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RAJASTHAN P.E.T.
CHEMISTRY 1995
1. L
pP + qQ + rR the equilibrium constant for this reaction is
+ Mm + Nn
:
(2)Kc = [L][M]m[N]n
(1) Kc = [P]p[Q]q[R]r
m
n
[L] [M] [N]
[P]p[Q]q[R]r
(3) Kc = [L][M][N]
[P][Q][R]
(4) Kc = mn
pqr
(3) Na+>K+>Li+
(4) As, se
7. Ch3COOAg + Br2
CH3Br + AgBr + CO2 . The above reaction is known as
:
(1) Hoffmann mustard oil reaction
(2) Wurtz fitting reaction
(3) Hunsdiecker reaction
(4) Volhard zelinsky reaction
8. 1s2 2s2p63s2p2 configuration shows the :
(1) f-flock elements
(2) p-block elements
(3) s-block elements
(4) d-block elements
9. The required condition for precipitation is :
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(2) NH3
(3) AICI3
(4) H2O
(4) Acetaldehyde
(4) Benzene
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(2) Free radical fission
(3) Oxidation
(4) Fission of hydrogen
22. In which of the following there is no resonance :
(1) Ethyl amine
(2) Phenol
(3) Anilene (4) Benzene
23. Why does NH4CI is added first in NH4OH in the qualitative analysis :
(1) for pure precipitation
(2) for making dilute solution
(3) to reduce the concentration of OH- ion
(4) to increase the concentration of OH- ion
24. The hydrolysis of esters by base is known as :
(1) Dehydration
(2) Saponification
(3) Dehelogenation (4) Dehydrogenation
25. By which of the following, oxalic acid reacts at 1100 C to form formic acid :
(1) Pri. Amine
(2) Glycerol (3) Acetaldehyde
(4) Acetone
y+
26. MxAy
+ yAx- the true statement for this reaction is :
xM
(2) Ksp = Sx+y (3)Ksp=XxYySx+y
(4) Ksp= S2
(1) Ksp = XxSx+y
27. By which of the following enzyme in the process of fermentation glucose and
fructose are converted into alcohol :
(1) Diastase (2) Xymase (3) Invertase (4) Maltase
28. Nitration of benzoic acid gives :
(1) 4-dinitrobenzoic acid
(2) 2,4-dinitrobenzoic acid
(3) 2-nitrobenzoic acid
(4) 3-nitrobenzoic acid
29. Which of the following is the main particle of petrol :
(1) Alkyle helide
(2) Compounds containing oxygen
(3) Compounds containing sulphur
(4) Mixture of alkanes
30. The order of dehydration of alcohols by concentrated H2SO4 is :
(1) t>s>p
(2) p>s>t
(3) s>t>p
(4) All same
31. Which of the following forms oilynitrosoamine with aq. HNO2 :
(1) Aniline
(2) Dimethylamine (3) Ethylamine
(4) Methylamine
32. Reducing agents are those which :
(1) domates electrons
(2) forms covalent bond
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(3) shares electrons
(4) gains electrons
33. In acidic medium the oxidation state of Mn in KMnO4 change from :
(1) +6 to +2
(2) +7 to +3 (3) +7to +4 (4) +7 to +2
34. A+B C + D in this reaction initial concentration A and B are mole each of
the equilibrium constant is k. If the concentrations of A and B will be done 2
and 3 mole resp. the equilibrium constant will be :
(1) half
(2) unchanged
(3) four times
(4) 2 times
35. Which of the following are homologous :
(1) CH3COOH, CH3COOCH3
(2) CH3-CCH2CH2=CH2
(3) CH3CHO, CH3CH2CHO
(4) CH3CHO, CH3COCH3
36. The general formula of alkyne is :
(1) CnH2n
(2)C2H2n-2
(3) CnH2n+2
(4)None above
37. According to Bohr, electron can move around the nuclease. If the principal
quantum no is n then the angular momentum will be :
(1) nh
(2) h/
(3) n/h
(4) nh/2
38. At reversible equilibrium :
(1) the concentration of matter are equal
(2) the forward and backward rates are equal
(3) the backward rate will be higher
(4) the forward rate will be higher
39. The hydrolysis constant (kh) of CH3COONa at 250 C will be : (Ka=1.8x10-5)
(2) 5.55x10-10
(3) 5.55x10-12
(4) 5.55x10-11
(1) 5.55 x 10-5
40. If the ladius of I Bohr orbit of H is a0 then the radius of III Bohar orbit will
be :
(1) 12a0
(2) a0
(30 9a0
(4) 3a0
41. The knowledge of energy and position of an electron is found from :
(1) Principal quantum no.
(2) Azimuthal quantum no.
(3) Magnetic quantum no.
(4) Spin quantum no.
42. The conjugate acid of CI is :
(1) HCI
(2) HCIO3
(3) HCIO2
(4) HCIO4
(4) Base and acid
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44. Azimthal quantum no. is represented by :
(1) s
(2) n
(3) 1
(4) m
45. The values of and n for 2p orbital are :
(1) = 2 , n = 2
(2) = 2, n= 1 (3) =0, n=1 (4) = 1, n=2
46. Which of the following are present in the aqueous solution of Na2CO3 :
(1) H2CO3, Na+, OH- ion
(2) H2CO3, OH-, CO32(3) CO3-2 ion
(4) Na+ and OH47. The 10. of an unpaired electrons in the configuation 1s2, 2s2p3 are :
(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
48. The pH value of pure water is 7. If a salt X is added in the water the pH value
raised and become 13. The salt X will be:
(1) CH3COONH4
(2) NH4CI
(3) CH3COONa
(4)NaCI
49. The magnetic quantum no. shows :
(1) orientation of orbitals
(2) shape of orbitals
(3) size of orbitals
(4) All
50. The value of electronega-fivity in a column from right to left becomes:
(1) not certain change
(2) equal
(3) reduces
(4) increases
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56. Strangest electronegative element is :
(1) I
(2) F
(3) CI
(4) Br
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1) (CH3)3C
(2) (CH3)2CH
(3) CH3CH2
(4) CH3
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75. Which of the following is electrophilic :
(3) H2O
(1) R-O-R
(2) NH3
(4) BF3
76. In which of the following solution methyl orange gives red colour :
(4) CH3COONH
(1) HCI
(2) NaOH
(3) CH3COONa
77. The pH value of water is T. When a salt X is dissobed the pH value becomes
13. The salt X will be :
(1) salt of weak acid and weak base
(2) salt of weak acid and strong base
(3) salt of strong acid and weak base
(4) salt of strong acid and strong base
78. For which of the following titration phenolphthalein is suitable indicator :
(1) NH4OHand NH4CI
(2) CH3COOH and NaOH
(3) HCI and NH4OH
(4) H2CO3&N2CO3
79. The true statement for CH3COONH4 is :
(2) Kh = Kw
(3) Kh= Kw
(1) Kh= Kw
Ka
KaKb
Kb
80. The IUPAC name of CH3
CH3
CH3
C-
CH=CH2 is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
3,3 dimethyl-3-butene
4,4-dimethyl-2-butene
3,3-dimethyl-l-butene
3,3-dimethyl-2-butene
81. Which of the following set of quantum nos. are not possible :
(1) 3,2,3,1/2 (2) 5,0,0,1/2 (3) 3,2,-3, (4) 5,1,0,-1/2
82. For a solution mole nos. of solute and whole solution are 20 and 80
receptively then the mole fraction of solute will be :
(1) 0.35
(2) 4.0
(3) 0.4
(4) 0.25
83. The degree of lonisation of an electrolyte depends upon :
(1) size of solvent molecules
(2) nature of solvent molecules
(3) lonisation potential of solvent molecules
(4) shapce of solvent molecules
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84. The chemical properties of an element depends upon :
(1) atomic no. and volume
(2) atomic weight and volume
(3) atomic no. and electronic configuration
(4) atomic no. of atomic weight
85. Paramagnetism is found in elements when :
(1) all electrons are paired
(2) octet is complete
(3) all electrons are shared
(4) unpaired electrons are present
86. C6H5NH2 + CHCI3 +KOH
(A) + KCI + H2O here A is :
(2) C6H5CN (3) C6H4(OH)NH2
(4) C6H5NC
(1) C6H4(CI)NH2
87. Ethane, ethane and ehtyne. In which of the above three. C-H bond energy
is highest :
(1) in C2H4 (2) in C2H6 (3) in C2H2 (4) same
88. The correct order of strength of halogen acids is :
(1) HI>HCI>HBr>HF
(2) HCI>HF>HBr>HI
(3) HF<HCI<HBr<HI
(4) HF>HCI>HBr>HI
89. Which of the following pair has same electronic configuration :
(1) K+, Rb+ (2) Na+, K+ (3) K+, Ca2+
(4) Li+, NO+
90. Alkali metal gets inert gas configuration by :
(1) making coordination bond
(2) sharing an electron
(3) gain of an-electron
(4) loss of an electron
91. The polarity of covalent bond between two atoms depends upon :
(1) nos. of an unpaired electrons
(2) electronic configuration of an atom
(3) electronegativity of an atom
(4) lonisation potential of an atom
92. The shape of an ammonia molecule is :
(1) pyranide (2) tetrahedral
(3) triangular (4) linear
93. The important copper ore is :
(1) Chalocopyrites
(2) Alumina
(3) Bauxite
(4) Sedarite
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(2) To remove bauxite from anode
(3) Reduction of bauxite
(4) To fuse bauxite
95. By which of the following regent aldehyde and ketone is distinguished :
(1) Fehling solution (2) Bayer solution
(3) Na2CO3 (4) O3
96. Which of the following does not give precipitate with (NaOH + I2) :
(1) Ethanol
(2) Benzaldehyde
(3) Acetone (40 Acetaldehyde
97. Sodium acetate + soda lime
A here A is :
(1) Butane
(2) Propane
(3) Ethane
(4) Methane
1.(1)
12.(2)
23.(3)
34.(2)
45.(4)
56.(2)
67.(3)
78.(2)
89.(3)
100(2)
2.(3)
13.(4)
24.(2)
35.(3)
46.(2)
57.(2)
68.(2)
79.(2)
90.(4)
3.(2)
14.(2)
25.(2)
36.(2)
47.(2)
58.(4)
69.(2)
80.(3)
91.(3)
4.(2)
15.(3)
26.(3)
37.(4)
48.(3)
59.(2)
70.(4)
81.(3)
92.(1)
ANSWER SHEET
5.(2) 6.(1) 7.(3)
16.(2) 17.(3) 18.(1)
27.(2) 28.(2) 29.(4)
38.(2) 39.(2) 40.(3)
49.(1) 50.(3) 51.(4)
60.(3) 61.(1) 62.(3)
71.(3) 72.(1) 73.(1)
82.(4) 83.(2) 84.(3)
93.(1) 94.(4) 95.(1)
8.(2)
19.(3)
30.(2)
41.(1)
52.(2)
63.(1)
74.(1)
85.(4)
96.(2)
9.(1)
20.(3)
31.(2)
42.(1)
53.(1)
64.(3)
75.(4)
86.(4)
97.(4)
10.(4)
21.(3)
32.(1)
43.(2)
54.(3)
65.(1)
76.(1)
87.(3)
98.(1)
11.(3)
22.(1)
33.(4)
44.(3)
55.(2)
66.(3)
77.(2)
88.(3)
99.(2)