44 - Practice Test APES Spring Midterm 2007

Practice Test APES Spring Midterm 2007
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1. Which of the following does not apply to sea otters?

a. They have blubber to keep them warm.
b. They can eat 25 % of their weight per day in sea urchins and other benthic organisms.
c. They use tools.
d. They have the thickest fur of any mammal.
2. The most common pattern of population dispersion found in nature is
a. random.
b. uniform.
c. clumped.
d. dispersed.
3. Biotic potential is determined by
a. reproductive age span.
b. the minimum viable population.
c. how many offspring die before reproducing.
d. irruptive populations.
4. Environmental resistance is enhanced by
a. the ability to compete for resources.
b. the ability to resist disease and parasites.
c. a specialized niche.
d. a high reproductive rate.
5. Carrying capacity is determined by
a. climatic changes.
b. predation.
c. interspecific competition.
d. all of these answers.
6. Density-dependent population controls include all of the following except
a. disease.
b. human destruction of habitat.
c. parasitism.
d. competition for resources.
7. Which of the following terms best describes the type of population change you would expect to find for a
monkey in an undisturbed section of the Brazilian rain forest?
a. explosive
b. stable
c. cyclic
d. irruptive
8. An r-strategist generally
a. has a low biotic potential.
b. is small and short lived.
c. gives much parental care to its offspring.
d. survives to reproduce.
9. K-strategists
a. have high genetic diversity.
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b. are more responsive to environmental changes than r-strategists.

c. exhibit fast rates of evolution.
d. are generally less adaptable to change than r-strategists.
A K-strategist generally
a. has populations that follow an S-shaped growth curve.
b. exhibits "boom-and-bust" cycles.
c. has populations that rise quickly then crash.
d. generally lives in a rapidly changing environment.
Which of the following best describes the survivorship curve you would expect to find for a fish?
a. late loss
b. constant loss
c. early loss
d. no loss
Which of the following types of species is least vulnerable to habitat fragmentation?
a. generalists
b. specialists
c. large predators
d. migratory species
Humans have interfered in the development of natural ecosystems by
a. adding chemicals which alter natural cycles.
b. overharvesting potentially renewable resources.
c. eliminating predators and introducing new species.
Natural ecosystems
a. require applications of pesticides.
b. are subject to continuous invasion by pathogens and weeds.
c. are usually capable of self-maintenance and self-renewal.
d. have most of their biomass in one species.
The Earth zone with the most volume and mass is the
a. lithosphere.
b. core.
c. crust.
d. mantle.
The theory of plate tectonics explains
a. the occurrence of earthquakes.
b. the occurrence of volcanoes.
c. movement of Earth's plates.
Tectonic plates move apart in opposite directions at a(n)
a. divergent plate boundary.
b. transform fault.
c. convergent plate boundary.
d. subduction zone.
Which of the following does not belong with the others?
a. basalt
b. granite
c. sandstone
d. volcanic rocks
Which of the following rocks is most likely to be formed from compacted plant remains?
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a. coal
b. limestone
c. rock salt
d. marble
Lignite and bituminous coal are ____ rocks.
a. metamorphic
b. igneous
c. tectonic
d. sedimentary
Ejecta is
a. debris released from a volcano.
b. substances injected into faults to relieve pressure.
c. material released from rifts on the floor of the ocean.
d. the depressed region inside the cone of an inactive volcano.
The surface litter horizon is described by the letter
a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. O.
Leaf mold, a humus-mineral mixture, and silty loam are indicative of
a. coniferous forest soil.
b. deciduous forest soil.
c. tropical forest soil.
d. grassland soil.
A soil sample that is alkaline, dark, and rich in humus probably came from a
a. coniferous forest.
b. deciduous forest.
c. tropical forest.
d. grassland.
Clay has ____ permeability and ____ porosity.
a. high; high
b. high; low
c. low; high
d. low; low
Properties of sand do not include good
a. nutrient-holding capacity.
b. water infiltration.
c. percolation.
d. aeration.
Sand has ____ permeability and ____ porosity.
a. high; high
b. high; low
c. low; high
d. low; low
The addition of lime
a. makes soil more acidic.
b. causes decomposition of organic material.
c. increases porosity of the soil.
d. will change soil texture.
____ 29. The greatest source of water pollution is

a. sediment from erosion.
b. runoff of agricultural chemicals.
c. drainage from urban areas.
d. industrial point sources.
____ 30. The National Resources Conservation Service
a. was established in 1955.
b. is a regional service to the Great Plains.
c. provides technical assistance to both farmers and ranchers.
d. solved the Great Plains' erosion problems.
____ 31. Today, soil on agricultural land in the United States is
a. forming 16 times faster than it is eroding.
b. forming 6 times faster than it is eroding.
c. is eroding 6 times faster than it is forming.
d. is eroding 16 times faster than it is forming.
____ 32. Salt buildup may
a. increase crop growth.
b. increase yields.
c. eventually kill weeds.
d. eventually make the land unproductive.
____ 33. Conservation tillage
a. increases labor costs.
b. decreases erosion.
c. increases energy consumption.
d. accelerates water loss from the soil.
____ 34. Which of the following statements is false? Conservation tillage
a. is used in 40% of U.S. cropland.
b. is not widely used outside the United States.
c. reduces soil compaction.
d. reduces the number of crops that can be grown in an area in a year.
____ 35. Which of the following practices both reduces erosion and increases soil fertility?
a. strip cropping
b. terracing
c. contour farming
d. row cropping
____ 36. Planting crops in alternating rows of close-growing plants
a. creates windbreaks.
b. is called strip cropping.
c. is called crop rotation.
d. increases erosion rates.
____ 37. The process least likely to conserve soil nutrients is
a. crop rotation.
b. fertilizing with compost.
c. fertilizing with green manure.
d. irrigation.
____ 38. Commercial inorganic fertilizers commonly contain all of the following except
a. organic nitrogen.
b. phosphate.
c. nitrate.
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d. potassium.
Commercially available inorganic fertilizers
a. lack trace elements.
b. increase soil porosity.
c. increase soil water-holding capacity.
d. raise the oxygen content of soil.
The population change in a particular year can be calculated by
a. (deaths + emigration) - (births + immigration)
b. (births + immigration) - (deaths + emigration)
c. (deaths + immigration) - (births + emigration)
d. (births + emigration) - (deaths + immigration)
Between 1963 and 2000, the human population size
a. dropped 94%.
b. rose 94%.
c. dropped 41%.
d. remained stable.
Which of the following countries would produce the greatest rise in population size from experiencing a
growth rate of 1.2%?
a. country A, with a population of 100,000
b. country B, with a population of 1 million
c. country C, with a population of 10 million
d. country D, with a population of 1 billion
Which of the following would contribute the greatest number to total population size in one year?
a. a country of 1.5 million people with a growth rate of 3%
b. a country of 5 million people with a growth rate of 2.5%
c. a country of 100 million people with a growth rate of 2%
d. a country of 500 million people with a growth rate of 1.5%
A high infant mortality rate is most often associated with
a. a high standard of living.
b. undernutrition.
c. balanced diets.
d. a low incidence of infectious disease.
Infant mortality rate refers to the number of children out of 1,000 that die
a. before birth.
b. in their first month.
c. in the first half-year of life.
d. by their first birthday.
All of the following reasons help explain why the United States has one of the highest infant mortality rates of
developed countries except
a. lack of health care for children of the poor after birth.
b. the older age of pregnant women as a result of many women delaying having children.
c. lack of adequate prenatal care.
d. high birth rate for teenage women.
Population age structure diagrams can be divided into all of the following categories except
a. infant.
b. prereproductive.
c. reproductive.
d. postreproductive.
Age structure diagrams
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a. show only two age groups: reproductive and not reproductive.

b. show the number of males and females in the infant category.
c. are strictly for present use and do not provide insight into future trends.
d. are useful for comparing one population with another.
A baby boomer is least likely to
a. strongly influence demands for goods and services.
b. influence politics.
c. take voluntary early retirement.
d. place strains on medicare as middle age approaches.
Countries undergoing rapid population decline may experience a rise in the proportion of the population
a. on social security.
b. consuming a large fraction of medical services.
c. who are older people.
d. who fit all of these answers.
Which of the following least characterizes U.S. immigration policy?
a. The law prohibits hiring of illegal immigrants.
b. Some environmentalists want to limit immigration to a small percentage of U.S.
population growth.
c. Some citizens feel that limiting immigration diminishes the U.S. role in providing a place
of opportunity for poor and oppressed people.
d. Over the past decade, efforts to deport illegal immigrants have weakened.
People who support population regulation say that
a. billions more people on the earth will intensify many environmental and social problems.
b. it is unethical for us to control birth rates.
c. the gap between the rich and poor has been narrowing since 1960.
d. we have the freedom to produce as many children as we want.
Which of the following statements best summarizes the Limits to Growth projection for consequences of
continuing our societies at current world population growth and industrial output rates?
a. Our societies are currently in sustainable dynamic equilibrium.
b. Our societies will continue with minor changes.
c. Our societies will demonstrate overshoot and collapse patterns in the next decade.
d. Our societies will demonstrate overshoot and collapse patterns in the next century.
During demographic transitions, birth rates of a population are high during the
a. preindustrial and industrial stages.
b. postindustrial and transitional stages.
c. industrial and postindustrial stages.
d. preindustrial and transitional stages.
Some experts fear that the developing countries lack sufficient ___ to allow the demographic transition to
occur.
a. people
b. capital
c. cooperation
d. commitment
Family-planning programs have been successful in reducing population growth in
a. Haiti.
b. India.
c. China.
d. Nigeria.
The success of a family planning program is enhanced when
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a. the leadership is apathetic.

b. implementation is left to central planners.
c. contraceptives are widely available.
d. the majority of the people live in the countryside.
Which of the following statements about women's employment/economic status is false?
a. Women do more than half of the work gathering fuelwood.
b. Women do more than half of the work involved in producing food.
c. Women have more than half of the world's assets.
d. Women provide more of the world's health care than all of the world's organized health
services put together.
Women possess _____% of the world's land.
a. less than 1
b. 10
c. 25
d. 50
Which of the following statements reflects the views of many of the world's leading scientists and analysts?
a. All parts of the world are well below carrying capacity for humans.
b. Parts of the world are exceeding carrying capacity for humans, although most parts do not
need to be concerned.
c. Parts of the world are exceeding carrying capacity for humans, and with current trends,
eventually other parts of the world will, too.
d. All parts of the world are currently exceeding carrying capacity for humans.
Which of the following is not one of the goals of the 1994 UN Conference on Population and Development?
a. Reduce and eliminate unsustainable patterns of production and consumption.
b. Increase access to education, especially for boys.
c. Improve the health care of infants, children, and pregnant mothers.
d. Improve employment opportunities for young women.
The global increase in water withdrawal since 1950 is due to all but which one of the following?
a. increased population
b. climatic variation
c. agriculture
d. industrialization
Which of the following uses tends to consume the smallest amount of water?
a. irrigation
b. public use
c. industry
d. energy production.
The largest use of water in the western United States is
a. energy production.
b. cooling.
c. irrigation.
d. hosing down livestock pens.
Water scarcity due to increasing numbers of people relying on fixed levels of runoff is called
a. water stress.
b. aridity.
c. drought.
d. desiccation.
Large dams and reservoirs
a. reduce danger of flooding upstream.
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b. are inexpensive to build.

c. cannot be used for outdoor recreation.
d. can be used to provide electric power.
Egypt's Aswan High Dam
a. does not generate electricity.
b. saved rice and cotton crops during two droughts in the 1970s.
c. increased fertility of downstream farmland by holding back choking sediments.
d. decreased the incidence salinization.
The Colorado River provides all of the following except
a. 12 million kilowatts of electricity annually.
b. whitewater rafting recreational opportunities.
c. a sustainable water supply for an ever-increasing population.
d. irrigation for the vegetables grown in California's Imperial Valley.
California's basic water problem stems from the fact that _____% of the population lives south of
Sacramento, but _____% of the rain falls north of it.
a. 50; 50
b. 75; 75
c. 50; 75
d. 75; 50
Canada's James Bay Project to generate electricity involves
a. displacing thousands of indigenous Cree and Inuit.
b. flooding boreal forest and tundra equal in size to Washington State.
c. constructing 600 dams and dikes.
Overuse of groundwater can lead to
a. saltwater intrusion.
b. subsidence.
c. aquifer depletion.
Which choice completes the sentence incorrectly? Cloud seeding
a. is most useful in very dry areas.
b. could change regional rainfall patterns.
c. could introduce large amounts of cloud-seeding chemicals into natural ecosystems.
d. is impeded by legal disputes.
World Resources Institute estimates that _____ of the water people use throughout the world is wasted
through evaporation, leaks, and other losses.
a. 25-30%
b. 45-50%
c. 65-70%
d. 75-80%
Which of the following conditions in the Himalayan watershed contribute(s) to flooding in Bangladesh?
a. rapid population growth
b. forest conservation
c. dam construction
d. sustainable farming practices
Stream channelization
a. increases the rate of water discharge.
b. decreases erosion.
c. is one form of irrigation.
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d. is the process of building ditches along natural streams.

Sustainable use of water
a. requires integrated governance of water use, sewage treatment, and water pollution among
all users of a watershed.
b. might be encouraged by water marketing.
c. is discouraged by government subsidies of water.
Chernobyl
a. was the worst nuclear disaster ever.
b. resulted in 45 direct human deaths and about 32,000 since.
c. flung radioactive debris and dust into the atmosphere, where they circled the globe.
Reserves are _____ resources.
a. identified and profitably extractable
b. unidentified and profitably extractable
c. identified and subeconomic
d. unidentified and subeconomic
Which of the following represents the most common way ore deposits are formed?
a. hydrothermal processes
b. magma cooling
c. chemosynthesis
d. sedimentary sorting
One reason manganese-rich nodules are an attractive resource is that
a. they contain several other important minerals.
b. mining them entails few political problems.
c. mining them is ecologically harmless.
d. valuable deposits are found nearly everywhere.
Subsurface mining ______ than surface mining.
a. disturbs more land
b. produces more waste material
c. is more dangerous
d. gets out more of the resource
Compared to subsurface mining, surface mining
a. is more dangerous.
b. is more expensive.
c. disturbs more land.
d. produces less waste material.
When ore undergoes processing, a waste called _____ is produced.
a. hazardous
b. spoil
c. gangue
d. tailings
When a resource has been economically depleted, we can
a. recycle or reuse what has already been extracted.
b. cut down on unnecessary waste of the resource.
c. find a substitute.
The example of copper mining illustrates that
a. it can be profitable to mine low-grade ores.
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b. reserves of minerals decline each year.

c. economic profits must be balanced with environmental costs.
d. the reserves of some key metals are renewable.
According to some analysts, mining of low-grade ores may be limited by
a. energy costs.
b. availability of fresh water.
c. land reclamation costs.
Advantages of using microorganisms for mining include all of the following except reduced
a. land disturbance.
b. air pollution.
c. water pollution.
d. time to remove minerals.
Which of the following would be easiest to find a substitute for?
a. phosphates
b. helium
c. steel
d. copper
Ninety-nine percent of the energy used to heat the earth and all our buildings comes from
a. oil.
b. coal.
c. the sun.
d. nuclear power.
With 4.7% of the world's population, the United States uses about _____ of the world's commercial energy.
a. 2/3
b. 1/2
c. 1/3
d. 1/4
Affordable oil supplies will probably be economically depleted in
a. 10-20 years.
b. 20-30 years.
c. 30-50 years.
d. 40-90 years.
The energy source with the highest net energy ratio for high-temperature industrial heat is
a. coal gasification.
b. coal.
c. oil.
d. direct solar.
Crude oil components are separated by
a. gravity.
b. distillation.
c. pressure.
d. filtration.
Petrochemicals are
a. used as raw materials for most organic chemical production.
b. removed from oil before it is refined.
c. impurities that must be burned or buried.
d. additives to bring up the octane level of gasoline.
You can thank petrochemicals if you use
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a. paints.
b. medicines.
c. plastics and synthetic fibers.
World oil supplies and prices are expected to be controlled over the long term by
a. Russia.
b. the United States.
c. Mexico.
d. OPEC.
The greatest use of oil in the United States is for
a. transportation.
b. generation of electricity.
c. commercial and residential heating and cooling.
d. industrial uses.
Since 1985, oil extraction in the United States has
a. increased rapidly.
b. increased slightly.
c. stayed the same.
d. declined.
A strategic disadvantage of oil is that it
a. produces more carbon dioxide than any other fuel.
b. produces destruction of nature through oil spills.
c. can contaminate groundwater supplies.
d. will be commercially depleted within 90 years.
Shale oil and tar sands
a. are principal sources of conventional crude oil.
b. contain large supplies of heavy oils.
c. constitute a small but cheap supply of crude oil.
d. are usable only for aviation fuel.
Shale oil is
a. pure in its naturally occurring form.
b. a light oil found in ancient sand deposits.
c. extracted from the kerogen in oil shale.
d. commercially produced in about 25 nations.
Shale oil processing requires large amounts of
a. water.
b. electricity.
c. zinc.
d. time.
Disadvantages of shale oil as an energy source include all of the following except
a. massive land disruption.
b. air and water pollution.
c. considerable energy input for the energy output obtained.
d. potentially recoverable U.S. deposits are only enough to meet the country's crude oil
demand for five years.
Producing crude oil from tar sands
a. releases small quantities of air pollution.
b. creates little waste.
c. uses little energy.
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d. uses large quantities of water.

Natural gas from wells consists of 50% to 90%
a. methane.
b. ethane.
c. propane.
d. butane.
Liquefied petroleum gas consists of
a. methane.
b. butane and propane.
c. ammonia.
d. nitrogen oxides.
The countries with the largest reserves of natural gas are
a. Canada and the United States.
b. Russia and Kazakhstan.
c. Nigeria and Algeria.
d. India and Pakistan.
Which of the following describe(s) use of natural gas as a fuel?
a. Does not work well for transportation applications.
b. Natural gas may leak from gas pipelines.
c. Land may be severely disrupted.
d. Air pollution is worse than with other fossil fuels.
A key option during the switch from oil to other new energy sources is
a. coal.
b. nuclear.
c. biomass.
d. natural gas.
Because of high heat content and low sulfur content, the most desirable type of coal is
a. bituminous.
b. lignite.
c. anthracite.
d. peat.
All of the following are parts of a coal-fired electric power plant except
a. a generator.
b. a distillation column.
c. scrubbers.
d. electrostatic precipitators.
____ is the dirtiest fossil fuel to burn.
a. Oil
b. Natural gas
c. Coal
d. Wood
Fluidized-bed combustion is a method of burning coal
a. more cleanly and efficiently.
b. to produce extremely hot ionized gases.
c. in underground deposits too deep to mine.
d. without having to crush or powder it.
The nuclear power industry in the United States has declined because of
a. accidents at Chernobyl and Three Mile Island.
b. false assurances and cover-ups by government and industry officials.
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c. concerns about radioactive waste disposal.

Control rods in a reactor
a. contain uranium.
b. absorb neutrons.
c. contain plutonium.
d. reduce heat.
If the fuel pellets in spent fuel rods are processed to remove plutonium and other very long-lived radioactive
isotopes, the remaining radioactive waste should be safely stored on the order of _____ years.
a. 100
b. 1,000
c. 10,000
d. 100,000
The accident at the Three Mile Island nuclear power plant in 1979 involved all of the following except
a. a series of mechanical failures.
b. a loss of reactor core coolant.
c. operator errors unforeseen in safety studies.
d. a complete reactor core meltdown.
Suggestions to bury radioactive wastes underground include converting the radioactive waste to a solid form
and fusing it with
a. salt.
b. lead.
c. limestone.
d. glass.
The useful operating life of today's nuclear power plants is supposed to be ______ years.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
Nuclear power plants wear out when
a. the reactor's pressure vessels become brittle through neutron bombardment.
b. pipes and valves corrode.
c. pressure and temperature changes weaken tubes.
Breeder nuclear fission reactors convert
a. fast-moving neutrons into slow-moving ones.
b. high-level wastes into harmless isotopes.
c. uranium-238 into plutonium-239.
d. uranium-235 into uranium-238.
A construction project completed in 1986 brought the world's first full-sized commercial breeder reactor into
operation in
a. the United States.
b. the Commonwealth of Independent States.
c. Germany.
d. France.
The least efficient method of space heating is
a. passive solar heat.
b. electricity produced by nuclear power plants.
c. natural gas furnaces.
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d. oil furnaces.
The most expensive way to provide space heat is by using
a. propane.
b. electricity.
c. kerosene.
d. oil.
About _____ of U.S. homes are heated by electricity.
a. one-tenth
b. one-fourth
c. one-third
d. one-half
e. two-thirds
Improving energy efficiency does all of the following except
a. make nonrenewable fossil fuel supplies last longer.
b. provide a longer time for phasing in renewable energy sources.
c. improve national security by reducing dependence on oil imports.
d. eliminate excess jobs.
Current research on fueling ecocars focuses on
a. the use of ultracapacitors to power electric cars.
b. the use of hydrogen fuel cells to produce electricity.
c. the development of hybrid electric-internal combustion cars.
Heating, cooling, and lighting buildings consumes about _____ of the energy used in modern societies.
a. one-fifth
b. one-fourth
c. one-third
d. one-half
Development of renewable energy resources would
a. cost money and jobs.
b. eliminate the need for oil imports.
c. produce more pollution per unit of energy.
d. decrease military, economic, and environmental security.
With available and developing technologies, passive solar designs can provide at least _____ of a residential
building's heating needs.
a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 60%
d. 70%
Which of the following is true of passive but not of active solar systems, compared to other heating systems?
a. The technology is well developed and can be installed quickly.
b. The system adds 5% to the initial cost but reduces lifetime costs by 30-40%.
c. They require more materials and more maintenance.
d. The systems deteriorate more readily and need to be replaced more often.
A type of distributed receiver system that has captured a fraction of the commercial market is the
a. active solar heating system.
b. solar power tower.
c. solar cooker.
d. solar thermal plant.
All of the following are characteristic of solar cells except
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a. durability up to 30 years.
b. quick installation.
c. easy expansion of the system as needed.
d. primarily metal composition.
Hydroelectric power may be
a. large scale.
b. small scale.
c. pumped storage.
Pumped-storage hydropower systems
a. are used to produce power during peak periods.
b. involve the use of large dams.
c. depend on stream flow to control power generation.
d. may vary in output during different seasons.
Which of the following countries produces the greatest proportion of its electricity by hydroelectric plants?
a. Austria
b. Switzerland
c. Norway
d. Italy
Ocean thermal energy conversion
a. relies on large temperature differences between deep and surface waters.
b. is economically competitive with other energy alternatives.
c. is ready for deployment in suitable areas.
d. plants would be anchored to the bottom of cold oceans in suitable sites.
The world's fastest growing energy resource is
a. hydroelectric dams.
b. wind power.
c. nuclear power.
d. coal-fired power plants.
Potentially renewable biomass is currently being exploited in unsustainable ways because of
a. inefficient burning of wood in open fires.
b. use of inefficient stoves.
c. soil erosion.
Burning of biomass
a. releases more carbon dioxide per ton burned than does coal.
b. releases more air pollution per unit of energy produced than does uncontrolled burning of
coal.
c. requires little land.
d. can cause soil erosion, water pollution, and loss of wildlife habitat.
Gasohol is gasoline mixed with
a. ethanol.
b. methane.
c. methanol.
d. butane.
In 1998, researchers at the U.S. National Renewable Energy Laboratory created a combined photovoltaicphotoelectrochemical cell that uses _____ to split water into hydrogen and oxygen at an efficiency of _____.
a. sunlight; 12.4%
b. sunlight; 35%.
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____ 145.
____ 146.
____ 147.
____ 148.
____ 149.
____ 150.
____ 151.
c. natural gas; 12.4%

d. natural gas; 35%
The Solar-Hydrogen Revolution could be encouraged by
a. convincing private investors to risk capital in investing in hydrogen.
b. convincing the government to put up some money for hydrogen development as it did for
fossil fuels and nuclear energy in the past.
c. phasing in full-cost pricing of fossil fuels.
Geothermal energy is stored in the form of
a. dry steam.
b. wet steam.
c. hot water.
An advantage associated with the development and use of geothermal energy systems is that
a. carbon dioxide is the only air pollutant produced.
b. geothermal power plants do not require cooling water.
c. geothermal energy sources are vast, reliable, and potentially renewable for areas near
reservoir sites.
d. there is no risk of harmful environmental impact.
Keeping energy prices artificially high does all of the following except
a. encourage improvements in energy efficiency.
b. reduce dependence on imported energy.
c. dampen economic growth.
d. cause high unemployment.
A sustainable energy future is least likely to encourage
a. requiring that all energy systems supported by government funds be based on cost-benefit
analysis.
b. requiring that electrical production be on a least-cost basis.
c. full-cost pricing including social and environmental costs of energy sources.
d. permitting utilities to earn money by reducing electricity demand.
The estimated net useful energy of oil, natural gas, and coal is
a. high and increasing.
b. high and decreasing.
c. moderate and stable.
d. low and increasing.
A lichen is a mutualistic relationship between
a. an alga and a fungus.
b. a dinoflagellate and a coral.
c. a coral and a fungus.
d. a coral and an alga.
Lichens can track air pollution to its source because they
a. live a long time.
b. stay in one place.
c. widespread.
If the Earth were an apple, the lower layer of the atmosphere would be the thickness of
a. the core.
b. the part of the apple we eat.
c. the skin.
____ 152.
____ 153.
____ 154.
____ 155.
____ 156.
____ 157.
____ 158.
____ 159.
____ 160.
d. the whole apple.

Human health depends on having
a. low amounts of ozone in the troposphere and stratosphere.
b. enough ozone in the stratosphere and little ozone in the troposphere.
c. high amounts of ozone in the troposphere and low amounts in the stratosphere.
d. high amounts of ozone in the troposphere and stratosphere.
There is evidence that humans are _____ ozone in the troposphere and _____ ozone in the stratosphere.
a. increasing; increasing
b. increasing; decreasing
c. decreasing; decreasing
d. decreasing; increasing
All of the following are volatile organic compounds (VOCs) except
a. methane.
b. chlorofluorocarbon.
c. carbon monoxide.
d. benzene.
All of the following are photochemical oxidants except
a. dioxin.
b. hydrogen peroxide.
c. peroxyacyl nitrates (PANs).
d. aldehydes, such as formaldehyde.
e. ozone.
Since 1987, the EPA has focused on particulate matter less than 10 microns. If you worked for the air
pollution division of EPA, you would be least likely to focus on
a. tobacco smoke.
b. pollen.
c. insecticide dusts.
d. oil smoke.
You are enjoying a sunny day in Los Angeles. In late afternoon, your respiratory tract becomes irritated. Of
the following substances, the one least likely to be causing your problem is
a. PANS.
b. aldehydes.
c. ozone.
d. carbon dioxide.
Which of the following statements is false?
a. Industrial smog consists of a mixture of sulfur dioxide, suspended droplets of sulfuric
acid, and a variety of suspended solid particles.
b. Industrial smog is primarily a problem in the winter.
c. In the United States, gray-air smog was a greater problem 30 years ago than it is now.
d. All industrial countries now use modern technologies to prevent industrial smog.
Typical rain in the eastern United States has a pH of
a. 3.6.
b. 4.6.
c. 5.6.
d. 6.6.
Acid deposition is best classified as a
a. local problem.
b. state problem.
c. regional problem.
____ 161.
____ 162.
____ 163.
____ 164.
____ 165.
____ 166.
____ 167.
____ 168.
____ 169.
d. national problem.
Acid deposition has been linked to
a. contamination of fish with highly toxic methylmercury.
b. excessive soil nitrogen levels.
c. reduced nutrient uptake by tree roots.
Of the following, the least vulnerable to air pollution are
a. sick people.
b. pregnant women.
c. infants and children.
d. white-collar workers.
According to the EPA, at least _____ of all U.S. commercial buildings are considered "sick" from indoor air
pollutants.
a. 7%
b. 17%
c. 27%
d. 37%
All of the following are on EPA's "four most dangerous indoor air pollutants list" except
a. asbestos
b. radon-222
c. sulfur dioxide
d. cigarette smoke
Which of the following occupations is least likely to be associated with asbestosis?
a. asbestos miners
b. restaurant owners
c. pipe fitters
d. insulators
You have been looking for your first house for months. You find one in just the right neighborhood at just the
right price for you. In the course of negotiations, you have a radon test done and find that the level is 1
picocurie/liter. A reasonable course of action would be to
a. get out of the housing market.
b. back out of the deal quickly and look for another house.
c. make a purchase offer, but recognize you will need to make some changes over the course
of a few years.
d. make a purchase and move in happily ever after.
Sources of carbon monoxide include all of the following except
a. cigarette smoking.
b. anaerobic respiration.
c. motor vehicles.
d. faulty heating systems.
Fine and ultrafine particles lodged in the lungs may
a. cause lung cancer.
b. trigger asthma attacks.
c. interfere with gas exchange between the blood and the lungs.
Chronic exposure of tree leaves and needles to air pollutants can
a. cause a waxy coating to build up.
b. increase uptake of nutrients.
c. cause leaves or needles to turn bright red and drop off.
____ 170.
____ 171.
____ 172.
____ 173.
____ 174.
____ 175.
____ 176.
____ 177.
____ 178.
d. increase the chance of damage from diseases, pests, drought, and frost.
Air pollution in the United States has most seriously affected trees
a. along the shores of lakes.
b. lining major interstate highways.
c. on high-elevation slopes facing moving air masses.
d. in the low-lying swamps in the Southeast.
Air pollution, mostly ozone, has reduced crop production by 5% to 10% especially in
a. corn.
b. wheat.
c. soybeans.
d. alfalfa.
Of the following strategies to reduce emissions of pollutants from stationary sources, the one which is least
likely to help over the long run is
a. burning low-sulfur coal.
b. removing sulfur from coal.
c. dispersing pollutants above the thermal inversion layer.
d. shifting to less polluting fuels.
Particulates can be removed from stack exhaust gases by all of the following methods except
a. baghouse filters.
b. wet scrubbers.
c. mini-incinerators.
d. cyclone separators.
All of the following are provisions of the California South Coast Air Quality Management District Council's
proposals in 1989 to reduce ozone and smog in the Los Angeles area except
a. close the airport.
b. ban drive-through facilities.
c. increase parking fees and assess high fees for multi-vehicle families.
d. require gas stations to use a hydrocarbon-vapor recovery system on gas pumps and sell
alternative fuels.
Indoor air pollution could be sharply reduced by
a. modifying building codes to prevent radon infiltration.
b. requiring exhaust hoods or vent pipes for stoves, refrigerators, or other appliances burning
natural gas or other fossil fuels.
c. setting emission standards for building materials.
The greenhouse effect is best described as
a. consensus science.
b. pioneer science.
c. fantasy.
d. a convention of florists.
The major greenhouse gases include all of the following except
a. chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
b. carbon dioxide and water vapor.
c. sulfur dioxide.
d. ozone and nitrous oxide.
The two predominant greenhouse gases in the troposphere are
a. carbon dioxide and ozone.
b. carbon dioxide and water vapor.
c. nitrogen and water vapor.
____ 179.
____ 180.
____ 181.
____ 182.
____ 183.
____ 184.
____ 185.
____ 186.
____ 187.
____ 188.
d. nitrous oxide and sulfur dioxide.

Initial conditions entered into a climate computer model might include all of the following except
a. temperature.
b. air pressure.
c. an equation describing the flow of solar radiation.
d. concentrations of greenhouse gases.
The greatest uncertainty in current climate models comes from
a. measurements of temperature and air pressure.
b. measurements of wind speed and direction.
c. patterns of variation in solar radiation.
d. effects of clouds and ecosphere on climate.
Pollutants might affect climate change by
a. cooling effects of particles from volcanic eruptions.
b. warming and cooling effects from sulfur dioxide emissions.
c. cooling effects from particles in smoke from large-scale burning.
Which of the following possible consequences of global warming represents a negative feedback loop?
Methane
a. might be released as permafrost melts in the arctic tundra.
b. might be released from natural wetlands with rising carbon dioxide.
c. may be released from oceanic muds as ocean waters warm.
d. may be rapidly oxidized by bacteria in tundra soils.
The consequences of rapid climate change over decades might include
a. premature deaths from lack of food.
b. reduction in earth's biodiversity.
c. social and economic chaos.
If climate belts move faster than trees migrate, there could be
a. a large increase of forest area.
b. mass extinctions of species that couldn't migrate.
c. an increase in forest diversity.
d. tropical forests in New England.
A warmer world is least likely to result in
a. decreased food production.
b. reductions in biodiversity.
c. a rise in sea level.
d. more moderate weather.
A rise in sea level is least likely to
a. flood areas where one-third of the world's human population lives.
b. save the coral reefs.
c. accelerate coastal erosion.
d. contaminate coastal aquifers.
In a warmer world, we would expect more
a. droughts.
b. hurricanes.
c. prolonged heat waves.
Which of the following niches is likely to be most effected by global warming?
a. generalist
____ 189.
____ 190.
____ 191.
____ 192.
____ 193.
____ 194.
____ 195.
____ 196.
b. specialist
c. keystone
d. indicator
The boiled frog syndrome least exemplifies which of the following positions on global warming?
a. no-problem
b. waiting
c. precautionary
d. Frogs don't have anything to do with us or global climate change.
All of the following are prevention approaches to global warming except
a. taxing gasoline and carbon dioxide emissions.
b. shifting to perpetual and renewable energy sources.
c. improving energy efficiency; transfer energy-efficiency and pollution prevention
technologies to developing countries.
d. dispersing methane from landfills to prevent explosions.
Prevention approaches to global warming include all of the following except
a. increase beef production to strengthen public health.
b. reduce deforestation.
c. switch to sustainable agriculture.
d. slow population growth.
It has been suggested that the threat of global warming can be addressed by all of the following "technofixes"
except
a. adding iron to the oceans.
b. using foil-surfaced sun shields in space.
c. injecting sulfate particulates into the stratosphere.
d. covering the oceans with Styrofoam chips.
At the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, _____ nations committed themselves to reducing greenhouse gas
emissions to 1990 levels by the year 2000.
a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. over 100
Chlorofluorocarbons are used in all of the following except
a. air conditioners.
b. aerosol spray cans.
c. sterilants for hospital equipment.
d. fire extinguishers.
The story of the discovery of the effects of CFCs and the political response to that knowledge best illustrates
which of the following components of complex systems?
a. negative feedback loop
b. positive feedback loop
c. synergistic interaction
d. lag time
Which of the following statements is false?
a. Over 44 years passed from the first production of CFCs until the first awareness that they
could cause environmental damage.
b. CFCs are stable, odorless, nonflammable, nontoxic, and noncorrosive chemicals.
c. CFCs are found in bubbles in Styrofoam and insulation.
d. CFCs are important because they help screen out ultraviolet radiation from reaching
Earth's surface.
____ 197. All of the following chemicals are ozone-eaters except

a. methyl bromide.
b. PCBs.
c. halons.
d. methyl chloroform.
____ 198. Chemicals capable of destroying ozone include all of the following except
a. chlorofluorocarbons.
b. formaldehyde used as a preservative.
c. halons in fire extinguishers and crop fumigants.
d. carbon tetrachloride used as a solvent.
____ 199. In the 1980s, researchers discovered a _____% loss of ozone in the upper stratosphere over the Antarctic
during the Antarctic springtime.
a. 5-10
b. 20-25
c. 40-50
d. 70-80
____ 200. Which of the following statements is false?
a. The ozone hole is larger in the Northern Hemisphere than in the Southern Hemisphere.
b. Up to 50% of the ozone over Antarctica is destroyed each year.
c. The large annual decrease in ozone over the South Pole is caused by spinning vortices
with clouds of ice crystals with absorbed CFCs on their surfaces.
d. 10-38% ozone loss has been reported in the Arctic springtime.
Practice Test APES Spring Midterm 2007

Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
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20.
21.
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24.
25.
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27.
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30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
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TOP:
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A
C
TOP: 9-1 POPULATION DYNAMICS AND CARRYING CAPACITY
A
C
D
B
B
B
TOP: 9-3 REPRODUCTIVE PATTERNS AND SURVIVAL
D
A
C
A
9-4 CONSERVATION BIOLOGY: SUSTAINING WILDLIFE POPULATIONS
D
TOP: 9-5 HUMAN IMPACTS ON ECOSYSTEMS: LEARNING FROM NATURE
C
TOP: 9-5 HUMAN IMPACTS ON ECOSYSTEMS: LEARNING FROM NATURE
D
TOP: 10-1 GEOLOGIC PROCESSES
D
TOP: 10-2 INTERNAL AND EXTERNAL EARTH PROCESSES
A
TOP: 10-2 INTERNAL AND EXTERNAL EARTH PROCESSES
C
TOP: 10-3 MINERALS, ROCKS, AND THE ROCK CYCLE
A
D
A
10-4 NATURAL HAZARDS: EARTHQUAKES AND VOLCANIC ERUPTIONS
D
TOP: 10-5 SOILS RESOURCES: FORMATION AND TYPES
B
D
C
A
B
B
A
TOP: 10-6 SOIL EROSION AND DEGRADATION
C
D
D
B
TOP: 10-7 SOLUTIONS: SOIL CONSERVATION
D
A
B
D
A
A
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
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TOP:
B
TOP: 12-1 FACTORS AFFECTING HUMAN POPULATION SIZE
B
D
D
B
D
B
A
TOP: 12-2 POPULATION AGE STRUCTURE
D
C
D
D
TOP: 12-3 SOLUTIONS: INFLUENCING POPULATION SIZE
A
D
D
B
C
C
C
A
C
12-5 CUTTING GLOBAL POPULATION GROWTH AND SUSTAINABILITY
B
12-5 CUTTING GLOBAL POPULATION GROWTH AND SUSTAINABILITY
B
TOP: 14-2 SUPPLY, RENEWAL, AND USE OF WATER RESOURCES
B
C
A
TOP: 14-3 TOO LITTLE WATER
D
TOP: 14-4 USING DAMS AND RESERVOIRS TO SUPPLY MORE WATER
B
TOP: 14-4 USING DAMS AND RESERVOIRS TO SUPPLY MORE WATER
C
TOP: 14-5 TRANSFERRING WATER FROM ONE PLACE TO ANOTHER
B
D
D
TOP: 14-6 TAPPING GROUNDWATER, CONVERTING SALT WATER TO...
A
TOP: 14-6 TAPPING GROUNDWATER, CONVERTING SALT WATER TO...
C
TOP: 14-7 USING WATER MORE EFFICIENTLY
A
TOP: 14-8 TOO MUCH WATER
A
TOP: 14-8 TOO MUCH WATER
D
14-9 SOLUTIONS: ACHIEVING A MORE SUSTAINABLE WATER FUTURE
D
A
TOP: 15-1 NATURE AND FORMATION OF MINERAL RESOURCES
A
A
C
C
15-2 FINDING AND REMOVING NONRENEWABLE MINERAL RESOURCES
83. ANS:
TOP:
84. ANS:
85. ANS:
86. ANS:
87. ANS:
88. ANS:
89. ANS:
90. ANS:
91. ANS:
92. ANS:
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114. ANS:
115. ANS:
116. ANS:
117. ANS:
118. ANS:
119. ANS:
120. ANS:
121. ANS:
122. ANS:
123. ANS:
124. ANS:
125. ANS:
126. ANS:
127. ANS:
D
15-3 ENVIRONMENTAL EFFECTS OF EXTRACTING, PROCESSING AND...
D
TOP: 15-4 SUPPLIES MINERAL RESOURCES
A
D
D
C
C
TOP: 15-5 EVALUATING ENERGY RESOURCES
D
D
B
B
TOP: 15-6 OIL
A
TOP: 15-6 OIL
D
TOP: 15-6 OIL
D
TOP: 15-6 OIL
A
TOP: 15-6 OIL
D
TOP: 15-6 OIL
D
TOP: 15-6 OIL
B
TOP: 15-6 OIL
C
TOP: 15-6 OIL
A
TOP: 15-6 OIL
D
TOP: 15-6 OIL
D
TOP: 15-6 OIL
A
TOP: 15-7 NATURAL GAS
B
B
B
D
C
TOP: 15-8 COAL
B
TOP: 15-8 COAL
C
TOP: 15-8 COAL
A
TOP: 15-8 COAL
D
TOP: 15-9 NUCLEAR ENERGY
B
C
D
D
C
D
C
D
B
TOP: 16-1 THE IMPORTANCE OF IMPROVING ENERGY EFFICIENCY
B
B
D
D
TOP: 16-2 WAYS TO IMPROVE ENERGY EFFICIENCY
128. ANS: C
TOP: 16-2 WAYS TO IMPROVE ENERGY EFFICIENCY
129. ANS: B
TOP: 16-3 USING OF SOLAR ENERGY TO PROVIDE HEAT AND ELECTRICITY
130. ANS: D
131. ANS: B
132. ANS: D
133. ANS: D
134. ANS: D
TOP: 16-4 PRODUCING ELEC. FROM MOVING WATER & FROM HEAT STORED...
135. ANS: A
136. ANS: C
137. ANS: A
138. ANS: B
TOP: 16-5 PRODUCING ELECTRICITY FROM WIND
139. ANS: D
TOP: 16-6 PRODUCING ENERGY FROM BIOMASS
140. ANS: D
141. ANS: A
142. ANS: A
TOP: 16-7 THE SOLAR-HYDROGEN REVOLUTION
143. ANS: D
TOP: 16-7 THE SOLAR-HYDROGEN REVOLUTION
144. ANS: D
TOP: 16-8 GEOTHERMAL ENERGY
145. ANS: C
TOP: 16-8 GEOTHERMAL ENERGY
146. ANS: D
TOP: 16-10 SOLUTIONS: A SUSTAINABLE ENERGY STRATEGY
147. ANS: A
148. ANS: B
149. ANS: A
150. ANS: D
151. ANS: C
TOP: 17-1 THE ATMOSPHERE
152. ANS: B
153. ANS: B
154. ANS: C
TOP: 17-2 OUTDOOR AIR POLLUTION
155. ANS: A
156. ANS: B
157. ANS: D
TOP: 17-3 PHOTOCHEMICAL AND INDUSTRIAL SMOG
158. ANS: D
TOP: 17-3 PHOTOCHEMICAL AND INDUSTRIAL SMOG
159. ANS: C
TOP: 17-4 REGIONAL OUTDOOR AIR POLLUTION FROM ACID DEPOSITION
160. ANS: C
161. ANS: D
162. ANS: D
TOP: 17-5 INDOOR AIR POLLUTION
163. ANS: B
164. ANS: C
165. ANS: B
166.
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D
B
TOP: 17-6 EFFECTS OF AIR POLLUTION ON LIVING ORGANISMS AND...
D
D
C
D
C
TOP: 17-7 SOLUTIONS: PREVENTING AND REDUCING AIR POLLUTION
C
A
D
A
18-1 PAST CLIMATE CHANGE AND THE NATURAL GREENHOUSE EFFECT
C
B
C
TOP: 18-3 PROJECTING FUTURE CHANGES IN THE EARTH'S CLIMATE
D
TOP: 18-3 PROJECTING FUTURE CHANGES IN THE EARTH'S CLIMATE
D
18-4 FACTORS AFFECTING CHANGES IN THE EARTH'S AVERAGE TEMP...
D
18-4 FACTORS AFFECTING CHANGES IN THE EARTH'S AVERAGE TEMP...
D
TOP: 18-5 SOME POSSIBLE EFFECTS OF A WARMER WORLD
B
D
B
D
B
C
18-6 SOLUTIONS: DEALING WITH THE THREAT OF CLIMATE CHANGE
D
A
D
D
18-7 WHAT IS BEING DONE TO REDUCE GREENHOUSE GAS EMISSIONS
D
TOP: 18-8 OZONE DEPLETION IN THE STRATOSPHERE?
D
D
B
B
C
A

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Practice Test APES Spring Midterm 2007

1. Which of the following does not apply to sea otters?

b. are more responsive to environmental changes than r-strategists.

____ 29. The greatest source of water pollution is

a. show only two age groups: reproductive and not reproductive.

a. the leadership is apathetic.

b. are inexpensive to build.

d. is the process of building ditches along natural streams.

b. reserves of minerals decline each year.

d. uses large quantities of water.

c. concerns about radioactive waste disposal.

c. natural gas; 12.4%

d. the whole apple.

d. nitrous oxide and sulfur dioxide.

____ 197. All of the following chemicals are ozone-eaters except

Practice Test APES Spring Midterm 2007

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