1 Ondansetron HCL is used for :

a- Hypertension
b- Angina pectoris
c- Prophylaxis of migraine
d- Anti-emetic

It is used as

Ondansetron is

2 All These are side effects of Chloramphenicol except

a- Irreversible a plastic anemia
b- optic neuritis
c- peripheral neuritis
d- iron deficiency anemia

3 Ticlopidine is used for :

a- Anticoagulant
b- Antibiotic
 c- anticholinergic
d- Antiplatelets

4 All these drugs are fibrinolytic except :

a- Dipyridamole
b- Steptokinase
c- urikinase

5 All These drugs cause anti-metabolic effect except :

a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
C- Cytabrin
d- Azothioprine
1 e- Cyclophosphamide

6 All These drugs can be used for Parkinsonism except

a- Selgitine HCL
b- Carbidopa
c- Pergolide
d- Nedocromil Sod.

7 all These cases not cure with thiazides except :

a- Hypernatrimia
b- hyperglycemia
 c- Hypokalaemia
d- hyperuricaemia

8 Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following exc

a- Ephedrine
b- Ledocaine
c- Propranolol
d- Normal saline

9 Insulin which can be given I.V. is :

a- Regular type
b- 30/70 type
c- NPH type
d- Non of the above

10 Drug is used for Leishmania :

a- Sod. Stiboglyconate
b- Sod. Cromoglyconate
2 c- Mebendazole

11 All These drugs are anti-bacterial except :

a- Zalcitabine
b-Lomefloxacin
c- Cefprazone
12 All These are natural Estrogens except :
a- Mestronol
b- Oestrone
c- Oestriol
d- Oestradiol

13 Co-Trimethoxazole contains :

14 Which one of the following has vasodilator effect :

a- Nicotine
b- Cholestyramin
c- urikinase
d- Vit. A

15 One of the following is not from Quinolone group :

a- Nalidixic acid
b- Quinine
c- Eoxacin
d- Norfloxacin

16 One of the following is not for Epilepsy :

a- Clorizepam
 b- Phenytoin
c- Primidone
3 d- Imipramine

17 All of these can be used for Leprosy except :

a- Dapson
b- Rifampcin
c- Clofazinine
d- INH

18 Sumatriptan is used for :

a- Hypertension
b- Treatment of migraine
c- Angina Pectoris
d- Control of Epilepsy

19 Which one of the following is enzyme inducer :

a- Rifampcin
b- Cimetidine
c- Chloramphenicol
d- Vit. C

20 All of the following for prophylaxis of asthma except

a- Ketotifen
 b- Nedocromil Sod.
c- Sod. Cromoglycate
d- Salbutamol

21 All of the following is NSAH [ non sedating antihistam

a- Loratidine
b- Cetrizine
c- Astemizol
4 d- Azotodin

22 All of the following are controlled drugs except :

a- Rivotril
b- Epanutin
c- Sresolid
d- Diazepam

23 All These drugs are anti-viral except :

a- Amantadine
b- Zidovudine
c- Acyclovir
d- Aluerin [ anti-spasmodic ]

24 Which one of the symptoms does not occur with morp

a- Diarrhea
 b- Respiratory depression
c- Constipation
d- Vomiting

25 Which one of these drugs is not used for acute pain :

a- Naproxen
b- Colchicine
c- Codeine
d- Prednisolone

26 Which one of these drugs is drug of choice for Myxod

[ Hypothyrodism ]
a- Carbimazole
b- iodine
c- thyroxin sod.
5 d- propyl thiouracil

27 Benzyl peroxide is a local treatment for

28 Vit. A daily dose is

The drug of choice for the treatment of amoebae

29 :
 a- Chloramphenicol
b- Tetracycline
c- Gentamycin
d- Metronidazole

30 To prevent more absorption of the toxic drug we use

a- Water
b- Salt Sol.
c- Saline
d- Charcoal

31 Hepatitis Vaccine dose is :

a- Once / year
b- Twice / Year
c- Three times /
Year

32 Which one is OTC drug :

a- Simple analgesic
b- Warfarin
c- Ciprofloxacin

33 Anti-coagulant effect of Warfarin is decreased by :

a- Rifampcin
 b- Aspirin
c- Vit. K
6 d- Verapamil

34 One of the following is given once daily

a- Amorphous Insulin
b- Protamine Zinc Insulin
c- Neutral insulin
d- Regular Insulin

The steady state conc. Of the drug in the plasma dep

35 on :
a- Direct proportion to the rate of administrati
b- Indirect proportion to the rate of administra
c- Indirect proportion to the rate of elimination
d- Direct proportion to the rate of elimination

36 All these are Anti-Coagulants except :

a- Warfarin
b- Ancord
c- Heparin
d- Dipyridamol

37 All these are Anti-Platelets except :

 a- Dipyridamol
b- Aspirin
c- Streptokinase
d- Presantin
e- Ticlopidine

38 Ferrograde is :
a- Ferrous Sulphate
b- Ferrous Citrate
c- Ferrous gluconate
7 d- Ferrous Fumarate

39 Procainamide is :
a- Ca channel blocker
b- Nifedipine
c- Lisinopril
d- Qunidine

40 What is the mechanism of action of Vit. K ?

41 Thiazide diuretics cause all the following except :

a- Hypokalamia
 b- Hypercalcemia
c- Hyperuricamia
d- Hyponatrimia
e- Hyperglycemia
f- Hypernatremia

42 Treatment with anti-arrhythmic drug depends on exce

a- Type of medication
b- Period of medication
c- Patient sex

43 Elimination of Digoxin is mainly by :

a- Kidney
b- Liver
c- Both
d- None of the above

44 Dobutamine is given I.V. because :

a- It is not stable in the gastric PH
b- It is needed in large quantities in case of ora
8 c- It is eliminated very quickly

45 Amilorid as trimetren causes :

a- CNS disturbances
 b- Hyperkalamia
c- Hypokalamia
d- Not affect K [ Potassium ]

46 What is the most drug can cause damage if it is given

a- Captopril
b- Warfarin
c- Chlorothiazide
d- Rifampcin

Drug physical dependence is as same as drug

47 abuse
a- True
b- false

48 Mention two Thiazide diuretics ?

49 What is the difference between QID & Q6H ?

QID =
Q6H =

50 What is the difference between the following anti-fu

Miconazole =
 Amphotercin =
9 Griseofulvin =

51 Give the indication of the following drugs :

1- Gimfibrazole
2- Cisapride
3- Fluoxetin
4- Carbimazole
5- Imipramine
6- Ipratropium Br.

52 All are anti-metabolic except :

a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
c- Cytabrin
d- Azothiopin
e- Cyclophosphamide

53 Cefaclor is :
a- Ist, Generation Cephalosporin
b- 2nd, generation Cephalosporin
c- 3rd, generation Cephalosporin
d- None of the above
 54 Which Aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally ?
a- Gentamycin
b- Neomycin
c- Amikacin
d- Tobramycin

55 Teicoplanin antibiotic has similar effect on Gram posit

a- Vancomycin
b- Jamicacin
c- Gentamycin
10 d- Kanamycin

56 Which one is not Tetracycline ?

a- Minocycline
b- Demeclocycline
c- Doxycycline
d- Clindamycin

57 Which one is not Ca channel blocker ?

a- Verapamil
b- Deltiazem
c- Amlodipine
d- Cinnarzine
 58 Mesalazine is used for

59 Mention 4 lipid soluble vitamins ?

60 Imipenam [ Carbapenam ] is

61 All These medications are used in treating T.B. excep

a- Cyclosporin
b- INH
c- Cycloserin
d- Rifampcin

All These drugs are anti-cholinergic

62 except :
a- Iprotropium
b- Atropine Sulphate
c- Benzatropine Methylate
11 d- Dobutamin

63 All Of These are antibiotics except :

 a- Zalcitabin
b- Cefaprozil
c- loefloxacin
d- Cefopodoxin

64 There is one drug is used for HIV :

a- Zalcitabin
b- Kinasterdin
c- Cefaprozil
d- Enoxacin

65 Which one is Suprax ?

a- Cefixime
b- Itraconazole

66 Which one is Sporanox ?

a- Cefixime
b- Itraconazole

67 All of These can be used in treating leprosy except :

a- Dapson
b- Rifampcin
c- Clofazimine
d- INH
 68 One of these is not like the others :
a-Timolol
b- Acebutalol
c- Labetolol
12 d- Betaxolol

69 Which is not Aminoglycoside ?

a- Netilimicin
b- Tobramycin
c- Kanamycin
d- Lymecyclin

70 Betahistine HCL
a- For Mieniere disease
b- Antihistamine
c- Analgesic
d- a & b

71 Which one is not 5HT3 antagonist ?

a- Tropisetron
b- Ondansetron
c- Domperidone [ Motilium ]
d- Granisetron
 72 Which is not oral anti-coagulant ?
a- Warfarin
b- Enoxaprine
c- Phenidione
d- Nicoumolone

73 Which is correct ? Diazepam

a- Can cause muscle spasm
b- Is taken I.M. only
c- Is derivative from Morphine
d- Is not used for long term

13 74 Maximum dose of Paracetamol is Gm / day

The duration of treatment of T.B. by CTC is

75 :
[ CTC is Tuberculosis Committee Thoracic Socie
a- One week
b- Two months
c- One month
d- 6 months

76 Metoclopramide is
 77 Which one is contra-indicated in pregnancy :
a- Sucralfate
b- Ethambutol
c- Chlorphenramine
d- Ciprofloxacin

78 What is the definition of Bioavailability of the drug ?

79 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Hepatotoxicity ?

1- 2-
3- 4-

80 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Nephrotoxicity ?

14

81 Give the anti-dote for each of the

 following :
Heparin
Paracetamol
Warfarin
Morphine

What is the generic name of Vit. B

82 12 ?

83 Zidovudine is used for

84 What is the meaning of poor patient compliance ?

85 Fluxotine is :

86 Omeprazole is

87 Mention two diseases cause Edema ?

 1- 2-

88 Give examples of drug - drug interactions ?

1-
2-
3-
4-
5-
6-
15 7-

89 Generic name of :
Vit. B1
Vit. B2
Vit. B6
Vit. B12

90 All of these are the components of Calamine lotion B.P

a- ZnO
b- calamine
c- Sod. Citrate
d- Bentonite
e- Sod. Sulphate
 Terbinafine is used topically
91 for :
a- Eczema
b- Candida
c- Fungal infections

92 Which one is not contra-indicated in pregnancy ?

a- Captopril
b- Enalpril
c- Lisinopril
d- Methyldopa

93 PCP [ Pneumocystis Corini Pneumonia ]

a- Virus
b- Bacteria
c-
Parasite
d- Mycobacterum

94 Which of the following is not antibiotic ?

a- Erythromycin
b- Cefprozil
c- Ceprodoxin
16 d- Finasteride
95 Which one is used for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia [ B
a- Flumazenil
b- Cefprozil
c- Mivacurim
d- Finasteride

All of these are third generation Cephalosporin

96 except :
a- Cefixime
b- Cefopodoxime
c- Ceftriaxone
d- Cefotaxime

97 Which of the following is not mucolytic ?

a- Bromohexin
b- Carbocistene
c- Ambroxol
d- guaphenesin
e- Dextromethorphan

Which one is anti-

98 platelet ?
a- Ticlopidine
 b- Desfluron
c- Aldesleukin
d- Atovaquon

99 All of these anti-neoplastic except :

a- Aldesleukin
b- Teniposide
c- Pentostatin
17 d- Amlodipine

100 Which is not Benzodiazepine ?

a- Temazepam
b- Nitrozepam
c- Loprazolam
d- Clozapine

Potassium supplement must not be given with

101 Triametren
1- False 2- True

102 Misoprostol inhibit gastric acid by blocking the hydro

adenosine triphosphate enzyme system of gastric cel
[ Misoprostol is Cytotic ]
 1- False 2- True

103 MMR vaccine is

104 Oral re-hydrate solution is one of the following :

a- Sod. Citrate - Pot. Chloride - Glucose
b- Sod. Citrate - Pot. Chloride - Sod. Chloride
c- Sod. Chloride - Pot. Citrate - Sod. Citrate - gl
d- Sod. Chloride - Pot. Chloride - NaHCO3 - Citr

105 Gemfibrazile
a- Increase HDL & Triglycerides
b- Increase HDL & decrease Triglycerides
c- Decrease HDL & LDL
d- Increase LDL & Triglycerides.

106 Nitroprusside Sod. Is :

a- Potent vasodilator
b- potent diuretic
c- potent vasoconstrictor
18 d- Anti-arrhythmic agent.

107 4 drugs need monitor for their serum level

 1- 3-
2- 4-

108 For Fluxacillin, all these statments are wrong except

a- It is activated by Penicillinase enzyme
b- It is taken by oral route only
c- It is base stable
d- It is better absorbed than
Cloxacilin

109 What are the instruction for patient taken Metamuci

Or any other bulk foaming laxative as Bran, methyl C
Psyllum :

110 Cytotec
Is used for

111 Mention two drugs from HMG - COA- reductase inhib

HMG-COA-Reductase Inhibitor
112 is
 113 Source of Human Insulin is E-Coli by :
19

114 Zinnat contains :

115 Thiabendazole is one of Thiazides diuretics

1- False 2- True

116 Praziquantil is :
a- Cause loss of intracellular calcium of worms
b- Used for malaria
c- Biltracid is the trade name
d- a & c

117 Nitrofurantoin is indicated for :

a- Viral infection
b- GIT Infection
c- Urinary tract infection
[ UTI ]
d- URI
 118 Vit. K
a- Increase formation of clotting factor
b- Increase conversion of Vit. K to the active
form
c- Prevent conversion of Vit. K back to the activ
d- Non of the above

119 Quinidine Sulphate is :

a- Anti-arrhythmic agent
b- Anti-malarial
agent
c- Anti-hypertensive agent
20 d- a & c

ACE stands
120 for :
a- Converting Ag11 to vasoconstrictor Ag1
b- Converting Ag1 to vasoconstrictor Ag11
c- Converting Ag1 to vasodilator Ag11
d- Converting Ag11 to vasodilator Ag1

121 One of these side effects not occur with Thiazide diu
a- Hypernatraemia
 b- Hypoglycemia
c- Hypokalamia
d- Hyperuricamia

122 Ipeca is emetic agent which induce emesis through :

a- Stimulation of the stomach
b- Stimulation of the CTZ
c- a & b
d- Inhibition of the stomach through CNS

123 Theophyllin is
a- Bronchdilator
b- B2 agonist
c- Cause Bradycardia
d- All of the above

124 Schedule of immunization for HBV is :

a- Single dose
b- Two doses
c- Three doses
d- Five doses

125 Itraconazol
21 Is
 Treatment of anaphylactic reaction is initiated by
126 immediate :
a- Hydrocortisone
b- Cimetidine
c- Human albumin
d- Epinephrine

127 Introduction of emesis is not indicated in the followin

a- Caustic substance ingestion
b- CNS
c- Seizures
d- Paracetamol poisoning

128 all of these are anions except :

a- Phosphate
b-Acetate
c- Sodium
d- Chloride

129 Astemizole is

130 Triazole
 is
a- Antifungal
b- Trade name of clotrimazole
c- Trade name of amphotercin B
d- Nystatin

131 With Minoxidil, all these parameters should be monito

a- Urine flow rate
b- B.P.
c- Pulse rate
22 d- Body weight

Aspirin is recommended with one of the

132 following :
a- Anti-coagulant
b- Chicken box
c- Influenza symptoms
d- Dys-menorrhoea

133 Which is not true with Tetracycline

a- Broad spectrum
bacteriostatic
b- Broad spectrum bactericidal
c- Inhibit protein synthesis
 d- Used for acne

134 Give 2 indications for allopurinol

1-
2-

135 Give an ex. Of non sedating anti-histamines

136 Famotidine is

137 What are the effects of Captopril

1- Decrease conversion of Ag1 to Ag11
2- Effective hypotensive when others are contr
[ B blockers & diuretics ]

138 Type 2 Diabetics is characterized by :

a- Lack of response to Insulin
b- Lack of response to sulphonylurea
c- Respond to dietary therapy alone
23 d- Slowly increasing sulphonylurea requirement

139 Give 2 side effects of Aminoglycosides ?

140 Mention 2 quinolones
1
2

141 Give 3 drugs as Pot. Sparing diuretics

142 Acetazolamide is

143 Which one reduces the metabolism of other drugs in

a- Rifampcin
B- Vit. C
c- Cimetidine
d- Metronidazole

144 All of these can be dispensed without prescription ex

a- Aspirin b- Maalox c- Bisac
d- Tegretol

145 Simvastatin is used for

 146 Acetohexamide is

147 List the trade name of the following :

Pindolol
Baclofen
Omeprazo
24 l

148 What is the meaning of each of the following :

POM
BID
ECG
G.6.PD
BPC

149 Which of these is Pro-drug

a- Ampicillin
b- Erythromycin
c- Pivampicillin
d-All of the above

150 500 ml Normal saline 0.9 % contains gm. NACL

 151 Mention 3 ACEI

152 Levodopa with Cardiodopa for the treatment of

Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitor are used

153 as :
a- Antihistaminic
b- Antidepressant
c- Antihypertensive
d- antiemetic

154 Which of these has no vasodilator effect :

a- Methyl dopa
b- Hydralazine
c- Enalpril
25 d- Prazocin

155 Enalpril is the prodrug of :

156 Mention 3 drugs contraindicated in pregnancy :

1
2
 3

157 List 3 drugs used to treat T.B. :

1
2
3

158 Calcipotriol is indicated for :

a- Psoriasis
b- Hypertension
c- Calcium
supplement
d- Acne

List 8 side effects of

159 Corticosteroids :
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
26 160 Maximum dose of Captopril is mg / day

161 Amantadine is used for all of the following except :

a- Antiviral
b- For influenza A
c- Anti-parkinsonism
d- For influenza B

162 All are viral infections except :

a- Hepatitis B
b- Influenza
c- Herpes Zoster
d- Rikettsia

163 At the cardiac arrest [ shock ] . The drug of choice is

a- Epinephrine
b- Propranolol
c- Hydrocortisone
d- Saline sol.

164 Give ae example of cardio selective B blocker ?

a- Atenolol
b- Bisoprolol
 c- Esmolol
d- Betaxolol
e- Metoprolol
f- Acebutolol

165 Drugs to pass B.B.B. should be :

a- Unionized hydrophilic
b- Ionized hydrophilic
c- Unionized lipophilic
27 d- Ionized lipophilic

166 All of these are anti-parkinsonism except :

a- Amantadine e- Lysuride
b- Apomorphine f- Pergolide
c- Bromocriptine g- Levodopa
d- Primidone h- Selegiline

167 All of these are anti-metabolite [ cytotoxic ] except :

a- Methotrexate d- Azothioprin
b- Cylarabin e- Mercaptopurine
c- Cyclophosphamide f- Flurouracil

All of these are antichlonergic

168 except :
 a- Atropine sulphate d- Iprotropium bromide
e- Butrepium
b- Hydroatropine bromide
c- Mebeverine

169 All of these are corticosteroids except :

a- Ondansetron d- Beclomethasone
b- Prednisolone e- Dexamethazone
c- Triamcinolone f- Methyl prednisolone

170 When newly married do not want child. How to arrang

a- Arrange contraception.
b- Send wife to the family doctor
c- Send the wife to her mother

171 Side effects of Insulin ?

1 Local reaction [ urticaria ]
2 Hypoglycemia
Fat dystrophy at site of
28 3 injection

172 One of the following is the main side effect of insulin

a- Hypoglycemia
b- Fluid retention
 c- Hyperglycemia
d- All of the above

173 The only aminoglycoside can be taken orally is :

Chloramphenicol affect liver inhibitory enzyme.

174 So
a- Decrease metabolism & increase response
b- Decrease metabolism & decrease response
c- Increase metabolism & increase response
d- Increase metabolism & decrease
response

175 OTC simple analgesic is

176 Enteric coated tab

a- Pass the stomach & release in the intestine
b- Pass the stomach & intestine
c- Release in the stomach

177 All of these are true for Levodopa except :

a- precursor of dopa
b- Does not pass B.B.B.
 c- Effective in parkinsonism
d- Stimulate dopamine

178 Morphine & Morpin are similar in

29 179 Cytocin is

The conc. Of the drug on Exp. Date

180 is :
a- Not less than 100%
b- Not less than 90%
c- From 90-110%
d- Non of the above

181 If you have prescription contains Inderal and the pati

wheezing. What is your advice ?

182 Bioavailability means :

a- Rate
b- Extent
c- Rate & extent
d- Non of the above
 183 Pharmacokinetics means :
a- Effect of the body on the drug
b- Drug - receptor reaction
c- Non of the above

184 Surfactant not used orally

a- Tween
b- Spon
c- Na lauryl sulphate
30 d- B & C

18
5 Type 1 Diabetes. advise to use :
a- Insulin
B- Glibneclamide
c- a & b
c- Non of the above.

18
6 Type 11 Diabetes. advise to use :
a- Diet control
b- Insulin
c- Sulphonyl urea
d- All of the above
 18
7 One of the following is the main side effect of insulin
a- Hyperglycemia
b- Hypoglycemia
c- Fluid retention
C- All of the above

18 Pentobarbital differs from Phenobarbital

8 in :
a- Longer
b- Faster
C- Not use very much
d- a & b

18
9 Morphine & morpin are similar in :
a- Miosis
b- Addiction
C- Analgesic
31 d- All of the above

19
0 Theophyllin dose in children.
 a- Increased metabolism & dose must be increas
b- Decreased metabolism & dose must be increa
c- Decreased metabolism & dose must be decrea

191 Biotransformation
a- More lipid soluble
b- Less lipid soluble.

192 Phenylephrine is used for :

a- Decongestant
b- For runny nose
c-
Sympathomimetics.
d- All of the above.

193 Oxytocin produces all the following except :

a- Progestron release
b- Uterine
stimulation
c- Labor induction
d- Mammalian glands stimulation

194 Binding to the plasma protein , means :

a- Increase half life
32 b- Decrease half life.

195 New & best therapy for peptic ulcer is :

a- Antacid + H2 antagonist.
b- Use more than one H2 antagonist.
c- Four medicines including antibiotic.

196 In case of Osteoarthritis & peptic ulcer of elderly pa

a- Paracetamol
b- Strong NSAI
c- Aspirin

197 Give names of drugs that change the color of urine ?

1 Nitrofurantoin
2 Phenazopyridin
3 Rifampcin

198 The drug of choice for Febril Convulsion in children is

199 Cyproteron [ Androcur ] is used for :

200 Immunocompetent means ?

33

201 Immunocompromised means ?

202 Which of the following is not cardio-specific B blocke

a- Atenolol
b- Acebutolol
c- Satolol
d- Labetolol

203 Controled released drug delivery depends on :

a- Body fluid interaction
b- Enzymatic reactions
c- Ready programmed & no influece of the body
d- Stomach PH.

204 The conc. Of the drug on exp. Date is :

a- Not less than 100%
b- Not less than 90%
c- From 90 - 110%
d- Not of the above

205 Type 11 Diabetes. Advise to use :

 a- Diet control.
b- Insulin
c- Sulphonyl Urea.
34 d- All of the above.

206 All of these are antichlonergics except :

a- Atropine Sulphate
b- Hydro-atropine.
c- Mebeverine.
d- Iprotropium Bromide.
e- Butrepium
Bromide.

207 Pharmacokinetics means :

a-Effect of the body on the
drug.
b- Drug - Receptor
reaction
c- Non of the above.

208 Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used as :

a- Anti-histaminic
b- Anti-depressant
c- Anti-hypertensive
 d- Anti-emetic

209 Type 1 Diabetes. Advise to use :

a- Insulin
b- Glibneclamide
c- a & b
d- Non of the above.

210 Biotransformation
a- More lipid soluble
35 b- Less lipid soluble

Pentobarbital differs from Phenobarbital

211 in :
a- Longer
b- Faster
c- Not use very much
d- a & b

212 Which one of these can not be used in pain crisis :

a- Morphine
b- Naproxine
c- Codeine
d- Colchicin [ used mainly in gout pain ]
 213 All of the following are Ca ++ channel blockers except
a- Mesalamine
b- Verapamil
c- Cinnarzine
d- Amlodipine

214 One of the following is not used for Parkinson disease

a- Pergolide
b- Selegline
c- Amantadine
d- Disulfiram

215 All the following are ACE inhibitors except :

a- Captopril
b- Ramipril
c- Lisinopril
36 d- Isradipine

216 Quinidine Sulphate Is :

a- Anti-arrhythmic
b- Anti-malarial
c- Anti-hypertensive
d- a & b
217 All the following are used as Anti-tussive except :
a- Guaifenesin
b- Dextromethorphane
c- Codeine Phosphate
d- Morphine Hydrochloride

218 Nitrous Oxide is used in anaesthesia because :

a- It is non explosive & non inflammable
b- It induces rapid induction & rapid recovery
c- It is potent muscle relaxant
d- All of the above

219 All of the following have GIT upset except :

a- Phenytoin
b- Phenobarbiton
c- Ethosux - Pn 7 de
d- Benzodiazepam

220 A patient has a prescription of Erythromycin 500 mg

and you do not have this anti-biotic. You can phone t
change
it with :
a- Clarithromycin
 b- Amoxicillin
c- Clindamycin
37 d- Ampicillin

221 A child of 41 degrees centigrade, when his father ask

you must tell him to :
a- Go to hospital which is 30 m. distance.
b- Sponge by tap water and go to hospital.
c- Take 1 GM. Paracetamol
d- Go to home.

222 The patient under the prescribing drug.

when he comes to you , Then you must tell him :
a- All the drug side effects.
b- Some relatively side effects.
c- Another side effects.
d- Non of the above

223 A patient has a prescription of Enalpril + KCL,

what are you ask him ?
a- Any product of K do you need.
b- You take any other anti-hypertensive
c- You need syrup or tablets.
d- Not of all
 224 ACE inhibitors are used for the treatment of :
a- Asthma
b- Migraine
c- Hypertension
d- All of the above

225 New non sedative anti-histaminics act through :

a- H1 antagonist
b- H2 antagonist
c- Muscarinic receptors
38 d- B1 antagonist

226 All of the following are B antagonists except :

a- Salbutamol
b- Metoprolol
c- Nadolol
d- Atenolol

227 B agonist causes :

a-Increasing of Oxygen consumption
b- Increasing of ectotopic
effect
c- Increasing of inotopic effect
 d- All of the above

227 Atropine is used as pre-anaesthetic to :

a- Give skeletal muscle
relaxation
b- Decrease saliva
c- Treat the side effects of anesthesic.
d- Help the sleeping effect of anaesthetic

228 A patient weighing 10 kilograms is given a paracetamo

one teaspoon full every 4-6 hours.
you should call doctor and tell him that :
a- The dose is very high
b- The dose must not exceed 180 mg daily
c- The dose is not sufficient
d- There is no need to call the doctor.

229 Malignant hypothermia is usually a side effect of :

a- Anaesthesia
b- Azathropin
c- Phenytoin
39 d- Aspirin

230 The common side effect of Sulphonylurea is :

 a- GIT upset
b- Thyrotoxosis
c- Hypoglysuris
d- All of the above

231 Vasopressine is used for the treatment of :

a- Diabetes insipidus
b- Diabetes mellitus type 1
c- Diabetes mellitus type 2
d- Anti-hypertensive

232 Pseudomembraneous colitis is a side effect of :

a- Vancomycin
b- Clindamycin
c- Reserpine
d- INH

233 Phenobarbiton induces liver microsomal enzymes

when taken with Warfarin anti-coagulant leads to :
a- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes
so, decreasing the activity of Warfarin
b- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes
so, increasing the activity of Warfarin
c- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes
 so, decreasing the activity of Warfarin
c- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes
40 so, increasing the activity of Warfarin

234 Tetracycline, when taken with metals such as Calcium,

from a chelate which is :
a- Inactive & not absorbed
b- Active & poorly absorbed
c- Inactive & poorly absorbed
d- Active & absorbed

235 Disulfiram is used for :

a- Treatment of chronic alcohol dependence
b- Protection of liver cells from alcoholism
c- Prevention of conversion of acetaldehyde to a
d- All of the above

236 The drug transfer through the cell membrane by :

a- Aqueous diffusion
b- Osmotic pressure
c- Lipid dissolve
d- Non of the above

237 Protein bound drugs forming a compound which is :

 a- Inactive while the free part is active
b- Highly active while the free part is inactive
c- Less active while the free part is active
d- Active while the free part is more active

238 The drug metabolism in the body occurs in :

a- GIT & Plasma
b- Gut wall during absorption
c- Gut wall during absorption & in plasma stream
41 d- Liver , Kidney & bowel mucosa

239 Clonidine is used as :

a- A drug that prevents the recurrence of Migr
b- Anti-hypertensive acting centrally
c- a & b
d- Non of the above

240 Dolomol is :
a- Paracetamol with analgesic & anti-inflammato
b- Paracetamol with analgesic & without anti-inf
c- Non Paracetamol with analgesic & anti-inflamm
d- Non Paracetamol with analgesic & without ant

241 Metoclopramide gives its anti-emetic through :

 a- Peripheral action
b- Dopaminergic receptors
c- Muscarinic receptors
d- All of the above

242 Dobutamine is used as :

a- Parasympathomimetic
b- In cardiac surgery
c- Hypotensive agent
d- All of the above

243 The following are the indications of Diazepam except

a- Anti-Psychotic
b- Epelipsy
c- Analgesic
42 d- Hypnotic

244 The diuretic which is used with Captopril is :

a- Aldactone
b- Ethacrynic acid
c- Furosemide
d- Non of the above

245 The following drugs are used for the treatment of an

 a- Propranolol
b- Diazepam
c- Homatropine
d- Mebrobamate

246 All the following are macrolides except :

a- Clarithomycin
b- Roxithromycin
c- Erythromycin
d- Clindamycin

247 The main use of Metronidazole is :

a- Anti-amoebiasis
b- Anthelmintic
c- Anti-biotic
    d- Anti-malarial          
                   
ALL THE BEST & SUCCESS

43