the skills for developing continuity plans
B The IT department has made a decision that the risk of disaster is small
C The business does not have time to be involved in preparing continuity plans
D A management decision has been made following a business impact assessment
Answer: D
Question 9 Which of the following is NOT a Problem Management responsibility?
A Ownership of an incident throughout its lifecycle
B Investigation & Diagnosis
C Raising Requests for Change
D Maintenance of a known error database
Answer: A
Question 10 Change Management ensures that scheduling decisions are based on:
1. (Business) Urgency
2. (Business) Impact
3. Resource (requirements and availability)
Which of the above are correct?
A1&2
B All three
C1&3
D2&3
Answer: B
Question 11 Writing-off an equal amount of an assets value each year, usually a fixed percentage
of cost, is known as
A Transfer costs
B Discounted cash flow
C Net book value
D Depreciating
Answer: D
Question 12 When establishing a new SLA which of the following should the Service Level
Manager take into account?
1. That the new SLA can meet the targets agreed with the customer
2. That the conditions in other existing SLAs can continue to be met
3. That the possible impact of changes to the SLA can be identified
Of the above, which are true?
A1&2
B2&3
C 1, 2 & 3
D1&3
Answer: C
Question 13 There is a network incident that affects 200 desktops. At the same time the
Managing Directors printer has broken and he wants to print a report now. Which of the following
statements can be deduced from this information?
A There is insufficient information to determine which incident has the higher priority
B The Managing Directors printer must be fixed because of the higher business impact
C Both incidents have an equally high priority
D The network incident has a higher priority then the Managing Directors printer because it
affects a lot more people
Answer: A
Question 14 Which of the following is NOT a concern of Resource Capacity Management?
A Differential charging for exceptional workloads
B Establishing the profile of use of CIs
C Resilience of CIs
D Knowledge of alternative technologies
Answer: A
Question 15 Under an ITIL Change Management process, once a change has been built, who
should undertake testing?
A The change builder
B The Change Manager
C The Change Advisory Board
D An independent tester
Answer: D
Question 16 Consider this list:
1. Analytical
2. Simulation
3. Demand
4. Resource
Which of those listed above are techniques of IT Modelling?
A3&4
B1&2
C2&3
D1&4
Answer: B
Question 17 A known error occurs when:
A An error has occurred several times and has been passed to Problem Management
B An error occurs that has not been diagnosed and for which a circumvention does not yet exist
C A problem has been diagnosed and a resolution or circumvention exists
D The resolution of a problem has been implemented
Answer: C
Question 18 Which of the following is NOT true?
A Maintaining the agreed level of data confidentiality is a concern of Availability Management
B Availability Management should contribute to the design and development of new software
products
C Availability Management negotiates availability levels with customers to ensure that their
requirements are met.
D Availability Management is concerned with the performance of hardware CIs
Answer: C
Question 19 The term variant is best used to describe:
A Unauthorised or illegal versions of software
B An incident which has the same impact as an existing known error but a different root cause
C A CI based on another, but with minor amendments applied
D The difference between forecast and actual resource usage

Answer: C
Question 20 Consider the following information:
1. Type identity
2. Unique identifier
3. Version number
4. Copy number
Which of the above details must be recorded for every CI in the CMDB?
A1&2
B 1, 3 & 4
C All of them
D2&3
Answer: A
Question 21 Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the IT Service Continuity planning
team?
A Outlining possible measures to protect an IT service
B Deciding the business criticality of an IT service
C Testing the plans for recovery of an IT service
D Identifying the risks to an IT service
Answer: B
Question 22 Which of the following abbreviations most accurately represents downtime?
A MTTR
B CFIA
C MTBF
D MTBSI
Answer: A
Question 23 Which is the correct combination of terms and Service Management processes?
1. CMDB
A Availability Management
2. CFIA
B Release Management
3. DHS
C Service Level Management
4. OLA
D Configuration Management
A 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
B 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
C 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
D 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
Answer: B
Question 24 Which of the following best describes reliability?
A The combination of confidentiality, integrity and maintainability
B The ability of a service to remain functional even though some components have failed
C The ability of a CI to remain functional under given conditions
D The ability of a CI to be retained in, or restored to, an operational state
Answer: C
Question 25 Which of the following activities is the responsibility of Change Management?
A Reviewing changes to ensure they have worked
B Creating a change to rectify a known error
C Determining the release strategy for a major change
D Implementing a software change at a remote site
Answer: A
Question 26 Within an ITIL compliant Change Management process, who decides on the
categorisation of a proposed change?
A Change Manager
B Change Advisory Board
C Change Requestor
D Change Implementer
Answer: A
Question 27 An advantage of a gradual recovery portable approach is that:
A Restoration of telecommunications will be simple
B It can be established in a convenient location
C It is the cheapest option
D Access to the site will be available immediately
Answer: B
Question 28 Which of the following activities is NOT part of the release process:
A Moving software from the DSL to the development environment
B Moving software from the DSL to the live environment
C Moving software from the development to the test environment
D Moving software from the live environment to the DSL
Answer: D
Question 29 Charging business users a premium rate for using resources at peak times is known
as:
A Peak resource charging
B Differential charging
C Notional charging
D Discounting
Answer: B
Question 30 Which of the following statements best describes the Definitive Software Library?
A A secure software library containing all versions of software CIs in their definitive, quality
controlled, form
B A logical library, held securely on computer, containing all versions of software CIs
C A secure, physical library containing the latest version of every software CI in a quality
controlled manner
D A logical library, held securely on computer, containing the latest version of every software CI
Answer: A
Question 31 Which is the correct combination of concepts and Service Management processes?
1. Risks
A Capacity Management
2. Reliability
B Release Management
3. Thresholds
C Availability Management
4. Roll-outs
D IT Service Continuity Planning
A 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
B 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
C 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
D 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
Answer: C
Question 32 One reason for building a Cost Model is so that:
A Charges will reflect what the market will bear

B It can be related directly to its constituent units
C The costs of IT can be aligned to business activities
D It is easy for IT to calculate
Answer: C
Question 33 A fortress approach to IT Service Continuity planning means:
A Not having an alternative site to move to
B Having a mirrored service in another location
C Taking the best of all other approaches
D Having a reciprocal arrangement with another disaster-proof organisation
Answer: C
Question 34 Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Release Management process?
A To assess the impact of software changes
B To agree the content of software releases, through liaison with Change Management
C To design and implement effective procedures for the distribution of changes to software
across the organisation
D To prevent software viruses entering the organisation
Answer: A
Question 35 Risk assessment is NOT a major part of which of the following processes?
A Service Level Management
B IT Service Continuity Management
C Change Management
D Availability Management
Answer: A
Question 36 Which of the following is most involved with the day-to-day maintenance of quality
services?
A Customer Services
B Applications Development
C Service Delivery
D Service Support
Answer: D
Question 37 The Service Level Manager requires confirmation that the internal Service Desk can
answer a certain percentage of calls within 10 seconds. In which document would the Service
Desks agreement to this requirement be recorded?
A Internal Specification Sheet
B Operational Level Agreement
C Service Level Agreement
D An underpinning third party contract
Answer: B
Question 38 Which of the following is NOT part of the role of the Service Desk?
A Providing support to the user community
B Resolving the root causes of incidents
C Acting as day-to-day interface between IT services and users
D Monitoring the progress of incidents
Answer: B
Question 39 Which of the following would NOT normally be regarded as one of the major input
cost elements of an IT cost model?
A Accommodation
B Transfer
C Software
D Service
Answer: D
Question 40 Items of information stored in the CMDB relating to a specific CI are known as:
A Components
B Features
C Attributes
D Characteristics
Answer: C
Question 41 Service Desk staff (should have) need:
1. A good telephone manner
2. Some technical appreciation of the supported services
3. Awareness of the likely business impact of service incidents
A1&2
B 1, 2 & 3
C2&3
D1&3
Answer: B
Question 42 Which of the following can be OMITTED from an urgent software release in
exceptional circumstances?
A Undertaking full testing
B Updating the CMDB
C Incrementing the version number
D Putting the amended version in the DSL
Answer: A
Question 43 A good Incident Management process will:
A Ensure that error corrections are treated as urgent changes
B Diagnose the underlying cause of incidents quickly
C Restore normal service operation as quickly as possible following an Incident
D All of the other answers
Answer: C
Question 44 The primary responsibility of Incident Control is:
A Keeping customers informed of future problems
B Matching incidents with known errors
C Restoring service following incidents
D Raising multiple incidents to Problem Management
Answer: C
Question 45 Which of the following statements best describes the level to which CIs would
normally be broken down:
A The lowest possible level
B The level at which they will be independently installed, changed or replaced
C The level which best facilitates the identification of the root cause of all System incidents
D The level at which it is possible to identify the suppliers of all sub-components
Answer: A
Question 46 Which of the following activities is NOT the responsibility of Problem Management?
A Co-ordinating major problem reviews
B Determining the root cause of incidents
C Providing management information on incidents, problems and known errors
D Implementing error resolutions
Answer: A
Question 47 Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A Charging is required in order to cost IT services
B Budgeting and accounting for IT services is essential for effective Service Management
C It is better to budget and account for IT services before implementing charging
D Charging may lead to the recovery of costs
Answer: A
Question 48 Which of the following is necessary in order to start IT Services Continuity planning?
A Include continuity measures in Change Management procedures
B Identify appropriate countermeasures
C Conduct a business impact analysis
D Establish a contract with an intermediate recovery provider
Answer: D
Question 49 Status Accounting is an important part of which process?
A IT Financial Management
B Change Management
C Incident Management
Answer: A
Question 50 Which of the following is NOT a technique usually associated with Availability
Management?
A Auto error detection
B Duplexing
C Analysing data
D Queuing theory
Answer: D
Question 51 Which of the following statements is true?
A Service Level Agreements are between user departments and technical support providers
and are written in business language
B Operational Level Agreements are between internal service providers and may be written in
technical language
C Operational Level Agreements are between Service Level Management and external
providers and are written in business language
D Service Level Agreements are between user departments and Service Level Management
and are written in technical language
Answer: D
Question 52 Which is the correct combination of concepts and Service Management processes?
1. Vulnerability
2. Maintainability
B Capacity Management
3. Resource
C Problem Management
4. Impact
D IT Service Continuity Planning
A 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
B 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
C 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

D 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
Answer: B
Question 53 Problem Management includes several core activities. Which one of the following
most accurately summarises these?
A Problem control, error control, management reporting
B Identification, control, status accounting, verification
C Incident control, severity analysis, support allocation, reporting
D Identification, severity analysis, support allocation, investigation
Answer: D
Question 54 The Service Desk is unable to deal with a customers enquiry. What action should
they take?
A Log the details and inform the customer of the incident number. Tell them someone will
contact them within an agreed time with an update. Retain ownership of the incident but refer to
appropriate second line support group. Monitor progress and keep customer informed
B Tell them to ring back if it happens again
C Log the details and inform the customer of the incident number. Suggest they ring back if
they have not heard within 48 hrs
D Suggest the customer contacts a third party
Answer: A
Question 55 When writing an IT Service Continuity Plan it is essential to prepare for a return to
normal working. Which of these is it essential to include in the section of the plan that deals with
the return to normal working?
A Removal of data from standby equipment
B A list of contacts for the emergency suppliers
C Bonus payments for staff involved in the disaster
D Creation of an updated version of the IT Service Continuity Plan
Answer: A
Question 56 Which of the following best describes why an SLA should contain definitions of
terms?
A To ensure that anywhere there is a measurement required within the SLA then it is
realistically measurable
B To ensure that both the customer and IT can unambiguously understand the terms in the SLA
C To make sure that all clauses in the SLA make sense
D To ensure that the customers understanding of a particular term is the one meant in the SLA
Answer: D
Question 57 Which of the following would NOT normally be discussed in a typical service review
with a customer?
A Authorisation for changes to the service
B Service performance trends
C Corrective actions to be taken
D Customer satisfaction with the service
Answer: D
Question 58 Which of the following will NOT be provided by a good Service Desk?
A Reduced requirement for IT knowledge throughout the user community
B Effective correction of the root cause of incidents
C Early warning of potential business IT operational failures
D Keeping customers informed
Answer: C
Question 59 Which of the following IT Service Continuity measures is likely to be the most
appropriate for 24x7 business critical system running on a mainframe?
A Cold standby facility to be located in the car park
B Reciprocal arrangement with a local company
C Hot standby at a site some distance away
D Dormant contract with a mainframe supplier
Answer: B
Question 60 Impact assessment is NOT normally part of which of the following processes?
A Problem Management
B IT Service Continuity Planning
D Service Level Management
Answer: D
Question 61 An overhead would normally be regarded as which of the following?
A An indirect cost
B A discounted charge
C A direct cost
D The market price
Answer: C
Question 62 Consider these statements:
1. Service Capacity Management should ensure that the type, pattern and typical resource
requirements of all services is understood
2. Undertaking Service Capacity Management is sufficient to ensure that the performance
difficulties never arise
Which of these statements is/are correct?
A Neither
B Both
C Only 2.
D Only 1
Answer: A
Question 63 A properly implemented and tested IT Service Continuity Plan can help business
continuity by:
A Planning the implementation of new services at times that dont impact the business
B Enabling a speedy recovery of service after a disaster
C Reviewing trends in incidents and planning to avoid repetition
D Having planned maintenance tasks that reduce the likelihood of incidents
Answer: D
Question 64 From a well-informed Users perspective, which of the following is a likely sequence
in the management of a service failure?
A Incident Management, Change Management, Release Management, Problem Management
B Incident Management, Problem Management, Release Management, Change Management
C Incident Management, Problem Management, Change Management, Release Management
D Change Management, Incident Management, Problem Management, Release Management
Answer: C
Question 65 The Change Management function is NOT responsible for:
A Scheduling a change to the network
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B Ensuring that a change to an application is prioritised

C Ensuring that the impact of a change to hardware is fully assessed
D Implementing the release of a software change
Answer: D
Question 66 Which of the following need NOT be recorded as part of a Change Record?
A The scheduled implementation date
B Some details of the back-out plan
C Any CAB recommendations
D The names of the CAB members
Answer: D
Question 67 Consider the following:
1. Details of a CI must be entered into the CMDB after it is added to the live environment
2. A CI consists of a number of component CIs
Which of the above statements is true in all cases?
A Both 1 & 2
B Neither
C Only 1
D Only 2
Answer: C
Question 68 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release Management
process?
A Distributing software
B The physical aspects of software control
C Helping to determine the software release policy
D Ensuring that CMDB entries concerning software CIs are verified
Answer: A
Question 69 Which is the correct sequence of events for describing an incident lifecycle after the
incident has occurred?
A Detection, Repair, Recovery, Restoration, Diagnosis
B Detection, Recovery, Repair, Restoration, Diagnosis
C Detection, Diagnosis, Recovery, Repair, Restoration
D Detection, Diagnosis, Repair, Recovery, Restoration
Answer: D
Question 70 Which of the following statements best describes a problem?
A An incident which has been diagnosed and for which a resolution exists
B An incident that has passed its service level for fixing
C An incident that has occurred more than once
D The unknown underlying cause of one or more incidents
Answer: D
Question 71 By introducing budgeting and accounting for IT services, which of the following will
be a DIRECT benefit?
A Better value for money
B Clearer charging policies
C Improved financial forecasting
D Higher quality support
Answer: A
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A Physical copies of all CIs are stored in the DSL
B The DSL contains source code only
C Release Management is responsible for managing the organisations rights and obligations
regarding software
D A change may only be developed from non-definitive version of software in the case of an
urgent release
Answer: C
Question 73 In which of the following circumstances is requesting an urgent change justified?
A Only one small component requires changing and it is unlikely to affect any other components
B The CAB meeting has been cancelled because most of the members are unavailable at the
time previously agreed
C The supplier has advised that previous versions will not be supported very much longer
D The change is needed to correct an error on a business critical system
Answer: D
Question 74 The prime responsibility of Availability Management is
A To understand the behaviour of CIs
B To deliver a level of availability that enables customers to satisfy their business objectives
C To negotiate and manage support contracts for hardware and software
D To manage security and serviceability of all IT services
Answer: B
Question 75 Which of the following is NOT a valid charging policy?
A Cost recovery
B Activity base costing
C Cost plus pricing
D Market rate
Answer: A
Question 76 Which of the following are likely members of the Change Advisory Board?
A Problem Manager
B Change Manager
C All of them
D Customer representatives
Answer: C
Question 77 Which of these is NOT a purpose for which Service Capacity Management
information can be used?
A DSL control
B Systems throughput calculation
C Network performance analysis
D Demand Management
Answer: A
Question 78 Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a hardware CI?
A Number of items
B What it costs
C A suppliers part number
D A manufacturers serial number
Answer: B
Question 79 Which of the following list will NOT have a direct impact upon IT capacity?
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A An increase in network bandwidth available

B A reduction in transactions processed
C A reduction in the number of files to be stored
D An increase in the cost per transaction
Answer: D
Question 80 Which of the following is most involved with the:
Incident Problem Known Error Change lifecycle?
A Service Support
B Service Management
C Service Delivery
D Customers Services
Answer: A
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Question 1 Which of the following lists best describes the key attributes needed by Service Desk
Staff?
A Good interpersonal skills; tenacious; technically astute; firm
B Business aware; articulate; methodical; tolerant; good interpersonal skills
C Logical; methodical; tenacious; forthright; analytical
D Well presented; technical specialist; numerate; good interpersonal skills
Answer: B
Question 2 Which of the ITIL processes is responsible for ensuring the organisation is aware of
new and changing technology?
B Change Management
C Financial Management for IT Services
Answer: A
Question 3 Which incidents should be logged by the Service Desk?
A Only incidents not resolved at logging
B Only incidents from bona fide customers
C All incidents except simple enquiries
D All incidents
Answer: D
Question 4 What information does Configuration Management provide to the IT management of
an organisation?
A Variations from the agreed service levels
B Time spent on investigation and diagnosis by each support group
C Number of incidents and problems per category
D Details and history of the IT infrastructure
Answer: D
Question 5 The words Delta, Full and Package describe different types of release. Which one of
the following statements is true?
A A Package release contains hardware and software
B Urgent changes are always Delta releases
C A Delta release is only ever part of a Package release
D A Full release releases the normal release unit into the live environment
Answer: D
Question 6 Availability Management is responsible for
1. Understanding the reliability of components to carry out a required function under given
conditions over a certain period of time
2. Considering the ease with which maintenance of components can be carried out
3. Negotiating availability levels with customers
Which of these is correct?
A Only 2 & 3
B Only 1 & 2
C 1, 2 & 3
D Only 1 & 3
Answer: B
Question 7 Which is the correct combination of concepts and ITIL processes?
1. CI level
2. Disaster
B Configuration Management
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3. Risk Analysis
4. Confidentiality
C IT Service Continuity Planning

A 1-b, 2-c, 3-c, 4-a

B 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-a
C 1-d, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b
Answer: A
Question 8 A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) can contain different Configuration
Items (CIs). Which of the items below would NOT normally be regarded as a CI?
A A user name
B A video monitor
C A bought-in software package
D A procedure
Answer: A
Question 9 In relation to IT Service Continuity Planning, the severity of a disaster depends upon:
A The time of day it occurs
B How many people are available to assist in recovery
C The type of disaster, whether flood, fire, etc
D The impact upon customers businesses
Answer: D
Question 10 What is the main difference between a CMDB (Configuration Management
Database) and a typical asset register?
A A CMDB is a computerised system most asset registers are not
B There is no difference
C More than just hardware is recorded in a CMDB
D A CMDB is a database that links its contents together
Answer: D
Question 11 Application Sizing is a technique used by Capacity Management. Why is Application
Sizing Important?
A The availability of an IT service can be measured
B The use of an IT application can be controlled
C The maintenance of technical skills is important to application developers
D The resources needed for an application and its performance can be predicted
Answer: D
Question 12 When can the building, testing and implementation of a change begin?
A If it is urgent, as soon as the Request for Change has been classified
B As soon as there is a back-out plan for the change
C As soon as the impact analysis has been discussed by the members of the Change Advisory
Board
D As soon as the Request for Change has been formally authorised
Answer: D
Question 13 Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between Change
Management and Configuration Management:
A There are no dependencies between Configuration Management & Change Management
B If Change Management is implemented without Configuration Management; the result will be
less effective
C Change Management cannot be implemented without Configuration Management
D Change Management and Configuration Management must be implemented simultaneously
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Answer: B
Question 14 Without a good Accounting System you cannot:
1. Know the full cost of services provided
2. Judge the efficiency of Problem Management
3. Recover costs related to usage, should you so wish
Which of the above is true?
A 1, 2 & 3
B 1 & 3 only
C 1 & 2 only
Answer: A
Question 15 In which two Service Management processes would you be most likely to use a risk
analysis and management method?
A Change & Cost Management
B Availability Management & IT Service Continuity Management
C Incident & Change Management
D Service Level Management & IT Service Continuity Management
Answer: B
Question 16 Salesmen are able to use their laptops from hotels to obtain information on travel
routes and travelling times. On several occasions they have found that when a certain modem
had been installed, communication was unsatisfactory. A temporary solution to this fault has been
identifieD Which processes other than Incident Management are involved in achieving a
structural solution ?
A Change, Configuration, Release & Problem Management
B Only Configuration, Problem & Release Management
C Only Change & Release Management
D Only Change, Release & Configuration Management
E. Only Problem & Release Management
Answer: A
Question 17 % availability is calculated as:
1. Downtime x 100
2. (Agreed service time Downtime) x 100
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Agreed service time
Agreed service time
3. Agreed service time x 100
4. Agreed service time x 100
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------Downtime
(Agreed service time Downtime)
A4
B3
C2
D1
Answer: C
Question 18 What is the difference between a Problem and a Known Error?
A A Known Error is always the result of an Incident, a Problem is not
B There is no real difference between a Problem and a Known Error
C In the case of a Known Error there is a fault in the IT Infrastructure, with a Problem there is not
D In the case of a Known Error the underlying cause of the Problem is known
Answer: D
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Question 19 Which of the following are direct advantages of entering into Service Level
Agreements?
1. The expectations of both the IT customer and the provider should be aligned
2. Fewer incidents will occur
3. Unambiguous measurements of service provision will be provided
4. The number of changes that have to be backed out will decrease
A2&4
B1&2
C3&4
D1&3
Answer: D
Question 20 Students at a college can send in their course work from their home PC via the
telephone Network. They can then check the results on their PCs. A student needs an existing
set of programs that can be configured for the particular course that the student is following.
Which process is responsible for the correct configuring and transmission of the programs?
A Release Management
B Change Management
D Network Management
Answer: A
Question 21 Consider the following statements:
1. ITIL processes should be implemented in such a way that the contribution to the organisation is
not only clear but also actually achieved
2. A characteristic of the ITIL approach is that a department is given responsibility for the Service
Support and Service Delivery processes, so that the resources allocated can be used as
efficiently as possible
Are these statements correct?
A Both
B Only 2
C Neither
D Only 1
Answer: D
Question 22 Consider the following metrics:
1. Number of incidents closed on without onward referral
2. Number of incidents correctly categorised at logging
3. Number of hardware faults reported
Which of the above are valid performance indicators for the Service Desk?
A All three
B1&2
C1&3
D2&3
Answer: B
Question 23 Which of the following data is least likely to be used in the incident management
process?
A Incident category
B Make/model of faulty item
C Impact code
D Cost of faulty item
Answer: D
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Question 24 One of the objectives of Problem Management is to minimise the impact of problems
on IT Services. Which one of the following activities is NOT a responsibility of Problem
Management?
A Maintaining relationships with third party suppliers
B Working with Availability Management to ensure agreed levels of service availability
C Known Error management
D Always taking charge of difficult incidents
Answer: D
Question 25 A trend analysis of incident data indicates that over 30% of incidents regularly recur.
Which of the following activities will contribute most to cutting down the percentage of regularly
recurring incidents?
A A presentation to the board of directors to explain the importance of Problem Management
B Implementation of the Problem Management process
C The selection of an appropriate tool to log all incident data more accurately
D The introduction of a single Service Desk number so customers know who to contact
Answer: B
1. Customers should always be invoiced for the IT services they use
2. The only reason services are charged for is to make customers aware of the costs involved in
using those services
A Both
B Only 1
C Neither
D Only 2
Answer: C
Question 27 How frequently should CAB/EC meetings be held?
A Daily
B Monthly
C Weekly
D As required
Answer: D
Question 28 Consider the following statements about IT Service Continuity Planning:
1. The intermediate recovery external option offers a remote installation, fully equipped with all
the required hardware, software, communications and environmental control equipment
2. The intermediate recovery external option is often shared between multiple customers and in
the event of a disaster may not be available due to over- subscription
A Both
B Neither
C Only 1
D Only 2
Answer: A
Question 29 In Availability Management terms, what do the letters CIA stand for?
A Component Impact Analysis
B Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
C Configuration Item Availability
D Central Intelligence Agency
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Answer: B
Question 30 Which of the following is NOT the concern of IT Financial Management?
A Telephone charges
B Invoicing
C Differential charging
D Service reviews
Answer: D
Question 31 If a customer complains that service levels are below those agreed in the SLA
because of a number of related hardware incidents, who is responsible for investigating the
underlying cause?
A The Incident Manager
B The Service Level Manager
C The Problem Manager
D The Availability Manager
Answer: C
Question 32 Which of the following statements on IT Financial Management is correct?
A The IT Financial Manager identifies the costs that will be incurred by IT and proposes prices for
services
B In order to be able to set up Budgeting and Accounting, SLAs and OLAs need to have been
agreed
C It is only possible to be cost conscious if the customer is charged for services
D The Cost Manager must agree charges with the customer before establishing a Cost Model
Answer: A
Question 33 Managing service availability is now more important than ever because
A The dependence of customers on their IT has grown
B System Management tools can now provide much more real time performance management
information
C More IT systems are now outsourced
D More service providers now have Service Level Agreements with their customers
Answer: A
Question 34 Which of the following can be regarded as CIs?
1. Hardware
2. Documentation
3. Staff
4. Software
5. Network components
A 1, 4 & 5
B 1, 2, 4 & 5
C1&4
D All of them
Answer: D
Question 35 Your organisation has just entered into a Gradual Recovery IT Service Continuity
agreement. Within the ITIL definition, which of the following lists is INCORRECT for what you
could find at the contingency site?
A A building, electricity, telecommunications equipment, office space for technical staff
B Stand-by generator, telecommunications equipment, system manuals, support staff, water
C A building, telecommunications and computing equipment, support staff, documentation
D A building, electricity, water, support staff, system manuals
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Answer: C
Question 36 A company has received messages concerning errors in the daily batch run which
handles the ordering of raw materials for the manufacturing process. This is probably due to an
incorrect change in the software. The change involved extending the stock number field by two
positions. This change was also introduced in a monthly program that has not yet been run. The
situation needs to be corrected very quickly to avoid affecting manufacturing. What is the best
possible solution to be adopted by Problem Management when handling the error?
A The errors are reported and, because the underlying cause is known, handled by Change
Management as a Request for Change with the status of urgent change
B The errors are reported as Problems at the Service Desk and, because manufacturing is
involved, are directly introduced as Changes
C The errors are reported as Incidents to the Service Desk and after some research they are
identified as Know Errors, which can then be changed
D The errors are reported as Incidents and a Problem is identifieD After the cause of the error
has been established and a temporary workaround found, it is labelled as a Known Error that can
be corrected by raising a Request for Change
Answer: D
Question 37 Which of the following would you NOT expect to see in an IT Service Continuity
Plan?
A Contact lists
B The version number
C Reference to change control procedures
D Service Level Agreements
Answer: D
1. Effective Change Management ensures that urgency and impact are keys to decisions made
on the scheduling of changes
2. Change Management controls all aspects of the change process
Which of these statements is true?
A1
B Neither of them
C2
D Both of them
Answer: D
Question 39 Differential charging is a technique used in
A FTA
B Status Accounting
C Demand Management
D CRAMM
Answer: C
Question 40 One of Release Managements tasks is to set up a DHS. Which statement most
closely describes the DHS?
A A DHS is a number of physical locations where baselines are stored
B Before setting up a DHS a tool should first be purchased for releasing the hardware into the
live environment
C A DHS is an area set aside for the secure storage of definitive hardware spares
D A DHS is a database in which all definitive hardware Configuration Items are recordeD
Answer: C
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Question 1 A customer-based SLA structure includes:

A An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the services they use
B An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use
C SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business language
D An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that use that service
Answer: A
Question 2 Which one of the following is NOT necessarily a direct benefit of implementing a
formal Incident Management process?
A Improved user satisfaction
B Incident volume reduction
C Elimination of lost incidents
D Less disruption to both IT support staff and users
Answer: B
Question 3 An IT department is seeking to set its prices to match those of external suppliers
selling comparable services. Which one of the following is the best description of this approach?
A Market rate
B The going rate that is agreed with Customers
C Cost-plus
D Profitable
Answer: A
Question 4 Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management?
A Verification
B Security
C Reliability
D Maintainability
Answer: A
Question 5 The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:
A Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to avoid spending a lot of
money
B Be as high level as possible
C Match the organisations requirement for information to be held
D Vary according to cost
Answer: C
Question 6 To enable a new Service Desk management tool to be implemented, the capacity of
the Service Desk servers has to be extendeD Who is responsible for managing the request for
additional capacity?
A Service Level Manager
B Change Manager
C Capacity Manager
D Financial Manager
Answer: B
Question 7 Configuration Management plans should be integrated with those of:
B IT Service Financial & Continuity Management
C Change & Capacity Management
D Change & Release Management
Answer: D
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Question 8 Possible problems with Change Management include:

A Lack of ownership of impacted services
B Increased visibility and communication of changes
C Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs
D The ability to absorb a larger volume of change
Answer: A
Question 9 Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan?
1 Options
2 Management summary
3 Business workload forecasts
4 Backout plans
A 2, 3 and 4
B All of them
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Question 10 Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational Management
stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle?
A Develop Procedures and Initial Testing
B Education and Awareness
C Review, Audit and Assurance
D Ongoing Training and Testing
Answer: A
Question 11 Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following time periods?
A 4 to 24 hours
B More than 72 hours
C 24 to 72 hours
D 4 to 8 hours
Answer: C
Question 12 Which of the following are likely members of the Change Advisory Board?
1. Problem Manager
2. Customer representatives
3. Change Manager
4. Senior IT technical managers
A All them
B 2 and 3 only
C 1, 2 and 4
D 1, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Question 13 Consider the following activities:
1. The analysis of raw data
2. The identification of trends
3. The definition of Service Management processes
4. The implementation of preventive measures
Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service Management software
tool?
A 1, 2 and 4
B 2 and 3
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C All of them
D None of them
Answer: A
Question 14 The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an organisation
resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:
A Root Cause Analysis
B Service Outage Analysis
C Business Impact Analysis
D Component Failure Impact Analysis
Answer: C
Question 15 In Availability Management, what is SOA?
A System Optimisation Approach
B Systematic Operational Adjustment
C Serviceability of Applications
D Service Outage Analysis
Answer: D
Question 16 Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best defined?
A The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components operable
B The ability to restore services or components back to normal operation
C The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is available
D The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts of the IT
infrastructure
Answer: D
Question 17 Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity
B Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax
C Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value
D Cost centres are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)
Answer: A
Question 18 Which one of the following is NOT a major CI type?
A Documentation
B Software
C Purchase order
D Accommodation
Answer: C
Question 19 Where would the information relating to software release components be stored?
A DSL
B AMDB
C CMDB
D CDB
Answer: C
Question 20 A remote site has recently had its Local Area Network upgradeD The users are now
complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with the network
capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?
A Network Management
B The Service Desk
C Capacity Management
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D Problem Management
Answer: B
Question 21 The following activities are involved in implementing a Service Management function:
1. Tool selection
2. Tool specification
3. Process design
4. Functional requirements analysis
In which order should the above activities be taken?
A4213
B4321
C2143
D2134
Answer: B
Question 22 The process to implement SLAs comprises the following activities in sequence:
A Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLRs,
negotiate, agree SLAs
B Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue services, agree
SLAs
C Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate, agree
SLAs
D Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate
service levels, agree SLAs
Answer: D
A An urgent release is always a delta release
B A full release may contain package and delta releases
C A full release may contain several delta releases
D A package release may contain full and delta releases
Answer: D
Question 24 Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?
A To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimum
B To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all customer demands
C To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievable
D To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels
Answer: D
1. Incident diagnostic scripts
2. A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents
3. A Configuration Management Database covering the infrastructure supported
4. A Forward Schedule of Change
Which of the above should be available to the Service Desk?
A1&2
B All four
C3&4
D 1, 2 & 3
Answer: B
Question 26 The Service Desk can act as the focal point for:
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1. Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users

2. Recording Change Requests from users
3. Handling complaints and queries
A 1 Only
B 2 Only
C1&3
D 1, 2 & 3
Answer: D
Question 27 Which of these is NOT a recognised Service Desk structure?
A Remedial Service Desk
B Virtual Service Desk
C Local Service Desk
D Central Service Desk
Answer: A
Question 28 The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:
A Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals
B A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be understood by
everyone
C Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity
D Legally worded as they must be contractually binding
Answer: C
Question 29 Consider the following list:
1. Modelling
2. Risk Analysis
3. Application Sizing
4. DSL maintenance
Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity Management?
A1&2
B3&4
C2&4
D1&3
Answer: D
Question 30 At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?
A When it is urgent
B When it is a Major Incident
C If the person reporting the incident is very senior
D Never
Answer: D
Question 31 Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident
Management process in place?
A Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is no reliable
information available
B No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive
Problem Management
C No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems
D Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident
Management information
Answer: C
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Question 32 For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?

A Establishing the root cause of a Capacity Incident which has led to an RFC being raised
B Devising the backout plan for a significant Change
C Chairing the CAB
D Ensuring a Release has reached the target CIs
Answer: C
Question 33 Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of the
information to be held in a CMDB?
A You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of CIs
B You shouldnt collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change Control
C You shouldnt worry too much about Change Control, the main objective is to get the database
loaded
D You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff
Answer: B
Question 34 There are strong links between Service Level Management and
1. Incident Management
2. Availability Management
3. Configuration Management
4. IT Service Continuity Management
5. Change Management
A 1, 3 and 5
B 2 and 4
C 2, 3 and 5
D All of them
Answer: D
Question 35 Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and
Problems?
1. One Incident to one Problem
2. One Incident to many Problems
3. Many Incidents to one Problem
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D All of them
Answer: C
Question 36 Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by
Problem Management to the Service Desk?
A The number of Problems raised
B The number of Known Errors identified
C The number of Problems correctly categorised
D The number of RFCs raised
Answer: B
Question 37 Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?
A To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements
B To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with Customers their minimum
requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed these targets.
C To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously improve on this
through ensuring all services operate at maximum availability.
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D To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost.
Answer: A
Question 38 Which of these is a DIRECT benefit of having a Service Desk?
A Customer Service Level Requirements are established
B Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with users calls
C Changes taking place are properly coordinated
D All the information in the CMDB is kept up to date.
Answer: B
Question 39 The scope of a Release can best be defined by :
A The RFCs that it satisfies
B The number of updates to the DHS
C Service Level metrics
D The DSL configuration
Answer: A
Question 40 An unabsorbed cost is best described as:
A A capital cost
B A type of charging policy
C An uplift to allocated costs
D A revenue stream
Answer: C
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Question 1 The successful diagnosis of a problem results in a Known Error. On the basis of this
Known Error a Request for Change may be raiseD
When can the Known Error be closed?
A When a review of the change has led to a satisfactory result.
B When incidents related to the Known Error do not occur any more.
C When the proposal for change is lodged with Change Management.
D When the Request for Change is authorized by the Change Advisory BoarD
Answer: A
Question 2 When an organization decides to control the flow of incident information within the IT
organization, which ITIL process would it be putting in place?
B Change Management
Answer: C
Question 3 When must a Post Implementation Review take place?
A after every Change
B at the request of the person who submitted the Change request
C in case of emergency changes
D if another incident of the same type occurs again after a Change has been made
Answer: A
Question 4Which activity is not the responsibility of IT Service Continuity Management?
A analyzing risks
B testing back-out arrangements
C drawing up back-out scenarios
D executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities
Answer: D
Question 5 Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by
maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?
B Change Management
D Financial Management for IT services
Answer: C
Question 6 According to the Deming quality circle a number of steps must be performed
repeatedly in order to ensure good performance.
Which of the following answers specifies the correct sequence for these steps?
A Act - Check - Do - Plan
B Check - Plan - Act - Do
C Do - Plan - Check - Act
D Plan - Do - Check - Act
Answer: D
Question 7 The Deming quality circle is a model for control based on quality.
Which step in this model must be taken first?
A adjustment
B measurement
C planning
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D implementation
Answer: C
Question 8 A process is a logically coherent series of activities for a pre-defined goal.
What is the process owner responsible for?
A setting up the process
B implementing the process
C describing the process
D the result of the process
Answer: D
Question 9 What is the difference between a process and a project?
A A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a finite lifespan.
B A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a finite lifespan.
C A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project does not stop when
the objective is met.
D In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the result is important.
Answer: A
Question 10 What is the basis of the ITIL approach to Service Management?
A departments
B IT resources
C officials
D interrelated activities
Answer: D
Question 11 Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL?
A that the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services
B that the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently
C that the organization around the IT services can be set up faster
D that it is finally possible to charge for IT services
Answer: B
Question 12 Which activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an incident?
A analysis and diagnosis
B classification
C matching
D solving and restoring
Answer: B
Question 13 In an organization, the purchasing department has relocated internally - not just the
people, but also their IT resources. A Service Desk employee has been commissioned to relocate
this departments workstations.
In which ITIL process is this employee now playing a role?
A Change Management
B Incident Management
Answer: A
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Question 14 Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change

Management.
What information is this?
A Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change Management can
generate Requests for Change (RFCs)
B RFCs resulting from Known Errors
C RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management
D RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change Management
Answer: B
Question 15 In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken, for
example using an emergency power provision.
Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure?
B Capacity management
C Change Management
D Incident Management
Answer: A
Question 16 Which statement best describes the role of the Service Desk?
A The Service Desk functions as the first contact for the customer.
B The primary task of the Service Desk is to investigate problems.
C The Service Desk ensures that the agreed IT service is available.
D The Service Desk ensures that the telephone is always manneD
Answer: A
Question 17 Which ITIL process or which ITIL department has responsibilities that include
distributing information to users?
A Change Management
B Customer Relationship Management
D Service Desk
Answer: D
Question 18 Which activity is not a Service Desk activity?
A registering Incidents
B solving a Problem
C relating an incident to a Known Error
D applying temporary fixes
Answer: B
Question 19 Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident?
A Problem Manager
B Problem Management staff
C Service Desk
D Service Level Manager
Answer: C
Question 20 The Service Desk receives different types of calls.
Which of the following is an incident?
A information about the rollout of a specific application
B a notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer
C a system message that a printer is not working
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D a request to install a new bookkeeping package

Answer: C
Question 21 Which of the following is a department rather than a process?
A Change Management
D Service Desk
Answer: D
Question 22 One of Problem Managements tasks is to proactively prevent incidents.
Which of the following is a Problem Management activity that can be categorized as being
proactive?
A analyzing reported incidents in order to make recommendations
B delivering second-line support, should problems occur
C making agreements with the customer using Service Level Agreements
D employing more Problem Managers
Answer: A
Question 23 One of the objectives of Problem Management is to minimize the impact of problems
on IT services.
Which activity needs to be carried out by Problem Management in order to achieve this?
A ensuring the availability of the IT infrastructure
B giving second-line support when problems occur
C maintaining relations with suppliers
D managing Known Errors
Answer: D
Question 24 Which status is a problem assigned once its cause has been identified?
A Incident
B Known Error
C Work-around
D Request for Change (RFC)
Answer: B
Question 25. Which activity in the Problem Management process is responsible for generating
Requests for Change (RFCs)?
A Problem Analysis
B Error Control
C Monitoring
D Proactive Problem Management
Answer: B
Question 26 When the cause of one or more incidents is not known, additional resources are
assigned to identify the cause.
Which ITIL process is responsible for this?
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Answer: C
Question 27 Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate structural
errors?
A IT Service Continuity Management
B Availability Management
C Security Management
Answer: D
Question 28 When is a Known Error identified?
A When the cause of the problem is known.
B When the incident has been sent to Problem Management.
C When the problem is known.
D When the problem has been resolveD
Answer: A
Question 29 Which of the following tasks is part of proactive Problem Management?
A making a change to resolve a problem
B registering frequently occurring errors
C analyzing trends
D managing Known Errors
Answer: C
Question 30 Which ITIL process is responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors?
D Security Management
Answer: C
Question 31 Which of the following is an example of proactive Problem Management?
A a report regarding the Problem Management process
B a trend analysis
C an urgent change
D a change request
Answer: B
Question 32 How does Problem Management contribute to a higher solution percentage of firstline support?
A by analyzing open incidents
B by evaluating incidents with the customer
C by preventing incidents
D by making a knowledge database available
Answer: D
Question 33 What is the primary task of Error Control?
A checking problems and incidents
B classifying and defining the priorities of problems
C correcting Known Errors
D providing information to the users
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Answer: C
Question 34 What is the term used for a situation derived from a series of incidents with the same
characteristics?
A a Change Request
B a Known Error
C a Problem
D a Service Call
Answer: C
Question 35 What is meant by the urgency of an incident?
A the degree to which the solution of an incident tolerates delay
B the degree to which the incident gives rise to a deviation from the normal service level
C the time needed by IT Services to resolve the incident
D the relative importance of the incidents when handling them
Answer: A
Question 36 TestKing.com calls the Service Desk and reports that the system is slow. He asks
whether he can be given another PC like his colleagues, which is much faster.
Which term is applicable to this situation?
A Classification
B Incident
C Problem
D Request for Change
Answer: B
Question 37 Reports of different types arrive at a Service Desk.
Which of the following reports is an incident?
A information about the departure time of the train to London
B a Question about where the manual is
C a report that the printer is not working
D a request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package
Answer: C
Question 38 Which ITIL process has the following objective?
Correcting malfunctions in the services as quickly as possible by minimizing the consequences of
the malfunctions, so that the user is hindered as little as possible.
B Change Management
Answer: C
Question 39 What is the first step when registering an incident?
A record the incident data
B assign an incident number
C perform matching
D determine the priority
Answer: B
Question 40 Which ITIL process has the task of classifying incoming interruption reports?
A Change Management
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Answer: B
Question 41 Which of the following parties involved in an incident determines whether that
incident can be closed?
A purchaser of the services
B user
C employee of the Service Desk
D Service Manager
Answer: B
Question 42 What is the use of additional technical expertise in the Incident Management process
called?
A incident classification
B functional escalation
C resolution and recovery of the incident
D problem analysis
Answer: B
Question 43 Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability components?
A IT Service Continuity Management
B Service Level Management
D Availability Management
Answer: D
Question 44 What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?
A the degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered
B the degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer
C the degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by maintenance contracts
D the degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) are complied
with
Answer: C
Question 45 What does Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) mean?
A average uptime of a service
B average downtime of a service
C average time between two consecutive incidents
D average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period
Answer: B
Question 46 Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an
interruption of a Configuration Item?
A Availability Manager
B Incident Manager
C Problem Manager
Answer: A
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Question 47 The Application Sizing activity is part of Capacity Management.

What is Application Sizing?
A measuring the load that an application places on the hardware
B checking how an application has grown
C keeping the capacity used by the applications up-to-date
D determining the hardware capacity required to support new (or adapted) applications
Answer: D
Question 48 The Capacity Manager asks the user of an application whether a certain activity can
be performed at night so that the CPU is not overloaded during the day.
What part of the Capacity Management process does this refer to?
A Application Sizing
B Modeling
C Application Management
D Demand Management
Answer: D
Question 49 For what is Capacity Management responsible?
A Security
B Resource Management
C Maintainability
D Serviceability
Answer: B
Question 50 Which ITIL process is responsible for determining the hardware necessary in order
to support an application?
C Change Management
Answer: B
Question 51 An analysis has been made regarding the expansion of the customer information
database. The result indicates that the mainframe disk capacity must be increased, to
accomodate the expected growth of the database in the foreseeable future.
Which process is responsible for sharing this information 011 time, to make sure that the available
disk space is sufficient?
C Change Management
Answer: B
Question 52 The cash registers in a supermarket experience network disruptions daily between 4
p.m. and 6 p.m.
Which ITIL process is responsible for solving these difficulties on a structural basis?
Answer: D
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Question 53 In Change Management, a number of activities take place between the acceptance
of a Request for Change and the completion of the change.
Which activity is performed after acceptance of a Request for Change?
A scheduling the Request for Change
B building and testing the change
C determining the urgency of the change
D implementing the change
Answer: C
Question 54 Where are the statuses of changes recorded?
A in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B in the Known Error database
C in the Definitive Software Library (DSL)
D in the Change database
Answer: A
Question 55 A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk representative
determines that the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue, the PC
will be replaced within three hours.
Which ITIL process is responsible for having this users PC replaced within three hours?
B Change Management
Answer: B
Question 56 Who decides the category of a change?
A the Change Manager
B the customer
C the Problem Manager
D the Service Desk
Answer: A
Question 57 An organization plans n implementing a new network operating system. Before the
actual implementation takes place, the plan of approach for achieving the implementation is
discusseD
Under whose leadership is this discussion held?
A the Change Manager
B the Service Level Manager
C the Service Manager
D the Network Manager
Answer: A
Question 58 How is a change that must be made quickly called?
A a fast change
B a standard change
C an urgent change
D an unplanned change
Answer: C
Question 59 Changes are divided into categories.
What criterion defines a category for a change?
A the consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant, etC
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B the speed with which the change is made

C the sequence in which the change is made
D the Request for Change number that the change is assigned
Answer: A
Question 60 When implementing a new version of an application both Change Management and
Release Management are involveD
What is the responsibility of the Change Management process here?
A Change Management has the executive task in this phase.
B Change Management plays a coordinating role in this phase.
C Change Management must check whether the new application functions properly.
D Change Management draws up the change request for this.
Answer: B
Question 61 What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called?
A Replacement Request
B Request for Change
C Request for Release
D Service Request
Answer: B
Question 62 In the Change Management process, which role is ultimately responsible for the
entire process?
A Change Advisory Board
B Change Coordinator
C Change Manager
D IT Manager
Answer: C
Question 63 Which ITIL process is responsible for handling an application for a new workstation
according to a standard working method?
A Incident Management
B Change Management
C Service Desk
Answer: B
Question 64 Where is the planning of changes kept tip to date?
A the CMDB Configuration Management Database)
B the FSC (Forward Schedule of Changes)
C the CAB (Change Advisory Board)
D SIP (Service Improvement Program)
Answer: B
Question 65 What is the term used for a fully described and approved Change that does not have
to be evaluated by Change Management each time?
A Request for Change
B Service Request
C Standard Change
D Urgent Change
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Answer: C
Question 66 Which ITIL process aims to prevent incidents resulting from changes to the IT
infrastructure?
B Change Management
Answer: B
Question 67 Which subject should be one of the standard items on the agenda of a meeting of
the Change Advisory Board (CAB)?
A reports from Service Level Management
B the registration of Changes
C ongoing or concluded Changes
D the wishes of customers to implement Changes
Answer: C
Question 68 A power failure has knocked out the entire IT infrastructure. Fortunately, there is an
ITSC Plan available.
When should power failure be considered a disaster to enact the ITSC Plan?
A Immediately, as the IT service can no longer be useD
B When the Continuity Manager expects the failure to last longer than the maximum period of
time mentioned in the Service Level Agreement.
C When the Incident Manager thinks this is necessary.
D When the time within which the failure should be solved, has exceedeD
Answer: B
Question 69 Which ITIL process is responsible for analyzing risks and counter measures?
C Service Desk
Answer: B
Question 70 Which ITIL process aims to trace business-critical services for which supplementary
emergency measures must be taken?
C IT Service Continuity Management
Answer: C
Question 71 Which ITIL process carries out a risk analysis on the possible threats to and
vulnerabilities of the IT infrastructure?
A Configuration Management
D Capacity Management
Answer: B
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Question 72 Which of the following statements about the Service Catalogue is correct?
A It describes only those services that are also included in the Service Level Agreement (SLA).
B It describes all services that can be supplied by the IT management organization.
C It is necessary in order to draw up an SLA
D It can be used instead of an SLA
Answer: B
Question 73 Which aspects are described in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
A the costs and expected revenue of the services offered
B the quality, expressed in quantity and costs, of the services offered
C the company strategy
D the technological developments that can affect the services offered
Answer: B
Question 74 What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the
customer?
A the average utilization level of the Service Desk
B the level of availability realised and the time not available per period
C the percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target
D the successful and reverted Changes during a specific period
Answer: A
Question 75 How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level
Management process?
A by checking contracts with suppliers
B by measuring customer satisfaction
C by defining service levels
D by reporting on all incidents
Answer: B
Question 76 Which ITIL process is responsible for creating the cost agreements for extra support
of the Service Desk?
B Financial Management for IT Services
Answer: D
Question 77 Users have complained about the e-mail service. An evaluation of the service has
been performeD
Which activity takes place after the evaluation of a service?
A adjusting of the service
B monitoring of Service Levels
C compilation of Service Level Reports
D defining Service Levels
Answer: A
Question 78 Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service?
A Service Catalogue
B Service Improvement Program (SIP)
C Service Level Agreement (SLA)
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D Service Quality Plan (SQP)

Answer: B
Question 79 In the Service Level Management Process, what happens during the activity called
monitoring?
A identifying the needs of customers
B guarding negotiations with the customer
C guarding agreements with the customer
D acquiring customers
Answer: C
Question 80 Which ITIL process verifies that the modifications which have been made to the IT
infrastructure have been properly documented?
Answer: B
Question 81 Information and Communication Technologies (ICT) includes both Asset
Management and Configuration Management.
What is the difference between Asset Management and Configuration Management?
A Asset Management focuses exclusively on the book value and Configuration Management on
the status of Configuration Items.
B Asset Management monitors aspects such as depreciation and Configuration Management
monitors aspects such as the relationships between the Configuration Items.
C Configuration Management is a component of Asset Management, so there are no differences
between them.
D Configuration Management makes an inventory of the Configuration Items and Asset
Management registers them.
Answer: B
Question 82 In the TestKing.com company a specific component of the IT infrastructure has been
modifieD This could have consequences for other components.
What ITIL process should be set up in order to provide good insight into these consequences?
C Change Management
Answer: D
Question 83 What does the term detail level mean in the context of the Configuration
Management Database (CMDB)?
A the relationship between the different Configuration Items
B the depth of the database structure
C the quantity of stored Configuration Items
D the location of the Configuration Item
Answer: B
Question 84 Which ITIL process includes the activity of describing and registering all components
in the IT infrastructure?
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Answer: B
Question 85 What is a baseline in the IT infrastructure?
A the most important infrastructure (such as a network) to which all kinds of workstations and
services can be linked
B a document that states how the infrastructure must be dealt with in an organization (vision)
C a minimum value for TestKing.com service (must at least satisfy...)
D a standard configuration (such as a standard workstation)
Answer: D
Question 86. For which of the following activities of Configuration Management are audits
regularly implemented?
A identification
B planning
C status monitoring
D verification
Answer: D
Question 87 Which data, for a new Configuration item (CI), is recorded in the Configuration
Management Database (CMDB)?
A the impact of the Configuration Item
B the relationship to other Configuration Items
C the Request for Change number for the Configuration Item
D repairs to the Configuration Item
Answer: B
Question 88 A number of new PCs have been installed at a companys offices.
For which of the following activities was Configuration Management responsible?
A establishing the correct links in the Local Area Network
B installing software
C making available the necessary users manuals
D recording data regarding the PCs
Answer: D
Question 89 Which of the following Questions can not be answered directly from the
Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A Which Requests for Change have been submitted for a specific server?
B Which members of staff of department X have moved to department Y?
C What incidents or problems have there been for this PC?
D Which Configuration Items does a specific service consist of?
Answer: B
Question 90 What is the criterion used by Change Management in determining the category for a
Request for Change?
A impact
B content
C priority
D urgency
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Answer: A
Question 91 When is a back-out plan invoked?
A When it is found that something went wrong when building a Change.
B When it is found that something went wrong when implementing a Change.
C When it is found that something went wrong when scheduling resources.
D When it is found that something went wrong when testing a Change.
Answer: B
Question 92 Release Management has distributed a defective Release. As a result, monthly
invoicing has come to a standstill. This has very radical consequences for the business and has
been reported as an incident.
According to ITIL best practices, what should happen next?
A Problem Management will submit a Request for Change (RFC).
B Change Management will start a Post Implementation Review (PR).
C Release Management will implement the back-out plan.
D Service Level Management will start a Service Improvement Program (SIP).
Answer: C
Question 93 What is the first activity when implementing a release?
A designing and building a release
B testing a release
C compiling the release schedule
D communicating and preparing the release
Answer: C
Question 94 The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a number
of errors. The Development department has corrected these errors in a new version.
Which process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested?
A Configuration Management
Answer: D
Question 95 Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive
Software Library?
A copies of all software versions that are needed
B copies of all live software programs
C authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure
D software awaiting user acceptance testing
Answer: C
Question 96 Software is checked for viruses before it goes into the Definitive Software Library
(DSL).
What ITIL process is responsible for ensuring that only virusfree software is put into the DSL?
A Application Management
Answer: D
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Question 97 Which ITIL process is responsible for annually allocating the costs of Underpinning
Contracts?
Answer: C
Question 98 Which ITIL process is responsible for setting tip the cost allocation system?
Answer: C
Question 99 Which activity in the ITIL process Financial Management for IT Services is
responsible for billing the services that were provided to the customer?
A Accounting
B Budgeting
C Charging
D Reporting
Answer: C
Question 100 Which ITIL process provides an insight, through the Modeling activity, into trends
that could cause performance problems in the future?
Answer: B
Question 101 Which ITIL process has responsibility in preventing unauthorized access to data?
C Release Management
Answer: D
Question 102 Where are agreements regarding Security Management recorded?
A in a Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)
C in a Definitive Software Library (DSL)
D in a Capacity Plan
Answer: B
Question 103 Which ITIL process handles the implementation of the policy for access
management and access to information systems?
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Answer: D
Question 104 Which ITIL process ensures that the information that has been made available
satisfies the specified information security requirements?
C Security Management
Answer: C
Question 105 Which of the following describes the basic concept of Integrity in the Security
Management process?
A the capacity to verify the correctness of the data
B the correctness of the data
C protection of the data against unauthorized access and use
D access to the data at any moment
Answer: B
Question 106 Security Management includes a number of sub-processes.
Which activity of Security Management leads to a security sub-clause in the Service Level
Agreement (SLA)?
A Implement
B Maintenance
C Plan
D Control
Answer: C
Question 1 A customer-based Service Level Agreement structure includes:

A An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use
B SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business language
C An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that use that
Service
D An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the services they use
Answer: D
Question 2 Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan?
1 Options
2 Management summary
3 Business workload forecasts
4 Backout plans
A 2, 3 and 4
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B All of them
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and3
Answer: D
Question 3 An IT department is seeking to set its prices to match those of external suppliers
selling the same services. Which one of the following is the best description of this approach?
A The going rate that is agreed with Customers
B Market rate
C Cost-plus
D Profitable
Answer: B
Question 4 Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management?
A Verification
B Security
C Reliability
D Maintainability
Answer: A
Question 5 The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:
A Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to avoid spending a lot of
money
C Match the organisations requirement for information to be held
Answer: A
Question 6 To enable a new Service Desk management tool to be implemented, the capacity of
the servers has to be extendeD Who is responsible for managing the request for additional
capacity?
B Capacity Manager
C Change Manager
D Financial Manager
Answer: C
Question 7 Which one of the following is NOT necessarily a direct benefit of implementing a
formal Incident Management process?
A Improved user satisfaction
B Incident volume reduction
C Elimination of lost incidents
D Less disruption to both IT support staff and users
Answer: B
Question 8 Configuration Management plans should be integrated with those of:
A Change & Release Management
C IT Service Financial & Continuity Management.
D Change & Capacity Management
Answer: A
Question 9 Possible problems with Change Management include:
A Lack of ownership of impacted services
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C Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs
Answer: A
Question 10 Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational Management
stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle?
A Develop Procedures and Initial Testing
B Education and Awareness
C Review, Audit and Assurance
D Ongoing Training and Testing
Answer: A
Question 11 Which of the following are likely to be members of the CAB?
1 Problem Manager
2 Customer representatives
3 Change Manager
4 Senior IT technical managers
A 2 and 3 only
B All of them
C 1, 2 &4
D 1, 3 &4
Answer: B
Question 12 Consider the following activities:
1 The analysis of raw data
2 The identification of trends
3 The definition of Service Management processes
4 The implementation of preventive measures
Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service Management software
tool?
A 1, 2 & 4
B2&3
C All of them
D None of them
Answer: A
Question 13 The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an organisation
resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:
A Root Cause Analysis
B Business Impact Analysis
C Service Outage Analysis
D Component Failure Impact Analysis
Answer: B
Question 14 Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following time periods?
A 4 to 24 hours
B More than 72 hours
C 24 to 72 hours
D 4 to 8 hours
Answer: C
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Question 15 What is SOA within Availability Management?

A System Optimisation Approach
B Systematic Operational Adjustment
C Serviceability of Applications
D Service Outage Analysis
Answer: D
Question 16 Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best defined?
A The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components operable
D The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts of the IT
infrastructure
Answer: D
Question 17 Which one of the following statements is NOT FALSE?
A Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax
B Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value
C Cost centres are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)
D Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity
Answer: D
Question 18 Which one of the following is NOT a major CI type?
A Documentation
B Software
C Purchase order
D Accommodation
Answer: C
Question 19 Where would the information relating to software release components be stored?
A DSL
B CMDB
C AMDB
D CDB
Answer: B
Question 20 The following activities are involved in implementing a Service Management function:
1 Tool selection
2 Tool specification
3 Process design
4 Functional requirements analysis
In which order should the above activities be taken?
A4213
B4321
C2143
D2134
Answer: B
Question 21 Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?
A To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements
B To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with Customers their minimum
requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed these targets.
C To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously
improve on this through ensuring all services operate at maximum availability.
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D To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost
Answer: A
Question 22 The process to implement SLAs comprises of the following activities in sequence:
B Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue services,
C Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate, agree
SLAs
D Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs,
negotiate service levels, agree SLAs
Answer: D
A An urgent release is always a delta release
B A full release may contain package and delta releases
C package release may contain full and delta releases
D A full release may contain several delta releases
Answer: C
Question 24 Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?
D To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels
Answer: D
Question 25 A remote site has recently had its network upgradeD The users are now complaining
of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with capacity. Who should they
contact for assistance?
B The Service Desk
Answer: B
1 Incident diagnostic scripts
2 A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents
3 A Configuration Management Database covering the infrastructure supported
4 A Forward Schedule of Change
Which of the above should be available to the Service Desk?
A All four
B 1&2
C 3&4
D 1, 2 &3
Answer: A
Question 27 Which of these is NOT a recognised Service Desk structure?
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Answer: A
Question 28 The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:
A Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals
B A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be understood by
everyone
C Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity.
D Legally worded as they must be contractually binding
Answer: C
Question 29 Consider the following list:
1 Modelling
2 Risk Analysis
3 Application Sizing
4 DSL maintenance
Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity Management?
A1&2
B1&3
C3&4
D2&4
Answer: B
Question 30 At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?
A When it is urgent
C If the person reporting the incident is very senior
D Never
Answer: D
Question 31 There are strong links between Service Level Management and:
1 Incident Management
2 Availability Management
3 Configuration Management
4 IT Service Continuity Management
5 Change Management
A 1, 3 & 5
B2&4
C 2, 3 & 5
D All of them
Answer: D
Question 32 Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident
Management process in place?
A Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is no
reliable information available
B No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive
Problem Management
C No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems
D Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident
Management information
Answer: C
Question 33 The scope of a Release can best be defined by:
A The RFCs that it satisfies
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B The number of updates to the OHS

C Service Level metrics
D The DSL configuration
Answer: A
Question 34 For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?
A Chairing the CAB
B Establishing the root cause of a Capacity Incident which has led to an RFC being
raised
C Devising the backout plan for a significant Change
D Ensuring a Release has reached the target CIs
Answer: A
Question 35 The Service Desk can act as the focal point for:
1 Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users
2 Recording Change Requests from users
3 Handling complaints and queries
A 1 Only
B 2 Only
C1&3
D 1, 2 & 3
Answer: C
Question 36 Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of the
information to be held in a CMDB?
A You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of CIs
B You shouldnt collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change Control
C You shouldnt worry too much about Change Control; the main objective is to get the database
loaded
D You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff
Answer: B
Question 37.Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and
Problems?
1 One Incident to one Problem
2 One Incident to many Problems
3 Many Incidents to one Problem
A 1 & 2only
B 2 & 3 only
C 1 & 3 only
D All of them
Answer: C
Question 38 Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by
Problem Management to the Service Desk?
A The number of Problems raised
B The number of Known Errors identified
C The number of Problems correctly categorised
Answer: B
Question 39 Which of these is a DIRECT benefit of having a Service Desk?
A Customer Service Level Requirements are established
B Changes taking place are properly coordinated
C All the information in the CMDB is kept up to date.
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D Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with users calls
Answer: D
Question 40 An unabsorbed cost is best described as:
A A capital cost
B A type of charging policy
C An uplift to allocated costs
D A revenue stream
Answer: C
1. What does the Service V Model represent?

A A strategy for the successful completion of all service management projects
B The path to Service Delivery and Service Support for efficient and effective utilization of
resources
C Levels of testing required to deliver a Service Capability
D The Business perspective as perceived by the customer and the user of services.
2. Technical Management is NOT responsible for
A Maintenance of the technical infrastructure
B Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support the IT
Infrastructure
C Defining the Operational Level Agreements for the technical teams.
D Diagnosis of, and recovery from technical failures
3. The priority of and Incident is BEST described as?
A The relative importance of the incident based on impact and urgency.
B The speed with which the incident needs to be resolved
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C The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the incident so that it is resolved in time.
D The escalation path that will be followed to ensure resolution of incident
4. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisor Board (ECAB)?
A To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent Changes are made during particularly
volatile business periods.
B To assist the Change Manager in implementing Emergency Changes.
C To assist the Change Manager in evaluating Emergency Changes and to decide whether the
Change should be approveD
D To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the Emergency Change process so that no
unacceptable delays occur.
5. A Service Owner is responsible for which of the following?
A Continual Improvement of the Service.
B Designing and documenting a Service
C Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed to support a service.
D Producing a Balanced Scorecard showing the overall status of all services.
6. Operations Control refers to?
A The managers of the Technical and Applications Management functions.
B Overseeing the execution and monitoring of IT operational events and activities.
C The tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT Infrastructure and Applications.
D The situation where the Service Desk is required to monitor the status of the infrastructure
when Operators are not available.
7. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about patterns of demand generated by the
customers business?
A They are driven by patterns of business activity
B It s impossible to predict how they behave
C It is impossible to influence demand patterns.
D They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by Capacity Management.
8. What is the main reason for establishing a Baseline?
A To standardize operation
B For Knowing the cost of services provided
C For roles and responsibility to be clear
D For later comparison
9. Which of these is the CORRECT description of normal service operation?
A The service is operating in the way it usually does when there hasnt been an incident.
B The service is providing all functionality and performance that the business wants
C The service is operating within the limits defined in the Service Level Agreement.
10. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event Management?
A The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control action
B The ability to implement monitoring tools
C The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
D The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of
infrastructure devices
11. The main objective of Availability Management is?
A To monitor and report availability of services and components
B To ensure that all targets in SLAs are met
C To guarantee availability levels for services and components
D To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the business
12. Defining the functional requirements for a new service is part of:
A Service Operation: Application Management
B Service Strategy: Service Portfolio Management
C Service Design: Design the technology architecture
D Service Design: Design the service solutions
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13. Which of the following are characteristics of every process?

1. It is measurable
2. It is timely
3. It delivers a specific result
4. It responds to a specific event
5. It is delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
A 1,2,3 an 4 only
B 1,2,4 and 5 only
C 1,3,4 and 5 only
D All of above
14. Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL core publications?
A Service Optimization
B Service Transition
C Service Design
D Service Strategy
15. There are 7 different sourcing strategies that a company can use. What is the newest form of
outsourcing?
A Knowledge Process Outsourcing
B Partnership or multi-sourcing
C Business Process Outsourcing (PBO)
D Application Service Provision
16. Which of the following identifies two Service Portfolio components within the Service Lifecycle
A Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue
B Service Knowledge Management System and Service Catalogue
C Service Knowledge management System and Service Pipeline
D Service Pipeline and Configuration Management System
17. Consider the following statements:
1. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) provides guidance on how to improve process efficiency
and effectiveness
2. CSI provides guidance on how to improve services
3. CSI provides guidance on the improvements of all phases of the Service Lifecycle
4. CSI provides guidance on the measurement processes and services
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 only
C 1,2 and 3
D All of the above
18. Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk structure?
A A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical support to its users
B A Service Desk where analysts only speak one language
C A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as the users it serves
D A Service Desk that could be in any physical location but uses telecommunications and IT
systems to make it appear that the are in the same location
19. Which of these is NOT a type of change?
A Standard Change
B Normal Change
C Urgent Change
D Emergency Change
20. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in Continual Service
Improvement (CSI)?
1. Process Metrics
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2. Supplier Metrics
3. Service Metrics
4. technology Metrics
5. Business Metrics
A 1,2 an 3
B 2,4 and 5
C 1,3 and 4
D All above
21. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve services?
A To validate, direct, justify and intervene
B To validate, measure, monitor and change
C To validate, plan, act and improve
D To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people
22. What is the RACI model used for?
A Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity
B Defining requirements for a new service or process
C Analyzing the business impact of an incident
D Crating a Balanced Scorecard showing the overall status of service management
23. What is the CORRECT order of the first four activities in the 7 step improvement Process
A Define what you should measure, define what you can measure, gather data and process data
B Gather data, process data, analyze data and present data
C What is the vision, where are we now, what do we want to be, how do we get there?
D Gather data, process data, define what you should measure and define what you can measure
24. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1. Only one person can be responsible for an activity
2. only one person can be accountable for an activity
A Both of the above
B 1 only
C 2 only
D Neither of the above
25. The goal of Service Asset and Configuration Management is to?
A Account for all the financial assets of the organization
B Provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure, correlating IT services and different IT
components needed to deliver the services
C Build service models to justify ITIL implementations
D Implement ITIL across the organization
26. Which is the CORRECT sequence of events in choosing a technology tool?
A Select; Requirements; Selection Criteria: Evaluate.
B Selection criteria; Requirements: Evaluate: Select.
C Requirements; Selection Criteria; Select: Evaluate.
D Requirements; Selection Criteria; Evaluate: Select.
27. The four stages of the Deming Cycle are?
A Plan, Measure, Monitor, Report
B Plan, Check, React, Implement
C Plan, Do, Act, Audit
D Plan, Do, Check, Act
28. The BEST definition of an event is
A An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an agreed Service
Level has already been impacted
B An occurrence that is significant for the management of the IT infrastructure or delivery of
services
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C A Known system defect that generates multiple incident reports

D A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service or improvement
programmed
29. Incident Management has a value to the business by?
A Helping to control infrastructure costs of adding new technology
B Enabling users to resolve problems
C Helping to align people and process for the delivery of service
D Contributing to the reduction of impact of service outages
30. The following options are considered within which process?
1. Big Ban vs. Phased
2. Push and Pull
3. Automated vs. Manual
A Incident management
B Release and Deployment Management
C Service Asset and Configuration Management
D Service Catalogue Management
31. Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following
1. Incident Management
2. Problem Management
3. Access Management
4. ____________________ ?
5. ____________________ ?
A Event Management and Request Fulfillment
B Event Management and Service Desk
C Facilities Management and Event Management
D Change Management and Service Level Management
32. Sources of good Practice include which of the following?
1. Public frameworks
2. Standard
3. Proprietary Knowledge of Individuals and Organizations
A 1 an 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C All of above
D 1 and 3 only
33. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Design phase of the
Lifecycle?
1. Hardware and Software design
2. Environmental design
3. process design
4. Data design
A 1,3 and 4 only
B 1,2 and 3 only
C All of the above
D 2,3 and 4 only
34. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of which of the following elements of the
Service Lifecycle?
A Service Strategy
B Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement
C Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
D Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service
Improvement
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35. The Service Level manager has responsibility for ensuring that the aims of Service Level
Management are met. The Service Level Manager is NOT responsible for?
A Negotiating and agreeing Operational Level Agreements
B Ensuring that all non-operational service are recorded within the Service Catalogue
C Negotiating and agreeing Service Level Agreement
D Assisting with the production and maintenance of an accurate Service Catalogue
36. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation?
A Thorough testing to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs
B To deliver and support IT Services
C To manage the technology used to deliver services
D To monitor the performance of technology and processes
37. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?
A A user calls the Service Desk to order a toner cartridge
B A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to change the functionality of an
application
C A Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to an application
D A user logs onto an internal web site to download a licensed copy of software from a list of
approved options
38. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for all processes?
A They define activities, roles, responsibilities, functions and metrics.
B They create value for stakeholders
C They are carried out by a Service Provider in support of a Customer
D They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes
39. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
A What is the vision?
B Did we get there?
C Is there a budget?
D Where are we now?
40. Which of the following statements about Supplier Management is INCORRECT?
A Supplier Management negotiates internal and external agreements to support the delivery of
services.
B Supplier Management ensures that suppliers meet business expectations
C Supplier Management maintains information in a Supplier and Contract Database
D Supplier Management should be involved in all stages of the Service Lifecycle, from Strategy
through Design and Transition to Operations and Improvement
41. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve services?
A To validate, direct, justify and intervene
B To validate, measure, monitor and change
C To validate, plan, act and improve
D To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people
42. The ITIL core is structured around?
A An Operation Lifecycle
B An IT Management Lifecycle
C A Service Lifecycle
D An Infrastructure Lifecycle
43. Which of the following Questions is NOT answered by information in the Service Portfolio
A How should our resource and capabilities be allocated?
B What opportunities are there in the market?
C Why should a customer buy these services?
D What are the pricing or chargeback models?
44. Functions are BEST described as?
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A A body of knowledge
B Closed loop systems
C Self-Contained units of organizations
D Projects focusing on transformation
45. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?
A To help ensure that standards and conventions are followed
B To help ensure that events are detected as quickly as possible
C To help enable different applications to work together
D To help implement architectures that support the business strategy
46. Learning and Improvement is the PRIMARY concern of which of the following phases of the
Service Lifecycle
A Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service
Improvement
B Service Strategy, Service Transition, and Service Operation
C Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
D Continual Service Improvement
47. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Portfolio Management,
Demand Management and Financial Management?
A Service Operation
B Service Strategy
C Service Transition
D Continual Service Improvement
48. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are CORRECT?
1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its
users for all operational issues.
2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process
A 2 only
B 1 only
C Both of the above
D 1 an 2
49. Application Management is NOT responsible for?
A Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support applications
B Managing applications through their lifecycle
C Assisting in the decision to build or buy new software
D Developing functionality required by the business
50. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented is a principle that applies to
which of the following?
A The glossary of terms
B A SLA
C An Incident management record
D A Configuration Item
51. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics defined in Continual Service
Improvement?
A Supplier metrics, technology metrics, Business metrics
B Process metrics, supplier metrics, service metrics
C Process metrics, supplier metrics, business metrics
D Process metrics, service metrics, technology metrics
52. Which of the following BEST describes a Workaround?
A A technician uses a pre-defined technique to restore service as this incident has been seen
before
B A technician tries several approaches to solve an incident. One of them works, although he
does not know why
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C After reporting the incident to the Service Desk, the user works on alternative task while the
problem is identified and resolved
D A device works intermittently, thus allowing the user to continue working at degraded levels of
performance while the technician resolves the problem.
53. An incident occurs when:
1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours
2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours
3. A network segment fails and the user is not aware of any disruption to service
4. A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
A All of the above
B 1 and 4 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 2 and 4 only
54. Which of the following benefits would be LEAST useful in supporting a business case for
Service improvement?
A Reduced technology investment by 20% due to more accurate capacity and performance
modeling processes
B Reduced support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident and Problem
Management process
C Reduced level of customer complaints due to more effective Service Level Management
D Reduced Problem resolution time by half due to improved knowledge management
55. The information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?
A Senior Business Managers and All IT Staff
B Senior Business Managers, IT Executives and Security Manager
C All Customers, Users and IT Staff
D Information Security Management staff only
56. Which of the following statements are CORRECT?
1. A Process responds to specific events
2. A process is performance driven an able to be measured
A 1 only
B Both of the above
C Neither of the above
D 2 only
57. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?
A They are used to create value in the form of output for production management
B They are used to create value in the form of goods and services.
C They are used to created value to the IT organization for Service Support
D They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery
58. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Four Ps of Service Design
A A four step process for the design of effective service management
B A definition of the people and products required for successful design
C A set of Questions that should be asked when reviewing design specifications
D The four major areas that need to be considered in the designed of effective service
management
59. Demand Management Is used to:
A Increase customer value
B Understand patterns of business activity
C Increase the value of IT
D Align business with IT cost
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60. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most accurately described
as?
A To understand the performance characteristics of asset and Configuration Item in order to
maximize their contribution to service levels
B To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective
C To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were designed to achieve
D To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and maintain accurate
configuration records
61. The objective of the Change management process is most accurately described as?
A Ensuring that all Changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in a controlled
manner
B Ensuring that Changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and effectively
C Ensuring that all Changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of failure
D Protecting services by not allowing Changes to be made
62. The 7 steps Improvement Process can most accurately be described as?
A The 7 Ps of Continual Service Improvement
B A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cycle
C A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements
D A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data, processing the data and
using it to take corrective action
63. Which of the following statements are CORRECT?
1. Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services into production
2. Service Transition provides guidance on testing
3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an external service
provider
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 only
C All of the above
D 2 and 3 only
64. What is the best definition of an Incident model?
A The template used to define the incident logging form used to report incidents
B A type of incident involving a standard (or model) type of Configuration Item
C A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of incident
D An Incident that is easy to solve
65. Which of the following areas would technology help to support?
1. Self help
2. Measurement and reporting systems
3. Release and Deployment
4. Process design
A 1,2 and 3 only
B 1,3 and 4 only
C 2,3 and 4 only
D All of the above
66. A customer Service Catalogue should contain which?
A The version information of all software
B The organizational structure of the company
C Asset Information
D Details of all operational services
67. Which of the following would NOT be stores in the DML (Definitive Media Library)?
A Master copies of software
B Backups of application data
C Software licenses
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D Master copies of controlled documentation

68. Warranty of a service means?
A The service is fit for purpose
B There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service
C All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
D Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security.
69. Which of the following activities are included in Access Management?
1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services
2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users
3. Defining security policies for system access
4. monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to
A 2 and 4 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1 and 2 only
70. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and Outsourcing delivery
model options?
A Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on external organizations resources
B Insourcing relies on external organizations resources; outsourcing relies on internal resources
C Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships
D Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on application service
provisioning
71. Facilities Management refers to?
A The management of IT Services that are viewed as utilizes such as printers or network access
B The Management of an outsourcing contract
C The Management of the physical IT environment such as a Data Centre
D The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations staff to maintain the
infrastructure
72. Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below?
1. The design of services
2. The design of Service Management Systems and Tools
3. The design of technology architecture and Management Systems
4. The design of the processes required
5. ___________________ ?
A The design of functions
B The design of SLAs
C The design of Applications
D The design of measurement systems, methods and metrics
73. Which of the following roles is responsible for identifying opportunities for improvement?
1. Service Owner
2. Continual Service Improvement Manager
3. Process Owner
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C All of the above
D 2 and 3 only
74. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying out Service Operations?
A The internal IT views is most important as Service Operations has a monitor and manage the
infrastructure
B Service operations should maintain a balance between an internal IT view and an external
business view
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C The external business view is most important as Service Operations is the place where value is
realized and the customer obtains the benefit of the services.
D IT Operations does not take an internal or external view as they execute processes defined by
Service Design
75. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreement on a regular basis?
A Supplier Management
C Service Portafolio Management
D Contract Management
76. Which activities would you expect a Service Owner to Undertake?
1. Representing a specific service across the organization
2. Updating the CMDB after a change
3. Helping to identify service improvements
4. Representing a specific service in CAB meeting
A 1,2 and 4 only
B All of the above
C 1 and 4 only
D 1,3 and 4 only
77. Which of the following are aims of the Release and Deployment Management Process?
1. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans
2. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support staff
3. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services, operations and support
4. to provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the business
A 1, 2 and 3 only
B All of the above
C 1 and 3 only
D 1 and 4 only
78. Which of the following statements is always CORRECT about good practice?
A It must be adopted by all organizations
B It is something that is in wide industry use
C It is documented in international standards
D It is based on ITIL
79. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?
A Dealing with Service Request from the users
B Making sure all request within an IT organizations are fulfilled
C Ensuring fulfillment of Change Request
D Making sure the SLA is met
80. A Process Owner is responsible for which of the following?
A Purchasing tools to support the process
B Ensuring that targets specified in a SLA are met
C Carrying out activities defined in the process
D Monitoring and improving the process
81. Which of the following is the correct definition of a Customer-Based SLA?
A An SLA with an individual customer groups, covering all of the services they use
B An SLA covering all customer groups and all the services they use
C SLAs for each service that are customer-focused and written in business language
D An SLA for each service, covering all those customer groups that use that service
82. Which of the following data is LEAST likely to be used in the incident process?
A Incident category
B Cost of faulty item
C Make/model of faulty item
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D Impact code
83. Which of the following is NOT an element of Availability Management?
A Verification
B Security
C Reliability
D Maintainability
84. The extent of Configuration Item Information held in the CMDB(s) should:
A Be as detailed as possible so that frequently reports can be produced to avoid spending a lot of
money
C Match the organization requirement for information to be held
85. To enable a new Service Desk Management tools to be implemented, the capacity of the
Service Desk servers has to be extendeD Who is responsible for managing the request for
additional capacity?
B Change Manager
C Capacity Manager
D Financial Manager
86. Service Asset and Configuration Management plans should be integrated with those of:
B IT service Continuity Management and Financial Management for IT Services
C Change Management and Capacity management
D Change Management and Release and Deployment Management
87. Which of the following is a potential problem when implementing Change Management?
A Low change success rate
C Better alignment of UIT services to business need
88. Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Ongoing Operation of the IT service
Continuity Management life-cycle?
A Develop procedures and initial resting
B Education, awareness and training
C Review and audit
D Testing
89. Which of the following could be members of the CAB?
1. Problem Manager
2. Customer representatives
3. Change Manager
4. IT technical managers
A All of them
B 2 and 3 only
C 1,2 and 4
D 1 and 4 only
90. Which of the following should be easier after the implementation of a good IT service
Management SW tool?
1. The analysis of raw data
2. The identification of trends
3. The definition of Service Management processes
4. Implementation of preventative measures
A 1,2 and 4
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B 2 and 3
C All of them
D 1 and 4
91. Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How it is best defined?
A The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and component operable
D The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract
92. What is the difference between a Problem and a Known Error?
A A Known Error is always the result of an incident, a Problem is not
C Is the case of a Known Error, the underlying cause is known
D In the case of a Known Error there is a fault the IT infrastructure, with a Problem there is not
93. Where the information relating to Software release components would be stored?
A DML
B AMIS
C CMDB
D CMIS
94. A remote site has recently had its Local Area Network upgradeD The users are now
complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with the network
capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?
B The Service Desk
95. What is the correct sequence of activities involved in implementing a Service Management
tool:
1. Tool selection
2. tool specification
3. process design
4. Analysis of requirements
A 4-2-1-3
B 4-3-2-1
C 2-1-4-3
D 2-1-3-4
96. The process to implement SLAs comprises the following activities in which sequence?
B Draft SLAs, , review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue services, agree
SLAs
C Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, Draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate, agree
SLAs
D catalogue services, design SLA framework, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and
OLAs, negotiate service levels, agree SLA
97. Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?
D To ensure cost-justifiable IT capacity in all areas of IT always exists and is matched to the
current and future agreed needs of the business in a timely manner.
98. Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?
1. Incident diagnostic scripts
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2. A Knowledge base of previously recorded incidents

3. A Configuration Management System covering the infrastructure supported
4. A forward Schedule of Change
A 1 and 2
B All of them
C 3 and 4
D 1, 2 and 3
99. The Service Desk can act as the focal point for:
1. Receiving Incidents and Service Requests from users
2. Recording Change Request from users
3. Handling complaints and queries from users
A 1 only
B 2 only
C 1 and 3
D All of them
100. Which of these is NOT a recognized Service Desk?
101. Which of the following are amongst the main responsibilities of Capacity Management
1. Modeling
2. Risk Analysis
3. Application Sizing
4. DML maintenance
A 1 and 2
B 3 and 4
C 2 and 4
D 1 and 3
102. When does an Incident turn into a Problem?
A When it is urgent
C If the person reporting the incidents is very senior
D Never
103. For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?
A Establishing the root cause of a capacity which has led to an RFC being raised
B Devising the back-out plan for a significant Change
C Chairing the CAB
D Ensuring a Release has reached the target Configuration Item
104. Which of the following will NOT have a direct impact on IT capacity
A An increase pattern of business activity in network bandwidth
B A reduction in transactions processed
C A reduction in the number of files to be stored
D An increase is the cost per transaction
105. Which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and Problems
1. One Incident to one Problem
2. One Incident to many Problems
3. Many Incidents to one Problem
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
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C 1 and 3 only
D All of them
106. Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by Problem
Management to the Service Desk
A The number of Problem raised
B The number of Known Errors available
C The number of Problems correctly categorized
107. Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management
A To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
B To provide IT services at he lowest possible cost by agreeing with customers their minimum
requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed these target
C To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously improve on this
through ensuring all services operate at maximum availability
D To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost.
108. Which of these is a direct benefit of having a Service Desk
A Service Level Requirements are established
B Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted by users telephone calls
C Changes taking place are properly coordinated
D All the information in the CMS is kept up to date
109. With which of the following process do you associate this definition? A warning that a
threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred
B Information Security Management
C Event Management
110. Which of the following is NOT a key reason for investing in a Service Desk?
A To diagnose and remove the underlying cause of Problems
B To deliver high quality support
C To provide a single point of contact for users
D To aid user retention and satisfaction
111. Which of the following is NOT a Problem Management activity?
A Analyzing the IT infrastructure to identify weaknesses that could lead to incidents
B Assigning problems according to their priority
C To assess the impact, optimize risk and identify the costs of the proposed solution in order to
decide whether to implement it
D Creating Request For Changes to eliminate future incidents and problems from occurring
112. Which process often generates a good starting point for a SIP?
A Service Portafolio Management
B Availability Management
113. The Goal of Release and Deployment Management is best described as:
A To ensure that all Software and Hardware Releases are released in a manner that is acceptable
to users and customers
B To introduce electronic software distribution tools to reduce the time spent managing the
Release of new products
C To reduce the number of malicious or unauthorized implementations of software through the
strict application of Release procedures
D To deploy releases into production and establish effective use of the service in order to deliver
value to the customer
114. Which of the following can aid the Service Desk to meet their objectives?
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1. Change Schedule
2. Configuration Management Systems
3. Known Error Data
4. Alerts from monitoring tools
A None
B 1, 2 and 3
C 1 and 4
D All of them
115. A customer has requested a review of charges for services provided under an SLA Who will
review this with the customer?
A The IT Finance Manager
B The Service Level Manager
C The Change Manager
D The Configuration Manager
116. Of the following, which are the most important attributes needed by Service Desk staff?
A Good interpersonal skills
B Providing Customer Value
C Logical
D Well presented
117. Which of the following best describes a Standard Change Model?
A A small, virtually risk-free, software change
B Moving desktop equipment after a relocation
C A pre-approved change that is low risk, relatively common and follows a procedure
D A Capacity Management technique
118. Direct Plus is a type of.
A Costing Model
B Budget approach
C Accounting policy
D Chargeback model
119. Which of the following task is NOT normally assigned to the Service Desk?
A Receipt and logging of user calls
B Root Cause Analysis
C Incident escalation
D First incident resolution
120. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Configuration Item?
A An organizations Capacity Plan
B A laser printer
C A Service Level Agreement
D The make, model and serial number of a PC
121. Who is most likely to authorize a RFC before the change is built and tested?
A The Change Initiator
B The Change Manager
C The Configuration Manager
D The Release Manager
122. What is a Service Catalogue?
A An arrangement with an external supplier covering delivery of contracted services
B A document with information about all live IT services
C An agenda for the regular service review meeting with customers
D A set of actions to address Problems in CIs that have registered a high failure rate
123. Status Accounting is an important part of which process?
A Financial Management
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B Event Management
C Access Management
D Service Asset and Configuration Management
124. When establishing a new SLA or amending an existing one, which of the following should the
Service Level Manager considers?
1. That the new, or revised, SLA can meet the targets agreed with the customer
2. That the conditions in other SLAs can continue to be met
3. The impact of changes to SLAs can be identified
A 2 and 3
B 1 and 3
C 1, 2 and 3
D 1 and 2
125. Should an SLA specify how changes to customer requirements can be implemented before
the planned SLA review date?
A Yes, because the customer may ask for changes at any time
B Yes, but only if the customer pays for the change
C No, the SLA is reviewed periodically so that any changes can be introduced in a controlled
manner
126. One key objective of Availability Management is to
A Maximize service times provided by the IT department
B Ensure service availability achievements meet or exceed all their agreed targets
C Identify unreliable components
D Measure the performance of suppliers
127. Which of the following statements is correct about patterns of demand generated by the
customers business?
A They are driven by patterns of business activity
B They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by Capacity Management
C It is impossible to predict how the behave
D It is impossible to influence demand patterns
128. A programming mistake has just been detected in one of the operational IT systems. This will
lead to all bills being multiplied by a factor of 100 in nine months time. The mistake can be
corrected by one month of programming resource. Which of the following statements best
summarizes the situation?
A The impact in low but the urgency is high due to the large amounts of money involved
B The impact and urgency are low because there is plenty of time to solve the mistake
C The impact and urgency are both high because of the large amounts of money involved
D The impact is high but the urgency is low at the moment
129. What is the ITIL definition of a Problem?
A A deviation from the standard operation of service
B A call logged at the Service Desk more that once
C An incident for which the root cause is known and for which a workaround exists
D The unknown underlying cause of one or more incidents
130. The production of a Service Level Requirement document is usually the starting point for
whom within the Service Level Management process?
A The Service Provider
B The IT services legal representative
C The Customer
D The Change Manager
131. A new version of application software may require an upgrade to the operating system.
Either or both of these changes may also need a Hw change e.g. faster processor or more
memory. Which ITIL process is responsible for implementing these changes
A Change Management
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C Supplier Management
D Application Management
132. Potential benefits from implementing IT Service Continuity Management are:
1. Clearly defined business impacts
2. Fulfillment of mandatory or regulatory requirements
3. Reduced business disruption
4. Better management of risk
A 2, 3 and 4
B 2 and 4
C 1, 3 and 4
D All of them
133. Which of the following are examples of variable costs?
1. Salaries
2. Overtime
3. Quarterly lease payments
4. Usage charges
5. Consumables
A 1,2,3 and 5
B 2,4 and 5
C 1 and 2 only
D All of them
134. Which of the following definition best describes ITIL?
A A mythology for supporting and delivering IT services to all types of organizations who provide
services to a business
B A quality standard in managing customer relationships
C A prescriptive standard in managing customer relationships
D A documented best practice guidance applicable to all types of organizations who provide
services to a business
135. Performance Issues have been highlighted on a particular service and corrective measures
have been identifieD Which ITIL process will approve and coordinate the implementation of these
corrective measures?
A Performance Management
C Change Management
D Release and Deployment Management
136. Which of the following are Incident Management activities?
1. Negotiating SLAs with the customers
2. Matching the Incident against Known Errors
3. Categorizing and assigning priorities
4. Processing Request for Change
A 1 and 3
B 2 and 3
C 1 and 2
D All of them
137. The requirements and Strategy stage of the IT Service Continuity lifecycle consist of:
A Organization
B Education and awareness
C Business Impact Analysis
D Initial testing
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138. ITIL suggest that Release and Deployment Management should be introduced as part of an
integrated ser of processes. Which other ITIL processes should also be introduced together with
Release and Deployment Management?
A Change Management and Service Asset and Configuration Management
B Service Asset and Configuration Management and Incident Management
C Change Management and Service Level Management
D Service Asset and Configuration Management and Problem Management
139. Which of the following terms is / are associated with Demand Management?
A Underpinning discipline
B Identify the root cause
C Capacity and cost
D The customer is always right
140. Which of the following would be valid reasons for a Service Desk to invoke escalation
procedures?
1. An incident exceeds the downtime stipulated within an SLA
2. The business impact of an incident increases due to unforeseen circumstances
3. The number of users impacted by an incident is greater than first thought
4. A senior manager engaged in a critical business activity complains about a lack of progress
being made on a particular incident
A 1,2 and 3
B 2,3, and 4
C All of them
D 1,3 and 4
141. Which of the following is NOT a concern of Component Capacity Management
A Establishing the future IT capacity requirements of the business
B Understanding the profile of use of components
C Understanding CPU utilization thresholds
D Having a knowledge of new and changing technologies
142. Which is the correct combination of terms and Service Management processes?
1. CMDB A Availability Management
2. CFIA B Release and Deployment Management
3. DML C Service Level Management
4. OLA D Service Asset and Configuration Management
A 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
B 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
C 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
D 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
143. Which of the following statements best describes resilience?
B The ability of a Configuration Item or IT Service to resist failure or recover quickly following a
failure
C The ability of a components to remain functional under given conditions
D To ability of a component to be retained in, or restores to, its normal operational state
144. Which of the following is an activity of Change Management?
A Reviewing changes to confirm they meet their objectives
B Initiating a RFC to rectify a Known Error
C Testing the back out plan for releases
D Implementing changes to software at remote sites
145. Which of the following activities would NOT be valid for the DML
A Moving Software form the DML to the development environment
B Moving Software from the DML. To the live environment
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C Moving Software from the development to the test environment

D Moving Software from the live environment into the Definite Media Library.
146. In which two Service Design processes would you be most likely to use Risk Analysis and
Management?
A Change and Financial Management for IT Services
B Availability Management and IT Service Continuity Management
C Incident Management and Capacity Management
D Service Level Management and IT Service Continuity Management
147. Many performance related incidents have arisen because a new batch of PCs for not have
sufficient memory for the applications they are being used for
Which process should have prevented this from happening?
A Performance Management
C Service Asset and Configuration Management
D IT Service Continuity Management
148. Which of the following would be appropriate key performance indicators KPIs to select to
measure a Service Desk capability?
1. Percentage of Incidents closed without escalation
2. Percentage of Incident correctly categories
3. Percentage or recorded incidents related to servers
A All three
B 1 and 2
C 1 and 3
D 2 and 3
149. Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management?
A Verification
B Security
C Maintainability
D Reliability
150. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Configuration Item?
A Service Level Agreement
B A laser print
C An organization Capacity Plan
D The make, model and serial number of a PC
151. Which of the following is Change Management NOT responsible for:
A Scheduling a change to the network
B Ensuring that a change to an application is prioritized
C Ensuring that the impact of a change to Hardware is fully assessed
D Implementing the release of a Software change
152. Which is the correct sequence of events in the Expanded Incident lifecycle after an Incident
has occurred?
A Detection, Repair, Recovery, Restoration, Diagnosis
B Detection, Recovery, Repair, Restoration, Diagnosis
C Detection, Diagnosis, Recovery, Repair, Restoration
D Detection, Diagnosis, Repair, Recovery, Restoration
153. In which of the following circumstances is requesting an Emergency Change justified?
A If only one small component requires changing and it is unlikely to affect any other components
B A CAB meeting has been cancelled because most of the members are unable to attend
C A supplier has advised that a previous version of a Software package will not be supported very
much longer
D A change is needed to quickly correct an error on a business critical system
70
154. In ITSCM the severity of a disaster depends upon many factors. Which is the best definition
A The time of day it occurs
B How many people are available to assist in recovery
C The type of disaster, whether flood, fire, etc
D The impact on the customers business
155. An external IT service provider offers a customer a choice of three different maintenance
options when purchasing a new server. Which process will deal with the external IT service
provider on behalf of the customer?
B IT Operations Management
D Service Catalogue Management
156. Capacity Management comprises of three sub-processes. Which of the following is NOT one
of the sub-processes?
A Business Capacity Management
B Service Capacity Management
C Financial Capacity Management
D Component Capacity Management
157. The status of a Configuration Item could NOT be:
A Faulty
B Obsolete
C Hardware
D On Loan
158. Which of these should be included in a Release Policy?
1. Numbering conventions
2. Definition of acceptance criteria for adding new Software to the Definite Media Library
3. The expected frequency of each type of release
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 3
C 2 and 3
D All three
159. Which is the correct combination of terms and Service Management processes?
1. DML. A Financial Management for IT services
2. BIA B Release and Deployment Management
3. CFIA C IT Service Continuity Management
4. OI D Availability Management
A 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
B 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
C 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
D 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
160. Which of the following are potential members of a Change Advisor Board?
1. Customer(S)
2. user group representative (s)
3. technical Support staff
4. The Change Manager
A None of the above
B 1 and 2 only
C 1, 2 and 3
D All of the above
161. Which one of the following is NOT an Availability Management metric?
A MTRS Mean Time to Repair
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B MTBF Mean Time Between Failure

C MTFD Mean Time for Diagnosis
D MTBSI Mean Time Between System Incidents
162. Which of the following is NOT a direct benefit of introducing Capacity Management?
A Elimination of expensive panic buying
B Reduced risk of performance problems
C Availability levels are managed to fully support the agreed needs of the business
D More confident and improved forecasting
163. In ITIL terms a release is best described as?
A A collection of authorized Changes to an IT service
B Change that has been authorized by the Change Manager
C Software upgrades delivered by third party suppliers
D The next version of a Software package
164. Match up the definitions to the correct terms.
1. Incident
W. Unknown underlying cause
2. Problem
X. Request for change to an IT component
3. RFC
Y. Diagnosed problem with a work-around
3. Known Error
Z. An event causing disruption to service
A 1-W, 2-Z, 3-Y, 4-X
B 1-Z, 2-W, 3-X, 4-Y
C 1-Z, 2-W, 3-Y, 4-X
D 1-Y, 2-W, 3-Z, 4-X
165. A new packaged Software product has been received from an existing supplier, with a
certificate of authenticity included in the packaging. Where will the information relating to this
certificate are held?
A In the Definite Media Library
B In the security officers certificate store
C In the CMS
D In the computerized asset register
166. Which one of the following processes is responsible for compiling and issuing the Projected
Service Outage Document?
C Change Management
D Service Portafolio Management
167. What is the primary goal in dealing with an Incident?
A To trace the cause of an incident as soon as possible
B To redirect this incident to the appropriate specialists as soon as possible
C To restore normal service operation as soon as possible
D To register the Incident as soon as possible
168. Which of the following are missing activities in the Incident Management process flow?
1. Incident identification and logging
2. ______________________?
3. Investigation and Diagnosis
4. Resolution and Recovery
5. Incident closure
A Communication and Planning
B Initial checking and Communication
C Identification and Planning
D Categorization and Prioritization
169. Which of the following is NOT an IT Service Continuity Recovery option?
72
A Gradual recovery
B Immediate Recovery
C Intermediate Recovery
D Instant recovery
170. Which process can be described as managing the balance between supply and demand for
IT resources? I.e. making sure that the supply of IT Services matches the demands made on it by
the business?
C Financial Management
171. A secure compound in which of the definitive authorized version of all master software CIs
are stored and protected is known as the ??
A The Definitive Media Database
B The Definitive software compounds
C The Definitive Media Library
D The Definitive Media Store
172. Which process often generates a good starting point of a service improvement
Plan/Improvement (SIP)?
B Service Portafolio Management
173. Transferring an Incident from first-line to second-line support groups or further is called
_______, __ and primarily takes place because of lack of knowledge, expertise or time.
What are the missing words?
A Hierarchical escalation
B Functional escalation
C Operational escalation
D Incident closure
174. Which of the following are the major requirement that a Customer / user will have of a
Service Desk
1. Provision of a single point of contact
2. Communication of the level of service that will be provided, and when
3. To inform the Customer/User of the progress of incidents
4. To establish the root cause of the customer/user incidents
A All of them
B 1 and 2 only
C 1, 2 and 3
D 1,2 and 4
175. Which of the examples bellow is NOT an example of a possible Configuration Item in a
CMDB?
A A user manual
B The Service Catalogue
C A Server
D A unique identification code of a Configuration Item
176. The sequence of dealing with problems must be based on ?
A The function to which the problem will be allocated
B The impact of the problem
C The priority of the problem
D The urgency of the problem
177. Which of the following statements best describes Status Accounting?
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A The accounting of only current data for each Configuration Item

B The accounting of last set of changes for each current Configuration Item
C The accounting of only historical data for each current Configuration Item
D The accounting of all current and historical data concerned with each Configuration Item
throughout its lifecycle
178. Which of the following correctly identifies the FOUR stages of the IT Service Continuity
Lifecycle?
A Identification: Requirements and Strategy; Operational Management
B Initiation; Requirements and Planning; Identification; implementation
C Initiation; Requirements and Strategy; Implementation; Operational Management
D Strategy; Planning; Implementation; Operational Model
179. Which of the following statement are correct?
1. Release and Deployment Management is responsible for testing all components of a planned
software release prior packaging
2. Release and Deployment Management is responsible for deploying all changes to IT Services
A Statement 1 only
B Statement 2 only
C Both statements are correct
D Neither statement is correct
180. A new disk unit has to solve a problem with making backups on the network. The procedures
of making backups will also have to be updateD Through which process does formal authorization
have to be given for carrying out the works?
A Change Management
B Service Asset and Configuration Management
181. In which process would you expect to see the following outputs?
1. Known Error
2. a RFC
3. Management Information
A Incident Management
B Service Desk
C Change Management
182. Which of the following is NOT a key part of the IT Financial Management process?
A Budgeting
B IT Accounting
C IT Costing
D Charging
183. What is the most important advantage an organization should gain from establishing a
Definite Media Library?
A Only master copies and certified Software versions will be used in the organization
B The owner of the Definite Media Library has the option to decide which Software is used in an
organization
C The end users can choose from a wide range of controlled and certified Software
D A greater number of Software version can be offered to the end users
184. Stand-by Arrangements, Recovery Plans and Risk Reduction Measures all form part of
which ITSCM stage?
A Implementation
B Initiation
C Requirements and Strategy
D Operational Management
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185. Which of the following is NOT concern of component Capacity Management?

A Understanding CPU utilization thresholds
B Understanding the profile of use of components
C Establishing the future IT capacity requirements of the business
D Having a knowledge of new and changing technologies
186. Which process is responsible for the increment of versions of Software or Hardware releases
in the live environment
A Change Management
187. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. A SLA is a contract in which all available services are defined
2. A Service Level Manager should know more about technology than about the organization
A Statement 1 only
B Statement 2 only
C Both statements are correct
D Neither statement is correct
188. Which of the following are important factors for successful Incident Management?
1. An up-to-date CMS
2. An up-to-date knowledge base for use in incident resolution and workarounds
3. An effective systems to record and mange incidents
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C All of them
D 2 and 3 only
189. Which of the following is the correct definition?
A IT accounting is the set of processes used by the customer base to identify is they are getting
value for money from IT
B IT accounting is the set of processes that enable the IT organization to predict spend
C IT accounting is the set of processes that enable the IT organization to negotiate periodically
with the business the amount of money required to deliver the service
D IT accounting is the process responsible for identifying actual costs of delivering IT services
190. Which Service Asset and Configuration Management activity is missing from the following
list?
1. Management and Planning
2. Identification
3. ___________________ ?
4. Status Accounting
5. Verification and Audit
A Database population
B Control
C Logging CIs
D Labeling
191. Which process is most likely to be concerned with monitoring and reporting on service
targets?
75
192. A RFC will cover changes to which of the following?

1. Documentation
2. Software
3. Hardware
4. Engineer Support
A 1, 2 and 3
B They could ALL be covered by an Request For Change
C 2 and 3 only
D 1 and 2 only
193. Which of the following is NOT an input to Change Management?
A Request For Change (RFCs)
B Configuration Management System (CMS)
C Known Error
D Forward Schedule of Change (FSC)
194. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of Capacity Management?
A Monitoring performance and throughput
B Tuning to make most efficient use of resources
C Introducing charges for using scarce resources
D Controlling Customers demand by restricting available supply
195. Which one of the following is NOT an activity of Incident Management?
A Incident categorization
B Recording Known Error details
C Incident investigation and diagnosis
D Incident Identification and Logging
196. Which of the following sources of information are relevant to Capacity Management?
1. External suppliers of new technology
2. Business strategies and financial plans
3. IT strategies, plans and budgets
4. Incidents and Problems that relate to poor performance
A All of them
B 1 and 2 only
C 1, 2 and 3
D 2 and 3 only
1. It is important that there should be restricted access to the incident closure routine
2. Incidents should be matched with the corresponding Problem/Known record, where one exists.
A Both statements are correct
B Neither statement is correct
C Statement 1 only
D Statement 2 only
198. Which of the following are the activities of Operational Management within IT Service
Continuity Management?
A Awareness, structure, planning, agreement and review
B Awareness, review, testing, change, training and assurance
C Risk Analysis, Management
D Identify assets, assess threats and vulnerabilities, choose countermeasures
199. Which Incidents should be logged by the Service Desk?
A Only incidents not resolved by the desk when the user calls
B Only incidents from important customers
C Every phone call
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D All incidents reported to the Service Desk

200. Operational Level Agreement is associated with which process?
D Release and Deployment Management
201. What is the most appropriate way to determine the correct level of Configuration Item?
A Whether the Configuration Item can be installed or de-installed independently
B Whether the Configuration Item has a relationship only with an item at a higher level than itself
C It is dependent on the organizations requirements that is implementing Service Asset and
Configuration Management
D It is dependent on the amount of resources available at he time of implementation to capture
the information
202. Which of the following is NOT an output from the Change Management process?
A Projected Service Outage document
B Known Error
C Change Advisory Board minutes
D Forward Schedule of Changes
203. How does Problem Management support the activities of the Service Desk?
A Investigates all incident that the Service Desk resolves
B Relieves the Service Desk by immediately communicating a solution to a problem to the users
C Makes information available to the Service Desk about Known Error held on a Known Error
database (KEDB)
D Problem Management does not support the Service Desk
204. Which of the following are objectives of the Availability Management process?
1. Produce and maintain an appropriate availability plan
2. Ensure that proactive measures to improve availability of services are implemented
3. Ensuring Service availability achievements meet or exceed their agreed targets
A All of them
B 1 and 2 only
C None of them
D 2 and 3 only
205. For which of the following activities is the Service Desk NOT responsible?
A Impact analysis
B Root Cause identification
C Categorization and prioritization
D Functional escalation
206. Which of these is NOT part of Capacity Management?
A Tuning
B Demand Management
C Application sizing
D Maintainability
207. Change Management ensures that scheduling decisions are based on
1. Urgency
2. Business impact
3. Resource impact
Which of the above are correct?
A 1 and 2
B All three
C 1 and 3
D 2 and 3
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208. A measure of the reduction in value of an Asset over life, is a definition of which of the
following?
A Transfer costs
B Discounted cash flow
C Net book value
D Depreciation
209. Which of the following is NOT a main concern of Component Capacity Management?
A Differential charging for exceptional workloads
B Network bandwidth utilization
C CPU utilization
D Disk space
210. Which of the following is NOT true?
A Maintaining the agreed level of confidentiality is a concern of Availability Management and
Information Security Management
B Availability Management should contribute to the design and development of new Software
products
C Availability Management negotiates availability levels with customers to ensure their
requirements are met
D Availability Management is concerned with the resilience of Hardware components
211. Which of the following abbreviations most accurately represents downtime?
A MTRS
B CFIA
C MTBF
D MTBSI
212. A control or restraint on the Service Design to enhance security by reducing the risk or the
impact of an attack, detecting the occurrence of an attack, and/or assisting in the recovery from
an attack is best described in ITIL terms as a
A Countermeasure
B Risk definition
C Gateway review
D Potential problem
213. Which of the following best describes reliability?
B The ability of a service to remain functional even though some components have failed
C The ability of a configuration item to remain functional without interruption
D The ability of a configuration item to be retained in, or restored to an operational state.
214. Which of the following activities is the responsibility of Change Management?
A Reviewing changes to ensure they have worked
B Creating change request to rectify a Known Error
C Determining the release strategy for a major change
D Implementing a Software change at a remote site
215. Which is the correct combination of concepts and Service Management process?
1. Risk optimization A Capacity Management
2. Reliability B Release and Deployment Management
3. Thresholds C Availability Management
4. Roll-outs D Change Management
A 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
B 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
C 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
D 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
78
216. Which of the following best describes the scope of information Security Management (ISM)?
1. To include the obligations and responsibilities with regards to security contained within SLAs.
2. To maintain a business security plan.
3. To manage the risk of security for the business.
4. To understand legislative security requirements.
A 1,2 and 3 only
B 1 only
C 1,3 and 4 only
D All of them
217. Which of the following would NOT normally be regarded as one of the major input cost
elements of an IT service?
A Accommodation costs
B Hardware costs
C Software costs
D A cost Model
218. Items of information stores in de Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB) as part of
the Configuration Management System (CMS) relating to specific components are known as:
A Items
B Features
C Attributes
D Characteristics
219. Which of the ITIL processes is responsible for ensuring the organizations is aware of new
and changing technology?
B Change Management
C Financial Management for IT services
220. What information does Configuration Management provide to the IT Management of an
organization?
A Variations from the agreed service levels
B Time spent on investigation and diagnosis by each support group
C Number of incidents, changes and problems per category
D Details and historical and current status of the IT infrastructure
Availability Management is responsible for:
1. Understanding the reliability of components to carry out their required function under given
conditions over a certain period of time.
2. The maintenance of service components that should be carried out.
3. Negotiating availability with customers.
A 2 and 3
B 1 and 2
C All three
D 1 and 3
222. Which is the correct combination of concepts and ITIL processes?
1. Configuration Item Level A Availability Management
2. Disaster B Service Asset and Configuration Management
3. Risk Analysis C IT Service Continuity Planning
4. Confidentiality D Service Level Management
A 1-B, 2-C, 3-C, 4-A
B 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-A
C 1-D, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
D 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
79
223. Information Security Management maintains which system?

A CMS
B SMIS
C SKMS
D SCIS
224. In relation to IT Service Continuity Planning, the severity of a disaster depends upon:
A the time of day it occurs
B How many people are available to assist in a recovery
C The type of disaster, whether flood, fire, etC
D The impact upon the customers businesses.
225. When can the building, testing and implementation of a change begin?
A If is an emergency, as soon as the Request For Change has been given a category
B As soon as there is a back-out plan for change
C As soon as the impact analysis has been discussed by the members of the Change Advisor
Board
D As soon as the Request For Change has been formally authorized
226. What is the difference between a Problem and a Known Error?
A A Known Error is always the result of an incident, a Problem is not
C In the case of a Known Error there is a fault in the IT infrastructure; with a Problem there is not.
D In the case of a Known Error the underlying cause of the Problem is known
227. What is the correct order for the following in Security Management?
A Prevention, detection, reduction, repression, correction, evaluation
B Evaluation, correction, Prevention, reduction, detection, correction
C Prevention, reduction, detection, repression, correction, recovery
D Detection, repression, correction, Prevention, reduction, evaluation.
228. Consider the following statements. Which are correct?
1. Customers should always be invoiced for the IT services they use.
2. The only reason services are charged for is to make customers aware of the costs involved in
using those services.
A Both
B Only statement 1
C Neither
D Only Statement 2
229. How frequently should ECAB meetings be held?
A Daily
B Monthly
C Weekly
D As required
230. Consider the following statements. Which are true?
1. effective Change Management ensures that urgency and impact are keys to decisions made
on the scheduling of changes
2. Change Management controls all aspects of the change process
A Only statement 1
B Neither them
C Only statement 2
D Both of them
231. The security policy should be made available to:
A Managers only
B All staff
80
C Internal security audit teams

D Business users only
232. Which of the following activities is NOT the responsibility of Problem Management?
A Co-coordinating major problem reviews
B Determining the Root Cause of incidents
C Providing management information of incidents, problems and Known Errors
D Implementing error solutions
233. Which of the following is necessary in order to star IT Service Continuity Planning?
A Include continuity measures in Change Management procedures
B Identify appropriate counter-measures
C Conduct a Business Impact Analysis
D Establish a contract with an intermediate recovery provider
234. Status Accounting is an important part of which process?
A Financial Management
B Change Management
235. Which of the following statements is true?
A Service Level Agreement are between user departments and technical support providers and
are written in business language
B Operational Level Agreements are between internal service providers and may be written in
technical language
C Operational Level Agreements are between Service Level Management and external providers
and are written in business language
D Service Level Agreement are between use departments and Service Level Management and
are written in technical language
236. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release and Deployment
Management process?
A Distributing Software
B The physical aspects of Software control
C Helping to determine the Software release policy
D Ensuring that CMDB entries concerning Software components are verified
237. Which of the following are likely members of the Change Advisor Board?
A Problem Management
B Change Management
C All of them
D Customer representatives
238. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a Hardware Configuration Item?
A Number of items
B What it costs
C A supplier part number
D A manufacturer serial number
239. The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately described as?
A Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back out plans in the event of failure
B Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and effectively
C Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made.
D Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in a controlled
manner.
240. Which of the following should be easier after the implementation of a good IT Service
Management Software tool?
A All of them
B The analysis of raw data, the identification of trends, implementation of preventative measures
81
C The analysis of raw data, implementation of preventative measures

D The identification of trends, the definition of Service Management process
1-C
21-A
41-A
61-A
81-A
101-D
121-B
141-A
161-C
181-D
2-C
22-A
42-C
62-D
82-B
3-A
23-A
43-B
63-C
83-A
4-C
24-C
44-C
64-C
201-C
221-B
102-D
122-B
142-B
162-C
103-C
123-D
143-B
163-A
182-C
202-B
222-A
183-A
203-C
84-C
104-D
124-C
144-A
223-B
164-B
184-A
204-A
224-D
5-C
25-B
45-A
65-D
85-B
105-C
125-A
145-D
165-C
185-C
205-B
225-D
6-B
26-D
46-D
66-D
86-D
106-B
126-B
146-B
166-C
186-B
206-D
226-D
7-A
27-D
47-B
67-B
87-A
107-A
127-A
147-B
167-C
187-D
207-B
227-C
8-D
28-B
48-B
68-D
88-A
108-B
128-D
148-B
168-D
188-C
208-D
228-C
9-C
29-D
49-D
69-C
89-A
109-C
129-D
149-A
169-D
189-D
209-A
229-D
10-A
30-B
50-B
70-A
90-A
110-A
130-C
150-D
170-D
190-B
210-C
230-D
11-D
31-A
51-D
71-C
91-D
111-C
131-B
151-D
171-C
191-D
211-A
231-B
12-D
32-C
52-A
72-D
92-C
112-D
132-D
152-D
172-C
192-B
212-A
232-D
13-C
33-C
53-A
73-C
93-C
113-D
133-B
153-D
173-B
193-D
213-C
233-C
14-A
34-A
54-C
74-B
94-B
114-D
134-D
154-D
174-C
194-C
214-A
234-D
15-A
35-B
55-C
75-B
95-B
115-B
135-C
155-A
175-D
195-B
215-C
235-B
16-A
36-A
56-B
76-D
96-D
116-B
136-B
156-C
176-C
196-A
216-D
236-D
17-D
37-B
57-B
77-A
97-D
117-C
137-C
157-C
177-D
197-A
217-D
237-C
18-C
38-B
58-D
78-B
98-B
118-D
138-A
158-D
178-C
198-B
218-C
238-A
19-C
39-C
59-B
79-A
99-D
119-B
139-C
159-C
179-C
199-D
219-A
239-D
20-C
40-A
60-D
80-D
100-A
120-D
140-C
160-D
180-A
200-C
220-D
240-B
1 of 40
Which ITIL process or function deals with errors and Questions about use of services, raised by
end users?
D Service Desk
A Incorrect. Availability Management has no direct contact with users.
B Incorrect. Service Level Management mainly concerns itself with the agreements with the
customer for the IT Services, not on resolving malfunctions or answering users' Questions.
C Incorrect. Problem Management concerns itself with investigating the underlying cause.
D Correct. Dealing with Questions about use or errors with services is the task of the Service
Desk ITIL function.
2 of 40
What is the difference between a Known Error and a Problem?
82
A The underlying cause of a Known Error is known. The underlying cause of a Problem is not
known
B A Known Error involves an error in the IT infrastructure. A Problem does not involve such an
error.
C A Known Error always originates from an Incident. This is not always the case with a Problem.
D With a Problem, the relevant Configuration Items have been identifieD This is not the case with
a Known Error.
A Correct. An underlying cause will be defined when a Problem is being investigateD This results
in a Known Error.
B Incorrect. The cause of both a Known Error and a Problem can be located in the IT
infrastructure, but this cause will be known in the case of a Known Error.
C Incorrect. A Problem should always have been defined from the registration of one or more
Incidents.
D Incorrect. In the description of a Problem, the Configuration Items involved are not yet known.
The Problem must still be investigated, after which it becomes a Known Error.
3 of 40
Who determines the Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)?
A Change Manager
B Change Advisory Board (CAB)
C Customer
D IT Management
A Correct. The Change Manager is the only person who can assume ultimate responsibility for
the FSC
B Incorrect. The Change Advisory Board (CAB) is an advisory body and can give
recommendations, but the Change Manager has ultimate responsibility.
C Incorrect. The seriousness of the Change for the customer is taken into consideration when
planning, but the Change manager ultimately determines the FSC
D Incorrect. The Change Manager is empowered with authority on behalf of the IT Management;
The Change Manager can, however, obtain a commitment from IT Management.
4 of 40
Who is authorized to establish an agreement with the IT organization for the purchase of IT
Services?
A the Service Level Manager
B the user
C the ITIL process owner
D the customer
A Incorrect. The Service Level Manager is part of the IT organization and as such cannot
establish any agreements.
B Incorrect. The user is the person who uses the IT resources for his or her daily tasks, but has
no authorization to establish agreements.
C Incorrect. The ITIL process owner is part of the IT organization and as such cannot establish
any agreements.
D Correct. The customer is the authorized person to establish an agreement with the IT
organization for the purchase of IT Services.
5 of 40
In which document do you record requirements that influence capacity?
A Capacity Plan
B Service Improvement Program
C Service Quality Plan
D Service Level Requirements
A Incorrect. The Capacity Plan gives a picture of the existing capacity and the expected
developments in the demand for services. It also gives an overview of expected costs.
B Incorrect. Actions, phases and delivery dates are documented in the Service Improvement
Program, the goal of which is to improve an IT service.
C Incorrect. The Service Quality Plan contains process parameters for purposes of management
information.
D Correct. Requirements are laid down in the Service Level Requirements, which form the basis
for designing, developing and constructing the service to ultimately be able to safeguard the SLA
6 of 40
When a new version of a software package is installed in a desktop or client/server environment,
it can affect other software packages.
83
Which ITIL process monitors whether other software packages must be tested and installed again
in such a situation?
A Change Management
A Correct. Change Management ensures that the risks associated with a Change are kept to the
minimum.
B Incorrect. IT Service Continuity Management May be involved indirectly in this matter if there is
a serious problem as a result of the Change and the IT Service Continuity Plan must be put into
effect as a result. However, this is not the responsibility of IT Service Continuity Management.
C Incorrect. This is not the task of Problem Management.
D Incorrect. The actual activities (reinstalling and retesting other packages) may be the task of
Release Management, but Change Management is responsible for monitoring these activities.
7 of 40
The Availability Manager wants to know the situation regarding the recovery of IT components.
Who should he or she request the necessary information from?
A Service Desk
B Technical Management
C Configuration Manager
A Incorrect. This is not the responsibility of the Service Desk. The incident management process
would provide this information by linking incident records to CI.
B Incorrect. This is not the responsibility of Technical Management.
C Correct. Data pertaining to the failure rate, duration, etC can be retrieved from the CMDB as
incidents can be linked to CI records.
D Incorrect. This is not the responsibility of the Service Level Manager.
8 of 40
Which of the following terms conveys the degree to which an incident leads to a departure from
the normal service level?
A Escalation
B Impact
C Priority
D Urgency
A Incorrect. This situation involves an incident, not (yet) an escalation.
B Correct. The impact is the degree to which the incident leads to a departure from the normal
service level.
C Incorrect. The priority is determined by impact and urgency; both therefore determine the
priority.
D Incorrect. Urgency pertains to the rate at which the incident should be remedieD
9 of 40
Problem Control is a sub-process of Problem Management. The first activity of Problem Control is
to identify and record problems.
What is the first step to be taken in identifying a problem?
A analyse all existing incidents
B classify and prioritise problems
C solve problems
D provide management information
A Correct. Analysis of all existing incidents is the first activity of Problem Management in the
Problem Control subprocess.
B Incorrect. This is not one of the first steps.
C Incorrect. This will certainly not be the first step. In order to solve a Problem, Problem
Management must first investigate what the Problem is.
D Incorrect. Problem Management can only report on the Problem when information in known
about the Problem. This is the last step.
10 of 40
Many reports are provided regarding implemented changes.
Which of the following information does the Change Manager submit to the organization ?
A Personnel costs
B Number of incidents
C Incorrectly registered CIs
84
D Structure and composition of CIs

A Incorrect. This is the responsibility of Financial Management.
B Correct. The Change Manager submits this report in order to demonstrate the effectiveness of
the Change Management process.
C Incorrect. This is the responsibility of Configuration Management.
D Incorrect. This is the responsibility of Configuration Management.
11 of 40
From which data collection tool can statistical information be extracted to gain an insight into the
structure and composition of the IT infrastructure?
A the Capacity Management Database (CMD)
B the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
C the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)
D 4the Definitive Software Library (DSL)
A Incorrect. The Capacity Management Database (CMD) contains only capacity and performance
data on the IT infrastructure.
B Correct. The Configuration Management Database (CMDB) contains a record of the entire IT
infrastructure and its interrelationships.
C Incorrect. The Definitive Hardware Store (DHS) is the storage location for hardware stocks of
standardized basic configurations.
D Incorrect. The Definitive Software Library (DSL) contains all source software and
documentation for the operational software.
12 of 40
What is another term for Uptime?
A Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)
B Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)
C Mean Time Between System Incidents (MTBSI)
D Relationship between MTBF and MTBSI
A Correct.
B Incorrect. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is the average time required to resolve an incident
(Downtime).
C Incorrect. Mean Time Between System Incidents (MTBSI) is the average time between the
occurrence of two successive incidents. This also includes the MTTR, therefore.
D Incorrect. A relationship between two different time indicators produces a factor or percentage
as a result. This has nothing to do with Uptime.
13 of 40
Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management?
A advising end users of a system failure
B documenting the fallback arrangements
C reporting regarding availability
D guaranteeing that the Configuration Items are constantly kept up-to-date.
A Incorrect. Advising users of system failure is a Service Desk activity.
B Correct.
C Incorrect. Providing reports on availability is an activity of Availability Management.
D Incorrect. Guaranteeing that the Configuration Items are constantly kept up-to-date is an
activity of Configuration Management.
14 of 40
What is the description of the term Confidentiality as part of the Security Management process?
A protection of the data against unauthorized access and use
B ability to access data at any moment
C the capacity to verify that the data is correct
D the correctness of the data
A Correct. Protection of the data against unauthorized access and use is the description of
Confidentiality as used in the Security Management process.
B Incorrect. Ability to access data at any moment is a description of Availability as used in the
Security Management process.
C Incorrect. The capacity to verify that the data is correct is part of the description of Integrity as
used in the Security Management process.
D Incorrect. The correctness of the data is part of the description of Integrity as used in the
Security Management process.
15 of 40
What is usually not an activity of the Service Desk?
85
A handling (standard) Requests For Change

B handling complaints about the services of the IT organization
C tracing the underlying cause of incidents
D providing information on products and services
A Incorrect. The handling of (standard) Requests For Change is an activity within Change
Management, but it can also be a Service Desk activity.
B Incorrect. The handling of complaints about the services of the IT organization is an activity
within Service Level Management, but it can also be a Service Desk activity.
C Correct. Tracing the underlying cause of incidents is an activity of Problem Management.
D Incorrect. Providing information on products and services can be an activity of the Service
Desk.
16 of 40
Which of the following documents is part of a tactical process?
A user manual in the area of an application
B newsletter from the Service Desk about an application
C discussion about a Request for Change (RFC) for expansion of an application with the person
who submitted the RFC
D agreements on the availability percentage of an application
A Incorrect. User support in the area of applications is part of the Incident Management process,
an operational process.
B Incorrect. A newsletter from the Service Desk about an application is a form of communication
from the Service Desk, an operational department.
C Incorrect. A discussion about a Request for Change (RFC) for the expansion of an application
with the personwho submitted this RFC is a form of communication in the Change Management
process, an operational process.
D Correct. Agreements on the availability percentage needed of a purchasing application are
made in the Service Level Management process, a tactical process.
17 of 40
An end-user's PC crashes. This is not the first time that he has had problems with his PC It also
crashed three months ago. The user reports the crash to the Service Desk.
What is happening here?
A an Incident
B a Known Error
C a Problem
D a Request for Change
A Correct. This is an Incident. It is a long time ago that the previous Incident occurreD This
Incident cannot be related directly to the previous Incident.
B Incorrect. This involves an Incident, and not a Known Error. Moreover, the fact that this is a
recurring malfunction still does not make it a Known Error.
C Incorrect. This report does not involve a Problem. Moreover, the fact that this is a recurring
malfunction still does not make it a Problem.
D Incorrect. This is an Incident and not a Request for Change.
18 of 40
Which of the following is an example of a Service Request?
A a complaint about the provision of services
B an error report
C a relocation of equipment request
D a request for documentation
A Incorrect. A complaint about the provision of services is possibly an Incident, but it is not a
Service Request that can be solved by the Service Desk according to a straightforward standard
procedure.
B Incorrect. An error report is not a Service Request, but it requires Incident Management
procedures to ensure the rapid recovery of services.
C Incorrect. The relocation of equipment is a Change request.
D Correct. A request from a user for information, advice, documentation or a new password, for
example, is a Service Request.
19 of 40
What is an activity within the area of Proactive Problem Management?
A handling Requests for Change
B performing trend analyses and identifying potential incidents and problems
C following up on all incidents and disruptions
86
D minimizing the disruption to services resulting from Changes to the IT environment

A Incorrect. Handling Requests for Change is the task of Change Management.
B Correct. Proactive Problem Management concerns itself with trend analysis and identifying
potential incidents and problems.
C Incorrect. Following up on all incidents and disruptions is the task of Incident Management.
D Incorrect. Minimizing the impact of changes is not the task of Proactive Problem Management
but of Change Management.
20 of 40
Which ITIL process makes the most important and most frequent substantive contribution to
keeping the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) up to date?
A Change Management
A Correct. Change Management continuously implements changes in the IT infrastructure and is
responsible for directing changes in the CI registration.
B Incorrect. Configuration Management contributes by carrying out audits periodically, which are
similar to random checks.
C Incorrect. Incident Management consults the CMDB, but does not provide input for keeping it
up to date.
D Incorrect. Problem Management consults the CMDB and links problems and known errors to
CIs.
21 of 40
Control is one of the activities of Configuration Management.
What does this activity entail?
A updating changes to Configuration Items (CI's) and their relationships in the Configuration
Management Database (CMDB)
B verifying that the CI's and their attributes are specified correctly in the CMDB
C installing new CI's in the operating environment
D taking inventory of the CI's
A Correct.
B Incorrect. Verifying that the CI's and their attributes are specified correctly in the Configuration
Management Database (CMDB) is a description of Verification and not the Control activity.
C Incorrect. Installing new CI's in the operating environment does not describe the Control
activity. It is an activity that is usually executed by Release Management under the responsibility
of Change Management.
D Incorrect. Taking inventory of the Configuration Items (CI's) is a description of Identification and
Registration and not the Control activity.
22 of 40
Which activity is part of the Availability Management process?
A classifying Requests For Change
B defining the impact code for incidents
C identifying problems with the availability of IT Services
D measuring the availability of IT Services
A Incorrect. Classifying Requests for Change is a Change Management activity.
B Incorrect. Defining the impact code for incidents is an Incident Management activity.
C Incorrect. Identifying problems with the availability of IT Services is a Problem Management
activity.
D Correct. In addition to reporting, measurement is the most important activity in the Availability
Management process. The measurement and reporting activities create the basis for verifying
service agreements, removing problem situations and formulating improvement proposals.
23 of 40
In which ITIL process are negotiations held with the customer about the rates for the IT Services?
A Incorrect. Availability Management has no direct contact with the customer.
B Incorrect. Capacity Management has no direct contact with the customer.
87
C Incorrect. Financial Management for IT Services determines the cost price and sales price on
the basis of the financial policy or negotiations with the customer, but is not directly involved in
negotiations.
D Correct. One of the activities of Service Level Management is 'drawing up the contract'. Part of
this activity involves negotiating on the desired provision of services in relation to the costs.
Pricing information is recorded in a Service Level Agreement (SLA).
24 of 40
Which attribute in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) would help to ascertain
which Configuration Items are undergoing maintenance at a particular moment in time?
A purchase date
B owner
C location
D status
A Incorrect. The purchase date of a Configuration Item (CI) has nothing to do with the
maintenance being carried out on that CI.
B Incorrect. The owner does not change if a CI is undergoing maintenance.
C Incorrect. While the location of a CI may change when under maintenance - this attribute would
not be a useful way to show all CI's currently under maintenance (there could be multiple
maintenance locations).
D Correct. Reporting on the status flag will show us all CI's that are currently 'flagged' as being in
a maintenance state.
25 of 40
Which of the following Changes must be authorized by Change Management?
A data entry from users into a database
B changing a password
C adding a new user to the system
D relocating of a printer from the second floor to the third floor
A Incorrect. In that case, for example, every time an order is entered or a document is stored,
permission would have to be received from Change Management.
B Incorrect. Changing a password is not a Change but a Service Request. If it was a Change, the
Change Management process would be overloaded with Requests For Change that generally
have little impact have on the rest of the IT infrastructure.
C Incorrect. Adding a new user to the system is not a Change, but a Service Request. If it was a
Change, the Change Management process would be overloaded with Requests For Change that
generally have little impact have on the rest of the IT infrastructure.
D Correct. This is a change in the IT infrastructure and can have a certain impact on the way the
IT infrastructure functions.
26 of 40
There have been two incidents on a server. It appears that the server is overloaded due to its
multiple connections. What kind of actions should the Availability Manager take in this instance?
A He should ask the Capacity Manager to expand the capacity of the server.
B He should ask the Problem Manager to look into the problem right away.
C He should ask the Security Manager to check whether too many authorizations may have been
issueD
D He should ask the Service Level Manager to revise the Service Level Agreements (SLA).
A Incorrect. An inquiry should take place before any expansion to the server is carried out.
B Correct. The first step is to find out the real cause of the incidents. It is the responsibility of the
Problem Manager to initiate and monitor this. Only once it is clear that the capacity is the culprit
can several options be considereD
C Incorrect. When the server was put into operation, the number of persons who could log in to
the server was known. The Problem Manager should first carry out an inquiry into the underlying
cause.
D Incorrect. The agreements cannot be revised without reason; after all, these were established
together with the other processes.
27 of 40
Which ITIL process or which ITIL function has the matching of incidents with known (documented)
solutions as one of its activities?
A Change Management
D Service Desk
88
A Incorrect. Change Management concerns itself with submitted Requests for Change and with
dealing with those requests.
B Correct. Matching is an activity that is part of the Incident Management ITIL process.
C Incorrect. Problem Management concerns itself with investigating the underlying cause of one
or more incidents.
D Incorrect. The Service Desk concerns itself with providing users with support.
28 of 40
Which status does a Problem obtain when the cause of that problem is known?
A the status 'Incident'
B the status 'Known Error'
C the status 'Solved'
D the status 'Request for Change'
A Incorrect. The status 'Incident' does not exist. Several incidents together make up a Problem.
B Correct. If the cause of the Problem is known, it obtains the status Known Error.
C Incorrect. The status 'Solved' is not a correct term in the ITIL descriptions. The Problem must
still be solved after its cause is known.
D Incorrect. A Request for Change (RFC) is the logical consequence of a Known Error. The
Known Error can be solved by applying for and implementing an RFC
29 of 40
After a Change has been implemented, an evaluation is performeD
What is this evaluation called?
A Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)
B Post Implementation Review (PIR)
C Service Improvement Programme (SIP)
D Service Level Requirement (SLR)
A Incorrect. A Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC) is not an evaluation, but a calendar with a
schedule of the coming changes.
B Correct.
C Incorrect. A Service Improvement Programme (SIP) is not an evaluation. A SIP can, however,
be the consequence of an evaluation (from Service Level Management).
D Incorrect. Service Level Requirements (SLR's) are the expectations of the customer for a (new)
service. There do not involve an evaluation.
30 of 40
Due to a defect, a user's sound card is replaced with a new one, made by a different
manufacturer.
For future reference, which ITIL process is responsible for registering the new sound card?
A Change Management
A Incorrect. Change Management is indeed responsible for the Change, but not for registering
that Change.
B Correct. Configuration Management registers new Configuration Items (CI's) in the
Configuration Management Database (CMDB).
C Incorrect. Incident Management registers the Incident and its development, but does not
register the Change in the CMDB
D Incorrect. Problem Management may have concluded that the sound card had to be replaced,
but it is not responsible for registering the Change.
31 of 40
Where is the content of Releases maintained?
A Capacity Database (CDB)
B Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
C Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)
D Definitive Software Library (DSL)
A Incorrect. De Capacity Database (CDB) consists of technical data, business data and all other
data that is important for Capacity Management.
B Incorrect. The Definitive Software Library (DSL) can be part of the Configuration Management
Database (CMDB).
C Incorrect. Hardware quantities are stored in the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS), particularly
with regard to standardized basic configurations.
D Correct. The content of releases is maintained in the DSL.
89
32 of 40
Which of the following is included in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
A arrangements about the services to be provided
B availability statistics of a past period
C an action plan for setting up the Service Level Management process
D detailed technical descriptions of the TCP-IP protocol
A Correct.
B Incorrect. The availability statistics are described in reports.
C Incorrect. The agreement to establish and/or execute the action plan can be included in a
Service Level Agreement (SLA), but not the plan itself.
D Incorrect. Detailed technical descriptions of services are not included in a good SLA (customer
language), let alone a technical description of the TCP-IP protocol.
33 of 40
Which ITIL process ensures that the IT Services are restored as soon as possible in the case of a
malfunction?
A Change Management
A Incorrect. Change Management can sometimes be involved in the solution procedure.
B Correct. Malfunctions (Incidents) are reported through Incident Management. Incident
Management tries to resolve the malfunctions as soon as possible.
C Incorrect. It is only after it has become clear that one or more malfunctions have a structural
cause - that is, there is a Problem involved - that Problem Management tries to resolve the
Problem.
D Incorrect. Service Level Management does not resolve malfunctions. This process records the
arrangements made about service levels in a Service Level Agreement (SLA).
34 of 40
Which information does the "Financial Management for IT Services" process deliver to Service
Level Management?
A The availability of the IT services in a specific perioD
B The costs of the Financial Management system.
C The total costs of network management.
D How much has been spent on IT services per client.
A Incorrect. This information is reported from Availability Management.
B Incorrect. This information is reported from IT management.
C Incorrect. These costs are not client-related and therefore not useful to SLM.
D Correct. This is one of the four cost-related items that are reported to SLM.
35 of 40
What is the responsibility of the Security Manager in drawing up a new Service Level Agreement
(SLA)?
A Translating the Service Level Requirements for data security.
B Determining the Security Baseline in the Service Catalog.
C Substantiating the Security section of the SLA by means of an OLA
D Reporting on the technical availability of security components.
A Incorrect. This is the responsibility of the Service Level Manager, who does, however, obtain
input on this from the Security Manager.
B Incorrect. This is the responsibility of the Service Level Manager, who does, however, obtain
input on this from the Security Manager.
C Correct. The actual execution of this is the responsibility of Security Management.
D Incorrect. Reporting on availability is the responsibility of Availability Management.
36 of 40
Which ITIL process coordinates the implementation of a new software release?
A Change Management
A Correct. Control and management of the distribution of releases are the responsibility of
Change Management.
90
B Incorrect. Configuration Management does not manage the distribution of releases. It is,
however, involved in providing Configuration Item information and in modifying that information as
a result of the distribution.
C Incorrect. Release Management does not manage the distribution of releases, but it does
provide contentrelated information about releases and the schedule.
D Incorrect. Service Level Management does not manage the distribution of releases, but it does
provide the user with reports on releases.
37 of 40
Which ITIL process analyses threats and dependencies to IT Services as part of the decision
regarding "countermeasures" to be implemented?
A Incorrect. Availability Management provides data about the requisite availability of components
in the IT infrastructure and their mutual dependency. This data is used for the analysis of threats
and dependencies in the IT Service Continuity Management process.
B Correct. IT Service Continuity Management analyses the threats and dependencies and
determines the relevant countermeasures.
C Incorrect. Problem Management investigates the IT infrastructure in order to detect the causes
of (potential) malfunctions in the provision of services. However, external threats are not
considered to be malfunctions or errors in the IT infrastructure.
D Incorrect. Service Level Management is responsible for the transparency of the obligations
assumed for the IT Services.
38 of 40
What is the name of the activity within the Capacity Management process whose purpose is to
manage the demand for capacity?
A Application Sizing
B Demand Management
C Modeling
D Tuning
A Incorrect. Application Sizing is the discipline that predicts the hardware necessary for running
new or adapted applications.
B Correct. Demand Management is the management of capacity demands.
C Incorrect. Modeling is used to make predictions of infrastructure "behavior".
D Incorrect. Tuning is the optimal adjustment of systems to the actual or expected workload
based on the data that has been measured, analyzed and interpreteD
39 of 40
Which ITIL process is responsible for drawing up a charging system?
A Incorrect. The task of Availability Management is to manage the availability of the IT Services.
B Incorrect. The task of Capacity Management is to plan the expected purchase of the IT
Services.
C Correct.
D Incorrect. The task of Service Level Management is to make agreements about IT Services.
40 of 40
What is IT Service Management?
A effectively and efficiently managing the quality of the IT Services
B organising the management of the IT infrastructure according to the best practices of ITIL
C managing the IT infrastructure in a process-oriented way so that the IT organization can
provide the customer with IT products in a professional way
D promoting an understanding of IT Services among a wider audience
A Correct.
B Incorrect. IT Service Management is much broader than the ITIL methoD
C Incorrect. IT Service Management focuses on IT services rather than on IT products.
D Incorrect. IT Service Management restricts itself to people who are working or are involved in
the specialized fielD
91

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Question 1 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A Problem Management may be involved when a major incident occurs

D The difference between forecast and actual resource usage

A Charges will reflect what the market will bear

C 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

B Ensuring that a change to an application is prioritised

Question 72 Which of the following statements is true?

A An increase in network bandwidth available

C IT Service Continuity Planning

A 1-b, 2-c, 3-c, 4-a

Question 1 A customer-based SLA structure includes:

Question 8 Possible problems with Change Management include:

1. Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users

Question 32 For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?

Question 14 Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change

D a request to install a new bookkeeping package

Question 47 The Application Sizing activity is part of Capacity Management.

B the speed with which the change is made

D Service Quality Plan (SQP)

Question 1 A customer-based Service Level Agreement structure includes:

B Increased visibility and communication of changes

Question 15 What is SOA within Availability Management?

B The number of updates to the OHS

1. What does the Service V Model represent?

13. Which of the following are characteristics of every process?

C A Known system defect that generates multiple incident reports

D Master copies of controlled documentation

2. A Knowledge base of previously recorded incidents

B Release and Deployment Management

C Moving Software from the development to the test environment

B MTBF Mean Time Between Failure

A The accounting of only current data for each Configuration Item

185. Which of the following is NOT concern of component Capacity Management?

192. A RFC will cover changes to which of the following?

D All incidents reported to the Service Desk

223. Information Security Management maintains which system?

C Internal security audit teams

C The analysis of raw data, implementation of preventative measures

D Structure and composition of CIs

A handling (standard) Requests For Change

D minimizing the disruption to services resulting from Changes to the IT environment

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