Mock Test -1

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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

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PAPER 2

All questions carry one mark each.

Since all questions are compulsory do not try to read through the
whole question paper before beginning to answer it.
Begin with the first question and keep on trying one question after
another till you finish.
If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much
time on it and pass on to the next one. Time permitting you can
come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance
and try them again.
Since the time allotted is very short you should makes best use of it.

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Part I

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SAT (English)

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Directions (1 to 5): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

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This story is about a lifeless river Yamuna.The water of the river Yamuna
in Delhi has become lifeless. The rivers water quality is most polluted and
has received the worst grade E. This is the lowest grade which indicate the
sternness of pollution in the water. Some fifty years ago the water of Yamuna
was clear and clean. Many water plants such as weeds, algae and shrubs grew
in the water or along the bank of the river. These plants were the main source of
food for aquatic beings. A number of water birds could be seen along the river.
With the onset of winter thousands of migratory birds would come here to feed
in the Yamuna water. Sadly these water species and birds have vanished or died.
What one finds now are red worms, called Chironomids which live in the most
unhygienic and polluted water.
1. What is the rating given to water in Yamuna River?
(a) A or B grade
(b) B grade
(c) C grade
(d) E grade

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2. What did not form food for the aquatic creatures?

(a) Weeds
(b) Algae
(c) Shrubs
(d) Birds
3. What happens to the migratory birds who come to feed in the river Yamuna?
(a) These birds grow healthy
(b) These birds develop immunity
(c) These birds keep on coming
(d) These birds have died
4. What does chironomids feed on?
(a) Weeds
(b) Planktons
(c) Algae
(d) Polluted water
5. Which word in the passage means disappear?
(a) Vanished
(b) Unhygienic
(c) Lifeless
(d) Polluted

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Directions (6 to 10): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

Sudha Chandran is a national icon and a famous Bharatnatyam dancer who is a

beacon of light for the disabled. Once a traumatic accident occurred to her when
she was 18 years of age. It dealt a big blow to promising career as a Bharatnatyam
dancer. While returning from the pilgrimage centre of Vayalur with her mother,
their bus was hit by a TTC bus, leaving her right leg fully trapped. She was
extricated with difficulty. Her wounds were covered with plaster of Paris, and

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gangrene set in. Her leg had to be cut to save her life. But she vowed to walk again,
without crutches.
A visit to Roos and Company was instrumental in enabling her to fulfil her
ambition. She saw the famous Jaipur Foot and learnt of the MagasasayAward
winner Dr. Pramod Sethi, who gave her a new leg and a new hope. The initial
failure did not deter her. After careful observation of her movements, Dr. Sethi
designed a special leg for her and her first public performance in 1984, with her
artificial leg, lauded her as an unparalleled sensation. Rest is history. This dance
recital was a fine example of fortitude and tenacity prevailing at the end. Sudha
gives all credit for her confidence to her father.
With her grit, her fathers encouragement and her gurus indefatigable enthusiasm
enabled her to earn recognition and universal admiration at a very young age. Her
victory over fate justifies her pride in her own self and she has inspired thousands to
strive and work till they succeed. Her outstanding courage has been recognised by
several awards. She has given several dance performances for charity. The Telugu
film Mayuri by Romoji Rao, was made on her life. Nache Mayuri in Hindi, was a
remake of this movie. This paved the way for her success as an actress and today she
is much in demand as a star of the small screen. Her life teaches us to take adversity
as a challenge and hot to be overwhelmed by your troubles.
6. How old was Sudha when accident took place?
(a) ten years
(b) twelve years
(c) fourteen years
(d) eighteen years
7. Sudha had to undergo lot of difficulties during the incident. Which of the stated
fact is not true to the text?
(a) Her right leg was fully trapped
(b) Her wounds were covered with plaster of Paris
(c) Her leg was attacked with gangrene
(d) She never dared to walk again
8. Many things helped Sudha to earn recognition and universal admiration. What
detected Sudha from the path?
(a) Fathers encouragement
(b) Gurus de fatigable enthusiasm
(c) Universal admiration
(d) Charity by others
9. Sudha gives credit of all confidence to
(a) Mother
(b) Father
(c) Teacher
(d) Guru
10. Find word/phrases which mean the same as the following journey to holy
places.
(a) Charity (b) Success (c) Pilgrimage (d) Paved
Directions (11 to 15): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:
There are many reasons why men want to descend into the sea, and it is where
seas are very deep that the challenge is greatest. It is often necessary to work under

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water to repair the ship and harbour equipment to examine wrecks and to look for
sunken treasure. There are also many deposit of oil and minerals in the sea bed and
getting them out means a great deal of hard work under sea.
The first problem to he solved is how to breathe. By holding his breath, a man
can remain under water for a minute or two, but in that time he could not do much
work or go very deep. Even if he could hold his breath longer, he would not really
be able to go very deep because the pressure of the deep water would crush him.
Equipment for working under water can solve the problems of air and pressure.
The deep-sea diver wears a heavy diving suit and a helmet made of copper. He is
supplied with air through an air pipe to the surface. A deep sea diver can work at
depths of a hundred metres or more.
A frogman is more lightly equipped and can descend to about 30 metres. He
wears a tight-fitting rubber suit with large slippers on his feet. He is not connected
to the surface by air pipes of a telephone cable, so he can move about quite freely
breathes from containers of air on his back.

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11. What requires great deal of hard work?

(a) Getting deposits of oil and minerals from the sea
(b) To repair the ship
(c) To examine wrecks of equipment
(d) To decorate the ship

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12. How deep can deep sea diver work?

(a) 50 m or more
(c) 100 m or more

(b) 30 m or more
(d) 80 m or more

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13. Why can frogman move easily?

(a) He is lighter
(b) He covers more surface area
(c) He breathes from containers of air on his back
(d) He wears a heavy diving suit

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14. Which equipment can solve problem of air and pressure?

(a) Under water equipment
(b) Over water equipment
(c) Under air equipment
(d) Over air equipment

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15. Choose word from para I which means deep buried under the earth.
(a) Descend
(b) Sunken
(c) Wrecks
(d) Pressure
Directions (16 to 32): Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words
to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

16. Lalit was stopped by the police for driving

160 mph.
(a) in
(b) at
(c) of
(d) for

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18. Its very kind of Gagan to

to speak at the meeting.
(a) accept
(b) agree
(c) submit
(d) agree

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17. Suhailis going

Mumbai next week.
(a) in
(b) to
(c) of
(d) at

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19. India lost a

wicket just when they seemed to be doing so well, and
that led to their eventual defeat.
(a) critical
(b) crucial
(c) delicate
(d) agree

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20. Ruhanis heart

at the sight of the beautiful platinum necklace.
(a) leapt
(b) stopped
(c) slowed
(d) ran

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which are never satisfied.

(b) fancies
(d) feeds

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22. Ambition is one of those

(a) ideas
(c) passions

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21. Ajit lives near a lovely

of countryside.
(a) length
(b) piece
(c) section
(d) stretch

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23. Purohit is a person of sound character and

disposition.
(a) beneficent
(b) morous
(c) amiable
(d) amicable
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24. If Avi take a state roadways bus, Hell get late,

(a) isnt it
(b) wont I
(c) will I
(d) is it

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25. In local high school many of us never understand the importance that grammar
would
in later life.
(a) figure
(b) portray
(c) play
(d) exercise

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26. In a altering and

amorphous business environment, inspiration and
innovation are being
demanded of executives.
(a) favorably, extremely
(b) progressively, increasingly
(c) increasingly, moderately
(d) excessively, rapidly
27. On account of the scarcity of grass on the waterless plains the cattle became
(a) flippant
(c) agitated

(b) jubilant
(d) emaciated

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28. A mother came in with a baby who, she said,

a safety pin.
(a) was swallowing
(b) Is swallowed
(c) had just swallowed
(d) just swallowed
29. The ISRO will exploration for planets around the stars, a key to the 
extraterrestrial life, and examine interstellar dust and gases out of which stars
are born.
(a) acuity
(b) unearthing
(c) enquiry
(d) quest
30. Isha
`1000 out of the bank every Friday.
(a) obtains
(b) draws
(c) pulls
(d) extracts
31. The Russian
presented his credentials to the President of America.
(a) adviser
(b) ambassador
(c) delegate
(d) representative
.
32. Once Amit has signed the agreement, he wont be able to
(a) back on
(b) back in
(c) back at
(d) back out

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Directions (33 to 37): In each question below, there is a sentence of which some
parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R
and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.

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3 3. He sat
P: through the Saket Mall
Q: which flanked a path running
R: under the boughs
S: of a dispersal tamarind tree
The proper sequence should be:
(a) QPSR
(b) RSQP
(c) SRPQ
(d) PRSQ
34. I dont remember
P: I saw a man dying in front of a hospital
Q: but when I left Delhi in 2000
R: hit apparently by a fast moving car
S: the exact date
The proper sequence should be:
(a) QSRP
(b) SQPR
(c) PQRS
(d) SPRQ
35. It was
P: in keeping with my mood
Q: a soft summer morning
R: as I walked sedately
S: in the direction of new house

3 6. All such students

P: get success
Q: who are honest and hard-working
R: and recognition
S: in very walk of life
The proper sequence should be:
(a) PSRQ
(c) QPRS

(b) PRQS
(d) SPRQ

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(b) SRQP
(d) QRPS

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3 7. The master
P: who was very loyal to him
Q: punished the servant
R: without giving any valid reason
S: when he left the work unfinished
The proper sequence should be:
(a) PRQS
(c) QPSR

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(b) SQRP
(d) SQPR

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The proper sequence should be:

(a) RSPQ
(c) QPRS

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Directions (38 to 40): In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences.
The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning. The middle four
sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P,
Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

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3 8. S1: The revolution path of Mercury lies inside the path of the Venus.
P: When at its farthest from the Venus, Mercury is 172 million away.+
Q: With such a wide range between its greatest and least distances it is natural
that at sometimes Mercury appears much brighter than at others.
R: No other body ever comes so near the Venus, with the exception of the
satelite and occasional comet or asteroid.
S: When Mercury is at its nearest to the earth it is only 27 million miles away.
S6: When at its brightest, it is easily seen with the naked eye in broad daylight.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) SRPQ
(b) SQRP
(c) PSQR
(d) QPRS
3 9. S1: In Sub-continent marriages are usually arranged by parents
P: Sometimes some boys and girls do not like this idea of arranged marriages.
Q: Most young people accepts the state of relationships.
R: Hina was like that.

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S: They assume their parents can make good choices.

S6: She felt she was a modern girl and not subject for negotiating.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) SPRQ
(b) PSRQ
(c) QSPR
(d) RQPS
40. S1: Nandita said on the phone that she would report for duty next day.
P: We waited for few days then we decided to go to her place.
Q: But Nandita did not.
R: We found it locked.
S: Even after that we waited for her quite a few days.
S6: Eventually we reported to the police.

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The proper sequence should be:

(a) SPRQ
(c) QPRS

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(b) PSRQ
(d) RQPS

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MAT (Mental Ability Test)

1. a _ c b a_ b c b a a b c _ a a b c _ a
(a) c a c c (b) a c b c (c) b a b b
2. b c a _ a c _ b b _ a a a c b _
(a) a a c b (b) b a c b (c) a b b c

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(d) a b c b

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Directions (1 to 3): A series of small letters are given, which follow a certain
pattern. However some letters are missing from the series you have to find out
the right set of letters from alternatives that can be inserted into the blanks of
the series:

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Directions (3 to 5): In each of the following questions a related pair of words

is followed by four numbered pairs of words. Select the pair which has a
relationship similar to the original pair:

(c) Flood

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5. Food:Hungry::Water:?
(a) Bath
(b) Wash

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4. Chair:Carpenter::Bridge:?
(a) Blacksmith
(c) Engineer

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(c) Waves

3. Coast:Sea :: Bank:?
(a) River
(b)Flood

(b) Goldsmith
(d) Driver
(d) Thirsty

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Directions (6 to 11): In the given diagram the circle stands for cricketer, square
for swimmer, triangle for school students and rectangle for intelligent. The
different regions of the diagram are numbered from 1 to 12. Study the diagram
and answer the question.

6. Non-cricketer urban, hard working and intelegent people are indicated by

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 9
(d) 11

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7. Non-urban, cricketer, swimmer and intelegent people are indicated by

(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11
8. Non-urban, cricketer people who are neither swimmer nor intelegent are indicated by
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 10
(d) 11
9. Urban cricketer people who are neither swimmer nor intelligent are indicated by
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 9
10. Cricketer, swimmer and school students are indicated by
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
11. School students who are swimmer and not a cricketer but not intelegent are
indicated by
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6

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Directions (12 to 15): A piece of paper had been folded as shown below by

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figure x, y, and z. The folded paper has been cut as shown in figure z. Choose
the figure from the given options which would most closely resemble the
unfolded form of figures.

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12.

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Directions (16 to 19): Study the maze given below and answer the question

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that follows.

16. How many turns will A take to come out of the maze?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 10

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17. How many times C has to go towards South. If he wants to meet X?

(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
18. How many turn will B make to meet X?
(a) 37
(b) 39
(c) 40
(d) 42
19. How many times A has to go towards East, if he wants to meet M?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8

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Direction (20):
A + B means A is Brother of B
A B means A is Sister of B
A B means A is Father of B
A B means A is Mother of B

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20. Which of the following represents that F is father of W?

(a) F R + W
(b) F + R W
(c) F R W
(d) F R W

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Direction (21 to 25): Information about five state level players A, B, C, D and
E are given as follows
1. One is badminton player, one is chess player and one is tennis player.
2. A and D are unmarried ladies and do not take part in any game.
3. None of the ladies play chess or badminton.
4. There is a married couple in which E is the husband.
5. B is the brother of C and is neither a chess nor a tennis player.

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21. Who is the badminton player?

(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
22. Who is the tennis player?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
23. Who is the chess player?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
24. Who is the wife of E?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
25. The three ladies are
(a) BCD
(b) ABC
(c) ABD
(d) ACD
26. Which of the following vane diagrams best illustrates the three classes:Rhombus, Quadrilateral and Polygons?

Directions (27 to 28): In each of the following question a design/pattern is

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given. One segment is missing from the design. Select the alternative which
will complete the design when placed on the missing area.

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27.

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28.

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Directions (29 to 30): In each of the following question, some groups of letters are
given according to some rule. Following the rule choose the right answer amongst
four alternatives to replace the question mark.
(d) 5NIR

30. 1AYD, BVF2, 3DRH, ?, 5KGL

(a) FMI4 (b) GMJ4 (c) HLK4

(d) GLJ4

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29. 1BXJ, 2ETL, 3HPN, 4KLP?

(a) 5NHR (b) 5MHQ (c) 5MIP

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31. D is the son of E who is son of F. P is daughter of R. If N is the sister

of P and daughter of E, what is E s relationship with R?
(a) Bother (b) Father (c) Husband (d) Unlce

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32. B is to the south-west of A, C is to the east of B and south-east of A and D is

to the north of C in line with B and A. In which direction of A, is D located?
(a) East
(b) North (c) South-East (d) North-East

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33. Sonu went 15 m to the north, then he turned west and covered 10 m then he
turned south covered 10 m. In which direction is he from the starting point?
(a) North (b) West
(c) North-west (d) South
3 4. Sandeep is confuse about direction and assume
1. North is called North-West
2. North-West is called West
3. West is called South-West and so on

 Then what will South-East be called?

(a) West
(b) South (c) East

(d) North-East

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35. If ACTION is coded as ZXGRLM then HEALTH will be coded in the same
way as
(a) SVZOGS
(b) TVZOGT
(c) RUZPGR
(d) OVGOZQ

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36. If W is coded as D, S as R and R as W, then how will ANSWER be

written?
(a) WNSDES
(b) ANRDEW
(c) ANRWDS
(d) WNRAES

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37. Buy good vegetable is coded as BDG, Distribute good vegetable is coded
as BCD and Vegetable are red is coded as BEF, then what is the code
for Red?
(a) B
(b) B or E (c) B or F (d) E or F

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38. In a certain code SHORT is written as ITOUS and DWARF as XEAGS, then
how will MANGO be written in the same code?
(a) NBNHP
(b) BNNPH
(c) BNNHP
(d) LABNPF

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Directions (39 to 40): Find out which one of the answer figure would occupy
the next position in the problem figures if they continue change in same order

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39. Problem figure:

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Answer figure:

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40. Problem figure:

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Answer figure:

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Direction (41 to 42): The first unit contains two figures and the second unit
contains one figure and a question mark. Find out which one the answer figure
should go in place of the question mark.

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41. Problem figure:

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Answer figure:

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42. Problem figure:

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Answer figure:

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Directions (43 to 46): In each of the following questions, four figure have been
given different. Choose the odd one out.

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44.

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47. How many 4s are followed by 1 and preceded by 7 in the following number
series:
8 4 7 2 1 7 4 1 4 7 1 4 7 6 7 1 4 1 4 7 4 7 1 4 7 2 9 4 1 7
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0

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Directions (48 to 50): In each of the question below are given two statements
followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the two given statements disregarding
commonly known facts. Give answer:

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4 8. Statements: All dogs are rats. All rats are cats.

Conclusion:
I. All cats are dogs.
II. All dogs are cats.
49. Statement: All men are animals. No women are man.
Conclusion:
I. No women are animals.
II. All women are animals.
50. Statement: Some lamps are flowers. Some flowers are trees.
Conclusion:
I. All lamps are trees.
II. All trees are flowers.

Part II

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SAT
1. If 18225 = 135, then the value of
+ 0.00018225 is

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182.25 + 1.8225 + 0.018225 

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(a) 1.49985 (b) 14.9985 (c) 149.985 (d) 1499.85

2. Harshit purches pen, cost price of 20 pen is the same as the selling price of x
pen. If the profit is 25% then the value of x is
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 25
3. A sumof amount `2430 is divided among Harshit, Sharya and Ayush, such that
if their shares be reduced by `5, `10 and `15 respectively, the remainders are
in the ratio of 3:4:5. The share of B is
(a) `605
(b) `790
(c) `800
(d) `810

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4. If m = 2 3, then the value of (m 4 + m 4 ) is

(a) 154
(b) 156
(c) 158
(d) 172
5. It is given that px qy = a; qx + py = b and x 2 + y 2 = 1. The value of
(p 2 + q 2 ) is
(a) ab (a + b)
(b) a 2 + b 2

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a3 + b

(d) None of these
ab
6. The average age of 3 children Harshit, Sharya and Ayush in the family is 20%
of the average age of the father Rohit and the eldest child Harshit. The total
age of the mother and the youngest child 39 years. If the age of the father is 26
years, the age of the second child is
(a) 15 years (b) 18 years (c) 20 years (d) Cant be found

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(c)

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7. The sum of the ages of 5 children born at intervals of 3 years each 50 years.
What is the age of the youngest child?
(a) 4 years (b) 8 years (c) 10 years (d) None of these

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8. If x% of y equal Z, what percent of Z is x?

y
y2
100
(100) 2
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
(100) 2
100
y
y
9. If in a regular polygon, each exterior angle is twice the interior angle, then the
number of sides will be
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6
10. AD is the bisector of A of ABC. AC = 4.2 cm; DC = 6 cm, BC = 10 cm,
then AB is
(a) 2.8 cm (b) 3 cm
(c) 3.5 cm (d) None of these

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11. A sum of money amounts to `6690 after 3 years and to `10,035 after 6 years
in compound interest. Find the sum.
(a) `4460
(b) `4455
(c) `4445
(d) `5460
12. Rohit uses a paper sheet measuring length 20 cm and width 30 cm. If a margin
of 2 cm is left on each side and a 3 cm margin on top and bottom, then what
percent of the page is used?
(a) 4:3
(b) 4:9
(c) 12:25
(d) None of these
1
13. Aviget a sum of money at simple interest amounts to `1012 in 2 years and
2
to `1067.20 in 4 years. Then Avi get rate of interest per annum is
(a) 2.5%
(b) 3%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%
14. The average weight of 150 students in a certain class is 60 kg. The mean
weight of the boys from the class is 70 kg, while that of girls is 55 kg. What is
the number of girls the class?
(a) 105
(b) 100
(c) 95
(d) 60
15. In the figure ABCD is a parallelogram. P is a point on BC such that PB:PC =
1: 2 DP produced meets AB produced at W. If the area of the triangle BPQ is
20 square units, what is the area of the triangle DCP?

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(a) 20 sq. units

(b) 30 sq. units
(c) 40 sq. units
(d) None of these
16. What is the smallest positive integer which when divided by 4, 5, 8 and 9
leaves remainders 3, 4, 7 and 8 respectively?
(a) 119
(b) 319
(c) 359
(d) 719
17. In the figure given alongside, if BAD = 60, ADC = 105, then angle DPC
is equal to

(a) 40o

(b) 45o

(c) 50o

(d) 60o

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(a) -3
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 3
19. The product of a rational number and an irrational number is
(a) a natural number
(b) an irrational number
(c) a composite number
(d) a rational number
x
x +3 3

+ =0
x +3
x
2

20. Calculate the value of x if

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a 2 b2 c2
is
+ +
bc ca ab

vt.

18. If a + b + c = 0, then the value of

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(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) 13
21. If distance covered by a particle is zero, what can you say about its
displacement?
(a) It may or may not be zero
(b) It cannot be zero
(c) It is negative
(d) It must be zero
22. Which of the following velocity-time curves does not represent motion in one
dimension?

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23. A ball falls from a height of 10 m. On rebounding, it loses 30% of its energy.
The ball goes upto a height of
(a) 5 m
(b) 6 m
(c) 7 m
(d) 8 m
24. A 4 kg mass and 1 kg mass are moving with equal kinetic energies. The a ratio
of their linear momentum is
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:4
(d) 4:1
25. A body is acted upon by a constant force. Then it will have a uniform
(a) Speed (b) Velocity (c) Momentum (d) Acceleration
26. When a large force acts on a body for a short time, then the measure of the
total effect of force is called
(a) Weight (b) Thrust (c) Momentum (d) Impulse of force
27. Physical independence of force is a consequence of
(a) First law of motion
(b) Second law of motion
(c) Third law of motion
(d) All the above laws

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28. Rocket engines lift a rocket from earths surface because hot gases with high
velocity
(a) Push against earth
(b) Push against air
(c) React against rocket and push it up
(d) Heat up air which lifts the rocket
29. The most characteristic property of liquids is
(a) Elasticity
(b) Fluidity
(c) Formlessness
(d) Volume conservation
30. If P is pressure and V is volume of a gas for a given mass of a gas at constant
temperature, then which of the following graphs is correct.

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31. The focal length of a lens whose power is -1.5 D is

(a) -66.6 cm
(b) +1.5m
(c) +66.6 cm
(d) -1.5 m
32. The colour of light that deviates the most while travelling through a prism is
(a) Yellow
(b) Red
(c) Violet
(d) Green
33. If a convex lens forms an image equal in size to that of the object, the object is
placed at a distance
(a) Less than F
(b) Between F and 2F
(c) 2F
(d) Greater than 2F
34. Emf of a cell is expressed in
(a) Joule
(b) Joule per coulumb
(c) Kilo watt hour
(d) Watt
35. A metallic wire of 40 resistance is drawn to double its length. Its new resistance will be
(a) 20
(b) 80
(c) 160 (d) 320
36. A paper cup with water is heated over the flame, and the flame, and the cup
does not catch fire because
(a) The ignition temperature of paper is decreased
(b) The ignition temperature of paper is increased

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(c) The temperature of flame is increased

(d) The temperature of flame is decreased
37. The metal which is mostly preferred for electroplating is
(a) Copper
(b) Iron
(c) Chromium
(d) Nickel
38. Choose the major source of pollutant oxides of sulphur:
(a) Petroleum industry
(b) Leather industry
(c) Steel industry
(d) Fertilizer industry
39. When an electric current is passed through the CuSo4 solution,

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(a) Cu 2+ and SO 2
4 ions are formed
(b) Cu 2 and SO 2+
4 ions are formed

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(c) Cu 2
2 and SO 4 ions are formed

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(d) CuO and SO32+ ions are formed

40. A liquid in which gold can be dissolved is
(a) Conc. Sulphuric acid
(b) Conc. Nitric acid
(c) Conc. Hydrochloric acid
(d) Royal water
41. The black deposit on a glass sheet placed over the candle flame is due to
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Unburnt carbon particles
(d) None of the these
42. The conductivity of distilled water __________ with increase in temperature
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) Cannot say
43. Carbon monoxide is
I. Acidic
II. Basic
III. Neutral
(a) I only (b) II only (c) I and II (d) I and III
44. The valency of iron is
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of these
45. When copper is burnt in the presence of oxygen, a layer of __________ is
formed.
(a) CuO
(b) Cu2O
(c) CuO2
(d) None of these
46. All the petroleum products definitely contain
(a) Carbon
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) All of the above
47. Which of the following materials is non combustible?
(a) Glass
(b) Paper (c) Coal
(d) Wood

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48. Though matchstick is made up of highly explosive material, it does not burn
itself because
(a) it may be wet
(b) it ignition temperature is not reached
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
49. The material used to see the cells for the first time was
(a) Bacteria
(b) Bark of the tree
(c) Onion leaf
(d) Human Muscle cells
50. Which of the following is the function of both monocytes and neutrophils?
(a) They engulf pathogens invading the body
(b) They eliminate dead, damaged and ageing cells
(c) Produce inflammatory response
(d) Both (a) and (b)
51. He/She was awarded the Magsaysay award for his efforts to conserve water
and rejuvenate the dead water sources in Rajasthan. Who is he/she?
(a) Rehendra Singh
(b) Khushwant Singh
(c) Sundarlal Bahuguna
(d) Medha Patkar
52. Where is the Pacific Rim National Park situated?
(a) Northeern Colorado
(b) British Columbia
(c) South Dakota
(d) Nova Scotia
53. An opinion peel is first placed in salt solution for five minutes and then in distilled water. Which phenomenon do we observe in the cell when it was placed
in distilled water?
(a) Plasmolysis and endosmosis
(b) Plasmolysis and exosmosis
(c) Deplasmolysis and endosmosis
(d) Deplasmolysis and exosmosis
54. The irrigation system that uses a rotating nozzle that showers water in the field
as if it is raining is called
(a) Flood irrigation system
(b) Drip irrigation system
(c) Sprinkler irrigation system
(d) Tubewell irrigation system
55. The micro-organism used for making bread is
(a) Saccharomyces Cerevisiae
(b) Steptococcus
(c) Staphylococcus
(d) Mould
56. Anthrax is dangerous human and cattle disease caused by
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacterium
(c) Mosquito
(d) Some unknown species of micro-organism
57. The hormone that controls the normal physical and mental growth and proper
utilization of food nutrients in the body is

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(a) Growth hormone

(b) Thyroxin
(c) Insulin
(d) Testosterone
58. The master gland that controls the functions of other glands is
(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Pancreas
(c) Pituitary gland
(d) Thyroid
59. Identify the picture:

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(a) Eggs of fish

(b) Immature of human beings
(c) Eggs of frog
(d) Eggs of tadpotes
60. The first organism to be cloned successfully was
(a) A bitch named Dolly
(b) A sheep named Dolly
(c) A mare named Jolly
(d) A hen named Henry
61. Companion cells are associated with
(a) Xylem vessels
(b) Phloem sieve tubes
(c) Sclerenchyma fibres
(d) Parenchyma
62. Munda was a tribal group that lived in
(a) Bihar
(b) Orissa
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Chhotanagpur
63. Some forests were called as Reserved Forest by the Britishers. They
produced
(a) Rubber
(b) Valuable Timber
(c) Lac
(d) Fuel wood
64. In 1791, to encourage the study of ancient Sanskrit text, the Hindu College
was established in
(a) Calcutta
(b) Benaras
(c) Delhi
(d) Bombay
65. Mural paintings are done on _________ .
(a) Wall
(b) Textiles

(c) Canvas
66. The first Mysore War was won by
(a) East India Company
(c) The Marathas

(d) Handmade papers

(b) Haider Ali
(d) Nizam Ali

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68. Who raised the slogan Go back to Vedas?

(a) Vivekanand
(b) Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Ramkrishna Paramahans

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67. Who was the first Indian to qualify the Indian Civil Service?
(a) Satyendra Nath Tagore
(b) R. C. Dutt
(c) Behari Lal Gupta
(d) Surendra Nath Banerjee

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69. The Revolt of 1857 was first popularized as The first war of Indian
Independence by.
(a) V. D. Savarkar
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) R.C. Majumdar
(d) Tara Chand

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70. Who among the leaders of the Revolt of 1857 managed to escape to Nepal?
(a) Kuwar Singh
(b) Nana Sahib
(c) Begam of Awadh
(d) Bakht Khan

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71. Mohammaedan Literary Society was organized by

(a) Nawab Abdul Latif
(b) Maulana
(c) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
(d) Bakht khan

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72. The Moderates failed because they could not realize

(a) The importance of masses
(b) True nature of British rule
(c) Their aim to be aggressive/assertive
(d) All of these

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73. Who lived in the Black Town established by the European Company in
India?
(a) Indians
(b) Natives
(c) African Americans
(d) Both (a) and (b)

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74. Vandemataram as a hymn to the motherland was written by

(a) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(b) Abanindra Nath Tagore
(c) Mohd. Iqbal
(d) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

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75. Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by

(a) Minister
(c) President

(b) Government
(d) Indian Constitution

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76. Right against exploitation says that

(a) Every person is free to choose any religion
(b) No one can go against the constitution
(c) No one can be forced to work for low wages
(d) All of these

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79. Child Labour Prevention means

(a) Child under 14 of age banned for working in dhabas
(b) Child under 14 of age banned for working in restaurants
(c) Child under 14 of age banned for working in tea shops
(d) All of these

vt.

78. Child Labour Prevention Act was amended by the government in

(a) September 2007
(b) October 2006
(c) January 2002
(d) October 2005

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77. No child below the age of ______ shall be employed to work in any factory.
(a) 14
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 3

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80. Only three states published the plan of Child Labour Prevention Act.
These are
(a) Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu
(b) Punjab, Haryana, Maharashtra
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

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81. The worlds most industrial tragedy took place in

(a) Chandigrah
(b) Allahabad
(c) Agra
(d) Bhopal
(b) Union Commission
(d) None of these

83. Bhopal gas tragedy occurred on

(a) 12 December, 1984
(c) 14 December, 1984

(b) 17 December, 1984

(d) 2 December, 1984

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82. UC means
(a) Unit Calorie
(c) Union Carbide

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84. The poisonous gas released from the industry at Bhopal was
(a) Methyl-isocyanate
(b) Methyl-alcohol
(c) Methyl-chloride
(d) Methyanol
(b) Arbitration
(d) None of these

86. In India, the President is the

(a) Nominal head
(c) Nominal and real head

(b) Real head

(d) All of these above

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85. Example of Sedition Act of 1870 is

(a) Domestic violence
(c) Protection of womens right

87. Which of the following is needed for the success of democracy?

(a) Linguism
(b) Education
(c) Casterism
(d) Regionalism

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88. Resource development depends on

(a) Cost of the producer
(b) Ocean water
(c) Atmosphere
(d) Improvement in science and technology
89. Which of the following countries have not fully developed their resources?
(a) USA
(b) Japan (c) Russia (d) Nepal
90. Which river water distribution is under dispute between India and Pakistan?
(a) Satluj river
(b) Indus river
(c) Ganga river
(d) Shyok river

Answer Key

4. (a)

5. (d)

6. (d)

7. (d)

8. (a)

vt.

3. (b)

9. (b) 10. (c)

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1. (b) 2. (d)

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Part I
SAT (English)

11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c)

2. (d)

3. (a)

4. (c)

5. (d)

6. (b)

7. (b)

8. (b)

er

1. (c)

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9. (c) 10. (a)

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11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c)

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21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)

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31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)

2. (b)

3. (d)

4. (a)

5. (b)

6. (d)

7. (a)

8. (d)

9. (b) 10. (a)

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Part II (SAT)

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11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c)

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31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (d)

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41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)

14

51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b)

20

61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (a)

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81. (d) 82. (c) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (d) 90. (b)