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+ =0
p dV
V
p
dp
+
=0
dV
V
dV p
dp =
V
Now we know we can express :
force F as F = Ap (= Adp)
volume V as V = Al
the change in volume V as V = Ay (= dV )
F = Adp
dV p
= A
V
A2 yp
=
Al
Ap
=
y
l
Ap
y
ma =
l
Ap
a=
y
ml
We know a = 2 y
Ap
ml
r
Ap
=
ml
2 =
(b)
4
4
mass of ball;m = V = r3 =
3
3
2
2
volume of tube;V = lA = lr
2
0.02
0.012 = l
2
l 38.2m
0.02
2
3
(7600) 0.032kg
Using this:
r
=
Ap
s ml
0.02 2
2
(1.4)(101325)
= 36.5 = 6.04sec1
(38.2)(0.032)
2
2
T =
=
= 1.04 1sec
6.04
=
= A sin(t + ) satisfy
We want to show that x = A cos(t + ) and y = dx
dt
an ellipse equation.
2
2
Ellipse equation is given by: xa + yb = 1
In our case x = A cos(t + ) and y = dx
= A sin(t + )
dt
x2
x2
A2
y2
y2
2 A2
= A2 cos2 (t + )
= cos2 (t + )
= 2 A2 sin2 (t + )
= sin2 (t + )
Using:
sin2 (x) + cos2 (x) = 1
We can write:
x2
y2
+
=1
A2 2 A2
x 2 y 2
+
=1
A
A
as required.
the curve is an ellipse
(b) If we think of our ellipse in (a) in terms of a pendulum:
If we release the pendulum from the point 1, its velocity is 0 and it has
maximum (positive) displacement
When the pendulum goes through 2 it has maximum (negative, as it is
going in the negative direction) velocity and its displacement is 0
When the pendulum reaches 3 it has maximum (negative) displacement,
and 0 velocity
Finally, when the pendulum returns through 4 it will have maximum (positive) velocity, and again 0 displacement
We can see this corresponds to the points on the ellipse to the right
If we release the pendulum from the point 1, its velocity is 0 and it has
maximum (positive) displacement, as before.
When the pendulum goes through 2 it has its maximum (negative, as it is
going in the negative direction) velocity for that swing (although this is less
than the maximum velocity before due to damping) and its displacement
is 0
When the pendulum reaches 3 it has its maximum (negative) displacement
for this swing, but due to damping this displacement is not as great as the
original maximum displacement, and 0 velocity
When the pendulum returns through 4 it will have its maximum (positive)
velocity for this swing, which is less than the velocity when it went through
it on 2 , and again 0 displacement
Continuing in this vein we can see the graph that corresponds to this is a
curve spiralling into the origin.
3. Verify that x = Aet cos t is a possible solution of the equation
dx
d2 x
+
+ 02 x = 0,
2
dt
dt
and find and in terms of and 0 .
Given x = Aet cos t we differentiate it using the product rule to find its first and
second derivatives
dx
= Aet sin(t) Aet cos(t)
dt
d2 x
= 2 Aet cos(t) + Aet sin(t) + Aet sin(t) + 2 Aet cos(t)
2
dt
= (2 2 )Aet cos(t) + 2Aet sin(t)
To show its a solution we sub these derivatives back into the original equation to
obtain
(2 2 )Aet cos(t) + 2Aet sin(t) Aet sin(t) Aet cos(t)
+ 02 Aet cos(t) = 0
(2 2 + 02 )Aet cos(t) + (2 )Aet sin(t) = 0
For this to be true for all values of t the coefficients of the cosine and sine functions
must be 0. This means we must have that:
2 2 + 02 = 0
2 = 0
(1)
(2)
=
2
And using this in (1):
2 2 + 02 = 0
2
2 + 02 = 0
4
2
2
2 + 02
=0
4
2
2 = 02
4
r
2
4
q
and = 02
=
So x = Aet cos t is a solution when =
02
2
.
4
p
where = b/m and 0 = k/m.
Using our values for m and k from the question we can write:
b
b
=
m
0.2r
r
k
80
=
= 400 = 20
0 =
m
0.2
=
Q=
0
20
=
=1
20
2
= 2f = 2(256) = 512
T
0
512
=
= 2331.15
0.69
0
00
=2
= 2Q = 2(1331.15) = 4662.3
= E0 e(4)
e
1 = 4
1
=
4
Using = b/m:
1
b
=
4
m
m
0.1
b=
=
= 0.025
4
4
To find Q:
0
Q=
=
k 1
=
m
0.9 1
=
94 = 3(4) = 12
0.1 1/4
*(a) Show that the potential energy of the liquid is given by U = 58 gr2 y 2 .
*(b) Show that the kinetic energy of a small slice of liquid in the horizontal
arm (see the diagram) is given by
2
1
r2 dx
dy
dK =
.
2 (1 + x/`)2 dt
(Note that, if liquid is not to pile up anywhere, the product velocity
cross section must have the same value everywhere along the tube.)
(c) Using the result of part (b), show that the total kinetic energy of all
the moving liquid is given by
2
5
dy
1
2
.
K = r (` + h)
4
2
dt
(Ignore any nastiness at the corners.)
(d) From (a) and (c) calculate the period of oscillations of ` = 5h/2.
(a) Potential energy is U = mgh.
Narrow column (I) gains P.E while wider column (II) loses P.E. Since radii are
different to find height h that liquid is lifted we must find h on column (I) and h
on column (II), then their average. Since no liquid is displaced the volumes must
equal. Let x be the height the liquid goes down in column (II). The volumes are
VI = r2 y and VII = 4r2 x.
Equating the volumes we find that x = (1/4)y and therefore the average height is:
1 1
5
average =
y+y = y
2 4
8
Subbing this into the expression for the P.E gives U = mg(5/8)y.
We now find the mass of this piece of liquid. mass=density cross sectional area,
so m = r2 y and the potential energy is given by
5
U = gr2 y 2
8
(b) Told velocity cross section = constant everywhere. To find the cross section
we need the radius at each point.
r(x = 0) = r0 = r
r(x > 0) = rx = r(1 + x/`)
A(x = 0) = A0 = r2
A(x > 0) = Ax = r2 (1 + x/`)
dy
dx
= Ax
dt
dt
dx
A0 dy
=
dt
Ax dt
Kinetic energy is (1/2)mv 2 and the mass of dx = density volume = Ax dx, hence
the kinetic energy of dx is:
2
2 2
2
1
dx
A0
dy
A20 dy
1
1
dK = Ax dx
= Ax dx
= dx
2
dt
2
Ax
dt
2
Ax dt
2
2
(r2 )2
dy
dy
1
1 dxr2
= dx 2
=
2
2
2
r (1 + x/`)
dt
2 (1 + x/`)
dt
(c) Use kinetic energy is (1/2)mv 2 for columns (I) and (II) and integrate answer
of part (b) for x = 0 to x = ` to find kinetic energy of liquid in horizontal arm.
For column (I), x = 0 so velocity all in y direction.
2
dy
1 2 1
2
KEI = mv = r h
2
2
dt
Similarly for column (II)
KEII
1
1
= mv 2 = 4r2 h
2
2
dx
dt
2
,
1
1
= mv 2 = 4r2 h
2
2
2 2
1
dy
.
4
dt
(d) Use answers to parts (a) and (c) to find the total energy, the sum of potential
and kinetic.
1
E = KE + P E = m
2
dx
dt
2
1
+ kx2
2