HELICOPTER SYSTEMS

SECTION A
FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEMS

1. Helicopter primary control is accomplished by changing the

. Of the main or tail rotor blades.
2. Collective pitch not only changes the pitch angle of all blades in unison, but is
the primary means of controlling the of the
engine.
3. Engine and rotor r.p.m. is controlled by the
A. Collective
B. Antitorque pedals
C. Cyclic
D. Throttle
4. The cyclic pitch control is used to tilt the , thus inclining
the .
5. The cyclic inputs to a swash plate are 90 before the blade reaches the point of
required reaction due to
A. Translational lift.
B.
Gyroscopic precession.
C. Transverse flow effect.
D. Translating tendency.
6. On single rotor helicopters, manufactured in the U.S., rotor rotation is
when viewed from above.
7. The antitorque pedals are rigged to be near neutral while
A. In cruise flight.
B.
Hovering.
C. In an autorotation.
D. Making an approach.
8. On the 300CB applying left pedal pressure (decreases, increases) the
pitch angle on the tail rotor.
9. As the neutral position of the cyclic stick moves, the pressure can be relieved by
use of electric .
10.Friction controls are provided on the cyclic and collective sticks to provide
adjustable resistance to cont
11.rol m
12.ovements and reduce ..
13.On the tachometer, the short needle indicates
A. E
11223
B. ngine r.p.m.
C.
Tail rotor r.p.m.
D. Main rotor r.p.m.
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E. Transmission r.p.m
12.
The normal r.p.m operating range of the main rotor system is shown on the
tachometer by the 13 arc between radials.
. (True, False) When an engine equipped with a manifold pressure gauge
is not running, the gauge should indicate 0.
14.
. (True, False) manifold pressure is the primary power indicator in a
reciprocating engine helicopter.
15.
The term used to describe engines which are not equipped with
turbochargers is.
A. Nonturbocharged
B.
Normally aspirated
C. Inducted
D. Fuel injected

SECTION B
THE RECIPROCATING ENGINE AND RELATED SYSTEMS

1. The four strokes of an engine power cycle are , ..,

, and .
2. Detonation in a reciprocating engine is caused by
A. A mixture that is too rich.
B.
Defective spark plugs or ignition wiring.
C. An uncontrolled explosion of the fuel/ air mixture.
D. Hot spots in a cylinder that cause the fuel/ air mixture to ignite before
normal ignition.

3. Using a fuel grade that is lower than that specified for an engine will likely
result in
A. Detonation.
B.
The mixture being leaner than normal
C. Cylinder head and oil temperatures being lower than normal.
D. The engine producing more power and operating more efficiently.

4. If you suspect detonation during a climb out, the normal corrective action is
to
A. Lean the mixture.
B.
Apply carburetor heat.
C. Increase the rate of climb.
D. Reduce the power setting.

5. The uncontrolled combustion of fuel before normal ignition is known as

.
6. The main advantage of the dual ignition system is enhanced safety and
A. Improved engine performance.
B.
Quicker starting.
C. Lower cylinder head temperatures.
D. Reduced and more uniform pressure distribution.

7. If an engine continues to run after the ignition switch has been turned OFF, it
probably means that
A. Detonation is occurring.
B.
The mixture is too rich and the engine is dieseling
C. There is broken or disconnected ground wire in the ignition switch
D. Temperatures within the engine are too low and the fuel is burning
spontaneously.
8. .. (True, False) Turning the battery switch to the OFF position
deactivates both magnetos.
9. The engine oil systems performs two functions. It , the
engines moving parts and aids in.., the engine.
10.Your first action after starting the engine should be to
A. Perform the magneto check
B.
Engage the rotor
C. Visually clear the area of people and vehicles and call clear
D. Adjust the throttle to the proper r.p.m. and check for proper indications on
the engine gauges.
11.Most manufacturers recommend that you shut down the engine and have it
checked if the oil pressure fails to rise within ---------------- seconds.
12.A--------------------radial on the oil temperature gauge indicates the maximum
allowable temperature.
13.If engine oil temperature is abnormally high, it may be the result of
A. A plugged oil line.
B. Too much oil in the sump.
C. A dirty air filter
D. Operating the engine with a mixture that is too rich.
14.What is the major source for internal cooling of a reciprocating helicopter
engine?
A. A proper fuel/air mixture
B.
The circulation of lubricating oil.
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C. The circulation of engine coolant

D. A continuous flow of outside air across the cylinders
15.One method you can use to reduce engine temperature would be to
A. Increase manifold pressure.
B.
Reduce airspeed
C. Enrich the fuel/ air mixture
D. Select alternate air or carburetor heat.
16.If an engine is overheating in a climb, what action should you take to reduce
operating temperature?
A. Lean the mixture
B.
Increase power and climb speed
C. Decrease power and increase rate of climb
D. Decrease the rate of climb and increase airspeed
17.On the cylinder head temperature gauge, a -------- arc define the normal
operating range.
18.With turbo shaft engine helicopter, the pilot is normally relieved of constantly
monitoring and -------------------- engine r.p.m.

SECTION C
FUEL AND ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS

1. The most common fuel supply system in helicopters is the ------------------------- type.
2. A helicopter which has fuel tank lower than the engine usually has a fuel
system containing --------------- --------------.
3. The purpose of refilling the fuel tank following the last flight of the day is to
A. Prevent fuel expansion and venting of fuel overboard by reducing the air
in the tanks.
B. Cause any moisture or sediment to rise to the top of the tanks where it
can be drained.
C. Relieve pressure on the fuel lines in a gravity feed fuel system.
D. Prevent condensation of moisture by eliminating airspace in the tank
4. The primary purpose of the fuel tank vent system is to
A. Provide positive fuel pressure to the engine.
B.
Protect the fuel tank from damage during refueling.
C. Provide a method to drain moisture from the main fuel tanks.
D. Allow air pressure inside the tank to remain the same as that outside the
tank.
5. Fuel travels from the tank through a --------------- before it enters a carburetor.
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6. During the preflight inspection, the fuel strainer should be drained and
checked for the presence of -------------------7. Aircraft fuel induction systems consist of two types, ------------------- or
--------------- -----------.
8. The principle behind the operation of a float- type carburetor is based on the
A. Ram air compression of the fuel/air mixture.
B.
Automatic metering of fuel directly into the air intake manifold
C. Increased pressure in the venturi of the carburetor, caused by the
increased airflow.
D. Difference in pressure between the venturi throat and the air inlet.
9. When you lean the mixture you
A. Regulate the amount of fuel and air entering the carburetor.
B.
Regulate the amount of air entering the carburetor
C. Decrease fuel flow to compensate for decreased air density.
D. Automatically adjust the fuel/air ratio based on the throttle setting.
10.What conditions would you likely observe if you descend from a high altitude
without readjusting the mixture the mixture?
A. The engine will immediately run rough.
B.
Carburetor icing will cause a decrease in r.p.m.
C. The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
D. The fuel/air mixture will become excessively rich.
11.-------------- (True, False) Carburetor ice can occur only when outside air
temperature is below freezing.
12.Carburetor icing is possible with temperatures as high as -----------C.
13.Under what conditions should you anticipate carburetor ice?
A. Temperatures below freezing, regardless of the moisture content of the air.
B.
Temperatures between 38F and 100F and low humidity
C. Temperatures between 0F and 32F and low humidity
D. Temperatures between 0C and 21C and high humidity
14.Your first indication of carburetor ice will probably be
A. Engine roughness
B.
An increase in manifold pressure.
C. A decrease in engine r.p.m
D. A decrease in oil and cylinder head temperatures
15.When you apply carburetor heat, what change, if any, will occur in the fuel/
air mixture?
A. No change in the mixture
B.
An immediate leaning of the mixture
C. An immediate enriching of the mixture
D. An increase in the ratio of air going through the carburetor
16.In terms of engine power, using carburetor heat will result in
A. No change.
B.
A decrease in power.
C. An increase in power.
D. An increase in power only if the engine r.p.m. is below the green arc.
17.In a fuel injection system, the fuel ------------ ------------------- directs fuel evenly
to each cylinder.

18.Compared to a float type carburetor, a fuel injection system is considered to

be -------------- (more, less) susceptible to icing.
19.Using fuel of a lower grade than that specified by the engine manufacturer
causes
A. Excessively high oil pressure.
B.
Cooler operating temperatures at high altitude.
C. Excessively high oil temperature and pressure.
D. Cylinder head and oil temperatures to exceed normal operating limits.
Complete questions 20 through 23 by listing the color of the fuel
associated with each grade.
Grade

Color

20.80
------------------------21.100LL
------------------------22.100
-----------------------23.Turbine fuel -----------------------24.If the recommended grade of fuel cannot be obtained, most engine
manufacturers allow
A. Substitution of turbine fuel.
B.
Use of the next lower grade of fuel.
C. Substitution of the next higher grade of fuel.
D. Mixing the next lower grade of fuel with recommended grade, provided
the mixture contains at least half of the recommended grade.
25.If two grades of fuel are inadvertently mixed in a fuel tank, the resulting
mixture will look ----------------- (color).
26.Electrical energy is normally supplied by a ---------------- or -------------- volt
direct-current system.
27.-------- (True, false) An alternator has the advantage over a generator of being
able to produce a relatively constant power output.
28.---------- (True or false) An alternator first produces AC current which is then
changed to DC current for use in the electrical system.
29.The portion of the electrical system that distributes current to the various
electrical components on the aircraft is called a ---------- -----------------.
30.The main purpose of aircraft battery is to
A. Energize the engine starter.
B.
Continuously provide power to the main bus bar.
C. Provide standby electrical power if an alternator malfunctions.
D. Allow preflight inspection of the electrical components before you start the
engine.
31.In flight, a discharging ammeter means the electrical load is exceeding the
output of the
A. Battery.
B.
Battery charger.
C. Alternator.
D. Transformer rectifier unit.
32.If the alternator fails, the loadmeter- type ammeter will indicate
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A. Zero
B.
A slow discharge of the battery.
C. Normal load with a slow trend toward zero.
D. Normal load with a slow trend toward zero, followed by a full-scale
discharge.
33.---------------- (True, False) If an electrical overload causes a circuit breaker to
pop out, it can be reset only by a qualified avionics electrician.

SECTION D
POWER TRAIN SYSTEM

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.

A -------------------- unit allows the rotor systems to turn freely in the event of
engine failure.
A clutch is installed to relieve ------------- loads on the engine by
disconnecting it from the rotor system.
The belt drive clutch on the 300CB is engaged by the use of an electrically
controlled ------------------ ----------------------.
A --------------------- clutch uses shoes similar to those found on the brakes of
an automobile.
------------ (True, False) the prime purpose of the main transmission is to
reduce engine r.p.m. to the optimum rotor r.p.m.
The tail rotor transmission ---------------- (decreases, increases) r.p.m. from
the input shaft.
7

7.
8.

The tail rotor transmission is ---------------- lubricated.

The freewheeling unit allows the ---------------- to turn if the engine fails.

SECTION E
FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS

1.

2.

The angular difference between the true north pole and the magnetic
north pole is called
Deviation.
Agonic difference.
Variation.
Magnetic field.
Lines of equal magnetic variation are called ----------------------------- lines.

3.

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by

A.
B.
C.
D.

A. Turbulence.
B.
Faulty magnet bars in the compass.
C. The difference in location between true north and magnetic north.
D. Magnetic fields within the aircraft itself which distort the lines of magnetic
force.
4.
Using the compass correction card depicted below, a magnet heading of
270 requires a compass heading of -------------------.

5.
A.
B.
C.
D.

6.
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.

10.

In the northern hemisphere, the magnetic compass will initially indicate a

turn toward the east if you
Enter a left turn from a northerly heading.
Enter a right turn from a northerly heading.
Decelerate the helicopter while on a southerly heading.
Accelerate the helicopter while on a northerly heading.

The amount of lag or lead in the magnetic compass is approximately equal

to
The angle of bank used in the turn.
The latitude of the helicopters location.
The rate of turn used in the turn.
Of the true airspeed.
In the northern hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
a turn toward the south when you
Accelerate the aircraft while on an easterly heading.
Enter a right turn from a westerly heading.
Enter a left turn from an easterly heading.
Decelerate the helicopter while on a westerly heading.
During flight, when are the magnetic compass indications most accurate?
In all flight conditions
During constant airspeed operations
Only in smooth air during straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight
During unaccelerated turns that do not exceed a 12 angle of bank
The outside air temperature gauge depicted indicates -----------------C or
------------F.

International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) conditions include a sea level

temperature of ----------C and an atmospheric pressure of ------------- in. Hg.

11.
12.
13.
14.
15.

The standard temperature lapse rate for each 1,000-foot increase in

altitude is -----------C.
The only pressure differential instrument that uses impact, or ram, air
pressure is the ----------------- --------------.
The altimeter, airspeed, and vertical speed indicators all use
----------------air pressure.
Usually the only marking on a helicopter airspeed indicator is a red radial
designating the sea level ---------------- -------------- speed.
As altitude increases the VNE of a helicopter ------------------------ (decreases,
increases).

Match the following types of airspeeds with the associated definition.

16.
17.
18.
19.

Indicated airspeed (IAS) A. Actual speed of an aircraft over the ground

Calibrated airspeed (CAS) B. The airspeed you read directly from the
airspeed indicator
True airspeed (TAS)
C.
Indicated air speed corrected for
installation and instrument errors
Groundspeed (GS)
D.
Calibrated airspeed corrected for
altitude and nonstandard temperature

Use the accompanying altimeters to answer questions 20 through 22.

Altimeter
20.
21.
22.

A
B
C

Indicated Altitude
---------- ft.
--------- ft.
--------- ft.

Altimeter Setting

-------- in. Hg
-------- in. Hg
-------- in. Hg

Match the following types of altitudes with the associated definition.

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23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.

31.
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.
33.
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.
36.
37.
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.
39.
40.

Indicated altitude ----- A. Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard

temperature
Pressure altitude -------B. Actual height above mean sea level
Density altitude ------ C. the altitude you read directly from the altimeter
True altitude -------- D. The altitude displayed on the altimeter when you
adjust it to the standard pressure setting of 29.92 in. Hg
Absolute altitude ----E. Actual height of an aircraft above the surface
The primary reason for computing density altitude is to determine
------------ --------High density altitude -------------- (decreases, increases) aircraft
performance.
If you maintain the same indicated altitude while flying from an area of
high pressure to an area of low pressure without resetting your altimeter,
your true altitude will be -------------- (higher, lower) than your indicated
altitude.
What information does the vertical speed indicator provide?
Rate information only
Trend information only
Both rate and trend information
Trend information after six to nine seconds
The vertical velocity indicator indicates a ---------------- (climb, descent) of
---------- feet per minute.
If the Pitot tube is clogged, what instrument (s) is/are affected?
Altimeter only
Airspeed indicator only
Vertical speed indicator only
Altimeter and airspeed indicator
When the Pitot tube and the static port are clogged, what instrument (s)
is/are affected?
Altimeter only
Airspeed indicator only
Altimeter and airspeed indicator
Altimeter, airspeed, and vertical speed indicators
The characteristic of a gyro which causes slow drifting and minor
erroneous indications of gyroscopic instruments is known as -----------.
Gyroscopic instruments may be operated either by an
-------------------------------- or by a ---------------- system.
The attitude indicator senses movement about the helicopters
Longitudinal axis only.
Lateral axis only.
Lateral and vertical axes.
Lateral and longitudinal axes.
The attitude indicator is the only flight instrument that provides both
------------------- and ---------------- information.
The heading indicator should be checked and aligned with the magnetic
compass at least every ------------------ minutes.
A standard-rate turn is a change in heading of ------------------- per second.

11

41.

42.
43.

The portion of the turn-and-slip indicator or turn coordinator that consists

of a liquid filled curved tube with a ball inside is known as the
-------------------.
When the rate of turn is too slow for the angle of bank, the condition is
known as a -----------.
A turn coordinator provides an indication of
A. Aircraft movement about the vertical and longitudinal axes.
B.
Aircraft movement about the vertical and lateral axes.
C. The angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30.
D. Rate of turn, only if the turn is coordinated.

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