NIZAMS INSTITUTE OF MEDICAL SCIENCES

Punjagutta, Hyderabad 500 082, A.P., India.

Set A
2012 DM Medical Oncology
Question Booklet
Entrance Examination for Admission to
Subject

Medical Oncology

24 June 2012

Marks 90

Time: 01 hr: 30 min

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1 of 25

Q1.

Regarding development of tolerance to the effects of morphine

A)
B)
C)
D)

Q2.

Which one of the following does not indicate high-risk myeloma

A)
B)
C)
D)

Q3.

tolerance develops to all effects in high doses

tolerance can develop to all effects with chronic usage
minimal or no tolerance develops to sedation
minimal or no tolerance develops to miosis

t (4;14)
hyperdiploidy
t (14;16)
13q deletion on conventional cytogenetics

The tumor seen in the following image is associated with which neurocutaneous

syndrome

A)
B)
C)
D)

tuberous sclerosis
neurofibromatosis type 1
neurofibromatosis type 2
von-HippelLindau disease

2 of 25

Q4.

BRCA1 gene is located on

A)
B)
C)
D)

chromosome 9
chromosome 10
chromosome 17
chromosome 13

Q5.
A patient's serological report reveals HBsAg +ve, HBeAg Negative, Anti HBe
+ve, anti HBc IgM negative, HBV DNA quantitative 19,00,000 IU/ml. The diagnosis
based on serology is
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q6.

In a carcinoma with unknown primary the most common histology seen is

A)
B)
C)
D)

Q7.

squamous cell carcinoma

neuroendocrine histology
well differentiated adenocarcinoma
poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma

What % of data is covered within 2 standard deviations of the mean

A)
B)
C)
D)

Q8.

chronic HBsAg carrier wild type

chronic HBsAg carrier with acute exacerbation
chronic HBsAg carrier with pre core mutation
HBV related acute viral hepatitis

40%
68%
95%
99%

Which of the following drugs has the highest emetogenic potential

A)
B)
C)
D)

busulphan
dacarbazine
bleomycin
rituximab

Q9.
Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities are associated with good
prognosis in a patient with acute myeloid leukemia
A)
B)
C)
D)

trisomy 8
t (8;21)
t (9;22)
del 5q

3 of 25

Q10.
to be

The cell of origin of the Reed- Sternberg cell in Hodgkin's Lymphoma is believed
A)
B)
C)
D)

Q11.

T cells
macrophages
NK cells
B cells

The cytogenetic abnormality seen in Ewings sarcoma is

A)
B)
C)
D)

t (8;14)
t (11;22)
t (9;22)
t (5;11)

Q12. Of the following pairs, identify the pair of anticancer drugs that have a common
mechanism of action
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q13.

Voriconazole is ineffective in the treatment of

A)
B)
C)
D)

Q14.

Paclitaxel - Procarbazine
Methotrexate - Cisplatin
Teniposide - Irinotecan
Etoposide - Idarubicin

candidiasis
aspergillosis
mucormycosis/zygomycetes
fusarium infection

Cox proportional hazard is

A)
B)
C)
D)

used for calculation of relative risk

used for calculating statistical sigificance of survival curves
provides age adjusted incidence rates
useful for comparing cancer data among various centres

Q15. The treatment of choice for superior vena cava syndrome due to Burkitt's
lymphoma is
A)
B)
C)
D)

chemotherapy
radiotherapy
vascular stenting
diuretics

4 of 25

Q16. There are many biases in a screening test, one of the bias in which patient is
merely diagnosed at an earlier date and survival appears increased, but life is not really
prolonged, but it only prolongs the time the subject is aware of the disease and spends as
a patient
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q17.

length biased sampling

lead time bias
selection bias
sample

True statement regarding Mantle cell lymphoma

A)
B)
C)
D)

it is a T cell lymphoma
most are gastric in origin
commonest association is with genetic translocations
distant metastases at presentation is common

Q18. The treatment of choice to prevent thrombosis in a patient with polycythemia vera
and a haemoglobin of 18g/dL is
A)
B)
C)
D)

low dose aspirin

Jak 2inhibitor (ruxolitinib)
periodic phlebotomy
hydroxyurea

5 of 25

Q19. In the diagram of a lymphnode shown below T lymphocytes are predominantly

located in

A)
B)
C)
D)
Q20.

Which of the following is not an observational study design

A)
B)
C)
D)

Q21.

primary lymphoid follicle

medulla
cortex
paracortex

case-control study
cohort study
randomised controlled Study
ecologic study

While compared to adult normal cells, cancer cells

A)
B)
C)
D)

produce lactate in the presence of oxygen

use greater fraction of nutrients for energy production
have lower glucose uptake
have lower rate of synthesis of amino acids

6 of 25

Q22.

Regarding use of Iridium192 in radiotherapy

Assertion: It is a source used for brachytherapy

Reason:It has a half life of 73.8 days
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation
for Assertion
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
Q23. A 26 year old lady came with the complaints of fever with altered sensorium and
reduced urine output of 1 week duration. On evaluation her hemoglobin was 7 gm/dl,
platelet count of 30,000/cu.mm with peripheral smear showing schistocytes.Serum
creatinine was 3mg/dl.Prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time were
normal. Enzyme most likely to be deficient in this situation is
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q24.

hexokinase
pyruvate kinase
ADAMTS 13
glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase

Treatment of herpes zoster resistant to acyclovir

A)
B)
C)
D)

penciclovir
valaciclovir
famciclovir
foscarnet

7 of 25

Q25.

The following figure is from a diagnostic test for a congenital disorder. Which

malignancy is most commonly seen in this disorder

A)
B)
C)
D)

acute myeloid leukemia

neuroblastoma
Burkitts lymphoma
Ewing's sarcoma

Q26. Which of the following monitoring is repeatedly done in a patient of breast cancer
on treatment with trastuzumab
A)
B)
C)
D)

pulmonary function tests for vital capacity

echocardiography for ejection fraction
chest CT scans for pulmonary fibrosis
ultrasound of the uterus for endometrial thickening

8 of 25

Q27. The following is the family tree of a 18 year college student whose six family
members were diagnosed with medullary cancer of thyroid and operated. He was found
to have a normal thyroid profile and calcitonin. What do you advise the patient now

A)
B)
C)
D)

observation
radio iodine ablation of thyroid
prophylactic thyroidectomy
mutation analysis for RET oncogene

Q28. A resident doctor inserted central venous catheter for a patient with hypotension
in the emergency medicine department. The cotton dressing stained with blood should
then be placed into
A)
B)
C)
D)

yellow plastic bag

red plastic bag
black plastic bag
white translucent plastic bag

Q29. Which of the following investigations when used for screening of high risk
individuals has been found to reduce mortality from lung cancer
A)
B)
C)
D)

sputum for occult blood

PET-CT scan
spiral CT scan
digital chest radiograph

9 of 25

Q30. Which of the following prehospital measures are acceptable in the care of a
patient with snakebite
A)
B)
C)
D)

application of splint to the bitten extremity

incision and application of suction to the bite site
application of ice or poultices
application of tourniquet

Q31. Which of the following events is most commonly reported following the initial
infusion of rituximab
A)
B)
C)
D)

elevated transaminases
bronchospasm
prolonged APTT
headache

Q32. A 20 year old girl presented with a bony swelling in the distal femur. The biopsy
revealed the following picture. The likely diagnosis is

A)
B)
C)
D)

osteosarcoma
Ewing's tumor
giant cell tumor
tuberculous osteomyelitis

10 of 25

Q33.

The picture shown below depicts

A)
B)
C)
D)
Q34.

high energy linear accelerator

orthovoltage unit
60 Co teletherapy machine
low energy linear accelerator

Regarding carcinoids which of the following statements is correct

A) bronchial carcinoids are associated with smoking

B) most carcinoids occur in children
C) most common presentation of intestinal carcinoid is GI bleeding
D) diagnosis of carcinoid syndrome relies on measurement of urinary or plasma
level of 5 HT or its metabolite , and urinary 5 - HIAA level

11 of 25

Q35.

Regarding second cancers in upper aerodigestive tract

Assertion: Patients cured of squamous cell cancers of the lung, esophagus, oral cavity,
and neck are at risk (as high as 50% per year) of developing second cancers of the upper
aerodigestive tract
Reason: "field carcinogenesis" hypothesis is smoking causes diffuse epithelial injury in
the oral cavity, neck, esophagus, and lung.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are True, and Reason is correct explanation for
assertion
B) Both Assertion and Reason are True, and Reason is not the correct explanation
for assertion
C) Assertion is True, but Reason is false
D) Assertion is False, but Reason is true
Q36.

Regarding bleomycin lung toxicity

Assertion : Patients with prior exposure to bleomycin should receive high flow oxygen
during surgical procedures
Reason: it causes pulmonary fibrosis.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation
for Assertion
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
Q37. Which of the following is the typical immunhistochemical pattern of the
neoplastic cell in a patient with Nodular Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's Lymphoma
A)
B)
C)
D)

CD15+, CD30+, CD20-ve, CD45 +

CD15-, CD30-, CD20+, CD45+
CD15+. CD30+, CD20+, CD45+
CD15-, CD30-, CD20-, CD45+

12 of 25

Q38.

Change/changes included as epigenetic

1. methylation of cytosine residues in CpG islands

2. modification of nucleotide sequence by mutation
3. modification of histone by acetylation
4. single nucleotide polymorphisms
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q39.

only 1,2 and 3 are correct

only 1 and 3 are correct
only 2 and 4 are correct
only 4 is correct

Ipilimumab is an inhibitor of
A)
B)
C)
D)

Ras
CTLA-4
C-raf
CD-30

Q40. Amplification of genomic material in which of the following chromosomes is

associated with hepatocellular carcinoma
A)
B)
C)
D)

1q
16q
13q
4q

Q41. A 50 year old man developed progressive increase of muscle stiffness, rigidity
and painful spasms triggered by auditory, sensory or emotional stimuli. Regarding this
clinical situation
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q42.

it persists during sleep

there maybe an underlying small cell lung cancer
antibodies to acetylcholine receptor are present in most patients
IV immunoglobulin provides benefit in the paraneoplastic syndrome

The material used for absorbing neutrons in a nuclear reactor is

A)
B)
C)
D)

cadmium
radium
uranium
zinc

13 of 25

Q43. Most common non ocular orbital tumor in young children presenting with
proptosis is
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q44.

Preferred treatment of hairy cell leukemia

A)
B)
C)
D)

Q45.

neuroblastoma
non-Hodgkins lymphoma
rhabdomyosarcoma
PNET

bendamustine
interferon alfa
pentostatin
cladribine

Which of the following is uncommon in Waldenstrom's Macroglobulinemia

A)
B)
C)
D)

elevated IgM
bone marrow infiltration
hypercalcemia
positive direct Coomb's test

Q46. Brentixumab vedotin a anti CD30 molecule has been found useful in phase 1
clinical trials for the treatment of which of the following
A)
B)
C)
D)

diffuse large B cell lymphoma

relapsed Hodgkin's Lymphoma
cutaneous T cell lymphoma
chronic myeloid leukemia

Q47. Drug B is investigated in a meta-analysis for its effect on mortality after acute
myocardial infarction. It is found that, when this drug is administered, the mortality
drops from 11% to 3%. How many patients will have to be treated with drug B to prevent
one death
A)
B)
C)
D)

3
11
12.5
24

14 of 25

Q48. A child aged one-and-half years presents with generalised rashes,

lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. The peripheral smear shows elevated leukocyte
count, thrombocytopenia and erythroblasts. Bone marrow shows a myelodysplastic
pattern with blasts less than 30% and philadelphia chromosome is absent. The most
probable diagnosis is
A)
B)
C)
D)

acute myelogenous leukemia

juvenile chronic myelogenous leukemia
hemo phagocytic syndrome
acute lymphatic leukemia

Q49. A 57 year old lady has pancytopenia: Hb- 8g/dl WBC - 3000/cmm, platelets
20000/cmm. Peripheral smear reveals macryocytic anemia. Bone marrow is
hypocellular. Following is least likely possibility
A)
B)
C)
D)

aplastic anemia
myelodysplastic syndrome
megaloblastic anemia
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobin urea (PNH)

Q50. Identify the incorrect pair among the following preventive agents and their target
in oncology trials
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q51.

beta carotene : lung

ascorbic acid: prostate
aspirin: colorectal
isotretinoin : head and neck

The earliest second malignancy after an allogenic stem cell transplant is

A)
B)
C)
D)

leukaemia
post transplant lymphoproliferative disorder
NHL
solid tumours

15 of 25

Q52.

In patients with diabetes and kidney disease

Assertion: Angiotensin converting enzyme blockers and angiotensin receptor antagonists

are the preferred over calcium channel blockers antihypertensives in patients with
diabetic nephropathy
Reason: Angiotensin converting enzyme blockers and angiotensin receptor antagonists
are more effective in lowering blood pressure in those with diabetes
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation
for Assertion
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
Q53. To call a sequence variation in the genome a polymorphism, it should occur in the
population at a frequency greater than
A)
B)
C)
D)

1%
0.1%
0.01%
0.001%

Q54. The term "extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB)" refers to isolates of

M.tuberculosis resistant to
A) streptomycin, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol and cycloserine
B) isoniazid, rifampicin, flouroquinolones and atleast one injectable second line
drug
C) pyrazinamide, isoniazid, ethambutol and atleast one injectable second line drug
D) streptomycin, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol and ethionamide

16 of 25

Q55.

The most common site of gastrointestinal stromal tumor is

A)
B)
C)
D)

stomach
small intestine
large intenstine
mesentry

Q56. Which laser is most commonly used in the treatment of carcinomas of the upper
aerodigestive tract
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q57.

Polyoma virus is linked to which of the following

A)
B)
C)
D)

Q58.

carbondioxide
argon
Nd:YAG
ruby

extra mammary Pagets ' Disease

kaposis's sarcoma
merkel cell carcinoma
adenoid cystic carcinoma

Characteristic histology of anthracycline toxicity is

A) conduction system fibrosis
B) pericardial fibrosis
C) myofibrillar dropout
D) myocardial necrosis

Q59. Which of the following side effect is a distinct feature of dasatinib compared to
imatinib
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q60.

cytopenias
pleural effusion
nausea
muscle inflammation

Regarding Malaria

Assertion: plasmodium vivax malaria is characterized by long term relapses

Reason: the latent erythrocytic stage lasts for several years
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correction explanation for
the assertion
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correction explanation
for the assertion
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
17 of 25

Q61.

The hallmark of serous borderline tumors with microinvasion is

A)
stroma
B)
C)
D)

the presence of tumor cells identical to the adjacent noninvasive tumor in the
absence of destructive stromal invasion
mitotic activity
atypia

Q62. Given below are schematic representation of radiographs of spine in normal and
an abnormal condition. The abnormal condition represents that of

A)
B)
C)
D)

osteosclerosis
osteolytic secondaries
osteoblastic secondaries
osteoporosis

18 of 25

Q63. A 40 year woman presented with a mass in the left thigh of 2 months 10 x 8 cm
size, firm to hard on palpation with engorged veins. Regional nodes were not enlarged.
HPE was consistent with a high grade sarcoma. She was operated for a lump in the left
breast 5years ago followed which she received chemo and radiotherapy. Her brother died
of a brain tumor at the age of 20 years. The most probable mutation involved would be
A)
B)
C)
D)

myc oncogene
p53
RET oncogene
p 16

Q64. A six year old child has presented with proptosis of 2 weeks duration. Biopsy
reveals - Small round cell tumor. For further characterization following immunohistochemistry (IHC) stains should be included
A)
B)
C)
D)

keratin, LCA, S-100

keratin, LCA, Myoglobin
LCA, Myoglobin, S-100
LCA, S-100, Keratin

Q65. Which of the following combinations of lung volume abnormalities are most
likely in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
A) decreased total lung capacity (TLC), decreased vital capacity (VC), decreased
residual volume (RV), increased FEV1/FVC ratio, normal maximum inspiratory pressure
(MIP)
B) normal TLC, normal residual volume RV, normal FEV1/FVC ratio, normal MIP
C) increased TLC, decreased VC, decreased FEV1/FVC ratio
D) decreased TLC, increased residual volume RV, normal FEV1/FVC ratio,
decreased MIP
Q66. Prior to planning therapy with rasburicase in the setting of tumor lysis syndrome
which of the following enzyme levels need to be measured
A)
B)
C)
D)

glucose 6-phosphate isomerase

glucose 6-phophate dehydrogenase
glutathione synthase
glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase

19 of 25

Q67.

Regarding Cancer and Venous Thrombo Embolism (VTE)

Assertion : Cancer increases the risk of VTE seven folds.

Reason : Factor I is expressed by tumor cells.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are True , and Reason is correct explanation for
assertion
B) Both Assertion and Reason are True , and Reason is not the correct explanation
for assertion
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
Q68.

Galactomannan assay is used for the diagnosis of

A)
B)
C)
D)

aspergillosis
mucormycosis
pneumocytsis Jercovii infection
gram negative bacterial infection

Q69. In which of the following group of patients is surveillance for hepatocellular

carcinoma (HCC) recommended
A)
B)
C)
D)

autoimmune hepatitis
alcoholic cirrhosis
non alcoholic steatohepatitis
anti-trypsin deficiency

Q70. Elements having same number of neutrons but having different mass numbers and
different atomic numbers
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q71.

isotopes
isotones
isobars
isodiaphers

Mechanisms of tumour associated hypoglycemia include/ includes

1. increased production of insulin by an islet cell tumour

2. hepatic dysfunction from liver metastases
3. increased production of insulin like growth factor
4. increased production of proinsulin
A)
B)
C)
D)

only 1, 2, and 3 are correct

only 1 and 3 are correct
only 2 and 4 are correct
only 4 is correct

20 of 25

Q72.

Which one of the following subtypes of melanoma has the worst prognosis
A)
B)
C)
D)

acral lentiginous
nodular
lentigo maligna
lentiginous

Q73. Which among the following chemotherapy agent is the treatment of choice in
patients with castration resistant prostatic cancer
A)
B)
C)
D)

mitoxanterone
estramustine
sipuleucel-T
docetaxel

Q74. Infection /infections that occur in the first 2 weeks after allogeneic stem cell
transplantation is/ are
1. gram positive bacterial sepsis
2. candida sepsis
3. herpes simplex virus disease
4. cytomegalovirus disease
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q75.

only 1, 2 and 3 are correct

only 1 and 3 are correct
only 2 and 4 are correct
only 4 is correct

Leucocoria is a sign of
A)
B)
C)
D)

neuroblastoma
retinoblastoma
rhabdomyosarcoma
cataract

21 of 25

Q76.

Regarding cryptococcal infection

1. lifelong maintenance therapy is recommended to prevent a symptomatic clinical

relapse in patients with HIV infection.
2. pulmonary cryptococccosis in an immunocompetent host always progresses to
disseminated cryptococcosis if not treated.
3. complications of central nervous system cryptococcosis include cranial nerve deficits,
vision loss and cognitive impairment.
4. the echinocandins , caspofungin and micafungin are highly effective against
cryptococcus species
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q77.

Which of the following processes does not occur during apoptosis

A)
B)
C)
D)

Q78.

only 1,2 and 3 are correct

only 1 and 3 are correct
only 2 and 4 are correct
only 4 is correct

shrinking of cytoplasm and condensation of nucleus

presentation of phoshatidylserine on outer surface of the cell
activation of cytoplasmic proteases, caspases
lysis of the cell membrane and release of cytoplasm and nuclear material

Which of the folowing drugs act by interfering with folate metabolism.

1. gemcitabine
2. pemetrexed
3. cytosine-arabinoside
4. methotrexate
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q79.

only 1,2 and 3 are correct

only 1 and 3 are correct
only 2 and 4 are correct
only 4 is correct

Regarding diagnosis of inflammatory carcinoma of breast

Assertion: It is best done by biopsy of breast lump

Reason: There is extensive involvement of dermal lymphatics
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation
for Assertion
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true

22 of 25

Q80.

Bosentan used for treatment of Pulmonary arterial hypertension is

A)
B)
C)
D)

Q81.

selective ET-A receptor antagonist

both ET-A and ET-B receptor antagonist
phosphodiesterase inhibitor
prostacyclin

The following pedigree is an example of what pattern of inheritance

A)
B)
C)
D)

X-linked dominant
X-linked recessive
autosomal recessive
autosomal dominant

Q82. Given below are the common cancer susceptibility syndromes. Match the correct
mutation most commonly involved with the syndrome
1
2
3
4

FAP (Familial adenomatosis polyposis)

Hereditary breast ovarian cancer syndrome
Li Fraumeni syndrome.
Hereditary papillary renal cancer.
A)
B)
C)
D)

A
B
C
D

MET gene
P53
APC gene
BRCA

1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B
1-C, 2-D, 3- A, 4-B

23 of 25

Q83. A 10 year old girl with her mother visited a pediatrician for a cervical cancer
vaccination, Pediatrician explained that in Quadrivalent cervical cancer vaccine one of
the following HPV strains is not included
A)
B)
C)
D)

6
10
16
18

Q84. Two important tumour suppressor genes inactivated by high risk Human
Papilloma virus are
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q85.

Multi drug resistant salmonella typhi infection is resistant to the following drugs
A)
B)
C)
D)

Q86.

p53 and Cyclin D1

p53 and RB
p53 and p21
Rb and p16

quinolones and chloramphenicol

chloramphenicol, ampicillin and trimethoprim
ciprofloxacin, ampicillin and ceftriaxone
nalidixic acid and chloramphenicol

Regarding use of tamoxifen in patients of ER positive metastatic breast cancer

Assertion: patients with CYP2D6 polymorphisms that reduce its activity, are associated
with higher risk of disease relapse.
Reason: Tamoxifen is metabolized in liver by CYP2D6 into inactive metabolites, 4-OH
Tamoxifen and endoxifen
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation
for Assertion
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
Q87.

Chloride diuresis is recommended prior to cisplatin administration as it prevents

A)
B)
C)
D)

renal toxicity
hearing loss
tinnitus
vomiting

24 of 25

Q88. Which of the following parasitic infections is not associated with increased risk of
malignancy
A)
B)
C)
D)

clonorchis sinensis
cryptosporidiosis
schistosoma hematobium
opisthorchis viverrini

Q89. A 30 year old patient presented with 2 years history of anosmia followed by
decreased visual acuity in both eyes of 1 year duration with mild memory disturbances
and behavioural changes of apathy and irritability. On fundoscopic examination he had a
pale white optic disc on left side with reduced vessels and on right side the optic disc
showed blurred margins with engorged veins and haemorrhages.The most likely
diagnosis is
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q90.

pituitary macroadenoma
olfactory groove meningioma
lymphoma
optic nerve glioma

The drug that causes mitotic spindle arrest is

A)
B)
C)
D)

doxorubicin
dactinomycin
vincristine
mitomycin

25 of 25