1. A network that needs human beings to manually route signals is called....

A) Fiber Optic Network

B) Bus Network

C) T-switched network

D) Ring network

2. TCP/IP ................. layer corresponds to the OSI models to three layers.

A) Application
C) Session

B) Presentation
D) Transport

3. Which of the transport layer protocols is connectionless?

A) UDP

B) TCP

C) FTP

D) Nvt

4. Which of the following applications allows a user to access and change remote
files without actual transfer?
A) DNS

B) FTP

C) NFS

D) Telnet

5. The data unit in the TCP/IP layer called a .....

A) Message

B) Segment

C) Datagram

D) Frame

6. DNS can obtain the ................. of host if its domain name is known and vice
versa.
A) Station address

B) IP address

C) Port address

D) Checksum

7. Which of the following OSI layers correspond to TCP/IP's application layer?

A) Application

B) Presentation

C) Session

D) All of the above

8. Devices on one network can communicate with devices on another network via
a .......
A) File Server

B) Utility Server

C) Printer Server

D) Gateway

9. A communication device that combines transmissions from several I/O devices

into one line is a
A) Concentrator
C) Multiplexer

B) Modifier
D) Full duplex file

10. Which layers of the OSI determines the interface often system with the user?
A) Network

B) Application

C) Data link

D) Session

11. Which of the following of the TCP/IP protocols is the used for transferring files
from one machine to another?
A) FTP
B) SMTP

C) SNMP
D) Rpe

12. In which OSI layers does the FDDI protocol operate?

A) Physical

B) Data link

C) Network

D) A and B

13. In FDDI, data normally travel on ..................

A) The primary ring

B) The Secondary ring

C) Both rings

D) Neither ring

14. The ............layer of OSI model can use the trailer of the frame for error
detection.
A) Physical

B) Data link

C) Transport

D) Presentation

15. In a ................topology, if there are n devices in a network, each device has n-1
ports for cables.
A) Mesh

B) Star

C) Bus

D) Ring

16. Another name for Usenet is

A) Gopher

B) Newsgroups

C) Browser

D) CERN

17. The standard suit of protocols used by the Internet, Intranets, extranets and
some other networks.
A) TCP/IP
C) Open system

B) Protocol
D) Internet work processor

18. State whether the following is True or False.

i) In bus topology, heavy Network traffic slows down the bus speed.

ii) It is multipoint configuration.

A) True, True

B) True, False

C) False, True

D) False, False

19. Which of the following is the logical topology?

A) Bus

B) Tree

C) Star

D) Both A and B

20. Which of the following is/ are the drawbacks of Ring Topology?
A) Failure of one computer, can affect the whole network
B) Adding or removing the computers disturbs the network activity.
C) If the central hub fails, the whole network fails to operate.
D) Both of A and B

Answers:
1. C) T-switched network
2. A) Application
3. A) UDP
4. C) NFS
5. D) Frame
6. B) IP address
7. D) All of the above
8. D) Gateway
9. C) Multiplexer
10. B) Application
11. A) FTP
12. D) A and B
13. A) The primary ring
14. A) Physical
15. A) Mesh
16. B) Newsgroups
17. A) TCP/IP
18. A) True, True

19. C) Bus
20. D) Both of A and B
1. The computer network is
A) Network computer with cable
B) Network computer without cable
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
2. FDDI used which type of physical topology?
A) Bus
B) Ring
C) Star
D) Tree

3. FTP stands for

A) File transfer protocol
B) File transmission protocol
C) Form transfer protocol
D) Form transmission protocol

4. Ethernet system uses which of the following technology.

A) Bus
B) Ring
C) Star
D) Tree
5. Which of the following are the network services?
A) File service
B) Print service
C) Database service
D) All of the above
6. If all devices are connected to a central hub, then topology is called
A) Bus Topology
B) Ring Topology
C) Star Topology
D) Tree Topology
7. FDDI stands for
A) Fiber Distributed Data Interface
B) Fiber Data Distributed Interface
C) Fiber Dual Distributed Interface
D) Fiber Distributed Data Interface
8. Which of the following is an application layer service?

A) Network virtual terminal

B) File transfer, access and management
C) Mail service
D) All of the above
9. Which is the main function of transport layer?
A) Node to node delivery
B) End to end delivery
C) Synchronization
D) Updating and maintaining routing tables
10. The ............ layer change bits onto electromagnetic signals.
A) Physical
B) Transport
C) Data Link
D) Presentation
Answers:
1.

C) Both of the above

2.

B) Ring

6.

C) Star Topology

3.

A) File transfer protocol

7.

A) Fiber Distributed... Interface

4.

A) Bus

8.

C) Mail service

5.

D) All of the above

9.

B) End to end delivery

10. A) Physical
1. In mesh topology, relationship between one device and another is ..............
A) Primary to peer
B) Peer to primary
C) Primary to secondary
D) Peer to Peer
2. The performance of data communications network depends on ..............
A) Number of users
B) The hardware and software
C) The transmission
D) All of the above

3. Find out the OSI layer, which performs token management.

A) Network Layer
B) Transport Layer
C) Session Layer
D) Presentation Layer
4. The name of the protocol which provides virtual terminal in TCP/IP model is.
A) Telnet
B) SMTP
C) HTTP

5. The layer one of the OSI model is

A) Physical layer
B) Link layer
C) Router layer
D) Broadcast layer
6. What is the name of the network topology in which there are bi-directional links between each
possible node?
A) Ring
B) Star
C) Tree
D) Mesh
7. What is the commonly used unit for measuring the speed of data transmission?
A) Bytes per second
B) Baud
C) Bits per second
D) Both B and C
8. Which of the communication modes support two way traffic but in only once direction of a time?
A) Simplex
B) Half-duplex
C) Three - quarter's duplex
D) Full duplex
9. The loss in signal power as light travels down the fiber is called .............
A) Attenuation
B) Propagation
C) Scattering
D) Interruption
10. Which of the following TCP/IP protocols is used for transferring files form one machine to another.
A) FTP
B) SNMP
C) SMTP
D) RPC
Answers:

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

D) Peer to Peer
D) All of the above
C) Session Layer
A) Telnet
A) Physical layer

6. D) Mesh
7. B) Baud
8. B) Half-duplex
9. A) Attenuation
10. A) FTP

1. Which of the following is not the layer of TCP/IP protocol?

A) Application Layer
B) Session Layer

C) Transport Layer
D) Internetwork layer
2. ................... address use 7 bits for the <network> and 24 bits for the <host> portion of the IP
address.
A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Class C
D) Class D

3. ............. addresses are reserved for multicasting.

A) Class B
B) Class C
C) Class D
D) Class E
4. State the following statement is true or false.
i) In class B addresses a total of more than 1 billion addresses can be formed.
ii) Class E addresses are reserved for future or experimental use.
A) True, False
B) True, True
C) False, True
D) False, False
5. Which of the following statement is true?
i) An address with all bits 1 is interpreted as all networks or all hosts.
ii) The class A network 128.0.0.0 is defined as the loopback network.
A) i only
B) ii only
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
6. Which is not the Regional Internet Registers (RIR) of the following?
A) American Registry for Internet Numbers (ARIN)
B) Europeans Registry for Internet Numbers (ERIN)
C) Reseaux IP Europeans (RIPE)
D) Asia Pacific Network Information Centre (APNIC)
7. Match the following IEEE No to their corresponding Name for IEEE 802 standards for LANs.
i) 802.3

a) WiFi

ii) 802.11

b) WiMa

iii) 802.15.1

c) Ethernet

iv) 802.16

d) Bluetooth

A) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a

B) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
C) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

D) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a

8. ........... was the first step in the evolution of Ethernet from a coaxial cable bus to hub managed,
twisted pair network.
A) Star LAN
B) Ring LAN
C) Mesh LAN
D) All of the above
9. ............... is the predominant form of Fast Ethernet, and runs over two pairs of category 5 or
above cable.
A) 100 BASE-T
B) 100 BASE-TX
C) 100 BASE-T4
D) 100 BASE-T2
10. IEEE 802.3ab defines Gigabit Ethernet transmission over unshielded twisted pair (UTP) category 5,
5e or 6 cabling known as ....................
A) 1000 BASE-T
B) 1000 BASE-SX
C) 1000 BASE-LX
D) 1000 BASE-CX
Answers:

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

B) Session Layer
A) Class A
C) Class D
B) True, True
A) i only

6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

B) Europeans ..... (ERIN)

C) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
A) Star LAN
B) 100 BASE-TX
A) 1000 BASE-T

Q. 1 . is an important factor of management information system.

A) System
B) Data
C) Process
D) All
Q.2 Which are the following is / are the level(s) of documentation?
A) Documentation for management
B) Documentation for user
C) Documentation for data processing department
D) All of the above

Q.3 .. level supply information to strategic tier for the use of top management.
A) Operational
B) Environmental
C) Competitive
D) Tactical

Q.4 In a DFD external entities are represented by a

A) Rectangle
B) Ellipse
C) Diamond shaped box
D) Circle
Q.5 can be defined as data that has been processed into a form that is meaningful to the
recipient and is of real or perceive value in current or prospective decisions.
A) System
B) Information
C) Technology
D) Service
Q.6 Use the new system as the same time as the old system to compare the results. This is known as

A) Procedure Writing
B) Simultaneous processing
C) Parallel Operation
D) File Conversion
Q.7 Decision making model was proposed by .
A) Harry Goode
B) Herbert A Simon
C) Recon Michal
D) None of this
Q.8 A data flow can
A) Only emanate from an external entity
B) Only terminate in an external entity
C) May emanate and terminate in an external entity
D) May either emanate or terminate in an external entity but not both
Q. 9 can be defined as most recent and perhaps the most comprehensive technique for
solving computer problems.
A) System Analysis
B) System Data
C) System Procedure
D) System Record
Q.10 SDLC stands for
A) System Development Life Cycle
B) Structure Design Life Cycle
C) System Design Life Cycle
D) Structure development Life Cycle

Answers:

1.

A) System

2.

D) All of the above

6.

C) Parallel Operation

3.

D) Tactical

7.

B) Herbert A Simon

4.

A) Rectangle

8.

C) May emanate and entity

5.

B) Information

9.

A) System Analysis

10. A) System Development Life Cycle

. Q.1 is a sort of blueprint of the system Development Effort.

A) MDP
B) DMP
C) MPD
D) DPM
Q. 2 Data store in a DFD represents.
A) a sequential file
B) a disk store
C) a repository of data
D) a random access memory

Q.3 system consists of programs, data files and documentation

A) Conceptual
B) Logical
C) Physical
D) None of the above
Q.4 is a good example of deterministic system.
A) Life cycle
B) Computer Program
C) Software Program
D) None of the above
Q.5 The main ingredient of the report documenting the is the cost benefit analysis.
A) System Analysis
B) Feasibility Study
C) System Analyst
D) System Design
Q.6 A data flow can
A) Only a data store
B) Only leave a data store
C) Enter or leave a data Store
D) Either enter or leave a data store but not both
Q.7 Changing the relationship with and services provided to customers in such a way that they will
not think of changing suppliers is called .
A) Lock in customers
B) Lock out customers

C) Lock in competitors
D) Lock out competitors
Q.8 can be defined as data that has been processed into a form that is meaningful to the
recipient and is of real or perceived value in current or prospective decisions.
A) Information
B) Data collection
C) Internal data
D) Sample data
Q.9 Increased volume of sales is an example of .. Benefit. Reduction of bad debts is an
example of ..
A) Tangible, Intangible
B) Tangible, Tangible
C) Intangible, Tangible
D) Intangible, Intangible
Q.10 A data cannot flow between a store and
i) a store

ii) a process

iii) an external entity

A) i and iii
B) i and ii
C) ii and iii
D) ii
Answers:
1.

A) MDP

2.

C) a repository of data

6.

C) Enter or leave a data Store

3.

C) Physical

7.

A) Lock in customers

4.

B) Computer Program

8.

A) Information

5.

B) Feasibility Study

9.

D) Intangible, Intangible

10. A) i and iii

Q.1 A system in no more than idea.
A) Conceptual
B) Logical
C) Physical
D) None
Q.2 Design Phase consists of .
1.

Identity the functions to be performed

2.

Design the input/output and file design

3.

Defining basic parameters for system design

A) 1 & 2
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 3
D) 1, 2 & 3

Q.3 A context diagram

A) Describes the context of a system
B) is a DFD which gives an overview of the system
C) is a detailed description of a system
D) is not used in drawing a detailed DFD
Q. 4 HIPO stand for
A) Hierarchy input process output
B) Hierarchy input plus output
C) Hierarchy plus input process output
D) Hierarchy input output Process
Q.5 Statement of scope and objectives, opportunities and performance criteria .
A) Problem definition
B) System analysis
C) System Design
D) Documentation
Q.6 Information can be categorized into .
1.

Environmental information

2.

Competitive information

3.

Government information

4.

Internal information

A) 1, 2 & 3
B) 1, 2 & 4
C) 2, 3 & 4
D) 1, 3 & 4
Q.7 System Development process is also called as ..
A) System Development Life Cycle
B) System Life Cycle
C) Both A and B
D) System Process Cycle
Q.8 The output of problem definition stage is ..
A) Master Development Plan
B) Terms of reference
C) Feasibility report
D) Final product
Q.9 Advantages of system flowcharts .
A) Effective communication
B) Effective analysis
C) Queasier group or relationships
D) All A, B, C

Q.10 Based on the identification of objectives, input, output and file content, the vital document is
called
A) System Definition
B) System Document
C) System Requirement Document
D) System Subject
Q.11 A context diagram is used
A) as the first step in developing a detailed DFD of a system
B) in systems analysis of very complex systems
C) as an aid to system design
D) as an aid to programmer
Q.12 Which of the following is/are the sources for project requests?
A) Request from Department managers
B) Request from senior executives
C) Request from system Analyst
D) All of the above
Q.13 DDS stands for
A) Data Data Systems
B) Data Digital System
C) Data Dictionary Systems
D) Digital Data Service
Q.14 .. Phase is a time consuming phase and yet a very crucial phase
A) Feasibility Study
B) Requirement Phase
C) Analysis Phase
D) Testing Phase
Q.15 A DFD is normally leveled as
A) It is a good idea in design
B) It is recommended by many experts
C) it is easy to do it
D) It is easier to read and understand a number of smaller DFDs than one large DFD
Q.16 . is responsible for all aspects of data processing, operation research, organization and
method, system analysis and design investments.
A) Management Services Director
B) Data Processing Manager
C) Computer Manager
D) Both B and C
Q.17 is a tabular method for describing the logic of the decisions to be taken.
A) Decision tables

B) Decision tree
C) Decision Method
D) Decision Data
Q.18 In system the interaction between various subsystems cannot be defined with
certainty
A) Open System
B) Closed System
C) Deterministic System
D) Probabilistic System
Q. 19 State True or False.
1.

Term of reference is the final output of Feasibility Study

2.

Design specification report is the final output of System Analysis

A) 1-true, 2-true
B) 1-false, 2-true
C) 1-true, 2-false
D) 1-false, 2-false
Q.20 The key considerations involved in the feasibility analysis is include
i) Economical

ii) Technical

iii) Behavioral

iv) Personal

A) i, ii, iv
B) i, ii, iii
C) ii, iii, iv
D) All of the above
Answers:
1.

A) Conceptual

11. A) as the first step ... DFD of a system

2.

D) 1, 2 & 3

12. D) All of the above

3.

B) is a DFD which .... of the system

13. C) Data Dictionary Systems

4.

A) Hierarchy input process output

14. C) Analysis Phase

5.

A) Problem definition

15. D) It is easier to ..... one large DFD

6.

B) 1, 2 & 4

16. A) Management Services Director

7.

A) System Development Life Cycle

17. A) Decision tables

8.

B) Terms of reference

18. D) Probabilistic System

9.

D) All A, B, C

19. D) 1-false, 2-false

10. B) System Document

20. B) i, ii, iii

62. Consider the fractional knapsack instance n=4, (p1,p2,p3,p4) = (10,10,12,18)

(w1,w2,w3,w4)=(2,4,6,9) and M=15. The maximum profit is given by,
(Assume p and w denotes profit and weights of objects respectively).
(A)40
(B)38
(C)32
(D)30
Ans:-B

Explanation:Knapsack problem can be solved either using Greedy approach or through Dynamic
programming.
using the Greedy approach. It has been proved that for the knapsack problem using
greedy method we always get the optimal solution provided the objects are
arranged in decreasing order of pi/wi. So, before solving the problem, let us arrange
all the objects in decreasing order of pi/wi.
Capacity of the knapsack M = 15
Number of objects = 4
Profits(p1,p2,p3,p4)=(10,10,12,18)
Weights(w1,w2,w3,w4)=(2,4,6,9)
To get the solution arrange objects in decreasing order of profit/weights as shown
below.
p1/w1=10/2 =5
p2/w2=10/4=2.5
p3/w3=12/6=2
p4/w4=18/9=2
Arrange in decreasing order of pi/wi, we get
Object

Weight

Profit

Pi/wi

10

10

2.5

12

18

The fractions of the objects selected and the profit we get can be computed as
shown below:
Remaining
Capacity

Object
selected

Weight of the
object

Fraction of the object

selected

15

1 full unit

15-2=13

1 full unit

13-4=9

1 full unit

9-6=3

3/9 or 1/3 fraction of unit

So, the solution vector will be=(1,1,1,1/3)

Profits=1 X 10 + 1 X 10 + 1 X 12 + 1/3 X 18
Profits=10+10+12+6
Profits=20+18
=38
So the correct answer will be 38. The maximum profit is given by option (B) which
is 38.

Solve the following problem and see.

I. Obtain the optimal solution for the knapsack problem given the following:
M=40,n=3, (p1,p2,p3)=(30,40,35) and (w1,w2,w3)=(20,25,10).
. The answer for the above problem is 82.5
TYPES OF GRAMMAR
A grammar G is 4-tuple or quadruple G=(V,T,P,S) where
V is set of variables or non-terminals.
T is set of terminals.
P is set of productions.
S is the start symbol.
Each production is of the form -> where is a non empty string of terminals
and/or non-terminals and is string of terminals and/or non-terminals including the
null string. This grammar is also called as phase-structure grammar.
CHOMSKY HIERARCHY
Phase-structure grammars may be classified according to their productions. The
following table would help you understand with the classifications.

S.n
TYPE
o

NAME

PRODUCTI
RESTRICTION
ON RULE

MACHINE
LANGUAGE
WHICH
GENERATED RECOGNIS
ES

Type 0
Unrestricte
gramma
->
d grammar
r

type o
No restriction on
language or
length of and
recursively
. cannot be
enumerable
epsilon
language

Turing
machine

Type 1 Context
gramma sensitive
r
grammar

->

Type 1
Length of must
language or
be atleast as
context
much as the
sensitive
length of
language

Linear
Bounded
automata

Type 2 Context
gramma free
r
grammar

A->

The symbol
epsilon can
appear on the
right side of any
production.

Pushdown
automaton

type 2
language or
context free
language

Type 3
A->wB
Regular
Regular
Finite state
gramma
and/or Agrammar
language
automaton
r
>w
Following are the questions from previous NET exams on the above topic.
DECEMBER 2006
JUNE 2005
JUNE 2010
32. Which of the following is the most general phase-structure grammar?
A)Regular B)Context-sensitive
C)Context free
4

D)Syntax tree or D) None of these

Ans:-B
Explanation:- The above question has appeared in more than 3 previous papers. The
right answer is Context-sensitive grammar.
DECEMBER 2007
3) A context free grammar is :
A)type 0
B)type 1
C)type 2
Ans:- C
DECEMBER 2009
34). Context free grammar(CFG) can be recognised by
A)Finite state automaton
B)2-way linear bounded automata
C)Push down automata
D)Both B & C
Ans:- C
JUNE 2013 - PAPER III - QNo. 39
Match the following :
a. Context sensitive language
i. Deterministic finite automation
b. Regular grammar
ii. Recursive enumerable
c. Context free grammar
iii. Recursive language
d. Unrestricted grammar
iv. Pushdown automation
Ans:Unrestricted grammar is Recursive enumerable which is also type 0.
Context free grammar is recognised by pushdown automation
Regular grammar is recognised by Deterministic finite automation
Context sensitive language would be recursive language which is also type 1
grammar.
17. Assume that a program will experience 200 failures in infinite time. It has now experienced
100 failures. The initial failure intensity was 20 failures/CPU hr. Then the current failure intensity
will be
(A) 5 failures/CPU hr
(B) 10 failures/CPU hr.
(C) 20 failures/CPU hr
(D) 40 failures /CPU hr
Ans:- B
Explanation:- The formula for Current Failure Intensity =
Initial Failure intensity X [ 1 Experienced failures/Failures in infinite time ]
= 20 X [ 1 100/200 ]
=20 X (100/200)
=10 failures /CPU hr

18. Consider a project with the following functional units :

Number of user inputs = 50
Number of user outputs = 40
Number of user enquiries = 35
Number of user files = 06
Number of external interfaces = 04
Assuming all complexity adjustment factors and weighing factors as average, the function points
for the project will be
(A)135
(B)722
(C)675
(D)672
Ans:Explanation:Measurement parameter

Count

Weighting Factor(Average)

Total

Number of user inputs

50

=200

Number of user outputs

40

=200

Number of user enquiries

35

=140

Number of user files

10

=60

Number of external interfaces

=28

Functon point (FP) = count total X (0.65 + 0.01 X S(fi))

= 628 X (0.65 + .01 X 30)
= 596.6
There is no option like that given. So I am not choosing anything.

The weighting factors of Simple project are 3,4,3,7,5

The weighting factors of Complex project are 6,7,6,15,10
Formula for Function point (FP for Simple project)= count total X (0.65+0.01 X 22)
Formula for Function point (FP for Complex project)= count total X (0.65+0.01 X 44)

TRY OUT THE FOLLOWING PROBLEMS

1. Compute the function point value for a project with the following information domain
characteristics
Number of user inputs : 23
Number of user output : 60
Number of user enquiries : 24
Number of files : 10
Number of external interface : 05
Assume that all complexity adjustment values are average.
Ans : - 591.85
2. Compute the function point value for a project with the following information domain
characteristics.
Number of user inputs : 28
Number of user outputs : 50
Number of user enquiries : 42
Number of files : 07
Number of external interface : 03
Assume that all complexity adjustment values are simple.
Ans:- 412.38
1. Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model?
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Incremental Model
c) Concurrent Development Model
d) Spiral Model
e) All are Evolutionary Software Models
View Answer
Answer:e
Explanation: None.
2. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
b) Linear Model & RAD Model
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation: Each linear sequence produces a deliverable increment of the software and
particularly when we have to quickly deliver a limited functionality system.
3. What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?
a) Customer can respond to each increment
b) Easier to test and debug
c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
d) Both b & c
View Answer

Answer:d
Explanation: Incremental Model is generally easier to test and debug than other methods of
software development because relatively smaller changes are made during each iteration and is
popular particularly when we have to quickly deliver a limited functionality system.However,
option a can be seen in other models as well like RAD model,hence option d answers the
question.
4. The spiral model was originally proposed by
a) IBM
b) Barry Boehm
c) Pressman
d) Royce
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation: None.
5. The spiral model has two dimensions namely _____________ and ____________.
a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular
d) diagonal, perpendicular
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation: The radial dimension of the model represents the cumulative costs and the angular
dimension represents the progress made in completing each cycle. Each loop of the spiral from
X-axis clockwise through 360o represents one phase.
6. How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from Spiral Model?
a) It defines tasks required to define resources, timelines, and other project related information.
b) It defines a set of negotiation activities at the beginning of each pass around the spiral.
c) It defines tasks required to assess both technical and management risks.
d) It defines tasks required to construct, test, install, and provide user support.
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation: Except option b all other tasks/activities are present in Spiral Model as well.
7. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.
a) Doesnt work well for smaller projects
b) High amount of risk analysis
c) Strong approval and documentation control
d) Additional Functionality can be added at a later date
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation: All other options are the advantages of Spiral Model.
8. Spiral Model has user involvement in all its phases.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation: None.
9. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?
a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model.
b) Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model.
c) Users can see the system early in Incremental Model.
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation: None.
10. If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Spiral Model
c) Concurrent Model
d) Incremental Model
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation: When applied to client/server applications, the concurrent process model defines
activities in two dimensions: a system dimension and a component dimension.Thus
Concurrency is achieved by system and component activities occurring simultaneously and can
be modeled using the state-oriented approach.