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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

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Mock Test -2

All question carry one mark each.

Since all questions are compulsory do not try to read through the
whole question paper before beginning to answer it.
Begin with the first question and keep on trying one question after
another till you finish.
If you do not know the answer to any question do not spend much
time on it and pass on to the next one. Time permitting you can
come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance
and try them again.
Since the time allotted is very short you should makes best use of it.

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MAT (Mental Ability Test)

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Directions (1 to 4): Find the missing term?

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Part I

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1. 1, 11, ?, 11, 11, 11, 16, 11

(a) 1
(b) 11
(c) 6
(d) 5
2. m_l_ml_m_llm
(a) lmmm (b) lmlm
(c) lmml
(d) mllm
3. ab_ab_a_ab_b
(a) abba
(b) abab
(c) baab
(d) baba
4. DC, DE, FE, ?, HG, HI
(a) DE
(b) ED
(c) FG
(d) GF
5. In a certain code KAMAL is written as 29894, VIJAY is written as 35196,
then the word VIMAL will be coded as
(a) 29196 (b) 35894 (c) 35194 (d) 35196

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Directions (6 to 9): In a certain code isn chp irq means attacking the enemy; rst
qsh isn means, enemy is retreating; irq rst ofl means attacking and retreating.

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6. Which of the following codes stands for enemy?

(a) irq
(b) isn
(c) qsh
(d) cant be determined
7. Which code stands for attacking?
(a) rst
(b) chp
(c) irq
(d) cant be determined
8. Which code stands for retreating?
(a) rst
(b) chp
(c) irq
(d) cant be determined
9. Which code stands for and?
(a) irq
(b) ofl
(c) gsh
(d) cant be determined
10. Ramesh started from his house, walked 2 km North, then 3 km West, then
6 km South. How far away from his house was he then?
(a) 2 kms
(b) 3 kms
(c) 4 kms
(d) 5 kms
11. A watch read 10:30, If the minute hand points to East in which direction does
the hour hand point?
(a) North-East
(b) South-East
(c) South-West
(d) West
Directions (12 to 14) : In given question choose the right diagram which illustrates
the relationship among three given classes

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12. Mercury, Mars, Planets

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13. Human beings, Teachers, post graduates

14. Sheep, Dogs, Wolf

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15. Pointing to a man Usha said He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of
my husband. How is the man related to usha?
(a) Son
(b) Husband
(c) Cousin
(d) Nephew
(a) Son

(b) Brother

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16. If A is the brother of the son of Bs Son, how is A related to B?

(c) Cousin

(d) Grandson

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17. P and Q are married couple. A and B are brothers. A is the brother of P. How is

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B related to Q?
(a) Brother-in-law
(c) Cousin

(b) Brother
(d) Son-in-law

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Directions (18 to 20): Read the following information and answer the questions
given below:
A is the father of B, who is the sister of C. C is the husband of P and L is the
mother of C.

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18. How P is related to L?

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(a) Daughter-in-law (b) Sister-in-law

(c) Mother-in-law (d) Daughter
19. How B is related to L?
(a) Daughter (b) Sister
(c) Son (d) Brother
20. How A is related to L?
(a) Wife
(b) Father
(c) Husband
(d) Son
21. At what time between 12 and 1 will the hands of a clock be in the same straight
line, but not together?
(a) 35 minutes past 12 (b) 54 minutes past 12
(c) 31 minutes past 12 (d) None of these

 22. A clock is set right at 5 am on Monday. The clock loses 10 minutes in 12 hours.

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What will be the right time when the clock indicated 5 p.m. on Thursday?
(a) 5:55 p.m.
(b) 5:50 p.m.
(c) 6:10 p.m.
(d) 5:30 p.m.
23. At what time between 6 and 7 O clock will the hands of clock be at right
angle?
3
(a) 30 minutes past 6
(b) 16 minutes past 6
4
1
(c) 49
minutes past 6
(d) 35 minutes past 6
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24. At what time between 5 and 6 O clock the hands of a clock will make an angle

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of 40o?
(a) 40 minute past 5
(b) 30 minute past 5
(c) 20 minute past 5
(d) 50 minute past 5
25. What was the day on 13th December,1985
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Thursday (d) Friday
26. If 20th January 1996 was Sunday then what day would be on 26th March
1997.
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Thursday (d) Sunday

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Directions (27 to 30): In each of the following questions, there is a certain

relationship between two given words on one side of : : and one word given on
another side of : : while another word is to be found from the given alternatives,
having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear.
Choose the correct alternatives.

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27. Broad : Narrow : : ? : Bottom

(a) Peak
(b) Field
(c) High
28. Brass : Alloy : : ? : ?
(a) Car : Road
(c) Pencil : Stationery
29. GERM : MERG : STAR : ?
(a) TSRA (b) RTSA (c) RTAS
30. MAHESH : 152362 : : SHAME : ?
(a) 65231 (b) 65213 (c) 62513

(d) Top
(b) Truck : Load
(d) Police : Thief
(d) TARS
(d) 62351

Directions (31 to 32): Choose the odd number/word which is different from
others:

3 1. (a) 9 : 80
32. (a) CRY

(b) 1 : 0
(b) JOY

(c) 12 : 143 (d) 10 : 91

(c) FRY
(d) TRY

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Directions (33 to 37): Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
(i)P, Q, R, S, T and U are six students procuring their masters degree in six
different subjects: English, History, Philosophy, Physics, Statistics and
Mathematics.
(ii)Two of them stay in hostel, two stay as paying guest (PG) and the
remaining two stay at their home.
(iii) R does not stay as PG and studies Philosophy.
(iv) The students studying Statistics and History do not stay as paying guest.
(v) T studies Mathematics and S studies Physics.
(vi) U and S stay in hostel. T stays as PG and Q stays at home.

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33. Which of the following pairs of students stay one each at hostel and at home?
(a) US
(b) SR
(c) QR
(d) Date unadequate
34. Who studies English?
(a) S
(b) T
(c) U
(d) P
35. Which of the following pairs of students stay at home?
(a) PQ
(b) QR
(c) RS
(d) ST
36. Which of the following combinations of subject and place of stay is not
correct?
(a) Physics-Hostel
(b) English-Hostel
(c) Philosophy-Home
(d) Mathematics-Paying Guest
37. Which subject (s) does Q study?
(a) History
(b) Statistics
(c) History or Statistics
(d) None of these

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Direction: (38): There are two sets of figures: Problem figures and Answer
figures (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to select one figure from the answer set
which will continue the same series as given in problem set figures.

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38. Problem Figures

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Answer Figures

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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Direction (39): Find the mirror image of the following.

(b)

(c)

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39.

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Direction (40): Find the water image of the following.

(b)
(d)

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(a)
(c)

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40. VAYU8436

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Direction (41): In the following question, some positions of the same dice have
been shown. You have to see these figures and select the number opposite to the
number as asked in each question.

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Which letter will come on the blank surface?

(a) C
(b) A
(c) D
(d) E.

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Directions (42 to 46): A cube of 4 cm has been painted on its surfaces in such a
way that two opposite surfaces have been painted blue and two adjacent surfaces
have been painted red. Two remaining surfaces have been left unpainted. Now
the cube is cut into smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.

42. How many cubes will have no side painted?

(a) 18
(b) 16
(c) 22
(d) 8

 43. How many cubes will have at least red colour on its surfaces?

(b) 16

(c) 17

(d) 18

(a) 15

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(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 28
(d) 32
44. How many cubes will have at least blue colour on its surfaces?
(a) 20
(b) 8
(c) 24
(d) 32
45. How many cubes will have only two surfaces painted with red and blue colour
respectively?
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 24
(d) 30
46. How many cubes will have three surfaces coloured?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 16
47. How many triangles does the figure have?

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48. A piece of paper is folded and cut at specific spots and then unfolded. How
will it look is shown in the alternatives. Select the correct alternative which
shows how it was folded and where it was cut.

(a)

(b)

(c)

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(d)

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Directions (49 to 50): In the following series of signs some signs are omitted in
serial order. Find out the right omitted signs from the alternatives.

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49.

(b)

(c)

(d)

(b) (c)

(d)

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(a)

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(a)

Part II

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SAT (English)

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(c) crabs (d) None of these

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(a) starfish (b) seagulls

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2. Which animal does not move quickly?

(d) None of these

1. Seagulls, crabs, and starfish all eat

(a) clams (b) bread
(c) fish

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Directions (1 to 7): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:
Seagulls live on the beach. They eat small fish, bread, and seaweed. Seagulls run
quickly on the sand and fly quickly in the sky. Seagulls will run or fly away if
you try to catch them. There are many seagulls on the beach. Crabs also live on
the beach. They eat shrimp, ocean plants, and small fish. Crabs crawl quickly on
the sand and in the ocean. Crabs will crawl away if you try to catch them. There
are many crabs on the beach, but it is not always easy to see them. Starfish live
on the beach, too. They eat clams, oysters, and small fish. Starfish move slowly
on the sand and in the ocean. Starfish will not move away if you try to catch
them. There are few starfish on the beach.

3. Based on information in the passage, which sentence is false?

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(a) Starfish are hard to catch.

(b) Crabs eat shrimp and ocean plants.
(c) Seagulls move quickly on the sand and in the air.
(d) None of these

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4. The passage does not talk about

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(a) what starfish eat

(c) how fast beach animals move

(b) how crabs catch food

(d) none of these

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5. According to the passage, seagulls

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I. live on the beach

II. move quickly in the ocean
III. eat bread only
(a) I only
(c) I, II, and III

(b) I and II only

(d) None of these

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6. Based on information in the passage, which animal would you be most likely
to see at the beach?
(a) crabs
(b) seagulls (c) starfish (d) None of these

7. Based on information in the passage, we can understand that

(a) the beach is not as nice as the mountains
(b) the beach is a good place to vacation
(c) many animals live at the beach
(d) None of these

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(b) a rowboat
(d) None of these
(b) a motorboat
(d) None of these

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(a) a sailboat
(c) a motorboat
9. Which boat makes a loud noise?
(a) a sailboat
(c) a rowboat
10. What is used to move a rowboat?
(a) wind
(b) a motor
(c) oars

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8. Which boat uses the wind to move?

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Directions (8 to 15): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:
There are many kinds of boats. One kind of boat is called a sailboat. A sailboat
uses the wind to move. Wind makes a sailboat move in the water. The wind
pushes the sailboat. Wind fills the sails. The sailboat moves when the wind
blows. One kind of boat is called a motorboat. A motorboat uses a motor to
move. The motor gives power to the boat. The motorboat moves when the motor
is running. The motorboat makes a loud noise.
One kind of boat is called a rowboat. A rowboat needs people to move it.
People make a rowboat move in the water. People use oars to move a rowboat.
Oars are long and flat. Oars go into the water. A rowboat moves when people use
the oars. As you can see, there are many kinds of boats.

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11. According to the passage, oars are

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(a) short and fat

(c) big and heavy
12. This passage is mainly about
(a) different kinds of boats
(c) how to make a boat

(d) None of these

(b) long and flat

(d) None of these
(b) where to use a rowboat
(d) None of these

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13. Which boat(s) can still move if there is no wind?

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I. a motorboat
II. a rowboat
III. a sailboat
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II, and III
(d) None of these
14. Tom doesnt like loud noises. Which boat(s) does he probably like to ride in?
I. a sailboat
II. a rowboat
III. a motorboat
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II, and III
(d) None of these
15. What would be the best title for this passage?
(a) Boats that Make Noise
(b) The Sailboat and the Motorboat
(c) Three Kinds of Boats
(d) None of these

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Directions (16 to 30): Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words
to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

16. The paths of glory lead _____ to the grave

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(a) straight
(b) but
(c) in
(d) directly
17. The telephone _____ several times before I answered it.
(a) was ringing
(b) has rung
(c) had rung
(d) would ring
18. He passed the examination in the first class because he _____
(a) was hard working for it
(b) worked hardly for it
(c) had worked hard for it
(d) was working hard for it
19. Jawaharlal spent his childhood _____ Anand Bhawan.
(a) at
(b) in
(c) on
(d) across
20. If negotiations are to prove fruitful, there must not only be sincerity on each
side, but there must also be _____ in the sincerity of the other side.
(a) faith
(b) belief
(c) substance
(d) certainty
21. I hate sitting _____ him as he always smells of garlic.
(a) besides
(b) along
(c) at
(d) beside
22. Some regions of our country still remain _____ to the average man.
(a) inaccessible
(b) impossible
(c) impermeable
(d) impenetrable
23. It _____ that Prashant will not be selected for the post
(a) feels
(b) looks
(c) believes
(d) seems
24. In Bush, Saddam was up _____ more than his match.
(a) for
(b) into
(c) against (d) to
25. I havent seen you _____ a week.
(a) within (b) since
(c) for
(d) from
26. I listened, but I had no idea what he was _____ about.
(a) saying (b) talking (c) telling (d) discussing
27. The car in which the minister was traveling _____ with an accident.
(a) hit
(b) drove
(c) chased
(d) met
28. The non cooperative attitude of the members can only _____ the image of the
society.
(a) spoil
(b) improve
(c) degrade
(d) defame
29. Sonika is quite intelligent but rather _____
(a) idealistic
(b) generous\
(c) lazy
(d) optimistic
30. In a little-publicised deal, Pepsi, Cola has _____ the entire soft drink market
in Afghanistan.
(a) occupied
(b) conquered
(c) swallowed
(d) captured

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Directions (31 to 35): In each question below, there is a sentence of which some
parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R
and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.

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31. A French woman

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P: committed suicide
Q: where she had put up
R: who had come to Calcutta
S: by jumping from the first floor balcony of the hotel
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) PRQS (b) QSRP (c) RPSQ (d) SRQP
32. The national unity of a free people
P: to make it impracticable
Q: for there to be an arbitrary administration
R: depends upon a sufficiently even balance of political power
S: against a revolutionary opposition that is irreconcilably opposed to it
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) QRPS (b) QRSP (c) RPQS (d) RSPQ
33. The grocer
P: did not listen to the protests of customer
Q: who was in the habit of weighing less
R: whom he had cheated
S: with great audacity
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) PRSQ (b) QSPR (c) QPRS (d) PQSR
34. They felt safer
P: to watch the mountain
Q: of more than five miles
R: as they settled down
S: from a distance
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) RPSQ (b) RSQP (c) PQSR (d) PRSQ
35. People
P: at his dispensary
Q: went to him
R: of all professions
S: for medicine and treatment
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) QPRS (b) RPQS (c) RQSP (d) QRPS
Directions (36 to 43): In questions below, each passage consist of six
sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the beginning. The middle
four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as
P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

 36. S1: A father having offered to take the baby out in a perambulator was tempted

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by the sunny morning to slip into a pub for a glass of beer.

P: Indignant at her husbands behaviour, she decided to teach him a lesson.
Q: She wheeled away the pram.
R: A little later, his wife came by, where to her horror, she discovered her
sleeping baby.
S: Leaving the pram outside, he disappeared inside the bar.
S6: She waited for him, anticipating the white face and quivering lips which
would soon appear with the news that the baby had been stolen.
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) SRPQ (b) RQPS (c) SPQR (d) PQSR
37. S1: The city is almost a slum and stinks most of time.
P: The slush on the road did not deter them.
Q: The occasional slips and falls were considered a small price to pay for
the trip.
R: They were excited, fascinated by the sight of fresh snow on the roads.
S: Even so, it looked beautiful to tourists of various categories.
S6: But some visitors came away with the unforgettable sight of young labours
scantily clad.
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) RQPS (b) QPRS (c) RSQP (d) SPQR
38. S1: Venice is a strange and beautiful city in the north of Italy.
P: There are about four hundred old stone bridges joining the island of
Venice.
Q: In this city there are no motor cars, no horses, no buses.
R: These small islands are near one another.
S: It is not an island but a hundred and seventeen islands.
S6: This is because Venice has no streets.
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) PQRS (b) PRQS (c) SRPQ (d) PQSR
39. S1: The cooperative system of doing business is a good way of encouraging
ordinary workers to work hard.
P: If the society is to be well run, it is necessary to prevent insincere officials
being elected to the committee which is responsible for the running of
business.
Q: They get this from experienced and professional workers who are not only
familiar with the cooperative system, but also with efficient method of doing business.
R: To a large extent, many cooperative societies need advice and guidance.
S: The capital necessary to start a business venture is obtained by the workers
contributions.
S6: The main object is to maintain the interest of every member of the
society and to ensure that the members participate actively in the projects
of society.

The Proper sequence should be:

(a) SQPR (b) PQSR (c) SRQP

40. S1: The Hound of Baskervilles was feared by the people of the area.

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(d) PSRQ

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P: Some people spoke of seeing a huge, shadowy form a Hound at midnight

on the moor.
Q: But they spoke of it in tones of horror.
R: Nobody had actually seen the hound.
S: This shadowy form did not reveal any details about the animal.
S6: The Hound of Baskervilles remains an unsolved mystery.
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) SPQR (b) SPRQ (c) PSRQ (d) PQRS

41. S1: A gentleman who lived alone always had two plates placed on the table at

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dinner time.
P: One day just as he sat down to dine, the cat rushed in to the room.
Q: One plate was for himself and other was for his cat.
R: She dropped a mouse into her own plate and another into her masters
plate.
S: He used to give the cat a piece of meat from his own plate.
S6: In this way the cat showed her gratitude to her master.
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) QSPR (b) PSRQ (c) QRSP (d) RPQS

42. S1: Ants eat worms, centipedes and spiders.

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P: They are usually much quicker than the ant itself.

Q: Nevertheless, these animals do not make easy game for ants.
R: Besides, they have an extraordinary number of ways of escaping.
S: They also eat larvae and insect adults such as flies, moths and spring tails.
S6: Some jump and some give out a pungent repellent substance.
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) SQPR (b) SPRQ (c) SQRP (d) SRQP

43. S1: Satyajit Ray made several films for children.

P: Later film makers have followed his lead.
Q: Today other nations are making the childrens film in a big way.
R: This was at a time when no director considered children as potential
audience.
S: Ray was, thus, a pioneer in the field.
S6: But today few think of Ray as a maker of childrens films.
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) PSRQ (b) RSQP (c) RSPQ (d) SQRP

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Directions (44 to 45): In each question below a sentence broken into five or six
parts. Join these parts to make a meaningful sentence. The correct order of parts
is the answer.

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3. take
4. once
5. away
(b) 14352 (c) 32514
(e) 42315
3. to
4. charge
5. Handover
(c) 41352 (d) 45231 (e) 52431

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2. it
(a) 23514
(d) 53214
45. 1. him
2. the
(a) 42531 (b) 51342

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44. 1. at

Directions (46 to 50): Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The
letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is d. (Ignore the
errors of punctuation, if any).

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46. (Solve as per the direction given above)

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(a) I could not put up in a hotel

(b) because the boarding and lodging charges
(c) were exorbitant
(d) no error.
47. (Solve as per the directions given above)
(a) the Indian radio
(b) which was previously controlled by the British rulers
(c) is free now from the narrow vested interests.
(d) no error.
48. (Solve as per the direction given above)
(a) If I had known (b) This yesterday
(c) I will have helped him. (d) No error.
49. (Solve as per the direction given above)
(a) a lot of travel delay is caused
(b) due to the inefficiency and lack of good management
(c) on behalf of the railways.
(d) no error.
50. (Solve as per the direction given above)
(a) one of the members
(b) expressed doubt if
(c) the Minister was an atheist.
(d) no error.

Part III

vt.

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

(I n
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1. What is the time needed to empty a cuboidal water reservoir 10 m long, 9 m

wide and 3 m deep at the rate of 45 litres per minute?
(a) 100 hrs (b) 90 hrs (c) 80 hrs (d) 60 hrs

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2. A cube of side y is converted to a cuboid in such a way that three concurrent

edges are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 4 and the shorter edge is x. What is the ratio of the
surface area of the cuboid to that of the cube?
(a) 7 : 6
(b) 7 : 12 (c) 11 : 10 (d) 10 : 11

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3. If the area of a circle is reduced to 25%, then its circumference will be reduced
to what percentage?
(a) 50%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 10%

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4. A train covers a distance of 200 km between two stations at a speed of x kmph.

Another train covers the same distance at a speed of (x + 5) kmph. If the second takes 2 hrs less than the first, what is the value of x?
(a) 25
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40

(c)

5 + 2 2 10

(b) 5 10 + 2 5

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5 + 10 2 2

(d) 2 2 5 + 10

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(a)

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5. What is the square root of 23 + 4 10 10 2 8 5 ?

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2
2
expressions is (a + 1) and LCM is (a + a a 1). If one expres 6. HCF of two
2
sion is (a 1), then the other expression is

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(a) (a + 1) (b) (a 1) 2 (c) (a +1) 2 (d) (a + 1)(a 1)

20

14

7. A sum P at the rate of R1 becomes 5 P1 in 5 years. Likewise, a sum P2 at the rate

R2 becomes 10 P2 in 10 years. Which of the following is a correct statement if
R1 and R2 are simple interest rates?

(a) R1 = R2 (b) R1 < R2 (c) R2 < R1 (d) The relation between R1 and

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8. Some money is divided among Rajesh, Sonal and chetan in such a way that
2 times share of Rajesh, 3 times share of Sonal and 5 times of Chetan are all
equal. What is the ratio between the shares of Rajesh, Sonal and Chetan?
(a) 10:6:15
(b) 15:10:6
(c) 6:10:15
(d) 15:6:10
9. If a natural number is divided by 7, the remainder is 5. What is the remainder,
when the cube of that number is divided by 7?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6

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10. What is the smallest number by which the number 1792 must be divided in
order to make it a perfect square?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 8
11. In the figure given alongside DE || BC, AD = x, BD = x 2, AE = x + 2 and
EC = x 1,

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(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
12. In the figure PQR = 99, NRS=111 and PQ || RS. What is QNR?

sh

(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 30
13. A point A is 6.5 cm from the centre of a circle. The length of the tangent drawn
from A to the circle is 6 cm. What is the radius of the circle?
(a) 5 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 3.5 cm (d) 2.5 cm
14. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral such that A + B = 2 (C + D). If C > 30,
then which one of the following is correct?
(a) D 90,
(b) D < 90
(c) D 90,
(d) D > 90

20

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ab,
bc,
ca ,
1+ x 1+ y 1 z
then what is the value of
y=
z=

?
a+b
d+c
c+a
1 x 1 y 1 y
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
16. A batsman scores 80 runs in his sixth, innings and thus increases his average
by 5. What is his a averages after sixth innings?
(a) 50
(b) 55
(c) 60
(d) 65
17. A swimming pool is 24 m long and 15 m broad. When x number of men dive
into the pool, the height of the water rises by 1 cm. If the average amount of
water displaced by one man is 0.1 m3, then what is the value of x?
(a) 36
(b) 72
(c) 108
(d) 360

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15. If x =

(I n
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18. A wire bent in the form of a circle has a radius of 16 cm. What will be the area
of a square which is formed out of the full length of such a wire?
2
(a)
cm 2 (b) 4 2 cm 2 (c) 16 2 cm 2 (d) 64 2 cm 2
14
19. A
person can do a job as fast as his two sons working together. If one son does

the job in 6 days and the other in 142 days, how many days does it take the
father to do the job?
(a) 9
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 3
(b) 2 + 3 + 2 6
3 2

(c) 2 + 3 + 2 6
2 3

(d) 2 + 3 + 6
2 3

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(a) 2 + 3 + 6
3 2

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20. Which one of following numbers is an integer?

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21. N kg1 is the unit of

(a) Velocity
(b) Momentum
(c) Acceleration
(d) Force
22. If muscle times speed equals power what does muscle denote?
(a) Force
(b) Momentum
(c) Pressure
(d) Impulse
23. Which of the following physical quantities has the same units as that of

Energy

?
Mass Length

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(a) Force (b) Power (c) Pressure (d) Acceleration

24. A body starts from rest. What is the ratio of the distances travelled by the body
in 4th and 3rd second?
(a) 7:5
(b) 5:7
(c) 7:3
(d) 3:7
25. In the circuit shown below, the current flowing through the circuit is

(a) 0.50A

(b) 0.25A

(c) 1.00A

(d) 1.50A

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26. In the network given below, the equivalent resistance between A and B is

R

(d) 4R
2
27. The rating of fuse wire is expressed as
(a) ohm
(b) mho
(c) ampere (d) watt
28. In the circuit given below, the ammeter and voltmeter are ideal measuring
devices. What is reading of voltmeter?
(c)

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(b) 2R

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(a) R

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(a) 3 V
(b) 6 V
(c) 1.5 V
(d) Zero
29. The electric current is due to flow of
(a) Positive changes only
(b) Negative charges only
(c) Both positive charges and negative charges
(d) Neutral particles only
30. The resistance of a straight conductor is independent of
(a) Material
(b) Temperature
(c) Cross-sectional area (d) Shape of cross-section
31. A ray of light is incident normally on a surface, as shown in the figure.

(b)

(c)

(d)

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(a)

vt.

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Which of the following figures shown the reflected ray?

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32. Two charges are placed a certain distance apart in air. If a glass slab is introduced between them, the force between them will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same
(d) Be zero
33. You are given three equal resistors. How many resistances can be obtained by
joining them in series and parallel grouping?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
34. Watt is equal to
(a) A
(b) A2
(c) A2
(d) A2S-2
35. An
electric lamp is marked 60 W, 240 V. If it operates at 200 V, the current

through it will be
(a) 0.18 A (b) 0.21 A (c) 0.25 A (d) 0.30 A
36. Which of the statements about the reaction 2PbO + C 2Pb + CO2
I. Lead is being reduced
II. Carbon dioxide is getting oxidized
III. Carbon is getting oxidized
IV. Lead Oxide is getting reduced
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) I, II and III (d) All of the above
37. The _____ is also known as Blue vitriol.
(a) Hydrated Zinc Sulphate
(b) Hydrated Copper Sulphate
(c) Hydrated Ferrous Sulphate
(d) None of the above
38. The electronic configuration of an element used in white washing is
(a) 2, 8, 1 (b) 2, 8, 8, 4 (c) 2, 8, 8, 2 (d) 2, 1

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vt.

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39. The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen liberated during electrolysis of water
is
(a) 1:1
(b) 1:2
(c) 2:3
(d) 2:1
40. Choose the incorrect statement when magnesium is burnt in air:
(a) It burns with a brilliant flame
(b) A white residue is formed
(c) An endothermic reaction takes place
(d) A combination reaction takes place
41. The chemical name of rust is
(a) Iron (II) oxide
(b) Iron (III) oxide
(c) Hydrated iron (II) oxide
(d) Hydrated iron (III) oxide
42. Galvanization is process of
(a) Depositing a layer of zinc on a less reactive metal
(b) Depositing a layer of copper on a less reactive metal
(c) Depositing a layer of copper on a high reactive metal
(d) Depositing a layer of copper in a high reactive metal
43. Which of the following elements would yield basic oxide?
(a) Phosphorous
(b) Sodium
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Sulphur
44. The metal with highest melting point is
(a) Silver (b) Copper (c) Tungsten (d) Platinum
45. Choose the correct option for the following:
(a) Calorific value of coal is greater than the calorific value of coke
(b) Calorific value of coke is greater than the calorific value of coal
(c) Calorific value is equal to calorific value of coke
(d) Cannot say
46. Petroleum product used in manufacturing Vaseline is
(a) Bitumen
(b) Paraffin wax
(c) Petrol
(d) Diesel
47. Choose the correct option for the calorific value of fuels:
(a) Biogas < Petrol < Methane < Hydrogen
(b) Biogas < Methane < Petrol < Hydrogen
(c) Biogas < Petrol < Hydrogen < Methane
(d) Petrol < Biogas < Methane < Hydrogen
48. The average increase in temperature of
is dangerous to the earth.
(a) 1 C
(b) 2 C
(c) 0.1 C (d) 0.5 C
49. Bio pesticides are ecologically safe. Which out of the following is used as a
bio pesticide?
(a) Chloropyriphos
(b) Pyrethrum
(c) Trichograma
(d) Lindane

(I n
dia
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vt.

51. Curd is produced from milk in an infants stomach using the enzyme:
(a) Carbonic anhydrase (b) Kennin
(c) Intestinal Lipase
(d) Amylase

Lt
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50. Curd is produced from milk in an infants stomach using the enzyme:
(a) Carbonic anhydrase (b) Rennin
(c) Intestinal Lipase
(d) Amylase

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53. Cell wall of which algae gets fossilized?

(a) Diatoms
(b) Chlorella
(c) Blue-green algae
(d) Chlaydomonas

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52. This is the main enzyme that receives the atmospheric CO2 during photosynthesis:
(a) Hexokinase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) Animopeptidase
(d) Ribulose 1, 5bisphosphate

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54. The embryo sac inside the ovule is actually the

(a) Mega spore
(b) Micro sporangium
(c) Female gametophyte (d) Mega sporangium

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55. A hermaphrodite flower is

(a) A sterile flower in which neither male nor female parts are present
(b) A flower in which only female part that is pistil present
(c) A flower in which only male part that is stamen is present
(d) The one is which both male and female parts are present

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56. Inflorescence refers to

(a) Arrangement of reproductive parts inside the flower
(b) Arrangement of flowers in the floral axis
(c) Colour of petals in the flowers to attract insects for pollination
(d) Sweet fragrance of the flowers to attract insects for pollination

yr

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20

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57. A plasmolyzed cell is the one in which

(a) Plasma membrane has been chemically treated to form pores for passage
of materials
(b) Plasma membrane has been damaged by radiation
(c) The cell has lost water due to exosmosis and the plasma membrane has
shrunk
(d) Cell is in a condition of suspended metabolic activity due to absence of
certain factor

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58. Antibiotics do not act on viruses because

(a) Viruses produce compounds that inactivate the antibiotics
(b) Viruses have very few biochemical pathways of their own on which antibiotics can act
(c) Viruses have an inert chemical structure that cannot be affected by the
antibiotics
(d) There is some unknown reason for this

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vt.

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59. AIDS is a deadly viral disease that spreads through

(a) Sexual contact with an infected person
(b) Sharing contaminated injection needles and blood transfusion from an infected person
(c) An infected mother to its foetus
(d) All of the above
60. Dry raisins that are kept in water swell up the to
(a) Exosmosis
(b) Endosmosis
(c) Imbibition
(d) Plasmolysis
61. The Renaissance laid emphasis on
(a) Imperialism
(b) The importance of reason
(c) Capitalism
(d) Moral principles
62. Who founded Home Rule League
(a) Dr. Annie Besant
(b) Lok Manya Tilak
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
63. The main areas of Maasai cattle herders of Africa are
(a) Egypt (b) Nigeria (c) Cango (d) Kenya and Tanzania
64. Who was the special commissioner at Canton, instructed to stop the Opium
trade?
(a) Mao-Tse-Tung
(b) Lin-Ze-xu
(c) San-yu-ki
(d) Ho-chi-Minh
65. In actual fact the Napoleonic wars were won because of the _____ contribution of the iron works of Scotland and wales, the mills of Lancashire and the
financial houses in the city of London.
(a) Political
(b) Economic
(c) Social
(d) Individual
66. By the end of the 19th century, however change was clearly in the air. People
began accepting the ideas of _____ they had earlier ridiculed. With new times
came new values.
(a) capitalists
(b) Socialists
(c) Conservatives
(d) Reformers
67. Name the important trading company that became master of India.
(a) French Trading Company
(b) Italian East India Company
(c) The English East India Company
(d) None of these
68. What was the first symbol of the new era?
(a) Cotton (b) Iron
(c) Coal
(d) E. T. Poull
69. What was the name of the paid servant who was appointed by the English
company to deal with the Indian weavers?
(a) Nomashta
(b) Nawabs
(c) Gomashta
(d) Stapler

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(I n
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vt.

70. Which one is not related with the development of modern cities?
(a) Industrial capitalism (b) Establishment of colonial rule
(c) Democratic ideals
(d) Dictatorship
71. Which industry was not the major industry of London?
(a) Foot wear
(b) Wood and furniture
(c) Printing and stationary (d) Textile
72. Who was the first to develop the idea of Garden City?
(a) Ebenezer Howard
(b) Raymond Unwin
(c) Barry Parker
(d) None of these
73. When did the French Revolution take place?
(a) In 1784 AD
(b) In 1786 AD
(c) In 1787 AD
(d) In 1789 AD
74. What was the first kind of printing system called?
(a) Press-printing system (b) Ink printing system
(c) Hand printing system (d) Paper printing system
75. Who wrote the first novel in Assamesse?
(a) The missionaries
(b) Baba Padmanji
(c) Bardaloi
(d) Kandakur
76. Who is the writer of Jungle Book?
(a) Jane Austen
(b) Thomas Hardy
(c) Rudyard Kipling
(d) G. A. Henry
77. Some statements are given below
(i) Deforestation does not have any adverse effect
(ii) The Sun is the greatest source of energy for us
(iii) Very low quantity of Iron ore is found in India
(iv) Special farming of fruits is called Horti culture
Which statements are True?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
78. Match the following
(a) Satluj River
(i) Deccan Plateau
(b) Fertile layer of Soil
(ii) Coral Reefs
(c) Lakshadweep Island (iii) Bhakra Nangal
(d) Black Soil
(iv) Humus
The correct matching of above is:
(a) (a) (i), (b)(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(iv)
(b) (a) (ii), (b)(iii), (c)(iv), (d)(i)
(c) (a) (iii), (b)(iv), (c)(ii), (d)(i)
(d) (a) (iv), (b)(i), (c)(ii), (d)(iii)
79. What is the cause of snowfall in the Himalayas during the winter season?
(a) tropical cyclones
(b) southwest monsoon
(c) western disturbances (d) northeast monsoon

 80. Plant species are called:

(a) Flora (b) Biome

(c) Fauna

(d) None of the above

vt.
(I n
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82. The state where copper reserves are not found.

(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Jharkhand

Lt
d

81. The average density of population in India in 2001 was:

(a) 284 persons/sq.km
(b) 324 persons /sq. km
(c) 250 persons/q. km
(d) 395 persons/q. km

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83. The most abundantly available fossil fuel is:

(a) Petroleum
(b) Natural Gas
(c) Coal
(d) Iron

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84. ______ is not a physical factor which contributes to the location of individual
industries.
(a) Power resources
(b) Favorable climate
(c) Labour
(d) Raw materials

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85. Which of the following steel plants was started with the collaboration of
Russia?
(a) Bhilai (b) Durgapur (c) Rourkela (d) Bhadravati

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86. Which mode of transportation reduces transshipment losses and delays?

(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Pipeline
(d) Waterways

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87. Which one of the following terms is used to describe trade between two or
more countries?
(a) Internal trade
(b) External trade
(c) International trade
(d) Local trade

20

14

88. Which of the following is the important cotton producing area in India?
(a) Indo-Gangetic Plain (b) Deccan Trap
(c) Damodar Valley
(d) Yamuna Valley

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89. Which of the following is the minimum calories requirement of poverty in

India?
(a) 2200 in urban and 2600 in rural areas
(b) 1800 in urban and 2300 in rural areas
(c) 2100 in urban and 2400 in rural areas
(d) None of the above
90. Foodgrains such as rice and wheat are procured in India for buffer stock by:
(a) National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation
(b) Food Corporation of India
(c) Ministry of food and Agriculture Government of India
(d) State Trading Corporation of India

(I n
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93. Most regions of the world are getting increasingly:

(a) Integrated
(b) Mutually fighting
(c) Interdepending for defence
(d) None of the above

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92. Globalization by connecting countries, shall result in:

(a) lesser competition among producers
(b) greater competition among producers
(c) no change in competition among producers
(d) none of the above

vt.

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91. Interest rate, collateral and documentation requirement and the mode of repayment together comprise, what is called the
(a) Security papers
(b) Terms of credit
(c) Credit
(d) All of the above

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94. Which organization does the standardization of products at the international

level?
(a) International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
(b) World Health Organization (WHO)
(c) Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO)
(d) World Trade Organization (WTO)

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95. Which among the following provides for the establishment of consumer
courts?
(a) Consumer Protection Act, 1986
(b) Essential Commodities Act, 1955
(c) Environment Protection Act
(d) The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969

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96. Which organ of U. N. responsible for maintaining world peace?

(a) The U. N. Secretariat
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) The General Assembly
(d) The Security Council
97. Which of the following rights has only been granted to the citizens of India
and denied to non-citizens?
(a) Equality before law
(b) Freedom of speech, assembly and association
(c) Right to constitutional remedies
(d) Protection of life and personal liberty
98. Those communists who believe in the ideology of Mao, the leader of the
Chinese revolution. They seek to overthrow the government through an armed
revolution so as to establish the rule of the peasants and workers.
(a) CPI
(b) CPL
(c) Maoists
(d) Leninists

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100. It is likely that in non-democratic countries

(a) workers are not free to assert their rights
(b) government tend to be transparent
(c) leaders tend to be corrupt
(d) government are responsive to peoples demand

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99. A political party which wants full territorial and political integration of
Jammu and Kashmir with India, a uniform civil code for all people living in
the country irrespective of religion, and for on religious conversions.
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Bhartiya Janata Party
(c) Bhahujan Samaj Party
(d) Nationalist Congress Party

Answer Key
2. (b)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (b)

6. (b)

7. (c)

8. (a)

9. (b) 10. (d)

vt.

1. (a)

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Part I (Mat)

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11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (c)

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41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (a)

Part II (SAT)

5. (c)
15. (a)
25. (c)
35. (b)
45. (b)
55. (d)
65. (b)
75. (a)
85. (a)
95. (a)

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4. (b)
14. (b)
24. (a)
34. (b)
44. (b)
54. (c)
64. (b)
74. (c)
84. (c)
94. (a)

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3. (a)
13. (d)
23. (d)
33. (c)
43. (b)
53. (a)
63. (d)
73. (d)
83. (c)
93. (a)

14

2. (a)
12. (d)
22. (a)
32. (b)
42. (a)
52. (d)
62. (a)
72. (a)
82. (c)
92. (b)

by

Part III (SAT)

1. (a)
11. (b)
21. (c)
31. (a)
41. (d)
51. (b)
61. (b)
71. (d)
81. (b)
91. (b)

7. (c)
17. (c)
27. (d)
37. (d)
47. (c)

8. (a)
18. (c)
28. (a)
38. (c)
48. (c)

9. (b)
19. (a)
29. (c)
39. (a)
49. (c)

7. (b)
17. (a)
27. (c)
37. (b)
47. (a)
57. (c)
67. (c)
77. (c)
87. (c)
97. (b)

8. (b)
18. (d)
28. (d)
38. (c)
48. (d)
58. (b)
68. (a)
78. (c)
88. (b)
98. (c)

9. (d) 10. (c)

19. (c) 20. (c)
29. (c) 30. (d)
39. (d) 40. (c)
49. (c) 50. (c)
59. (d) 60. (b)
69. (c) 70. (d)
79. (c) 80. (a)
89. (c) 90. (b)
99. (b) 100. (d)

er

6. (b)
16. (b)
26. (b)
36. (a)
46. (a)

nd

5. (a)
15. (c)
25. (c)
35. (c)
45. (b)

Ki

4. (b)
14. (b)
24. (c)
34. (a)
44. (c)

3. (a)
13. (b)
23. (d)
33. (c)
43. (c)

rlin

2. (a)
12. (a)
22. (a)
32. (d)
42. (a)

10. (c)
20. (a)
30. (d)
40. (c)
50. (b)

Do

1. (c)
11. (b)
21. (d)
31. (c)
41. (a)

6. (c)
16. (b)
26. (c)
36. (b)
46. (b)
56. (b)
66. (d)
76. (c)
86. (c)
96. (d)