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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

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Mock Test -3

All questions carry one mark each.


Since all questions are compulsory do not try to read through the
whole question paper before beginning to answer it.
Begin with the first question and keep on trying one question after
another till you finish.
If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much
time on it and pass on to the next one. Time permitting you can
come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance
and try them again.
Since the time allotted is very short you should makes best use of it.

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Part I

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(d) 11T2
(d) 3280

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(d) CUT

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Direction (4): Find the wrong term:


4. 1, 3, 8, 19, 42, 88, 184
(a) 8
(b) 19

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(a) 11S1
(b) 11U2
(c) 11S2
2. 94, 166, 258, ?, 4912
(a) 3610
(b) 370
(c) 2480
3. MEH, QIK, UON, YUQ, ?
(a) CAT
(b) CET
(c) CCT

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Directions (1 to 3): Find the missing terms:

1. 17Z5, 15X4, 13V3, ?, 9R1.

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MAT (Mental Ability Test)

(d) 88

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(c) 42

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Directions (5 to 6): Which sequence of letters when placed at the blank one
after the other will complete the give letter series?

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5. _bcc _ ac _ aabb _ ab _ cc
(a) aabca (b) abaca (c) bacab
6. aab_ aaa_bba_
(a) bba
(b) abb
(c) bab

(d) bcaca
(d) aab

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3

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(a) 112

(b) 141

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(a) 235

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Directions (7 to 10): Find the missing terms in the given figures.

(c) 144

65

3
(b) 92

(c) 82

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(d) 188

?
5

(d) 102

(b) 18

?
4

(d) 19

C26

25

18

(c) 17

2
10.

11 26

E60

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(a) 72

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2 13 7

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(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
11. If MATCH is coded as NCWGM and BOX as CQA, then OQWIGUVS is
encoded for what?
(a) NOTEBOOK (b) NOTEBOKE (c) NOTFBOPE (d) MOKEBOOT
12. In a certain code 345 means Veer is gentle; 599 means Veer kind hearted
and 126 means Kanchan also good, then which digit is that code represents
Gentle?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) cannot be determined
13. If the following words are arranged as found in the dictionary, then what will
be the fourth letter from the left in the last word ?
INTIMATION,
INFORMATION,
INTEREST,
INTERROGATION,
INSTIGATION
(a) R
(b) O
(c) T
(d) I
14. In the given alternatives, find the word which cannot be formed by using the
letters of the word RAPPROCHEMENT.
(a) REPRESENT (b) REPROACH (c) PHANTOM (d) CEMENT

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15.

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(a) 690
(b) 689
(c) 780
(d) 789
16. If + means , means , means and means + ,then 18 4 +
322=?
(a) 45
(b) 48
(c) 29
(d) 39

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Directions (17 to 21): Study the given information carefully and answer the
questions that follow. There are four people sitting in a row: one each from
India, Japan, USA and Germany, but not in that order.
I.They are wearing caps of different colours: green, yellow, red and white,
not necessarily in that order.
II. One is wearing a kurta and one a T-shirt.
III. The Indian is wearing a green cap and a jacket.
IV. The American is not seated at either end.

VI. The persons with kurta wear a red cap and sits next to the Japanese.

VII. The Japanese wears a short and is not seated at either end.
17. Who wears the T-shirt?
(a) Indian (b) Japanese

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VIII. The man with white cap wears T-shirt and is seated at one end.

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V. The persons with kurta and T-shirt are sitting next to each other.

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(c) American

(d) German

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18. Who is wearing a kurta?


(a) Indian (b) Japanese (c) American (d) German
19. What is the colour of the cap worn by the Japanese?
(a) Red
(b) Green (c) Yellow (d) White

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20. Who is next to the man wearing T-shirt?


(a) Indian (b) Japanese (c) American (d) German
21. Who precedes the man wearing jacket?
(a) Indian (b) German (c) Japanese (d) Cannot say

I.One movement means only one person crosses the road from any side to
the other side.

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Directions (22 to 23): Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below. Five friends Nitin, Reema, Jai, Deepti and Ashutosh are playing a
game of crossing the roads. In the beginning, Nitin, Reema and Ashutosh are on
the one side of the road and Deepti and Jai are on the other side. At the end of the
game, it was found that Reema and Deepti are on the one side and Nitin, Jai and
Ashutosh are on the other side of the road. Rules of the games are as follows:

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II.No two persons can cross the road simultaneously from any side to the
other side.

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III.Two persons from the same side of the roads cannot move in consecutive
movements.

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IV.If one person crosses the road in a particular movement, he or she cannot
immediately move back to the other side.

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V. Jai and Reema did not take part in first 3 movements.

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22. What is the minimum possible number of movements that took place in the
entire game?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 5
23. If number of movements are minimized in the game, than which of the following combination of friends can never be together on one particular side of the
road during the course of the game?
(a) Nitin, Reema and Deepti
(b) Nitin, Jai and Deepti
(c) Deepti, Jai and Ashutosh
(d) Ashutosh, Nitin and Deepti

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24. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting on a bench facing south. P and V always


sit together. U has as many persons to his left as Q has to his right and both of
them dont sit together. T and W sit at the ends and none of them have U or
Q as their neighbours. R does not want to sit with U. How many persons sit
between S and Q?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) Cannot be determined
25. In Nishant is the brother of Brijesh, Mitali is the sister of Nishant; Jai is the
brother of Purnima; Purnima is the daughter of Brijesh. Who is the uncle of
Jai?
(a) Brijesh (b) Mitali (c) Nishant (d) Purnima
26. A man proceeding to the north turns to the right. After some time he takes
a turn to the left and again to the left. Then he goes to his right and after
some distance again turns towards his right. The direction in which he is now
moving is
(a) West
(b) South (c) North
(d) East

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Directions (27 to 28): In each of the following questions, there are two terms to
the left of the sign :: which are related in some way. Obtain the some relationship
between the term to the right of the sign :: from one of the four alternatives give
under it.

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27. Rectangle : Square :: Ellipse : ?


(a) Centre (b) Diameter (c) Circle
28. Thermometer : degree :: Clock : ?
(a) Wall
(b) Tower (c) Hour

(d) Radius
(d) Cock

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Directions (29 to 30): Find the word/group/numbers which is different from


the others.

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29. (a) 4, 6, 10, 7


(b) 4, 12, 20, 28
(c) 1, 3, 5, 7
(d) 2, 6, 10, 14
30. (a) Mercury (b) Venus (c) Pluto
(d) Moon
31. Which of the alternatives indicates the correct relationship between _____?
Doctors, Nurse, Human being

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
32. Sanjay left home for the bus stop 15 minutes earlier than usual. It takes 10
minutes to reach the stop. He reached the stop at 1.40 a.m. What time does he
usually leave home for the bus stop?
(a) 1.40 a.m. (b) 1.45 a.m. (c) 1.55 a.m. (d) Data inadequate

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Direction (33): In each of the following questions, a figure series is given, out of
which the last figure is missing. Find which one would complete the series.

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33.

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Direction (34): In each of the following questions, there is some relationship


between the figures A and B of problem figures. The same relationship exists
between the figure C and one of the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d), choose
that figure.

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Direction (35): Choose the figure which is different from the others.

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Directions (36 to 37): Choose the correct mirror-image of the figure (x) from
amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) given along with it.

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36.

37. T3S4P5H6

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Direction (38): Choose amongst the four alternatives which most nearly
resembles the water image of the given questions.

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38. 5DOB6V2

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39. Complete the given figure

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Direction (40): In each of the following problems, group the given figures into
three classes using each figure only once.

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(a) 1, 2, 3; 4, 5, 8; 6, 7, 9
(c) 1, 3, 5; 2, 4, 8; 6, 7, 9

(b) 1, 5, 6; 2, 3, 4; 7, 8, 9
(d) 1, 4, 7; 2, 5, 8; 3, 6, 9

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Direction (41): In each one of the following questions find from amongst the
four response figures, the one which resembles the pattern formed when the
transparent sheet, carrying a design is folded along the dotted line.

41.

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Direction (42): Each of the following question, there are three figures marked X,
Y, Z showing one fold in X, another fold in Y and a cut in Z. From amongst the
answer figures, a, b, c and d select the one showing the unfolded position of Z.

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Direction (43): From amongst the figures marked (a), (b), (c) and (d), select the
figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of dots as in figure (X)
in question.

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43.

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44. How many rectangles are there in the following figure?

(a) 8

(b) 17

(c) 16

(d) 18

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45.

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Direction (45): In each of the following questions, complete the missing portion of
the given pattern (X) by selecting from the given alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Direction (46): In each of the following question, select a figure from amongst
the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would
complete the pattern.

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46.

Direction (47):
Directions
(47):In
Ineach
eachof
ofthe
thefollowing
followingquestion,
question, fond
fond our
our which of the answer
figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) completes the figure matrix?
matrix ?

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47.

A
_
b

C
1
_

(b) bacc

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(a) dbaa

B
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48. Three sequences of letters/numerals are given which correspond to each other
in some way. In question, you have to find out the letters/numerals that come
in the vacant places marked by (?).

_
4
c

(c) acdd

_
2
d

B
_
?

D
_
?

C
_
?

C
_
?

(d) dcaa

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49. Direction (94): In each of the following questions, there are two terms to the
left of the sign :: which are related in some way. Obtain the same relationship between the term to the right of the sign :: from one of the four alternatives given under it.
Acting : Theatre :: Gambling : ?
(a) Hotel
(b) Lodge (c) Casino (d) Home

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Direction (50): Question based on the following alphabet-series:


A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

50. If the above alphabet is written in the reverse order, which will be the eighth
letter to the right of O?
(a) W
(b) G
(c) D
(d) V

Part II

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SAT (English)

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Directions (1 to 9): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:
On Monday, Robert works at the bank. He plants three bushes. He plants eight yellow
flowers. He plants three trees. On Tuesday, Robert works at the school. He plants
five red flowers. He digs a hole with a shovel. On Wednesday, Robert works at the
hospital. He plants twelve bushes. On Thursday, Robert works at the school. He
plants two trees. He plants sixteen white flowers. He digs four holes with a shovel. On
Friday, Robert works at the grocery store. He plants two bushes. He plants one tree.

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1. Where does Robert work on Wednesday?


a. at the hospital b. at the school
c. at the grocery store d. none of these
2. What does Robert do on Tuesday?
a. He plants twelve purple bushes.
b. He plants five red flowers and digs a hole with a shovel.
c. He plants two trees, plants sixteen white flowers, and digs four holes with
a shovel.
d. none of these
3. How many holes does Robert dig during the week?
a. one b. three
c. five d. none of these
4. How many yellow flowers does Robert plant?
a. five b. eight
c. sixteen d. none of these
5. How many bushes does Robert plant during the week?
a. twelve b. fifteen
c. seventeen d. none of these
6. Where does Robert plant white flowers?
a. at the bank b. at the school
c. at the hospital d. none of these
7. Robert works at the school on
I. Tuesday
II. Thursday
III. Friday
a. I only b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III d. none of these
8. Robert plants bushes at the
I. bank
II. hospital
III. grocery store

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a. I only b. I and II only


c. I, II, and III d. none of these
9. Based on information in the passage, we can understand that Robert is a
a. doctor b. teacher
c. landscaper d. none of these

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Directions (10 to 17): Read the passage and answer the questions given
below:
Christmas is my favorite holiday. My grandmother makes ham, salad, and
cupcakes on Christmas. I also get a present on Christmas! Last year I got a new
set of paint brushes. This year I hope to get new pencils and a drawing pad. I
always have fun on Christmas.
Halloween is another good holiday. My grandmother makes candy corn and
cupcakes on Halloween. People wear costumes during Halloween. Last year I
wore a skeleton costume. This year I am going to wear a zombie costume.
July 4 is a good holiday. July 4 is the birthday of the United States of America.
My grandmother makes hot dogs and salad on July 4. I dont have to go to
school on July 4. But I dont get any presents either. If I got presents on July 4 it
would be my favourite holiday.

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10. When does the authors grandmother make cupcakes?


I. Christmas
II. Halloween
III. July 4
a. I only b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III d. none of these
11. Which holiday does the author like most?
a. Christmas b. Halloween
c. Easter d. none of these
12. Based on the things the author gets for Christmas, we can understand that he
likes
a. sports b. art
c. music d. none of these
13. What is the authors favorite thing about holidays?
a. not going to school b. eating candy
c. getting presents d. none of these
14. What costume did the author wear for Halloween last year?
a. a skeleton costume b. a zombie costume
c. a pumpkin costume d. none of these
15. Based on what you know about the author, what costume will he probably
wear next year?

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a. a pumpkin costume b. a flower costume


c. a ghost costume d. none of these
16. This story is mainly about
a. why the author likes some holidays
b. how someone can get out of school
c. which foods are the best to eat on different holidays
d. none of these
17. What is the best title for this passage?
a. The Holidays I Like b. Why Christmas is best
c. Hot Dogs and Salad d. none of these

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Directions (18 to 32): Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words
to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

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18. He _____ in wearing the old fashioned coat in spite of his wifes disapproval.
a. insists b. persists
c. desists d. resists
19. She _____ a brief appearance at the end of party.
a. put on b. put in
c. put across d. put up
20. Life is to death as pleasure is to _____
a. poverty b. suffering
c. anguish d. pain
21. This, partly, explains how the Mehta family has been able to _____ its lavish
lifestyle in recent times, despite the fact that all its assets have been _____
a. keep, removed b. afford, attached
c. develop, liquidated d. keep up, destroyed
22. The machine is difficult to build _____ easy to maintain.
a. but b. and
c. for d. if
23. If you work beyond your capacity, you will naturally feel _____
a. Drowsy b. Tired
c. Confident d. Giddy
24. If you persists in telling lies to me I shall sue you _____ slander.
a. to b. on
c. for d. with
25. His father-in-law _____ him up in business.
a. put b. made
c. set d. built
26. _____ works of reference are valuable as Encyclopedia, Britannica.
a. A few b. Few
c. The few d. Fewer

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27. This book is quite similar _____


a. with the Treasure Island b. of that film we saw at school
c. to the one I read last week d. than a story told by our teacher
28. If our friends are not able to take us in their car, we must make _____ arrangements to go to the airport.
a. alternative b. another
c. alternate d. possible
29. A crescendo of metallic thuds arose from the market, where the iron-smiths
were _____ the pieces of metals.
a. flattening b. striking
c. hammering d. thrashing
30. I havent eaten an apple _____ a long while.
a. from b. since
c. for d. until
31. The parliament invested the new organization _____ judicial authority.
a. by b. with
c. from d. through
32. Owing to the power cut in the area, factories are being forced to _____ men
a. throw away b. send off
c. put off d. lay off

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Directions (33 to 37): In each question below, there is a sentence of which some
parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R
and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.

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33. If you need help


P: promptly and politely
Q: ask for attendants
R: to help our customers
S: who have instructions
The Proper sequence should be:
a. SQPR b. QPSR
c. QSRP d. SQRP
34. It is easier
P: to venture into space
Q: for men
R: beneath their feet
S: than to explore
The Proper sequence should be:
a. QRPS b. QPSR
c. PSRQ d. PQSR

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35. It was to be
P: before their school examination
Q: which was due to start
R: the last expedition
S: in a months
The Proper sequence should be:
a. SRQP b. RQSP
c. RPQS d. SPRQ
36. This time
P: exactly what he had been told
Q: the young man did
R: beyond his dreams
S: and the plan succeeded
The Proper sequence should be:
a. QPRS b. QPSR
c. PQSR d. QSRP
37. In the darkness
P: the long, narrow beard
Q: was clearly visible with
R: the tall stooping figure of the doctor
S: and the aquiline nose
The Proper sequence should be:
a. RQPS b. PSQR
c. RSQP d. QPRS

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Directions (38 to 45): In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences.
The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning. The middle four
sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P,
Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

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38. S1: Hungry, with a population of about 10 million, lies between Czechoslovakia
to the north and Yugoslavia to the south.
P: Here a great deal of grain is grown.
Q: In recent years, however, progress has been made also in the field of industrialization.
R: Most of this country consists of an extremely fertile plain, through which
the river Danube flows.
S: In addition to grain, the plain produces potatoes, sugar, wine and livestock.
S6: The new industries derive mainly from agricultural production.
The Proper sequence should be:
a. QRSP b. RPSQ
c. PRSQ d. RQSP

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39. S1: Palaeobotany is the study of fossil plants preserved in rocks dating back in
millions of years.
P: Records of the history of the world are contained in fossils.
Q: Through the ages, plants have evolved from simple to more complex
forms.
R: First there were water plants then land plants appeared during the Paleozoic era.
S: But since the fossil remains appear locked in rock layers, they are closely
related to the geologist area of investigation.
S6: The fossil plants indicate the age of the rock, and also point to facts regarding climate, temperature and topography.
The Proper sequence should be:
a. RQSP b. SQRP
c. PSQR d. QRPS
40. S1: On vacation in Tangier, Morocco, my friend and I sat down at a street
cafe.
P: At one point, he bent over with a big smile, showing me, a single gold tooth
and a dingy fez.
Q: Soon I felt the presence of someone standing alongside me.
R: But this one wouldnt budge.
S: We had been cautioned about beggars and were told to ignore them.
S6: Finally a man walked over to me and whispered, Hey buddy this guy is
your waiter and he wants your order
The Proper sequence should be:
a. SQRP b. SQPR
c. QSRP d. QSPR
41. S1: And then Gandhi came.
P: Get off the backs of these peasants and workers, he told us, all you who
live by their exploitation.
Q: He was like a powerful current of fresh air, like a beam of light, like a
whirlwind that upset many things.
R: He spoke their language and constantly dre their attention to their appalling
conditions.
S: He didnt descent from the top, he seemed to emerge from the masses of
India.
S6: Political freedom took new shape and then acquired a new content.
The Proper sequence should be:
a. QSRP b. SRQP
c. RSQP d. PRSQ
42. S1: Biological evolution has not fitted man to any specific environment.
P : It is by no means a biological evolution, but it is a cultural one.
Q: His imagination, his reason, his emotional subtlety and toughness, makes it
possible for him not to accept the environment but to change.

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R: And that series of inventions by which man from age by age has reshaped
his environment is a different kind of evolution.
S: Among the multitude of animals which scamper, burrow swim around us
he is in the only one who is not locked in to his environment.
S6: That brilliant sequence of cultural peaks can most appropriately be termed
the ascent of man.
The Proper sequence should be:
a. QPRS b. SRQP
c. QRSP d. SQRP
43. S1: The dictionary is the best friend of you task.
P: That may not be possible always.
Q: It is wise to look it up immediately.
R: Then it must be firmly written on the memory and traced at the first opportunity.
S: Never allow a strange word to pass unchallenged.
S6: Soon you will realize that this is an exciting task.
The Proper sequence should be:
a. PQRS b. SPQR
c. QRPS d. SQPR
44. S1: TheBhagavadgita recogniszs the nature of man and the needs of man.
P : All these three aspects constitute the nature of man.
Q: It shows how the human being is rational one, an ethical one and a spiritual
one.
R: More than all, it must be a spiritual experience.
S: Nothing can give him fulfilment unless it satisfies his reason, his ethical
conscience.
S6: A man whom does not harmonize them, is not truly human.
The Proper sequence should be:
a. PSRQ a. RSPQ
c. QPSR d. PSQR
45. S1: I usually sleep quite well in the train, but this time I slept only a little.
P: Most people wanted it shut and I wanted it open.
Q: As usual, I got angry about the window.
R: The quarrel left me completely upset.
S: There were too many people too much huge luggage all around.
S6: It was shut all night, as usual
The Proper sequence should be:
a. RSQP a. SQPR
c. SQRP d. RSPQ
Directions (46 to 47): In each question below a sentence broken into five or six
parts. Join these parts to make a meaningful sentence. The correct order of parts
is the answer.

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d

2. going
4. him

vt.

b. 35142
d. 35124
2. you
4. have

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46. 1. seen
3. you
5. have
a. 35214
c. 32514
47. 1. bag?
3. seen
5. my
a. 51432
c. 42351

b. 43512
d. 42153

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Directions (48 to 52): Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The
letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is D. (Ignore the
errors of punctuation, if any).

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48. (solve as per the direction given above)


a. I have got b. my M.Sc. degree
c. in 1988. d. no error.
49. (solve as per the direction given above)
a. having received your letter b. this morning, we are writing
c. to thank you for the same. d. no error.
50. (solve as per thedirectiongiven above)
a. if you lend him a book
b. he will lend it to someone else
c. and never you will get it back.
d. no error.

Part III

Lt
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Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

vt.

p
q
(in the lowest form), then what is the value of ?
q
p

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)P

1. If 2.5252525 ___ =

(a) 0.4
(b) 0.42525 (c) 0.0396
(d) 0.396
2. Which one of the following is a factor of y 2 (z x ) + x 2 ( y z) + z (yz +
zx xy)?

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(a) x y
(b) x + y + z (c) x y z (d) x + y + z
3. Five bells start tolling together and toll at intervals of 10 seconds, 8 seconds,
6 seconds, 4 seconds and 2 seconds respectively. How many times do the five
bells toll together in half an hour?
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 20
(d) 30
4. A man buys 4 tables and 5 chairs for Rs. 1000. If he sells the tables at 10%
profit and chairs at 20% profit, he earns a profit of Rs. 120. The cost of one
table is
(a) Rs. 200 (b) Rs. 220
(c) Rs. 240
(d) Rs. 260
5. LCM of two numbers is 16 times their HCF. The sum of LCM and HCF is 850.
If one number is 50, then what is the other number?
(a) 800
(b) 1200
(c) 1600
(d) 2400
6. Square root of 9 + 2 14 is
(b)

3 + 6 (c)

2+ 7

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(a) 1 + 2 2

(d)

2+ 5

7. Which is the largest number among 2 , 3 , 6 , 12


(a) 2
(b) 3 3
(c) 6 6
(d) 12 12
8. If x, y denote respectively, the area and the sum of the lengths of diagonals of
rectangle with length 1 unit and breadth 1 unit, then which one of the follow2
ing is correct?
(a) x and y are rational
(b) x is irrational and y is rational
(c) x is rational and y irrational
(d) x and y are both irrational
3

12

igh

20

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yr

9. A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side a. What is the area of


any square inscribed in this circle?
2
a2
a2
a2
(a)

(b) a
(c)

(d)
3
6
8
4
10. A rectangular cardboard is 18 cm 10 cm. From the four corners of the rectangle, a quarter circle of radius 4 cm are cut. What is the perimeter (approximate) of the remaining portion?
(a) 47.1 cm (b) 49.1 cm (c) 51.0 cm (d) 53.0 cm

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vt.

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11. The total surface area of a cone whose generator is equal to the radius R of its
base is S. If A is the area of a circle of radius 2 R, then which one of the following is correct?
S
(a) A = S (b) A = 2 S (c) A = (d) A = 4 S
2
12. In the figure alongside, PT = 6 cm, PA = 4 cm. What is the length of AB?

Ki

nd

(a) 9 cm
(b) 5 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 6 cm
13. 27 drops of water form a big drop of water. If the radius of each smaller drop
is 0.2 cm, then what is the radius of the bigger drop?
(a) 0.4 cm (b) 0.6 cm (c) 0.8 cm (d) 1.0 cm

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14. If y = ( x + x 1 ), then x 4 + x 3 4 x 2 + x + 1 = 0 can be reduced to which one of


the following? Take x 0.
(b) y 2 + y 4 = 0

(c) y 2 + y 6 = 0

(d) y 2 + y + 6 = 0

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(a) y 2 + y 2 = 0

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15. The
sides of a triangle are 20 cm, 16 cm and 13 cm respectively. Which one of

the following is correct?
(a) The triangle is obtuse angled
(b) The triangle is right angled
(c) The triangle is acute angled triangle (d) Cannot be determined.
16. A car finishes a certain journey in 15 at the rate 50 kmph. In order to cover the
same distance in 12 hours, the speed of the car must be increased by
(a) 12.5 kmph
(b) 13 kmph
(c) 13.5 kmph
(d) 14 kmph
17. Sachin, Rahul and Lata together can finish apiece of work in 3 days. If Sachin
along can do it in 6 days and Rahul in 9 days, then in how many days Lata
alone can do it?
(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 20
(d) 21

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18. H.C.F of ( x 6 + 1) and ( x 4 x 2 + 1) is


(a) x 2 + 1

(b) x 4 x 2 + 1

(c) x 4 + x 2 + 1
(d) x 3 + 1
19. Simple
interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 10% p.a. is Rs. 400. What is the

compound interest at the same rate and for the same time?
(a) Rs. 404 (b) Rs. 408 (c) Rs. 410 (d) Rs. 420

(c) v = v1 v 2

(d) v =

v2
v1

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vt.

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20. If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is halved, keeping the
height same, what is the ration of the volume of the reduced cylinder to that of
the original one
(a) 1:2
(b) 1:3
(c) 1:4
(d) 2:5
21. A person travels along a straight road for the first half length with a velocity v1
and the second half length with a velocity v2. The mean velocity v is given by
(a) v = v1 + v 2
(b) 2 = 1 + 1
2
v v1 v 2

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22. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance is


(a) Always less than one
(b) Always equal to one
(c) Always more than one
(d) Equal to or less than one
23. A woman walks on a straight road from her home to a market 3 km away with
a speed of 5 km/h. Finding the market closed, she instantaneously turns and
walks with a speed of 6km/h. The magnitude of average velocity is
(a) 5.50 km/h
(b) 5.40 km/h
(c) 2.73 km/h
(d) zero
24. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower and travels 24.5 m in the last second
of its journey. The height of the tower is
(a) 44.1 m (b) 49 m
(c) 78.4 m (d) none of these
25. The slope of velocity versus time graph gives
(a) Average velocity
(b) Acceleration
(c) Force
(d) Momentum
26. Assertion: A body can have acceleration even if its velocity is zero at a given
instant of time.
Reason: A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses its direction of motion.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is correct explanation if the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
(d) The Assertion is false and Reason is true.
27. A particle is thrown vertically upwards. The graph between its speed v and
time t is given by (neglecting the air resistance) the following figure:
(a)

(b)

(d)

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vt.

Lt
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(c)

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28. When a force of 1 N acts on a body of mass 1 gram, the body receives an
acceleration of
(a) 1 ms2 (b) 9.8 ms2 (c) 980 ms2
(d) 1000 ms2

29. A thief stole a box full of valuable articles of weight W and while carrying it
on his head jumped down from a wall of height h from the ground. Before he
reached the ground, he experiences a load of
(a) W
(b) W
(c) 2 W
(d) zero
2
30. If the force applied is F and the velocity gained is v, then the power developed
is
F
(a)
(b) v
(c) Fv
(d) Fv2
v
F
31. The
wave which can propagate through liquids and solids is a

(a) Longitudinal wave
(b) Radio wave
(c) Transverse wave
(d) None of the above
32. Which of the following quantities is transferred by a propagating wave?
(a) Speed (b) Mass
(c) Energy (d) Matter
33. Specific resistance of a conductor is measured in
(a) ohm
(b) ohmmeter
ohm
(c)

(d) dioptre
meter
34. A voltmeter is always placed
(a) in parallel to the resistor
(b) in series with the conductor
(c) in parallel to the cell
(d) near the electric circuit
35. In the following circuit, what is the equivalent resistance between P and Q?

(a) 2

(b) 1

(c)

1

2

(d) 4

(a)

13

A 27

(b) 9 B19

(c) 7 C14

(d)

39. Which is the heaviest metal?


(a) Platinum (b) Gold (c) Iron

17

D35

(d) Iridium

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37. Which of the following metals can displace hydrogen?


(a) Platinum (b) zinc
(c) Silver (d) Copper
38. Which of the following represents metal?

vt.

36. The element Ca is not present in______.


(a) Bleaching powder
(b) Plaster of paris
(c) Caustic soda
(d) Lime water

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40. Metals which release H2 gas with HNO3


(a) Magnesium and Manganese
(b) Magnesium and Aluminium
(c) Manganese and Aluminium
(d) Manganese and Iron

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41. Choose the correct option for strategic metals:


(a) Titanium, Chromium, Manganese and Iron
(b) Titanium, Chromium, Manganese and Zirconium
(c) Titanium, Chromium, Magnesium and Zirconium
(d) Titanium, Copper, Manganese and Zirconium

by

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42. The metal which imparts brick red colour to the flame is
(a) Sodium (b) Potassium (c) Barium (d) Calcium
43. Amalgam is an alloy, in which one of the element should be
(a) Mercury (b) Zinc
(c) Copper
(d) Silver

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44. Silver articles become black in prolonged exposure to air. This is due to the
formation of
(a) Ag 3 N (b) Ag 2 O (c) AgCI
(d) Ag 2S and Ag 3 N

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45. The electrolyte used in the electroplating of silver is


(a) Silver chloride
(b) Silver sulphide
(c) Silver nitrate
(d) Silver oxide

20

46. Part of the solar radiation absorbed by the atmosphere of earth is


(a) Infra-red (b) X-rays (c) UV rays (d) None of these

igh

47. Which of the following gas is not present in natural gas?


(a) Methane
(b) Chlorine (c) Hydrogen (d) None of the above

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48. In the electrolytic decomposition of Al2 O3


(I) Al3+ ions move towards cathode and O 2 ions move towards anode
(II) 3 aluminium ions and 2 oxygen ions are formed
Choose the correct option:
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) only
(c) (I) and (II)
(d) None of these
49. In the following food chain supposing that 1000 J energy is available with
plants and only 10% of the available of energy at any level is padded on to the
next higher level. How much energy would be available to the eagle?

Lt
d
vt.

(d) Freon

(I n
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)P

Plants Grasshopper Frog Snake Eagle


(a) 0.01 J (b) 0.1 J
(c) 1 J
(d) 10 J
50. Nellore, Nali and Marwari are the Indian breeds of
(a) Sheep (b) Buffaloes (c) Cows (d) Pigs
51. Identify the compound:
(a) Methanol (b) Formaldehyde
(c) Formic acid

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52. Filaria is actually a disease


(a) of the liver in which bile production is affected
(b) caused by the virus infecting the upper respiratory tract
(c) caused by the worm Wauchereria bancrofti
(d) of the red blood cells in which oxygen carrying capacity if the cells decreases
53. This hormone increases the calcium level in blood:
(a) Glucagon
(b) Adrenalin
(c) Parathyroid hormone
(d) Insulin
54. The ovules inside the ovary are actually the
(a) Micro sporangia
(b) Megaspores
(c) Mega sporangia
(d) Microspores
55. Pollination mediated by water is seen in
(a) Valllisneria
(b) Bryophyllum
(c) Paddy
(d) Azolla
56. Tendrils in the pea plants are actually modified
(a) Leaves (b) Stems (c) Flowers (d) Branches
57. Majority of mammals including human being forms two sets of teeth during
their life, a set of temporary milk or deciduous teeth replaced by a set of permanent or adult teeth. This type of dentition is called
(a) Diphyodont dentition
(b) Replacement dentition
(c) Double dentition
(d) Substitutive dentition
58. Which of the following is social insect?
(a) Honey bee
(b) Silkworm moth
(c) Lac insect
(d) Lice
59. Loss of water in the form of vapour that is transpiration occurs through
(a) Cuticle (b) Lenticles (c) Stomata (d) All of the above
60. Venus fly trap is an example of
(a) A trap specially designed to trap flies in the kitchens
(b) A insectivorous plant
(c) A recently developed rocket to be sent to the planet Venus
(d) None of the above is true
61. Fish meat is better than meat of other animals as it contains more:
(a) Fats
(b) Water (c) Starch (d) Protein

62. Tipus sword was made of


(a) Iron
(b) Steel
(c) Wootz

vt.

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63. What is Jamdani?


(a) A fine cloth with naksha design
(b) Paintings
(c) Pottery
(d) None of these
64. When did Jinnah join the Muslim League?
(a) 1906
(b) 1912
(c) 1913
(d) 1916

Lt
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(d) Mixed metals

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65. Macaulay
(a) was an Orientalist
(b) was an Anglicist
(c) encouraged teaching of modern knowledge through local languages
(d) none of the above

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66. What type of education was given to the children in pathshala?


(a) Religious (b) Oral (c) English (d) None of these
67. Under the colonial rule 26th January 1930 was observed as
(a) Republic day
(b) Holiday
(c) Independence day
(d) None of these

Do

68. Gandhiji launched the No Tax campaign at


(a) Meerut (b) Bardoli (c) Delhi
(d) Calcutta

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69. The main aim to start the Non-cooperation Movement was


(a) Home Rule
(b) Purna Swaraj
(c) Redress the wrong done in Turkey and Jallianwala Bagh
(d) None of these

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70. The Boycott and Swadeshi movement was started in the year
(a) 1902
(b) 1904
(c) 1905
(d) 1906
71. The paper edited by Tilak was
(a) Kesari
(b) Sambad Kaumudi
(c) Rast Groftar
(d) Shome Prakash
72. The Non-cooperation programme was adopted in the Congress session at
(a) Nagpur in 1920
(b) Madras in 1927
(c) Calcutta in 1920
(d) Lahore in 1929
73. Warren Hastings was the first _______ of India.
(a) Viceroy
(b) Governor General
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Army General
74. The battle of Plassy was fought in
(a) 1760
(b) 1759
(c) 1758
(d) 1757
75. Prime Minister is the most important political institution in the country. He
(a) does not have a fixed tenure
(b) is appointed by the President
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

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76. What are the advantages to foreign companies in setting up production units in
India?
(a) Cheap labour
(b) Spend least on facilities
(c) Provide poor working conditions
(d) All of these
77. If refers to a government formed by an alliance of two or more political
parties:
(a) Coalition government
(b) State government
(c) Local government
(d) Union government
78. Indian judiciary is independent with respect to
(a) Appointment of judges
(b) Removal of judges
(c) Powers of judiciary
(d) All of these
79. Which of the following right is available under the Indian Constitution?
(a) Right to work
(b) Right to privacy
(c) Right to livelihood
(d) Right to protect ones culture
80. Which of the following is not a key feature of Indian Constitution?
(a) Federation
(b) Presidential form of government
(c) Secularism
(d) Separation of powers
81. In India, the laws apply in the same manner to all regardless of a persons
status. This is called
(a) Lawmaking
(b) Law for all
(c) Rule of law
(d) None of these
82. Right to Freedom includes
(a) Freedom of speech
(b) Freedom to travel in the country
(c) Freedom to form associations
(d) All of these
83. Why do you think there are few women in Parliament?
(a) Society is male dominating
(b) Women are incapable
(c) Women have no interest in politics (d) Women cannot govern
84. In India, some rights are given a special status, they are
(a) Common rights
(b) Fundamental rights
(c) Constitutional rights
(d) Human rights
85. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the constituent
Assembly?
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) P. T. Nehru
(d) None of these
86. In a Democratic country the Indian people have full right to
(a) Protest against unjust laws
(b) Rebel
(c) Disobey the laws
(d) Attack the government

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87. The Domestic Violence Bill was introduced in the Parliament in the year
(a) 2000
(b) 2002
(c) 2004
(d) 2005
88. Which element threatens the future of our generation?
(a) Depletion of resources
(b) Resource planning
(c) Conservation p of resources
(d) Sustainable development
89. How many flowering species are indigenous to Indian?
(a) About 17000
(b) About 27000
(c) About 47000
(d) About 15000
90. The forest cover in India is estimated at _____.
(a) 627293 sq. km
(b) 617293 sq. km
(c) 637293 sq. km
(d) 607293 sq. km
91. Indias rank in the world in terms of water availability per person per annum is
(a) 122
(b) 138
(c) 133
(d) 128
92. Which type of vegetation is found in the coastal areas influenced by tides?
(a) Mangrove forest
(b) Mountain forest
(c) Tropical deciduous
(d) Tropical evergreen
93. Staple food crop of a majority of people in India is
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Jowar
(d) Barley
94. What is the full from of MSO?
(a) Maximum sale price
(b) Minimum sale price
(c) Minimum support price
(d) Maximum support price
95. The sparkle in the toothpaste comes from
(a) Mica
(b) Silica
(c) Limestone
(d) Phosphate
96. Magnetite has _____ per cent iron content
(a) 70
(b) 85
(c) 80
(d) 75
97. Which one of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector steel
plants?
(a) HAIL (b) SAIL
(c) Tata Steel (d) MNCC
98. Which of the following is not a basic input in the cement industry?
(a) Limestone
(b) Gypsum
(c) Coal
(d) Potash
99. The phenomenon of increase, decrease or stable condition of population over
a given period of time is known as
(a) Population Distribution
(b) Population Change
(c) Population Ratio
(d) Population Growth
100. Textile industry is an example of
(a) Agro based industry
(b) Co-operative sector industry
(c) Mineral based industry
(d) Marine based industry

3. (c)
13. (c)
23. (b)
33. (c)
43. (d)

4. (b)
14. (a)
24. (c)
34. (b)
44. (c)

5. (c)
15. (c)
25. (c)
35. (c)
45. (b)

6. (b)
16. (a)
26. (b)
36. (b)
46. (b)

7. (b)
17. (a)
27. (c)
37. (a)
47. (c)

4. (d)

5. (c)

6. (a)

7. (d)

3. (a)

nd

2. (a)

er

Part II (SAT)
1. (d)

8. (c)
18. (b)
28. (a)
38. (b)
48. (a)

9. (c)
19. (b)
29. (c)
39. (d)
49. (d)

10. (b)
20. (d)
30. (c)
40. (c)
50. (c)

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2. (b)
12. (b)
22. (a)
32. (d)
42. (c)
52. (b)

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1. (a)
11. (a)
21. (d)
31. (b)
41. (b)
51. (b)

vt.

Part I (Mat)

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Answer Key

8. (b)

9. (d) 10. (c)

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11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (d)

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31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a)

Do

41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (b)

by

Part III (SAT)

10. (b)
20. (c)

21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d)

30. (c)

31. (c)

40. (a)

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1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c)


11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (d)

Pu

32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (d)

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50. (a)
60. (b)
70. (c)

72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (c) 76. (d) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (d) 80. (b)
82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (d) 90. (c)
92. (a) 93. (a) 94. (d) 95. (a) 96. (a) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (b) 110. (a)

71. (a)
81. (c)
91. (c)

20

14

41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (b)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (d)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (c)

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