Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1.
Answer: C
2.
9.
A 55-year-old diabetic patient presents with heartburn and acidic eructation for 2 years. Endoscopic biopsy of a
patch of hyperemic mucosa 3 cm. above the gastroesophageal junction showed squamous epithelium with
inflammatory cells. The patient most likely has:
a.
Barretts esophagus
b.
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
c.
Candidal esophagitis
d.
Herpes simplex esophagitis
10.
11.
A 16-year-old male patient presenting with hepatitis syndrome has the following serologic exam findings:
P. 1680
A 37 y.o. man is admitted with confusion. PE showed a BP of 140/70 with no orthostatic changes, normal jugular
venous pressure and no edma. Serum chemistries are notable for Na+ 120 meq/L, K + 4.2 meq/L, HCO3 24 meq/L
and a uric acid of 2 mg/L. The most likely diagnosis is:
a.
Hepatic cirrhosis
b.
SIADH
c.
Addisons disease
d.
Severe vomiting and diarrhes
Answer: B
6.
P. 262
Low serum complement level would be seen in patients with hematuria, proteinuria and hypertension resulting
from all of the following, EXCEPT:
a.
Mixed essential cryoglobulinemia
b.
Hepatitis C associated membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
c.
Diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis
d.
Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Answer: D
5.
8.
P. 1658
4.
A patient was brought to the ER in a comatose state. Serum electrolytes drawn on admission showed the following:
Na+ 133 meq/L, K + 8.0 meq?l, Cl 98 meq/L, HCO3 13 meq?L. ECG showed absent P waves, widend QRS and
peaked T waves. Which would b the mot appropriate initial step:
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
7.
The treatment of choice for anemia of chronic renal disease:
a.
Ferrous sulfate
b.
Folic acid
c.
Erythropoetin
d.
blood transfusion
p. 256
12.
13.
(+) HBsAG
(-) Anti-HBe
(+) HBeAG
(+) Anti-HAVIgm (+) Anti HBclgM
(-) AntiHBclgG
The patient most likely has
a.
Acute Hepatitis A and Acute Hepatitis B simultaneous infection
b.
Acute Hepatitis A superimposed on Chronic Hepatitis B in the replicative phases
c.
Acute Hepatitis A superimposed on Chronic Hepatitis B in the non-replicative phase
d.
Acute Hepatitis A; a previous immunization to Hepatitis B
The most common organism isolated from the ascitic fluid of patients with spontaneous
bacterial
peritonitis is:
a.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
b.
Staphylococcus aureus
c.
Escherichia coli
d.
Bacteroides fragilis
True of Ascaris infestation:
a.
may cause ground itch
b.
Loefflers pneumonitis results from allergy to ascaris eggs
c.
adult worms reside mostly in the small intestines
d.
the drug of choice in biliary ascariasis is Mebendazole because it paralyzes the worms and prevents
their further migration
14.
Which of the following risk factors has been directly associated with Bronchogenic Carcinoma?
a.
Asbestos exposure
b.
Aflatoxin ingestion
c.
Cigarette smoking
d.
Chronic Bronchitis
22.
Annular lesions with raised erythematous border and clear centers, distributed over the trunk area:
a.
Tinea unglum
b.
Psoriasis
c.
Tinea versicolor
d.
Tinea corporis
15.
23.
Grouped vesicles arranged in a segmental pattern over the right side of the trunk, T
16.
The American Thoracic Society defines chronic bronchitis as persistence of cough and excessive mucus production
for most days out of 3 months for ________ successive years:
a.
2
b.
3
c.
4
d.
5
17.
A patient with CAP requires hospitalization when one of the following is present:
a.
age < 65 years old
b.
COPD in exacerbation
c.
temperature of 38.5C
d.
unilobar CXR infiltrate
18.
One of the following is NOT a useful clue to the microbial etiology of CAP (Community Acquired Pneumonia)
a.
edentulous persons likely to develop pneumonia due to anaerobes
b.
susceptible people exposed to an infectious aerosol in Legionellosis
c.
patients with severe hypogammaglobulinemia at risk of infection with S. pneumoniae
d.
anaerobic lung abscess occuring in patients prone to aspiration
19.
In a patient suspected of PTE, presence of this symptom heralds the occurence of pulmonary infarction:
a.
unexplained dyspnea
b.
hemptysis
c.
sudden onset of cough
d.
syncope
20.
21.
One of the disorders below does NOT have vesicles or bulla as presenting lesions:
a.
Impetigo
b.
Chicken pox
c.
Herpes Simplex
d.
Psoriasis
a.
b.
c.
d.
7-8
level:
Herpes Simplex
Chicken pox
Verruca vulgaris
Herpes Zoster
24.
A pregnant woman with brown macules with irregular borders, symmetric pattern on her cheeks, forehead, upper
lips, nose and chin most likely has:
a.
SLE
b.
melasma
c.
Addisons disease
d.
Psoriasis
25.
26.
In typhoid fever, which of the following specimen will have the best sensitivity for culture if a patient has been
given antibiotics?
a.
blood
b.
bone marrow
c.
stool
d.
urine
27.
28.
The fungus which is a normal inhabitant of the human mucocutaneous body surfaces and is a frequent cause of
fungemia is:
a.
Aspergillus
b.
Candida
c.
Cryptococcus
d.
Histoplasma
29.
An 18-year-old boy had sex with an HIV+ prostitute a week ago. He is frightened and wants assurance he has not
been infected. You should:
a.
tell him you regret that there is no way at this time to tell if he has been infected or not
b.
ask for an immediate AIDS ELISA test
c.
ask for an immediate Western Blot test
d.
assure him that if it was a one night affair he probably did not get infected
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
The most likely organism/s causing secondary bacteremia following manipulation of a furuncle is/are:
a.
anaerobes and gm (-) bacilli
b.
anaerobes and Staph aureus
c.
Staph aureus and gm (-) bacilli
d.
Staph aureus
Which of the following vaccines is especially indicated in a splenectomized patient:
a.
pneumococcal
b.
hepatitis B
c.
tetanus
d.
polio
A patient with Bells Palsy has a pathology involving which cranial nerve?
a.
III
b.
V
c.
VII
d.
III and VII
A patient suspected to have meningitis undergoes spinal tap. Upon insertion of the spinal needle, the opening
pressure is recorded to be markedly elevated. You should:
a.
continue draining the CSF to decrease the pressure
b.
withdraw the needle and run IV mannitol
c.
continue draining the CSF while running IV mannitol
d.
withdraw the needle and reinsert at a lower site
b.
c.
d.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
The first drug of choice in a patient presenting with frank seizures is:
a.
Diphenylhydantoin IV
b.
Phenobarbital IV
c.
Carbamazepine p.o.
d.
Diazepam IV
Lower motor neuron type of paralysis is characterized by:
a.
hypotonia
b.
spasticity
c.
pathologic reflexes
d.
involuntary movement of the affected extremities
36.
A Cavernous sinus lesion could involve several cranial nerves. Which of the following is least likely to be affected?
a.
oculomotor nerve
b.
Trochlear nerve
c.
Abducens nerve
d.
facial nerve
37.
38.
44.
0
A 50-year-old male with ESRD 2 diabetic nephropathy was brought to the emergency room because of weakness
and light headedness. He has just completed his first dialysis, and was observed to be somewhat confused. BP =
90/40, CR = 80/min., RR = 20/min. The most likely explanation for his condition is:
a.
Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome
b.
Dialysis dementia
c.
Poor dietary intake during dialysis
d.
Reduced dialysate temperature
45.
In the presence of anemia, the ability to produce adequate circulating red cells is best measured by:
a.
WBC count
b.
Serum iron binding capacity
c.
Reticulocyte count
d.
Total eosinophil count
46.
b.
c.
d.
47.
48.
49.
50.
All of the following anemias except one are chronic developing over weeks. Which anemia may develop acutely?
a.
aplastic
b.
pernicious
c.
hemolytic
d.
iron deficiency
In the tumor cell cycle, the cells refractory to chemotherapy are the:
a.
Cells in the G phase
2
b.
Cells in the M phase
c.
Cells in the G phase
0
d.
Cells in the active S phase
Multiple osteolytic lesions, hypercalcemia and neurologic abnormalities are most often seen in:
a.
Prostatic CA
b.
Non-Hodgkins lymphoma
c.
Plasma cell myeloma
d.
CNS tumors
Thrombocytopenia is not expected in:
a.
SLE
b.
G PD deficiency
6
c.
Acute Leukemia
d.
Disseminated intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
51.
This finding in Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia can differentiate it from leukemoid reaction:
a.
decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
b.
increased WBC count
c.
anemia
d.
hypercellular marrow with increased granulocyte precursor
52.
Lung cancer that is associated with significant progressive dyspnea and increasing hypoxemia
a.
Squamous cell carcinoma
b.
Oat cell CA
c.
Adenocarcinoma
d.
Bronchoalveolar CA
53.
The most common form of arthritis characterized by progressive deterioration and loss of articular cartilage:
a.
Rheumatoid arthritis
b.
Osteoarthritis
c.
Gouty arthritis
d.
Septic arthritis
54.
55.
56.
Loss of hair at the lateral part of eyebrows, thickening of speech, coarse hair and dry skin, dulling of intellect,
sluggish movements. Most likely diagnosis is:
a.
Cushings syndrome
b.
Adrenal insufficiency
c.
Hypothyroidism
d.
Acromegaly
57.
58.
59.
A 50-year-old obese woman with hypertriglyceridemia without hypercholesterolemia. The most appropriate first
management step would be
a.
weight reduction
b.
gemfibrozil
c.
clofibrate therapy
d.
liposuction
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
A 24/M who took megadoses of vitamins develops severe headache and papilledema. The cause for this is
intoxication of
a.
Vitamin B
6
b.
Vitamin D
c.
Vitamin A
d.
Vitamin E
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
a.
b.
c.
d.
begin CPR, followed by intubation, then defibrillation with 100 J 200 J 360 J
begin CPR, followed by intubation, then defibrillation starting at 200J
begin CPR, then defibrillation at 200 J, 300 J then 360 J
begin CPR, defibrillate at 200 J, then intubate
72.
If despite defibrillation, a pulseless patient has persistent ventricular fibrillation, the use of which drug would be
most appropriate?
a.
lidocaine
b.
procainamide
c.
amiodarone
d.
epinephrine
73.
If only one person is present to provide basic life support, chest compressions should be performed at a rate of
______ per minute, and breaths twice in succession every 15 seconds
a.
50
b.
80
c.
60
d.
40
74.
One of the following is associated with an increased risk of sudden cardiac death:
a.
frequent PVCs (>30/min)
b.
hyponatremia
c.
smoking
d.
hyperlipidemia
75.
76.
77.
Which of the following tests is required to diagnose Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease:
a.
Arterial blood gas
b.
Chest X-ray
c.
Chest CT scan
d.
Spirometry
MPL: 0.25 p:1551
78.
A 30-year-old female has severe perennial allergic rhinitis. Her house is frequently flooded. She has a dog and
sleeps on kepok pillow. As part of management of her allergy, you should advice her to
a.
get a new kapok pillow and launder it frequently
b.
try to scoop out the flooded water as soon as the rain pours
c.
keep the dog out or get a cat instead
d.
replace the kapok pillow with foam rubber, cover the pillow and mattress with allergen proof
encasings
IgE has high affinity for which type of cells?
a.
eosinophils
b.
mast cells
c.
platelets
d.
macrophages
A 65/M is brought to the ER due to chest pain. He suddenly becomes unresponsive and pulseless and cardiac
monitor reveals ventricular fibrillation. You should immediately:
d.
Small cell
MPL: 0.25 p: 509
79.
80.
This is considered as the most frequent cause of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
a.
Smoke inhalation
b.
Severe sepsis
c.
Pulmonary contusion
d.
Acute pancreatitis
MPL: 0.50 p:1592
The most common form of Lung cancer arising in lifetime of a non smoker young women
a.
Small cell carcinoma
b.
Adenocarcinoma
c.
Squamous cell carcinoma
d.
Large cell carcinoma
MPL: 0.50 p: 507
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
In typoid fever this diagnostic exam is not affected by prior antibiotic use:
a.
Bone marrow culture
b.
Blood culture
c.
Urine culture
d.
Stool culture
MPL: 0.25 p: 899
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
b.
c.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
B.
cardiac tamponade
C.
respiratory diseases
D.
anemia
MPL: 0.333 p: 1368
101.
102.
Levines sign:
a.
tenderness on palpation
b.
slowly progressive dyspnea
c.
clenching of the fist in front of the sternum
d.
difficulty of breathing
MPL: 0.25 p: 1435
103.
104.
The most common finding on physical examination in leptospirosis aside from fever:
A.
calf tenderness
B.
conjunctival suffusion
C.
jaundice
D.
rash
MPL: 0.50 p: 990
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
Hallmark of COPD:
A.
airflow obstruction
B.
clubbing of digits
C.
flail chest
D.
hoovers sign
MPL: 0.25 p: 1551
Most commonly involved in extrapulmonary TB:
A.
meninges
B.
peritoneum
C.
pericardium
D.
lymph nodes
MPL: 0.25 p: 957
Primary Pulmonary TB frequently involved the:
A.
middle lobe
B.
lower lobe
C.
middle and lower lung zones
D.
upper lobe
MPL: 0.333 p: 956
The most common complication of measles:
A.
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
B.
chronic encephalitis
C.
otitis externa
D.
hepatitis
MPL: 0.50 p: 1150
The drug of choice for primary generalized seizures is:
A.
phenytoin
B.
carbamazepine
C.
valproic acid
D.
gabapentin
MPL: 0.50 p: 2374
Type of anemia in Malaria:
A.
normochromic normocytic
B.
hypochromic normocytic
C.
hypochromic microcytic
D.
normochromic microcytic
MPL: 0.333 p: 1226
Cerebral Malaria is caused by:
A.
P. falciparum
B.
P. malariae
C.
P. ovale
D.
P. vivax
MPL: 0.25 p: 1222
The most common presentation of amoebic infection is:
A.
asymptomatic cyst passage
B.
amoebic colitis
C.
liver abscess
D.
central nervous system infection
MPL: 0.25 p: 1640
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
C. heavy protenuria
D. waxy cast
MPL: 0.5 p: 1684
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
The diagnostic laboratory method of choice for typhoid fever in the first week
of illness:
A.
bone marrow culture
B.
blood culture
C.
urine culture
D.
stool culture
MPL: 0.25 p: 991
137.
MPL: 0.5
p: 958
138.
145.
139.
146.
140.
147.
141.
148.
142.
149.
143.
144.
150.
151.
152.
10
A.
hypertension
B.
alcoholism
C.
cigarette smoking
D.
obesity
MPL: 0.5 p: 537
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
MPL: 0.5
158.
159.
Heart failure with warm and flushed extremities and with widened pulse
A.
Low output
B.
High output
C.
Diastolic heart failure
D.
Systolic heart failure
pressure
p: 1369
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
11
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
De bakey classification of Aortic dissection in which dissection is limited to the ascending aorta:
A.
Type I
B.
Type II
C.
Type III
D.
Type IV
MPL: 0.5 p: 1483
1.
2.
3.
Currently considered the best initial treatment for primarily generalized tonic clonic seizures is:
A. Phenytoin
B. Valproic acid
C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenobarbital
Page 2367
4.
Adverse effects such as gum hyperplasia, hirsutism and coarsening of facies is associated with long term use of:
A. Carbamazepine
B. Valproic acid
C. Phenytoin
D. Topiramate
Page 2368
5.
This form of respiratory failure occurs when alveolar flooding and subsequent
intrapulmonary shunt physiology occur:
A.
Type 1 respiratory failure
B.
Type 2 respiratory failure
C.
Type 3 respiratory failure
D.
Type 4 respiratory failure
MPL: 0.25 p: 1583
Heavy drinkers (i.e., those consuming 100 g of ethanol per day for the preceding 2 years) have a higher incidence
of acquiring what type of organism in Community acquired Pneumonia?
A.
gram positive organism
B.
gram negative organisms
C.
anaerobes
D.
enterococci
MPL: 0.5 p: 1530
Associated with pandemics and are restricted to influenza A viruses
A.
antigenic shift
B.
antigenic drift
C.
antigenic transformation
D.
antigenic rotation
MPL: 0.25 p: 1066
Most common pathogen in intensive care unit:
A. S. pneumoniae
B. C. pneumoniae
C. M. pneumoniae
D. H. influnzae
MPL: 0.25 p: 1531
6.
12
Page 2471
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
B. Heberdens nodes
C. Gelatinous dorsal cyst
D. Osler nodes
Page 2040
15.
A 30 y/o female with SLE is noted to have a prolonged partial thromboplastin time. This abnormality is associated with:
A. Leukopenia
B. Central nervous system vasculitis
C. Central nervous system hemorrhage
D. Deep venous thrombosis
Page 1964
16.
17.
Diagnosis of gouty arthritis is base on the finding of crystals in the synovial fluid and which of the following crystals is
diagnostic of gout?
A. Apatite crystals
B. Birefringent needle-shaped crystals
C. Rod-shaped weakly birefringent crystals
D. Rhomboid strongly birefrintent crystals
Page 2046-2049
18.
19.
Joint pain among patient with Rheumatoid arthritis is cause mainly by which of the following mechanism?
A. Muscle spasm
B. Stretching of periostal nerve endings
C. Stretching of the joints ligaments
D. Distention of joint capsule
Page 1971
20.
21.
13
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
D. Sulfasalazine
Page 1975
Which of the following Vitamins is capable of eliciting systemic anaphylactic reaction?
A. Cobalamine
B. Pyridoxine
C. Riboflavin
D. Thiamine
Page 1949
Which of the following medicine or drug is NOT effective in the treatment of the acute event of systemic anaphylactic
reaction?
A. SC Epinephrine
B. IV Dopamine
C. IV Diphenlydramine
D. IV Glucocorticoids
Page 1950
Majority of acute diarrheas are due to
A. toxic ingestion
B. medications
C. infectious agents
D. ischemia
Page 225
Clostridium deficile causes acute diarrhea by
A. mucosal invasion
B. cytotoxin production
C. pre-formed toxin production
D. enteroadherence
Page 226
Majority (>50%) of all esophageal cancers are of which cell type?
A. adenocarcinoma
B. squamous cell carcinoma
C. lymphoma
D. sarcoma
Page 542
Not considered as risk factor for the development of Pancreatic cancer?
A. smoking
B. cholelithiasis
C. long standing DM
D. obesity
Page 537
Which of the following is a protective antibody against Hepatitis B infection?
A. Anti-HBe
B. Anti HBs
C. HBsAg
D. Anti HBc
Page 1825
Drug that is contraindicated in the treatment of chronic Hepatitis B infection with decompensated liver is:
disease
A. Interferon
30.
B. Lamivudine
C. Adefovir
D. Enterocavir
Page 1847
Minimum amount of ascetic fluid which can be detected by shifting dullness is:
A. 100 cc
B. 300 cc
C. 500 cc
D. 700 cc
Page 1866
31.
Secretion of water and bicarbonate rich solution from the pancreas is stimulated by:
A. secretin
B. cholecystokinin
C. gastrin
D. somatostatin
Page 1895
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
A patient who is Hypertensive and Hypokalemic, should make one consider which of the ff. as the most likely cause of
the hypertension?
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Conns Syndrome
C. Cushings disease
D. Addisons disease
14
Page 2138
37.
38.
39.
B. Old age
C. Late adolescence
D. HIV co-infection
Page 955
45.
46.
Case:
A 58 years old male presented with 4 days fever and lately weakness and dizziness whenever he sits or stands up;
disorientation. Upon PE: BP=90/60mmHg, PR=112/min., RR=28/min., T=39.8C. The only remarkable finding is an
ulcerated skin lesions in the lower leg with black discoloration. Lab tests: WBC=2,500cells/m 3; gram negative bacilli
from smears of the skin lesion.
This patient has
A. SIRS
B. severe sepsis
C. septic shock
D. sepsis
Page 1606
40.
47.
41.
48.
The most probable organism that has causes severe febrile illness with changes in sensorium and associated with
ulceration and black discoloration of the skin is:
A. S. aureus
B. B. anthrasis
C. Cl. Perfringens
D. P. aeruginosa
Page 310
42.
Which of the following test is recommended as the initial screening for Cushings Sydrome?
A. overnight dexamethasone test
B. low dose dexamethasone test
C. high dose dexamethasone test
D. plasma ACTH determination
Page 2135
49.
The following anti microbial agent is effective for the treatment of Pseudomonas infection:
A. Nafcillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Ceftazidime
D. Any of the above
Page 708
50.
The major anatomic site for the establishment and propagation of HIV infection is:
A. Genital organs
B. Lymphoid organs
C. Vascular system
D. Lymphocytes
Page 1080
51.
43.
44.
15
53.
54.
55.
56.
Page 841
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
57.
58.
65.
66.
67.
The following laboratory findings are suggestive of Iron Deficiency Anemia EXCEPT
A. koilonychias
B. decreased serum ferritin
C. decreased total iron binding capacity
D. low reticulocyte response
Page 589
Which of the following statement regarding Polycythemia Vera is correct?
A. anemia is common
B. transformation to acute leukemia is common
C. an elevated plasma erythropoietin level excludes the diagnosis
D. phlebotomy is used only after hydroxyurea and interferon have been tired
E. thrombotic risk is mainly attributed to Thrombocytosis
Page 627-628
Diagnosis of Acute Myeloid Leukemia is established by the presence of:
A. 10% myeloblasts in the bone marrow
B. 20% myeloblasts in the bone marrow
C. 5% myeloblasts in the bone marrow
D. < 5% myeloblasts in the bone marrow
Page 632
Which of the following syndrome have autoimmune hemolytic anemia with immune thrombocytopenia?
A. Raynauds syndrome
B. Evans syndrome
C. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
D. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
Page 612
Which of the following is the cytogenetic hallmark of Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia?
A. t(15:17)
B. t(9;22)
C. inv 16
D. t(8;21)
Page 638
What is the most common symptom of patient with Myeloma?
A. Fever
B. Bleeding
C. Bone pain
D. Numbness
Page 657
Cryoprecipitate is produced by centrifugation after thawing of this particular blood component
A. Packed RBC
B. Single donor apheresis platelet
C. Fresh frozen plasma
D. Cryosupernate
Page 664
Asthma is a disorder characterized by:
A. Acute airway inflammation followed by bronchoconstriction
B. Persistent subacute airway inflammation
C. Sensitivity to metacholine and histamine
D. Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of bronchial mucus glands
Page 1508
Major infectious cause of asthma exacerbation in adults is:
A. Respiratory syncitial virus
16
68.
69.
70.
71.
B. Influenza virus
C. Streptococcus
D. Mycoplasma
Page 1510
The hallmark of COPD is airflow obstruction as evidenced by
A. Increased FEV1/FVC
B. Increased FEV1
C. Decreased FEV1/FVC
D. Decreased residual volume (RV)
Page 1551
Paradoxical inspiratory inward movement of the rib cage seen in patients with severe COPD is called the:
A. Pallas sign
B. Tripod posture
C. Hammans sign
D. Hoovers sign
Page 1551
The single most useful clinical sign of severe pneumonia among patient without underlying lung disease is:
A. RR>30/min
B. T>38C
C. BP<110 systolic
D. CR>100
Page 1532
Recurrent pneumonia in the same location is most likely due to the presence of:
A. Immunodeficiency
B. Bronchial obstruction
C. Lung hypoplasia
D. Interstitial lung disease
Page 1537
72.
73.
Sudden severe dyspnea, and P.E. finding of unilateral absent breath sounds and hypertesonance in a COPD patient
without antecedent injury should make one suspect:
A. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Secondary spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Traumatic pneumothorax
D. Tension pneumothorax
Page 1568
74.
75.
A 56 y/o female admitted for Acute Pyelonephritis was started on Amikacin 500 mg IV every 6 hours. After 7 days
repeat serum creatinine=5.7 mg/dL (Initial was 1.3 mg/dL). Urinalysis at this time will reveal:
A. RBC casts
B. Pus cell casts
C. fine granular casts
D. muddy brown granular casts
Page 1649
77.
A 65 y/o male with poorly controlled diabetes had renal colic and underwent an IVP. He develop oliguria 1 day after the
procedure. Repeat serum creatinine=6.9 mg/dL (Initial=2.9 mg/dL). The risks factors on this patient that predispose him
to develop contrast dye nephropathy are the following, EXCEPT:
A. Diabetes
B. Renal Insufficiency
C. Infection
D. Elderly
Page 1647
The findings of eosinophiluria in patient with acute Renal Failure is suggestive of:
A. Acute Allergic Insterstitial Nepritis
B. Acute Glomerulonephritis
C. Acute Tubular Necrosis
D. Acute Uric Acid Nephropathy
Page 1649
78.
79.
80.
A patient with Chronic Renal Disease and GFR of 40 ml/min has serum K of 6.2 meq/L. the elevated K is due to the
following, EXCEPT:
A. urinary K+ excretion
B. constipation
C. dietary K+ intake
D. drugs that K+ secretion in tubules
Page 1655
81.
A 36 y/o female with Chronic Renal Disease complains of restless leg syndrome. Screatinine=5.2 mg/dL. You should
advice the patient to:
A. consult neurologist
B. therapeutic trial of high dose B6 & B12
C. therapeutic trial of phenytoin
D. initiation of Dialysis
Page 1659
17
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
A 46 y/o hypertensive patient serum creatinine=9.8 mg/dL and with marked pallor. The anemia is primarily due to:
A. hemolysis
B. EPO synthesis
C. bone marrow suppression
D. Iron deficiency
Page 1658
The most prominent findings in patient with nephritic syndrome is:
A. hypoalbuminemia
B. edema
C. proteinuria > 3.5 gm/1.73m2
D. hyperlipidemia
Page 1684
A 20 y/o male, smoker was admitted because of oliguria and hemoptysis. Initial lab: revel serum creatinine=8.6mg/dL.
Urinalysis shows rbc casts and dysmorphic rbc. (+) anti GBM Abs. The expected histopathologic findings is
A. thickened glomerular basement membrane
B. prominent mesangial deposits of IgA
C. crescents formation
D. glomerulosclerosis
Page 1683
Duration of treatment of acute uncomplicated cystitis in non pregnant woman is:
A. single dose
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 14 days
Page 1718-1719
Which of the following is a chronic clinical manifestation of Atherosclerosis?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Cerebrovascular accident
C. Sudden cardiac death
D. Stable effort induced angina pectoris
Page 1425
Atherosclerotic plaque that ate vulnerable to rupture is characterized by which of the ff.?
A. Thick fibrous cap
B. Large lipid cores
C. A high content of lymphocytes
D. Abundance of smooth muscle cells
Page 1429
Which of the following risk factors is a coronary heart disease risk equivalent?
A. Hypertension
B. Diabetes Mellitus
C. Dyslipidemia
D. Obesity
Page 1431
The abnormal lipoprotein profile associated with insulin resistance known as Diabetic dyslipidemia?
A. High LDL low HDL
B. High Triglyceride, High LDL
90.
91.
92.
93.
The typical physical examination findings of patients with Stable Angina Pectoris is:
A. (+) atrial gallop
B. (+) ventricular gallop
C. Mitral systolic murmur
D. Normal
Page 1436
94.
95.
Class I drug used in the treatment of symptoms of patients with Chronic stable Angina pectoris include which of the
following?
A. Dipyridamole and chelation therapy
B. Clopidogrel and long acting dihydropiridine CCB
C. ASA, beta blockers and NTG
D. Long acting nitrates and beta blockers
Page1439
96.
Stenosis of the left main coronary artery on three vessel disease in patients with Diabetes Mellitus or severe LV
dysfunction are best treated with:
A. Traditional medical management
B. PCI
C. CABGS
D. Thrombolysis
Page 1442
18
97.
To achieve revascularization of the ischemic myocardium in patients with asymptomatic IHD and suitable stenoses of the
epicardial coronary arteries, the best treatment option is:
A. CABGS
B. PCI
C. Thrombolysis
D. Low molecular weight heparin
Page 1442
98.
99.
100. In which of the following pattern of MI will the use of morphine be restricted because of its
vagotonic effect?
A.
anterior MI
B.
antero lateral MI
C.
Postero inferior MI
D.
Massive MI
Page 1452
19