PRACTICE SET-3

Test-I: Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information to
answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following
a particular rule. The following is an illustration of an input
and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)
Input: goat 70 99 jump nor 80 fox 78 72 bids sit 75
Step I: bids goat 70 jump nor 80 fox 78 72 sit 75 99
Step II: fox bids goat 70 jump nor 78 72 sit 75 99 80
Step III: goat fox bids 70 jump nor 72 sit 75 99 80 78
Step IV: jump goat fox bids 70 nor 72 sit 99 80 78 75
Step V: nor jump goat fox bids 70 sit 99 80 78 75 72
Step VI: sit nor jump goat fox bids 99 80 78 75 72 70
And Step VI is the last step of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in
each of the following questions, the appropriate step
for the given input.
Input: 10 get 89 41 ace bed done 45 nor 73 60 made
1. How many steps will be required to complete the
rearrangement?
1) Six
2) Seven
3) Eight
4) Nine
5) None of these
2. Which of the following represents the position of 73 in
Step V?
1) Fourth from the left
2) Fourth from the right
3) Fifth from the right
4) Sixth from the left
5) None of these
3. Which word/number would be at the seventh position
from the left in the third step?
1) 41
2) 60
3) get
4) 45
5) None of these
4. Which step number is the following output?
get done bed ace 10 41 nor made 89 73 60 45
1) Step I
2) Step II
3) Step III
4) Step IV
5) Step V
5. Which will be the second step?
1) 10 get 89 41 ace bed done 45 nor 73 60 made
2) ace 10 get 41 bed done 45 nor 73 60 made 89
3) bed ace 10 get 41 done 45 nor 60 made 89 73
4) get done bed ace 10 41 nor made 89 73 60 45
5) None of these
6. Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, This mans
sons sister is my mother-in-law. How is the womans
husband related to the man in the photograph?

1) Son
2) Nephew
3) Grandson
4) Son-in-law
5) Brother
7. If Raju finds that he is 12th from the right in a row of
boys and 4th from the left, how many boys should be
added to the row such that there are 28 boys in the row?
1) 11
2) 12
3) 13
4) 14
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 8-10): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions following it.
(i) P Q means Q is the mother of P.
(ii) P - Q means P is the brother of Q.
(iii) P + Q means P is the father of Q.
(iv) P Q means Q is the sister of P.
8. Which of the following means M is the son of K?
1) M + L K
2) L M + K
3) M L K
4) M - L K
5) None of these
9. Which of the following means D is the aunt of B?
1) A B - C + D
2) A B C D
3) A + B C D
4) D - C + B A
5) None of these
10. Which of the following statements is/are redundant to
answer the previous question no. 9?
1) Only (i)
2) Only (ii)
3) Only (ii) and (iii)
4) Only either (i) or (ii)
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 11-15): Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Seven playersAnil, Bhusan, Chaman, Dayal, Ela,
Farhan, and Gitabelong to three different cities
Hyderabad, Mumbai and Bangalore. Three of them play chess
and two each play badminton and hockey. One chess player
is from each of these cities. Chaman plays badminton and is
from Bangalore. Dayal and Gita are the only players from
Hyderabad and Dayal plays hockey. No two players
belonging to the same city play the same game. None of the
hockey players is from Bangalore. Farhan is from Bangalore.
Bhusan doesnt play either chess or badminton. Ela does not
play badminton.
11. Which game does Farhan play?
1) Badminton
2) Chess
3) Hockey
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
12. In which city all the games are played by the players?
1) Hyderabad
2) Mumbai
3) Bangalore
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

13. Which of the following pairs of players play Chess?

1) Gita, Ela, Anil
2) Anil, Ela, Dayal
3) Ela, Chaman, Gita
4) Ela, Farhan, Anil
5) Farhan, Gita, Ela
14. Which of the following pairs of players play all the three
games?
1) Anil, Ela, Chaman
2) Ela, Farhan, Anil
3) Gita, Ela, Anil
4) Ela, Bhusan, Anil
5) None of these
15. Which game does Anil play?
1) Chess
2) Hockey
3) Badminton
4) None of these
5) Data inadequate
Directions (Q. 16-20): These questions are based on
the following information.
Seven BoysSaurav, Karan, Pawan, Gautam, Dhananjay,
Harshit and Rahul are sitting in a row facing the same direction.
We have the following information about their arrangement
Dhananjay is two places away from Pawan. Rahul is to the
left of Saurav. Karan is three places away to the right of
Harshit. Saurav is to the immediate right of Dhanajay. There
are exactly three boys between Gautam and Saurav.
16. Find the number of boys who are between Dhananjay
and Gautam.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
5) Cant be determine
17. If Harshit is second from the left end of the row, who is at
the extreme right of the row?
1) Saurav
2) Karan
3) Pawan
4) Gautam
5) Cant be determine
18. Rahul is the third from the left end of the row, then at
what place is Saurav from the right end of the row?
1) Second
2) Third
3) Fourth
4) Fifth
5) Immediate
19. If Pawan is third from left end of the row, then find the
number of boys who are between Saurav and Harshit?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) Four
20. If Rahul is two places away to the right of Harshit, then
who is at the extreme right of the row?
1) Pawan
2) Saurav
3) Karan
4) Goutam
5) Rahul
Directions (Q. 21-25): These questions are based on
the following information.
In a certain code, Delhi is capital is coded as 7 5 9,
capital are beautiful is coded as 3 6 9, Delhi is beautiful is
coded as 6 7 5, Patna also capital is coded as 9 2 4.
21. What is the code for beautiful?
1) 2
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6
5) 7
22. Which of the following can represent capital is
beautiful?

1) 7 9 5
2) 5 9 3
3) 6 9 7
4) 5 7 6
5) None of these
23. What is the code for are?
1) 9
2) 7
3) 5
4) 6
5) 3
24. Which of the following can represent Delhi is beautiful
capital?
1) 6 9 5 3
2) 3 5 6 7
3) 5 7 6 4
4) 6 7 4 9
5) 9 7 5 6
25. What does 5 represents in this code?
1) Delhi
2) beautiful
3) capital
4) Patna
5) Cannot be determined
Directions (Q. 26-30): These questions are based on
the following information.
Five people P, Q, R, S, T are sitting on a straight line
facing South. Another group V, W, X, Y, Z is sitting facing
North. The two groups are facing each other.
S is facing V and second to the right of T, who is sitting
on a corner. Y is second to the left of Z. R is third to the right
of P. W is sitting on left corner.
26. Which of the following pairs is facing towards each
other?
1) PV
2) TW
3) RV
4) YQ
5) ZQ
27. Which of the following pairs is sitting on the corner of
the line facing North?
1) XY
2) VX
3) WV
4) ZW
5) XW
28. What is the position of Y with reference to X?
1) fourth right
2) third left
3) third right
4) second right 5) None of these
29. Which of the following is sitting exactly in the middle of
the line facing South?
1) S
2) Q
3) T
4) P
5) R
30. If R is related to X and T is related to W in a certain way,
then which of the following would be related to each
other, following the same pattern?
1) QZ
2) PY
3) SY
4) Both (1) and (2)
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 31-35): Following questions are based
on the information given below.
Tom, Joy, Ricky, Smith, Nickole, Moorie and Megan are
seven friends who left for seven different destinations
Australia, England, South Africa, Ireland, Canada, Holand
and Zimbabweeach one on a different day of the week.
Ricky left for Zimbabwe on Monday. On the last day of the
week, the person left for Ireland. Nickole left on the next day
of Tom, who left for Holand on the next day of Megan. Smith
left for Canada on Friday. Joy left neither for South Africa nor
for Ireland and Megan left for Australia.

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31. On which day of the week did Joy leave?

1) Sunday
2) Saturday
3) Wednesday
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
32. Who left for Ireland?
1) Nickole
2) Tom
3) Moorie
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
33. On which day of the week did Nicole leave?
1) Tuesday
2) Thursday
3) Sunday
4) Wednesday
5) None of these
34. Which of the following combinations of person-place is
not correct?
1) Ricky-Zimnbabwe
2) Tom-Holand
3) Nickole-SA
4) Moorie-Ireland
5) All correct
35. Who left on Tuesday?
1) Tom
2) Megan
3) Joy
4) Moorie
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 36-40): Below is given a passage followed
by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the
facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each
inference separately in the context of the passage and decide
upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer
1) if the inference is definitely true, ie it properly
follows from the statement of facts given.
2) if the inference is probably true though not
definitely true in the light of the facts given.
3) if the data are inadequate, ie from the facts given
you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be
true or false.
4) if the inference is probably false though not
definitely false in the light of the facts given.
5) if the inference is definitely false, ie it cannot
possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts
the given facts.
Pharmaceutical science involves the synthesis and mass
manufacture of drugs from natural and synthetic sources for
the treatment and prevention of diseases. Doctors rely on
pharmaceutical companies for the development of new and
more effective drugs to combat diseases. Today,
pharmaceutical sector is a highly competitive sector with lots
of companies competing for supremacy and market control.
Pharmacists are concerned with production, productive
processes, quality control and testing of drugs.
According to Indian government statistics, today the
market comprises over 25000 manufacturing units; one-fifth
of them involved in making bulk drugs. The fact that the
industry has been showing nearly 10 per cent growth,
indicates the potential it has. With liberalisation in practice,
there are many job opportunities opening up, especially in
multinational pharmaceutical companies.

36. An interest in life science is an essential qualification to

specialise in the field of pharmaceuticals.
37. There is a good range of employment opportunities for
specialisers.
38. All those who want to become a doctor but fail, end up
in pharmacy.
39. Below 5000 manufacture units are involved in making
bulk drugs.
40. Indigenous companies are accumulating huge profits as
compared to multinational companies.
Directions (Q. 41-45): In each of the questions below
are given four statements followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to assume everything in
the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
with commonly known facts and then decide which of the
four given conclusions logically follows from the statements,
disregarding commonly known facts, and select the
appropriate answer.
41. Statements: Some numbers are digits.
All digits are alphabets.
No alphabet is a vowel.
All consonants are vowels.
Conclusions: I. No digit is a vowel.
II. No alphabet is a consonant.
III. No vowel is a number.
IV. All vowels are numbers.
1) Only I and III follow
2) Only II and IV follow
3) Only I and II follow
4) Only I, II and III follow
5) Only I , II and either III or IV follow
42. Statements: All documents are files.
Some files are papers.
All papers are certificates.
No certificate is a manuscript.
Conclusions: I. At least some documents are papers.
II. No manuscript is a document.
III. At least some certificates are files.
IV. No paper is a document.
1) Only I , II and IV follow
2) Only II and III follow
3) Only I and IV follow
4) Only III follows
5) None of these
43. Statements: No group is people.
All people are animals.
All animals are plants.
All plants are roots.
Conclusions: I. No group is a plant.
II. All people are plants.
III. At least some groups are plants.
IV. All plants are groups.

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44.

45.

46.

47.

1) Only II follows
2) Only I and IV follow
3) Only II and III follow
4) Only III and IV follow
5) None of these
Statements: Some jobs are vacancies.
All jobs are works.
No work is a trade.
All professions are trades.
Conclusions: I. At least some works are jobs.
II. No vacancy is a trade.
III. No profession is a work.
IV. At least some works are professions.
1) All I, II, III and IV follow
2) Only II, III and IV follow
3) Only I and IV follow
4) None follows
5) Only I and III follow
Statements: All marks are grades.
No grade is a score.
All letters are scores.
All scores are characters.
Conclusions: I. At least some letters are grades.
II. At least some scores are grades.
III. At least some characters are marks.
IV. Some characters are letters.
1) Only II and IV follow
2) Only IV follows
3) Only I and III follow
4) All I, II, III and IV follow
5) None follows
Statements: A country X has no national gun act. There
is no firearms control and licensing mechanism in the
country. The general public is free to acquire gun. The
people require arms for their safety. This has ultimately
increased the crime rate considerably in the country.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from
the above statements?
1) It is not necessary to license gun or firearms.
2) The gun or firearms act is opposed by the people of
the country.
3) The Government should make all necessary
arrangements to enact firearms act.
4) Many countries in the world have no firearms act
5) None of these
Statement: According to a survey conducted by a
magazine Pulse, College XYZ ranked best among all the
MBA institutes in the country.
Which of the following statements substantiates the fact
expressed in the above statement?
1) A large number of students of College XYZ find better
placement after completing their course.

2) There are many institutes which have better

infrastructure than College XYZ.
3) The rate of enrolment in College XYZ has come down
in recent years.
4) Majority of the institutes have contradicted the
findings of the magazine Pulse.
5) None of these
48. Statements: There are several types of wrist watches in
the world. A new type of digital wrist watch has been
introduced in the market which can calculate the life span
of a person. The wrist watch stops when the person
dies.
Which of the following can be concluded from the facts
given in the statements?
1) This could lead to chaos and confusion in the world.
2) A person can know how long his life is left and he
could live his life happily.
3) The new wrist watch has altered the life pattern of the
people.
4) The statement implies that death is certain.
5) None of these
49. Statements: The United States-based FMCG company
has developed a new deodorant. The company selected
a mediaperson couple for its promotion and marketing.
They marketed it through television, radio, print, hoarding
and social media.
Which of the assumptions is implicit in the above
statements? (An assumption is something supposed or
taken for granted)
1) People do not pay heed to advertisements and buy
such goods as are available easily.
2) Marketing through electronic media has not proved
to be very effective.
3) People want to see film stars and famous sports
personality in the advertisement of an FMCG product.
4) Some people may tend to buy the deodorant of the
United States-based FMCG company.
5) None of these
50. Statement: The luxury car manufacturer Phantom has
increased the price of its stunning, fastest limousine car
by about 45 per cent.
Which of the following can be the best possible reason
for the above step taken by the car manufacturer?
1) The government is planning to review taxes on the
raw materials for manufacturing cars.
2) The car sales market is going through a jubilant phase
as the volume of sales has picked up considerably in
the recent past.
3) The limousine car is the best in its segment and no
other car is posing any challenge to this car.
4) Car buyers prefer to buy limousine car as it provides
efficient after-sales service.
5) None of these

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Test-II: English Language

Directions (Q. 51-65): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
In any lively democracy the press and the politician have
a healthy mutual need. When politicians, political parties and
governments want to be heard they go in search of the press,
among other vital ingredients. With Indias highly politicised
reading public and a cynical middle class, unless there is a
political twist given to a speech, an iftar party or a meeting on
the front page, the newspaper would fold up or at least so
the media believes. If a political party is particularly idle it will
use a front-page twist to raise a storm in Parliament sometimes
without bothering to ascertain the facts. All this is accepted
as fair game as long as not much harm is done. However, the
very sine qua non of any story claiming to be news rather
than views has to be the unadulterated truth. Anything short
of verified truth can only be presented as opinion, speculation
or allegation. Without this, the edifice of credibility that a free
press is accorded in a democracy would crumble.
In dictatorships or controlled democracies the press must
write the truth as the ruling establishment wishes it to be
written. The Big Lie comes from on high. The press can then
rightly claim that their freedom is curtailed and disclaim
responsibility for presenting the truth. However, in a
democracy in which the press has complete freedom to write
about anything it pleases, the responsibility for presenting
the truth and nothing but the truth devolves on the media.
A journalist being human and fallible is subject to the
same laws and rights as any other citizen. There is no right
given to him that overrides the rights of other individuals
and no law he need not bow before no matter what the
motivation for his story. It is only at the time of according
punishment to a lawbreaker that the judge can consider the
circumstances under which the crime was committed, but a
journalist cannot quote public interest to justify breaking a
law. Even a person from a law enforcement agency has the
right to drive through a red light only if he is on an authorised
mission to chase a suspected criminal.
It is also important to remember that freedom of expression
is a right given by the Constitution as much to the individual
as it is to the press. The right of the press to write about
persons is no less than the right of those persons to give
their version to the same public through whatever means
there are at their disposals, including through the press. It is
for the press to respect that right as a natural corollary of its
own right. Just as a reporter is unhappy if the proprietor is
unhappy, if the ruling establishment curtails the freedom of

the press, the ordinary citizen, be he the reader or the subject

matter of a story in the media, has the right to uncurtailed and
undiluted expression of his version and view of events. If
this two-way process did not exist and the press claimed the
unilateral right to freedom of expression in the garb of press
freedom, it would amount to the dictatorship of the press.
In the age of media trials and sensationalism it is even
more important that those in the media who genuinely believe
that democratic and civil rights take priority over profits
remember their responsibility to adhere to the truth, the law
and specified journalistic ethics.
51. What makes the political leaders get closer to the media?
1) to obtain information about their adversaries
2) to voice their opinion on different matters in public
and gain publicity
3) to settle political scores
4) to interfere with the functioning of the media
5) None of these
52. Why is it that a political twist given to a speech, iftar
party or a meeting is published on the front page of a
newspaper?
1) because politics has creeped into every area of human
activity
2) because of growing competition among newspapers
to make political issues their first priority
3) because of the hold of political leader on the masses
4) because the reader has little interest in other issues
5) None of these
53. What do you mean by the expression sine qua non as
used in the passage?
1) essential condition
2) root of information
3) place of origin
4) after-effect
5) None of these
54. Which of the following is true in the context of the
passage?
1) A journalist has got more powers regarding the right
to information than an ordinary citizen.
2) A journalist has the authority to break the law only in
matters of public interest.
3) Press is not as free in a dictatorship as in a democracy.
4) Freedom of expression is only meant for the press
and not for people in general.
5) None of these
55. How can the credibility of a free press in a democratic
setup be ensured?
1) by the press providing information on aspects other
than mere political issues
2) by publishing human interest stories
3) by giving equal space to every political party
4) by exposing corruption and malpractices prevalent in
the system
5) None of these

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56. What is the basic difference between the functioning of

the press in a dictatorial regime and in a democracy?
1) While in a dictatorship the rulers are the subject-matter
for the press, in a democracy it is the people.
2) While in a dictatorship the rulers sponsor the press,
in a democracy sponsorship comes from the people.
3) While in a dictatorship the press has to be loyal to
the ruling class in any condition, such is not the case
in a democracy.
4) There is little public support to the press in a
dictatorship whereas it commands full public support
in a democracy.
5) None of these
57. Even a person from a law enforcement agency has the
right to drive through a red light only if he is on an
authorised mission to chase a suspected criminal.
This means
1) Law can only permit one to break the law.
2) No one is above law and all are equal on the parameters
of law.
3) Law always takes its own course.
4) Only a person from a law enforcement agency has the
right to break the law.
5) One can break the law if situation demands.
58. Which of the following is false in the context of the
passage?
1) Politicians approach the press to be heard.
2) Any news story has to be factual.
3) Press is a free institution whether in a democracy or
in a dictatorship.
4) Any item published without having truth in it may be
considered as views and not news.
5) None of these
59. What is the main theme of the passage?
1) responsibilities of a free media
2) media and politics
3) media and sensationalism
4) abuse of freedom of expression
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 60-62): Choose the word which is the
same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the
passage.
60. ASCERTAIN
1) examine
2) scrutinise
3) discover
4) approve
5) dismantle
61. CRUMBLE
1) buckle
2) ruin
3) jolt
4) surrender
5) collapse
62. COROLLARY
1) occurrence
2) phenomenon
3) ingredient
4) subsequent
5) consequence

Directions (Q. 63-65): Choose the word which is the

opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the
passage.
63. CURTAILED
1) guaranteed
2) extended
3) assured
4) allowed
5) paved
64. UNILATERAL
1) bilateral
2) multilingual
3) universal
4) global
5) basic
65. ADHERE
1) oppose
2) deny
3) counter
4) defy
5) criticism
Directions (Q. 66-70): In each of the following questions
four words are given, of which two words are most nearly the
same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are
most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate
the number of the correct letter combination in your answer.
66. A) Curb
B) Courage
C) Control
D) Identity
1) A - B
2) B - C
3) C - D
4) A - C
5) B - D
67. A) Components
B) Ornamentation
C) Accessories
D) Attachments
1) A - D
2) B - D
3) C - D
4) A - C
5) B - C
68. A) Eagerly
B) Radically
C) Vigorously
D) Severely
1) A - C
2) B - D
3) B - C
4) A - B
5) C - D
69. A) Spurious
B) Authorised
C) Attested
D) Genuine
1) A - D
2) A - C
3) A - B
4) B - D
5) B - C
70. A) Sensitive
B) Immune
C) Vulnerable
D) Covered
1) A - B
2) B - C
3) C - D
4) A - C
5) A - D
Directions: (Q. 71-75): In each of the following
sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence
there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4)
and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the
blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it
meaningfully complete.
71. A number of scientists in the country think that they are
on the ________ of a major ________.
1) centre, achievement
2) gateway, breakthrough
3) periphery, success
4) threshold, overhaul
5) frontier, experimentation
72. Diseases are easily ________ through ________ with
infected animals.
1) transferred, affinity
2) transported, closeness
3) transplanted, serving 4) transmitted, contact
5) generated, entertainment

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73. You must ________ your house in order before you

________ to offer advice to others.
1) set, venture
2) arrange, proceed
3) organise, preach
4) adjust, think
5) maintain, dare
74. The Indian government should take ________
________ to check terrorist activities in Jammu &
Kashmir.
1) bold, policy
2) urgent, measurement
3) firm, steps
4) courageous, activities
5) concrete, deployment
75. Indias relations with Pakistan are once again at
________ ________.
1) unprecedented, tense
2) abnormal, hostility
3) dispute, stages
4) conflict, position
5) low, ebb
Direction (Q. 76-85): In the following passage, some of
the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a
number. Find the suitable word from the options given against
each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to
make the paragraph meaningful.
A Surendran, Additional General Manager of
International Banking at Federal Bank, said banks expected
about $10 billion to (76) in. The (77) of these inflows will be
seen only in the next (78). There may be an impact now but
not a major one, as these (79) have to be fresh deposits or
renewal of deposits, he said.
Reports say the total NRE, NRO (non-resident ordinary)
and FCNR deposits are at $51.97 billion as in October 2011. If
one (80) a one per cent (81) in the value of rupee and takes
(82) account the (83) rates in other countries, NRIs have an
option (84) they could borrow from their home countries and
deposit in India, thereby making a clear (85) of 1-2 per cent.
76. 1) grow
2) blow
3) flow
4) go
5) call
77. 1) produce
2) consequent 3) resultant
4) impact
5) reaction
78. 1) time
2) fiscal
3) year
4) mensem
5) plan
79. 1) tenders
2) money
3) cash
4) credits
5) deposits
80. 1) thinks
2) lends
3) assumes
4) borrows
5) feels
81. 1) grow
2) appreciation 3) plus
4) dividend
5) cut
82. 1) into
2) for
3) in
4) to
5) out
83. 1) prime
2) lending
3) pulse
4) increase
5) depreciation

84. 1) wherein
2) which
3) that
4) how
5) when
85. 1) difference
2) reduction
3) margin
4) deduction
5) cut
Directions (Q. 86-90): Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
number of that part is the answer. If there is No error, the
answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
86. 1) To project Dr Ambedkar as / 2) just a Dalit icon, or treat
him like / 3) a prophet, does not do / 4) justice of his
memory. / 5) No error
87. 1) An amaging magical place which / 2) is a fine synthesis
of / 3) spiritual and natural / 4) wonder is Ladakh. / 5) No
error
88. 1) He lost both his legs / 2) on the day he was / 3) going
to write Delhi University / 4) BEd entrance exam. / 5) No
error
89. 1) All men between / 2) eighteen to forty-five without
exception / 3) are expected to serve / 4) in the army during
a war. / 5) No error
90. 1) Our neighbours are / 2) old fashioned and / 3) are very
strictly / 4) with their children / 5) No error

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Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 91-95): What should come in place of

the question mark (?) in the following questions?
91. [(192)2 64 24] 48 = ?
1) 83000
2) 82944
3) 82954
4) 82950
5) None of these
92. 555.55 + 55.55 + 15 + 0.55 + 0.05 = ?
1) 626.65
2) 626.50
3) 625.70
4) 626.70
5) None of these
93. (21% of 1326) (17% of 932) = ?
1) 120.02
2) 206.05
3) 240.04
4) 120.20
5) None of these
94. 182.25 = ?
1) 11.25
4) 14.5
1

95. (1331) 3

2) 12.5
3) 13.5
5) None of these
1

(343) 3 = ?

1) 2
2) 5
3) 4
4) 3
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 96-100): What should come in place of
question mark (?) in the following number series?
96. 11 13 17 19 23 29 31 37 ?
1) 47
2) 43
3) 41
4) 39
5) None of these

97. 165 195 255 285 345 ?

1) 375
2) 420
3) 435
4) 390
5) None of these
98. 7 26 63 124 215 342 ?
1) 481
2) 511
3) 391
4) 421
5) 451
99. 2 4 12 48 240 ?
1) 1920
2) 960
3) 1080
4) 1440
5) None of these
100. 8 7 11 12 14 17 17 22 ?
1) 20
2) 22
3) 24
4) 27
5) None of these
101. What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two
throws of a dice?
1)

1
6

2)

1
8

3)

1
9

1
5) None of these
12
102. Two dice are tossed. Probability that total score is in
prime number is

108. What is the sum of two consecutive odd numbers, the

difference of whose squares is 64?
1) 33
2) 18
3) 24
4) 25
5) 32
109. The speed of a boat in still water is 15 kmph and rate of
current is 3 kmph, then distance travelled downstream in
20 minutes is
1) 6 km
2) 5.8 km
3) 4 km
4) 7 km
5) 5 km
110. Ramesh starts a business with `8000 and after 18 months,
Suresh joins Ramesh as his partner. After 6 years the
profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is Sureshs
contribution in the capital?
1) `8000
2) `16000
3) `24000
4) `32000
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 111-115): Study the following graph
carefully and answer accordingly:
The following graph shows the registration of
new vehicles in Delhi in 2014.

1)

1
6

2)

5
12

3)

1
2

7
4)
5) None of these
9
103. X alone can do a piece of work in 8 days and Y alone in
10 days. X and Y undertook to do it for `4800. With the
help of Z they do it in 4 days. How much is to be paid to
Y?
1) `1200
2) `480
3) `580
4) `1820
5) `1920
104. Sunil can do a piece of work in 14 days. Raj is 40% more
efficient than Sunil. The number of days taken by Raj to
do the same piece of work is
1) 12 days
2) 10 days
3) 8 days
4) 9 days
5) None of these
105. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to `945 in
4 years and to `964 in 5 years. The sum is
1) `687
2) ` 869
3) ` 589
4) `574
5) ` 458
106. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man
standing on the platform in 24 seconds and 15 seconds
respectively and they cross each other in 21 seconds.
Ratio of their speed is
1) 2 : 1
2) 1 : 2
3) 1 : 3
4) 2 : 3
5) 3 : 4
107. Raj went to a shop and bought things worth `24, out of
which 28 paise went on sale tax on taxable purchases. If
the tax rate was 4%, then what is the cost of tax free item?
1) `17.28
2) `15.72
3) `16.72
4) `17
5) `14.72

No. (in thousands)

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KUNDAN
4)

50
45
40
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0

Cars

36

27

22

45

Total Vehicles

36

25

28

21

Jan

20

15

15

Feb

Mar

Apr

17

May

Jun

111. What was the difference between the number of cars

registered in January and that in June?
1) 2000
2) 6000
3) 4000
4) 13000
5) None of these
112. What was the number of vehicles other than cars
registered in March 2014?
1) 5000
2) 37000
3) 40000
4) 10000
5) None of these
113. What was the percentage increase in the number of
vehicles other than car registered from January to June?
1) 200%
2) 183.33%
3) 190%
4) 180%
5) None of these
114. In which of the following months the % registration of
cars with respect to the previous month the maximum?
1) February
2) March
3) June
4) April
5) None of these
115. In which of the following months was the registration of
vehicles other than cars the maximum?
1) April
2) June
3) May
4) March
5) None of these

Directions (Q. 116-120): Each of the questions below

consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
the question and both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II
alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data even in both the statements I and II together
are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are
necessary to answer the question.
116. A train running at a certain speed crosses a platform in
20 secs. What is the speed of the train?
I. Length of the train is 132 m.
II. The train crosses a man who is on the platform in 11
seconds.
117. The weights of A, B and C are in the ratio of 8 : 7 : 5. As
weight is 60% more than Cs. Find the weight of B.
I. Total weight of A, B and C is 100 kg.
II. Difference between As and Cs weights is 15 kg.
118. A shopkeeper sells some articles, taking profit of 20% on
the cost price. Find the amount of profit.
I. Cost price of the article is `1200.
II. Selling price of the article is `240 more than the cost
price.
119. A 180-m-long plot of rectangular land is to be fenced.
Find the cost of fencing per square metre.
I. Breadth of the rectangular plot is 30 m.
II. Length of the rectangular plot is 60 m.
120. The difference between the simple interest and the
compound interest on a sum of money at the end of four
years is `641. Find the sum.
I. Amount of simple interest accrued after four years is
`4000.
II. Rate of interest is 10% per annum.
Directions (Q. 121-125): For the two given equations
I and II give answer
1) if p is greater than q
2) if p is smaller than q
3) if p is equal to q
4) if p is either equal to or greater than q
5) if p is either equal to or smaller than q
121. I. 3p + 4q = 5
II. p + 2q = 2
122. I. 2q 2 3q 1 0
II. 2p 2 5p 3 0

123. I. 4p 2 5p 1 0
II. 80q 2 18q 1 0
124. I. 4p + 8q = 3
II. 12p + 16q = 7
125. I. q 2 9q 14 0
II. p 2 23p 112 0
Directions (Q. 126-130): Study the following graph
carefully and answer accordingly:
The following graph shows the percentage
profit of two companies over the years
80
75
70
70
65
60
60
50
50
50
45
50
40
40 35
35
30
30
25
20
20
A
B
10
0
1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002
Year
126. If the difference between the income of company B in
2002 and that of A in 1997 was `405 lakhs, what was the
difference between the expenditure of company B in 2002
and that of A in 1997?
1) `325 lakhs
2) `350 lakhs
3) `300 lakhs
4) Cant be determined
5) None of these
127. In which of the following years is the ratio of expenditure
to income for company B the least?
1) 1999
2) 1996
3) 2001
4) 1998
5) 2000
128. If the income of company A in 2000 was equal to the
expenditure of company B in 1997, find the ratio of the
income of company B in 1997 to the expenditure of
company A in 2000.
1) 8 : 15
2) 5 : 6
3) 6 : 5
4) 15 : 8
5) None of these
129. If the income of company A in 2002 was `660 lakhs, find
the expenditure of company A in the same year.
1) `600 lakhs
2) `450 lakhs
3) `400 lakhs
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
130. If the income of company B in 1998 was `450 lakhs, find
the expenditure of company B in 2000.
1) `300 lakhs
2) `400 lakhs
3) `675 lakhs
4) Cant be determined
5) None of these

K
KUNDAN

Directions (Q. 131-135): Study the following table

carefully and answer accordingly:
The following table shows the major
currencies in Dollar terms
Date

Pound
Sterling

Deutsch
Yen
Mark (100 units)

May 19

1.5088

0.4739

0.9164

0.9269

May 20

1.4991

0.4727

0.9141

0.9246

May 21

1.4989

0.4735

0.9113

0.9262

May 22

1.4914

0.4689

0.9180

0.9171

May 23

1.4901

0.4640

0.9213

0.9074

Euro

131. On which date was the value of Euro maximum against

Dollar?
1) May 19
2) May 20
3) May 21
4) May 22
5) May 23
132. Which currencys value increases continuously against
Dollar?
1) Euro
2) Yen
3) Deutsche Mark
4) Pound Sterling
5) None of these
133. Which currencys value is maximum against Dollar?
1) Pound Sterling
2) Deutsche Mark
3) Yen
4) Euro
5) Data inadequate
134. One Deutsche Mark is equal to how many Pound
Sterlings on May 19?
1) 3.2114
2) 0.31
3) 0.40
4) 3.1837
5) 3.4324
135. In the following questions an equation is presented in
four parts with = sign in between the parts. The four
parts of the equation are numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. One of
these parts in the equation may be wrong and therefore
may not yield the same result as the others do. Find out
the wrong part, if any. (If all the four parts are correctly
equated, the answer is 5, ie No error.)
1) 15 28 4 96 8 + 13 4 4 + 1
2) 3 343 3 216 + 9 10 + 9
3) 80 + 45 5 17 5 + 25 6 13
4) 625
49 20% of 170
5) No error

Directions (Q. 136-140): Study the following pie-charts

below and answer the questions that follow:
Classification of candidates from different states who
appeared and qualified in a competitive exam
MP
Gujarat
5%
Mumbai

UP

10%
15%

18%
7%

Bihar

12%
Punjab

20% 13%
Delhi

Haryana

Candidates appeared (2 lakh)

MP
10%

UP
14%

K
KUNDAN
Gujarat
12%

Mumbai
19%
Delhi
21%

Bihar
10%

Punjab
8%

Haryana
6%

Candidates qualified (16500)

136. What is the difference between the number of candidates
who qualified from Gujarat, MP and UP together and
that of those who qualified from Bihar and Punjab
together?
1) 3045
2) 2603
3) 2970
4) 2556
5) None of these
137. What is the percentage of the number of candidates
who qualified from UP and Bihar together with repect to
those who appeared from Delhi and Haryana?
1) 9.6%
2) 6.8%
3) 6%
4) 8%
5) None of these
138. What is the ratio of the number of candidates who
appeared from UP to that of those who qualified from
Mumbai, Delhi, Haryana and Punjab together?
1) 3 : 2
2) 57 : 79
3) 5 : 9
4) 125 : 108
5) None of these
139. Which of the following states has the least percentage
of number of candidates who qualified with respect to
appeared from that state?
1) Haryana
2) Delhi
3) Mumbai
4) Gujarat
5) UP
140. In which of the following states the percentage of the
number of qualified candidates with respect to the number
of appeared candidates is the maximum?
1) Haryana
2) Gujarat
3) Mumbai
4) Delhi
5) UP

Test-IV: General Awareness

(With Special Reference to Banking Industry)
141. The output of eight infrastructure sectors expanded by
4.4 per cent in May. Which of the following industries is
NOT one of the eight core sector industries?
1) Fertilizer
2) Textile
3) Cement
4) Steel
5) Petroleum refinery
142. India and which of the following countries have signed
an MoU to establish the `50 cr ($7.9 mn) PACEsetter
Fund? It aims to accelerate commercialisation of
innovation in off-grid clean energy solutions.
1) Germany
2) France
3) Canada
4) Norway
5) US
143. The World Diabetes Day (WDD) is observed on
1) 6 Nov
2) 10 Nov
3) 12 Nov
4) 14 Nov
5) 16 Nov
144. Which of the following terms is NOT used in banking/
finance?
1) Credit Default Swaps
2) Electronic Clearing System
3) Sudden Death
4) Blue Chip
5) RTGS
145. Yevgeny Primakov died at 85 recently. The journalist,
diplomat and a seasoned spy was the former Prime
Minister of
1) Russia
2) Kazakhstan
3) Ukraine
4) Belarus
5) Ukraine
146. Bangladesh signed an agreement with which country to
construct a 3.5-km tunnel under the Karnaphuli River in
Chittagong at a cost likely to be over $ 1 bn recently?
1) Japan
2) South Korea
3) China
4) Malaysia
5) Singapore
147. Even individuals without a bank account (walk-in
customers) can deposit cash at the NEFT-enabled bank
branches using NEFT restricted to a maximum of
________per transaction.
1) `20,000
2) `25,000
3) `50,000
4) `100,000
5) `200,000
148. Arun Shrivastava is the present managing director &
chief executive officer of which of the following public
sector banks?
1) Indian Bank
2) Union Bank of India
3) Bank of India
4) Canara Bank
5) Syndicate Bank
149. Who among the following is the SBIs JV partner in its
life insurance venture SBI Life?
1) American International Group
2) Tokio Life

3) Metropolitan Life Insurance Company

4) BNP Paribas
5) None of these
150. The ICC made changes in the rules for ODIs, recently, on
the recommendations made by the ICCs cricket
committee headed by
1) Kapil Dev
2) Saurabh Ganguly
3) Sachin Tendulkar
4) Anil Kumble
5) None of these
151. The govt has issued rules to raise limit on funds
individuals can take abroad under liberalised remittances
scheme. The limit has been raised to
1) $1.25 lakh
2) $1.50 lakh
3) $2 lakh
4) $2.5 lakh
5) None of these
152. As per extant instructions, the maximum value that can
be stored in any prepaid card (issued by banks and
authorised non-bank entities) at any point of time is
1) `10,000
2) `20,000
3) `50,000
4) `75,000
5) `100,000
153. We often read about the OROP in newspapers now a
day. What does the term OROP stand for?
1) One Rank, One Provision
2) One Rank, One Position
3) One Rank, One Perks
4) One Rank, One Pension
5) None of these
154. Which of the following firms has emerged as the top
Indian corporate to earn the highest net profit for
2014-15?
1) Coal India
2) SBI
3) TCS
4) ONGC
5) Reliance Industries
155. King Carl Gustaf and Queen Silvia welcomed President
Pranab Mukherjee on May 31, 2015 in which of the
following countries during his visit?
1) Norway
2) Belarus
3) Spain
4) Sweden
5) None of these
156. The sale and registration of any new four-wheeled
vehicle not complying with BS-IV emission norms will
not be allowed anywhere in the country from
1) Dec 2015
2) Jan 2016
3) Apr 2017
4) Sep 2017
5) Jun 2018
157. Name the ace Indian archer who won a bronze in the
womens individual recurve event of the World Cup on
31 May in Antalya (Turkey).
1) Deepika Kumari
2) Chekrovolu Swuro
3) Dola Banerjee
4) Bombayla Devi Laishram
5) None of these
158. How many languages appear in the language panel of
Indian banknotes in addition to Hindi and English?
1) 9
2) 11
3) 13
4) 15
5) 22

K
KUNDAN

159. India has signed a 10-year defence framework agreement,

which contain a specific reference to the Defense
Technology & Trade Initiative (DTTI), with which of the
following countries?
1) South Korea
2) Japan
3) US
4) Russia
5) Israel
160. The Union Information and Broadcasting (I&B) ministry
has appointed who among the following as director
general (news) in Doordarshan (DD)?
1) Akshay Rout
2) Veena Jain
3) Sanjeev Srivastava
4) Rajdeep Sardesai
5) None of these
161. Which of the following is NOT a public sector bank
(PSB) operating in India?
1) Federal Bank
2) IDBI Bank
3) Indian Bank
4) Vijaya Bank
5) Andhra Bank
162. According to just-released data from the 2011 census,
about what per cent of all girls aged 19 in India having
married?
1) 20 per cent
2) 21 per cent
3) 33 per cent
4) 41 per cent
5) None of these
163. The software giant Microsoft has unveiled its new
product named Edge which is its new
1) web browser
2) word processor
3) spreadsheet programme
4) mobile operating system
5) None of these
164. The banks have fixed the upper limit on withdrawals at
micro automatic teller machines (ATMs) at
1) `1,000
2) `2,000
3) `5,000
4) `10,000
5) `15,000
165. The CCI is now starting intense analysis of multi-sided
high technology market as it looks to boost its vigil
against unfair business ways. Here, the term CCI stands
for
1) Costing Commission of India
2) Coordination Commission of India
3) Competition Commission of India
4) Customs Commission of India
5) None of these
166. India has 29 states and ________Union Territories
(UTs).
1) seven
2) six
3) five
4) four
5) nine
167. Yuki Bhambri is associated with the game of
1) badminton
2) tennis
3) squash
4) hockey
5) shooting
168. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) on 27 Apr
welcomed which of the following countries as its 161st

member, ending 20 years of negotiation?

1) Maldives
2) Seychelles
3) Fiji
4) Myanmar
5) Cuba
169. The first International Day of Yoga was observed
recently on
1) 14 Jul
2) 23 Sep
3) 15 May
4) 14 Sep
5) 21 Jun
170. The window for banks to borrow from Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) in emergency situation when inter-bank
liquidity dries up completely, is called
1) Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
2) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)
3) Call money
4) Repo rate
5) None of these
171. Which of the following is the only cricket team to win
the ICC Cricket World Cup five times?
1) West Indies 2) Australia
3) India
4) Sri Lanka
5) England
172. The IFSC Code is an alphanumeric code used in RTGS
and NEFT transactions. What does letter S denote in
the term IFSC?
1) Subscriber
2) Station
3) State
4) System
5) Source
173. Which of the following is NOT a general insurance
company functioning in India?
1) HDFC Ergo
2) ICICI Lombard
3) Oriental Insurance Company
4) IFFCO Tokio
5) None of these
174. The Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) started their
development process on 2 Oct 1975 with the formation
of Prathama Grameen Bank in Moradabad. This bank
was sponsored by
1) State Bank of India (SBI)
2) Punjab National Bank (PNB)
3) Syndicate Bank
4) Indian Bank
5) Bank of Baroda
175. Who among the following is NOT a deputy governor of
the RBI at present?
1) HR Khan
2) Anand Sinha 3) SS Mundra
4) R Gandhi
5) Urjit R Patel
176. What is the tagline of ICICI bank?
1) Together we prosper
2) Khayal aapka
3) Relationships beyond Banking
4) Indias International Bank
5) A tradition of trust
177. Ashok Bhooshan assumed office as the Chief Justice of
which of the following High Courts recently?
1) Allahabad High Court

K
KUNDAN

2) Kerala High Court

3) Punjab and Haryana High Court
4) Delhi High Court
5) Guwahati High Court
178. The govt has approved launch of National
Supercomputing Mission to connect national academic
and R&D institutions at an estimated cost of
1) `5,000 cr
2) `4,500 cr
3) `5,500 cr
4) `7,500 cr
5) None of these
179. The ICC Cricket World Cup 2019 will be hosted by
1) South Africa 2) India
3) Sri Lanka
4) England
5) None of these
180. Presently, India has how many river stretches declared
as National Waterways?
1) Three
2) Five
3) Seven
4) Nine
5) 11

187. All of the following are examples of real security and

privacy risks EXCEPT
1) Hackers
2) Spam
3) Viruses
4) Identity theft
5) None of these
188. If you want to move an icon on your desktop, this is
called ________
1) double clicking
2) highlighting
3) draggin
4) pointing
5) None of these
189. A computer checks the ________ of user names and
passwords for a match before granting access.
1 ) website
2) network
3) backup file
4) database
5) None of these
190. Computers that are portable and convenient for users
who travel are known as ________
1) supercomputers
2) laptops
3) minicomputers
4) file servers
5) None of these
191. Deleted data remains on a disk until
1) the data is overwritten
2) the recycle bin is emptied
3) a file compression utility is used
4) the disk is scanned
5) None of these
192. The________enables your computer to connect to other
computers.
1) video card
2) sound card
3) network interface card (NIC)
4) controller card
5) None of these
193. What menu is selected to save or save as ?
1) Tools
2) File
3) Format
4) Edit
5) None of these
194. To make the number pad act as directional arrows, you
press the________key.
1) num lock
2) caps lock
3) arrows lock
4) shift
5) None of these
195. A button that makes character either upper or lower case
and numbers to symbols.
1) monitor
2) shift key
3) icon
4) mouse
5) None of these
196. If you type a word that is not in Words dictionary, a
wavy ________ underline appears below the word.
1) red
2) green
3) blue
4) black
5) None of these
197. Which of the following is considered a vulnerability of
SNMP?
1) Clear text community strings
2) Its use of TCP
3) The fact that it is on by default in Windows 2000
server

K
KUNDAN
Test-V: Computer Knowledge

181. What is backup ?

1) Adding more components to your network
2) Protecting data by copying it from the original source
to a different destination
3) Filtering old data from the new data
4) Accessing data on tape
5) None of these
182. Which of the following is true ?
1) byte is a single digit in a binary number
2) bit represents a grouping of digital numbers
3) eight-digit binary number is called a byte
4) eight-digit binary number is called a bit
5) None of these
183. A hard copy of a file created on a computer refers to data
1) saved on a floppy disk
2) printed on a printer
3) backed up on a tape drive
4) sent as an e-mail
5) None of these
184. A ______ is an organised collection of data about a
single entity.
1) file
2) library
3) database
4) dictionary
5) None of these
185. Something which has easily-understood instructions is
said to be
1) user-friendly
2) information
3) word processing
4) icon
5) None of these
186. Hardware devices that are not part of the main computer
system and are often added later to the system are
________
1) clip art
2) highlight
3) execute
4) peripherals
5) None of these

4) The fact that it is on by default in Windows XP

Professional
5) None of these
198. Network routing information distributed among routers
is stored in which of the following?
1) Flash memory
2) Route table
3) Metric table
4) NVRAM
5) Router memory
199. If the destination did not receive a segment, how will the
TCP host know to resend the information?
1) The ACK received will not include the segment
number that was not received.

2) The ACK received will include the segment number

that was not received.
3 ) The sending host will send a PACK to verify segment
receipt.
4) The destination host will send a YACK message back
to the sending host.
5) None of these
200. Small application programs that run on a Web page and
may ensure a form is completed properly or provide
animation are known as ________
1) flash
2) spiders
3) cookies
4) applets
5) sparks

Answers and Explanations

(1-5):

The machine rearranges words and numbers in such

a way that words are arranged in alphabetical order
from left side while numbers are arranged in
descending order from right side in each step.
Input: 10 get 89 41 ace bed done 45 nor 73 60 made
Step I. ace 10 get 41 bed done 45 nor 73 60 made 89
Step II. bed ace 10 get 41 done 45 nor 60 made 89 73
Step III. done bed ace 10 get 41 45 nor made 89 73 60
Step IV. get done bed ace 10 41 nor made 89 73 60 45
Step V. made get done bed ace 10 nor 89 73 60 45 41
Step VI. nor made get done bed ace 89 73 60 45 41 10
1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 4
5. 3
6. 3; Suppose the man in the photograph is X and the
woman who is pointing to the photograph is Y.
Now, the given statements give us following family
tree where
P is the son of X, Q is daughter of X, R is the husband
of Q, and Z is the husband of Y.

From 4):

K()
|
M(+) L
Hence, 4) is our correct choice.
9. 2; Reject 1) because it gives no idea regarding the sex
of D. Reject 4) because it represents D as a male.
Now from 2):
C() D()
|
B() A
Hence, D is the aunt of B.
From 3):
A(+)
D()
|
|
B
C()
Hence, from (3), D is the mother of B.
10. 2
(11-15):

K
KUNDAN
Cities

X(+)
P(+)

Q ()

Y()

Z(+)

R (+)

Hence womans husband (Z) is grandson of the man

(X) in the photograph.
7. 3; Total boys in the row = 12 + 4 1 = 15
Hence (28 15 =) 13 boys should be added to the
row.
8. 4; From 1):
M (+ )
|
L ()K
We get M is the father of K.
From 2): represents M is a female whereas +
represents that M is a male. Hence, reject 2) also.
From 3): We have no idea regarding the sex of M.
Hence reject 3) also.

Chess
G
F
E

Games
Hockey
D

Badminton

C
A

Hyderabad
Bangalore
Mumbai
11. 2; Chess.
12. 2; Mumbai.
13. 5; Farhan, Gita, Ela.
14. 4; Ela, Bhusan, Anil.
15. 3; Badminton.
(16-20): Only three possible arrangement are possible:
Harshit, Gautam, Rahul, Karan,
Dhananjay, Saurav,Pawan
...(1)
Rahul, Gautam, Pawan, Harshit,
Dhananjay, Saurav, Karan
...(2)
Rahul, Harshit, Gautam, Pawan,
Karan, Dhananjay, Saurav
...(3)
16. 2; Two boys.

17. 1; Saurav.
18. 1; Second from the right hand.
19. 2; Only one Boy, Dhananjay.
20. 1; Pawan.
21. 4
22. 3
23. 5
24. 5
26. 4
27. 5
28. 2
29. 1
(31-35):
Person
Ricky
Megan
Tom
Nickole
Sumit
Joy
Moorie

43. 5;
25. 5
30. 4

Place
Day
Zimbabwe
Monday
Australia
Tuesday
Holand
Wednesday
South Africa
Thursday
Canada
Friday
England
Saturday
Ireland
Sunda
31. 2
32. 3
33. 2
34. 5
35. 2
36. 2; Service provided through pharmaceuticals and its
nature of job make it probably true.
37. 1; Passage says that pharmacists are concerned with
different types of work such as production,
productive processes, quality control and testing
of drugs etc. And the last sentence of the passage
says that there are many job opportunities opening
up.
38. 3
39. 5; According to the passage, more than 5000
manufacturing units are involved in making bulk
drugs.
40. 4; Job prospects are better for an individual in MNCs.
It is likely MNCs are in a stronger position than
indigenous companies. Hence, the inference drawn
seems false.
41. 3; All digits are alphabets (A) + No alphabet is a vowel
(E) = A + E = E = No digit is a vowel. Hence,
conclusion I follows.
No alphabet is a vowel (E)
conversion
No
vowel is an alphabet (E).
Now, All consonants are vowels (A) + No vowel is
an alphabet (E) = A + E = E = No consononant is an
alphabet (E)
conversion
No alphabet is a
consonant. Hence, conclusion II follows.
Again, Some numbers are digits + All digits are
alphabets = I + A = I = Some numbers are alphabets
(I) + No alphabet is a vowel (E) = I + E = O = Some
numbers are not vowels. Hence, conclusion III and
IV do not follow.
42. 5; All documents are files (A) + Some files are papers
(I) = A + I = No conclusion. Hence, conclusion I, II
and IV do not follow. However, I and conversion of
IV make a complementary pair. Hence, either I or IV
follows. Again Some files are papers (I) + All papers

44. 5;

are certificates (A) = I + A = I = Some files are

certificates (I)
conversion
Some certificates
are files. Hence, conclusion III follows.
All people are animals (A) + All animals are plants
(A) = A + A = A = All people are plants. Hence,
conclusion II follows. Now, No group is people (E)
+ All people are plants (A) = E + A = O* = Some
plants are not groups. Thus, conclusion I, III and IV
do not follow. However, I and III make a
complementary E-I pair. Hence, either I or III follows.
All jobs are works (A) implication Some works
are jobs (I). Hence, conclusion I follows.
Again, Some jobs are vacancies (I)
conversion
Some vacancies are jobs (I) + All jobs are works
(A) = I + A = I = Some vacancies are works (I) + No
work is a trade (E) = I + E = O = Some vacancies are
not trades. Hence, conclusion II does not follow.
Now, No work is a trade (E) No trade is a work
Again, All professions are trades (A) + No trade is a
work (E) = A + E = E = No profession is a work.
Hence, conclusion III follows. But conclusion IV
does not follow.
No grade is a score (E) conversion No score is
a grade (E). Now, All letters are scores (A) + No
score is a grade (E) = A + E = E = No letter is a grade
(E). Hence, conclusion I does not follow. And
conclusion II does not follow from statement II.
Again, All marks are grades (A) + No grade is a
score (E) = A + E + E = No mark is a score (E) + All
scores are characters (A) = E + A = O* = Some
characters are not marks. Hence, conclusion III does
not follow. But All letters are scores (A) + All scores
are characters (A) = A + A = A = All letters are
characters (A)
conversion
Some characters
are letters (I). Hence, conclusion IV follows.
The Government should make all necesssary
arrangements to enact firearms act. Firearms should
not be let free because they increase crimes in the
country.
If students of a college find better placement, it
indicates the good quality of the institute.
The wrist watch calculates the life span of a person.
But when the person dies the wrist watch stops. It
means the statement says that death is certain.
Hence, option 4) follows.
It is with prospective customers in mind that
marketing campaigns are launched.
The reason for such a steep hike in prices must be a
rise in input prices. Only choice 1 talks about such a
rise increase in taxes on raw materials. However,
note that the govt is still planning to review taxes.
And actual prices are not increased on mere
anticipation.

K
KUNDAN
45. 2;

46. 3;

47. 1;
48. 4;

49. 4;
50. 5;

51. 2; When politicians want to be heard by the people

they go in search of the media. They use media as
the vehicle to gain publicity.
52. 4; Because it gains easy acceptability among Indias
highly politicised reading public and a cynical middle
class and if political twist is not there in a front-page
story it may be rejected.
53. 1
54. 3; In a dictatorship the press has to oblise the rulers.
55. 5; Anything short of verified truth cannot be presented
as news and they can only be presented as views, ie
opinion, speculation or allegation.
56. 3; In a dictatorship the press must write the truth as
the ruling class wishes it to be written whereas in a
democracy nothing influences the reality.
57. 2
58. 3
59. 1
60. 1
61. 5
62. 5
63. 2
64. 1
65. 4
66. 4; same
67. 3; same
68. 2; same
69. 1; opposite
70. 2; opposite
71. 2
72. 4
73. 1
74. 3
75. 5
76. 3
77. 1
78. 5
79. 4
80. 2
81. 3
82. 5
83. 4
84. 1
85. 2
86. 4; Replace of with to
87. 5
88. 5
89. 2; Replace to with and
90. 3; Replace strictly with strict
91. 2; After solving this we find value = 288

(11) 3

1
3

(7 ) 3

1
3

= 11 7
4 =2
96. 3; All are prime numbers.
97. 3; The series is:
15 11 = 165
15 13 = 195
15 17 = 255
15 19 = 285
15 23 = 345
15 29 = 435
98. 2; The series is:
23 1 = 7
33 1 = 26
43 1 = 63
53 1 = 124
63 1 = 215
73 1 = 342

K
KUNDAN
?

(288) 2

82944
92. 4
93. 1; ? = (21% of 1326) (17% of 932)
21 1326
17 932
=
100
100
= 278.46 158.44
= 120.02
Alternate Method:
? = (21% of 1326) (17% of 932)
= 21% of 17 78 17% of 932
= 17% of (21 78 932)
= 17% of (1638 932)
= 17% of 706
= 120.02
18225
100

94. 3; ? = 182.25
95. 1; ? =

(1331) 3

(343) 3

135
= 13.5
10

83 1 = 511
99. 4; The series is:
22=4
4 3 = 12
12 4 = 48
48 5 = 240

240 6 = 1440

100. 1; These are two series:

8, 11, 14, 17, 20 and 7, 12, 17, 22
Next number is 20.
101. 3; In two throws of die, n(S) = 6 6 = 36
Let E = event of getting sum 9
= {(3, 6) (6, 3) (4, 5) (5, 4)}
n ( E) 4 1
P(E) =
n (S) 36 9
102. 2; n(S) = 6 6 = 36
E = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 1), (2, 3), (2, 5), (3, 2),
(3, 4), (4, 1), (4, 3), (5, 2), (5, 6), (6, 1), (6, 5)}
n(E) = 15
n (E )
P(E) = n (S)

15
36

103. 5; Zs 1 days work =

1
4

5
12

1 1
8 10

1
4

9
40

1
40

1 1 1
: :
8 10 40
=5:4:1

Xs wages : Ys wages : Zs wages =

Ys share = 4

4800
= 4 480 = `1920
10

104. 2; Ratio of time taken by Sunil and Raj = 140 : 100

=7:5
Let Raj take x days to do the work.
7 : 5 : : 14 : x
Solving this x = 10 ie 10 days.
105. 2; SI for 1 year = 964 945 = `19
SI for 4 year = 19 4 = `76
Amount = 945 76 = `869
106. 1; Let their speeds x m/sec and y m/sec.
Length of first train = 24x m and second train = 15y m
24x 15y
= 21
x y

24x + 15y = 21x + 21y

3x = 6y
x
y

6
3

2
=2:1
1

Quicker Method: Just check in which month there

is the maximum gap between car and total vehicles.
116. 5; Combining both the statements together,
Speed of the train =

132 18
43.2 km / hr
11 5

100
7 35 kg
20

117. 3; I. Weight of B =

15
7 35 kg
3
Hence, either statement I alone or II alone is
sufficient answer the question.
118. 3; I. Amount of profit = 20% of 1200 = `240
II. SP - CP = 240 = Amount of profit.
Hence, either statement I alone or II alone is
sufficient to answer the question.
119. 4; Cost of fencing per square metre is not given. So,
even combining both the statements together, total
cost of fencing cant be determined.
120. 2; From statement II alone:
Let the sum be `P.
II. Weight of B =

K
KUNDAN

107. 3; Let the amount taxable purchases be `x.

So 4% of x = 0.28 =

28
100

28 100
=7
100 4
Cost = {24 (7 + 0.28)} = 24 7.28 = `16.72
108. 5; Let the numbers be x and x + 2.
(x + 2)2 x2 = 64
4x + 4 = 64
x = 15
Numbers are 15 and 17.
Sum = 15 + 17 = 32
109. 1; Speed downstream = 15 + 3 = 18 kmph

x=

Distance travelled = 18

20
60

18

1
= 6 km
3

10
P 1
100

P 10 4
= 641
100

P = `1000
Hence, statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
121. 1; I. 3p + 4q = 5
or, 6 - 6q + 4q = 5
or, 2q = 1 or, q = 1/2
II. p + 2q = 2
or, 3p + 6q = 6
or, 3p = 6 6q

110. 2; Let share of Suresh be x.

8000 72 2
Then
x 54
3
111. 5; Reqd difference = 28 - 21 = 7000
112. 4; No. of vehicles other than car registered in March
2014 = 25 - 15 = 10000
113. 2; No. of vehicles other than car registered in January
= 27 - 21 = 6000
No. of vehicles other than car registered in June
= 45 - 28 = 17000
17000 6000
100 183.33%
Reqd % increase =
6000
114. 3; There is maximum slope between the months of May
and June.
115. 3; Registration of vehicles other than cars is maximum
in the month of May.

Also, 3p = 6 - 6q = 6 6
or, 3p = 3
or, p = 1
Hence, p > q
122. 4; I. 2q 2 3q 1 0
or, q = 1,

1
2

II. 2p 2 5p 3 0
or, p = 1,
Hence, p

3
2
q.

123. 1; I. 4p 2 5p 1 0

1
2

6 3 3

or, p = 1,
II. 80q

128. 4; i 00 A

1
4

i 97 B

18q 1 0

e 00 A

or, 80q 2 10q 8q 1 0

or, (8q - 1) (10q - 1) = 0

125
100
100
150

e 97 B
i 00 A

125 150
100 100

15 : 8

100
= `400 lakhs
165
130. 4; Without knowing the income for different years, the
expenditure value cant be determined
131. 5; Decrease in amount indicates increase in value.
132. 4
133. 1

129. 3; Expenditure of A in 2002 = 660

1 1
,
8 10
Hence, p > q
124. 3; I. 4p + 8q = 3
or, 12p + 24q = 9
or, 12p = 9 - 24q
II. 12p + 16q = 7
or, 9 - 24q + 16q = 7
or, 8q = 2

or, q =

2
8

e 97 B = `x lakhs

0.4739
= 0.31 pound sterling
1.5085
135. 1; Other parts are equal to 141
136. 3; Reqd difference in the number of qualified candidate
= 36% of 16500 18% of 16500

134. 2; One Deutsche Mark =

1
4

K
KUNDAN
or, q =

18 16500
= 2970
100
137. 3; The number of qualified candidates (UP + Bihar)
24% of 16500 = 3960
No. of candidates appeared (Delhi and Haryana)
33% of 2 lakh = 66000
= 18% of 16500 =

Also, 12p = 9 24

1
4

9 6

1
4
Hence, p = q

or, p

3960
100 = 6%
66000
138. 5; The number of candidates appeared from UP 18%
of 2 lakh = 36000
The number of candidates qualified from Mumbai,
Delhi, Haryana and Punjab
= 54% of 16500 = 8910

Reqd % =

125. 4; I. q 2 9q 14 0

or, q 2 7q 2q 14 0
or, (q - 7) (q - 2) = 0
or, q = 2 or, 7

II. p 2

23p 112 0

or, p 2 16p 7 p 112

or, (p - 16) (p - 7) = 0
or, p = 7 or, 16
Hence, p q.

126. 3; i 02 B
e 02 B

= i 02 B

i 97 A

e 97 A
i 97 A

Ratio =

405

i 02 B

100
135

i 97 A

100
135

100
135

100
= `300 lakhs
135
127. 1; Ratio of expenditure to income for company B is the
least when the percentage profit is maximum. Hence,
in 1999 the ratio was least.

= 405

139. 1; Haryana
140. 2; Gujarat
141. 2
142. 5
146. 3
147. 3
151. 4
152. 3
156. 3
157. 1
161. 1
162. 4
166. 1
167. 2
171. 2
172. 4
176. 2
177. 2
181. 2
182. 3
186. 4
187. 2
191. 2
192. 3
196. 1
197. 1

36000
8910

400
= 400 : 99
99

143. 4
148. 5
153. 4
158. 4
163. 1
168. 2
173. 5
178. 2
183. 2
188. 3
193. 2
198. 5

144. 3
149. 4
154. 5
159. 3
164. 4
169. 5
174. 3
179. 4
184. 1
189. 4
194. 1
199. 2

145. 3
150. 4
155. 4
160. 2
165. 3
170. 1
175. 2
180. 2
185. 1
190. 2
195. 2
200. 1