1.

Correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence (outermost) electron of Rubidium
(Z=37) is:
(1) 5, 0, 0, +
(2) 5, 1, 0, +
(3) 5, 1, 1, +
(4) 6, 0, 0, +
2. Which of the following complex species is not expected to exhibit optical isomerism?
(1) [Co(en)3]3+
(2) [Co(en)2Cl2]+
(3) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(4) [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]+
3. Which one of the following molecules is expected to exhibit diamagnetic behavior?
(1) C2
(2) N2
(3) O2
(4) S2
4. A compound with molecular mass 180 is acylated with CH 3COCl to get a compound
with molecular mass 390. The number of amino groups present per molecule of the
former compound is:
(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 6
5. Which of the following arrangements does not represent the correct order of the
property stated against it ?
(1) V2+ < Cr2+ < Mn2+ < Fe2+ : paramagnetic behaviour
(2) Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ < Mn2+ : ionic size
(3) Co3+ < Fe3+ < Cr3+ < Sc3+ : stability in aqueous solution
(4) Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn : number of oxidation states
6. Which of the following exists as covalent crystals in the solid state ?
(1) Iodine

(2) Silicon

(3) Sulphur

(4) Phosphorus

7. The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing 750 mL of 0.5(M) HCl with 250 mL of
2(M) HCl will be:
(1) 0.875 M (2) 1.00 M (3) 1.75 M (4) 0.975 M

8.

The values of four quantum numbers of valence electron of an element are n=4, l=0, m=0
and s=+1/2. The element is :
(1) K
(2) Ti
(3) Na
(4) Sc

9.

Which of the following statements is false?

1) Work is a state function.
2) Work appears at the boundary of the system.
3) Temperature is a state function.
4) Change in the state is completely defined when the initial and final states are specified.

10. Two moles of an ideal gas undergoes isothermal reversible expansion from 2L to 8L at
300 K. The enthalpy change of the gas is:
(1) 4.8 kJ
(2) 11.4 kJ
(3) zero
(4) -11.4 kJ

11. One mole of a non ideal gas undergoes a change of state(2.0 atm, 3.0 L, 95 K) to (4.0
atm, 5.0 L, 245 K) with a change in internal energy, U = 30 L atm. The change in
enthalpy (H) of the process in L atm is:
(1) 40.0

(2) 42.3
(3) 44.0
(4) not defined, because pressure is not constant.

12. The species which by definition has zero standard molar enthalpy of formation at 298 K
is:
(1) CH4(g)
(2) Br2(g)
(3) H2O(g)
(4) Cl2(g)

13. Which of the following statement is correct for electrolytic cell?

(1) Electrons flow from cathode to anode through the external battery.
(2) Electrons flow from cathode to anode within the electrolytic solution.
(3) Migration of ions along with oxidation reaction at anode and reduction reaction at
cathode.
(4) Migration of ions along with oxidation reaction at cathode and reduction reaction at
anode.

14. The total charge required for complete electrolysis is:

(1) 48250 C
(2) 96500 C
(3) 193000 C

(4) 24125 C

15. Which one of the following properties is not shown by NO ?

(1) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide
(2) Its bond order is 2.5
(3) It is diamagnetic in gaseous state
(4) It is a neutral oxide
16. The metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its salts
is :
(1) Cu
(2) Cr
(3) Ag
(4) Ca
17. In which of the following reactions H 2O2 acts as a reducing agent?
(a) H2O2 + 2H+ + 2e 2H2O
(b) H2O2 2 e O2 + 2H+
(c) H2O2 + 2e 2OH
(d) H2O2 + 2OH 2e O2 + 2H2O
(1) (a), (c)

(2) (b), (d)

(3) (a), (b)

(4) (c), (d)

18. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of an organic compound was digested by Kjeldahl
method and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 mL of M/10 sulphuric acid. The
unreacted acid required 20 mL of M/10 sodium hydroxide for complete neutralization.
The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is :
(1) 3 %
(2) 5 %
(3) 6 %
(4) 10 %
19. The equivalent conductance of NaCl at concentration C and at infinite dilution are C
and , respectively. The correct relationship between C and is given as :
(where the constant B is positive)
(1) C = - (B)C1/2
(2) C = + (B)C1/2
(3) C = + (B)C
(4) C = - (B)C
20. Which one is classified as a condensation polymer?

(1) Teflon

(2) Acrylonitrile

(3) Dacron

(4) Neoprene

21. The major organic compound formed by the reaction of 1, 1, 1 - trichloroethane with
silver powder is :
(1) 2 - Butyne
(2) 2 - Butene
(3) Acetylene
(4) Ethene
22. Which one of the following bases is not present in DNA?
(1) Cytosine (2) Thymine (3) Quinoline (4) Adenine
23. Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution, which one has the
smallest pKb value?
(1) (CH3)3N
(2) C6H5NH2
(3) (CH3)2NH (4) CH3NH2
24. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 . The specific conductance of the
solution is 1.4 S m-1. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280
. The molar conductivity of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in S m2 mol1 is:
(1) 5 103
(2) 5 102
(3) 5 104
(4) 5 103
25. The colour of light absorbed by an aqueous solution of CuSO 4 is
(1) orange-red

(2) blue-green

(3) yellow

(4) violet

26. The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is [a 0 is
Bohr radius]
2

(1)

h
2
2
4 ma0

(2)

h
2
2
16 ma 0

(3)

h
2
2
32 m a0

h
2
2
64 m a0

27. In allene (C3H4), the type(s) of hybridization of the carbon atoms is (are)
(1) sp and sp3

(2) sp and sp2

(3) only sp2

(4) sp2 and sp3

(4)

28. [Fe(en)2(H2O)2]2+ + en complex (X). The correct statement about the complex (X)
is:
(1) it is a low spin complex
(2) it is diamagnetic
(3) it shows geometrical isomerism
(4) (1) and (2) both
29. In Dumas method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL
of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage
composition of nitrogen in the compound would be
(Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)
(1) 14.45

(2) 15.45

(3)16.45

30. In the electrolytic refining of Zinc, ______.

(1) the impure metal is at the cathode.
(2) graphite is at the anode.
(3) acidified zinc sulphate.is the electrolyte.
(4) the metal ion gets reduced at the anode

(4) 17.45