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Questions and Answers

1. Which statement regarding system telephony settings is correct?


A. The user telephony settings include Queuing, Fallback and Overflow information.
B.Entries here are used to match incoming call details to destinations on the IP Office system.
C. The system telephony configuration includes the Quiet Headset information
D The system telephony configuration are divided into three Tabs: Call Settings, Supervisor
. Settings and Multi-Line Options
2. Which statement concerning Small Community Networks is incorrect?
A Short codes have to be set up so that calls are routed from members of the first IP Office to the
. members of the second one
B. Busy lamp fields can be configured to show members from the other IP Offices.
C If an advanced networking license is available, Hunt groups may consist of members from all
. the interconnected sites
D. A prerequisite for an SCN is a consistent extension numbering scheme.
A.
B.
C.
D.

3. Which statement concerning Small Community Networks is incorrect?


System wide hotdesking is supported
Breakout/Remote Dialing is supported in SCNs
Small Community Networks can consist of max. 400 users on 12 sites
Out-of-Office messages are possible to view for all SCN members

4.
What is a Small Community Network?
A.
A highly flexible call group
B.A feature of IP Office that helps connect up to 32 systems with up to 1000 subscribers across
IP lines
C. A feature of IP Office that routes Internet access through different paths
D. A data communication solution for small and medium-sized companies
5. To enable Small Community Networking, you must configure ________ as the connection to
A.
B.
C.
D.

the remote IP Office system


An Incoming Call Route
A Remote Access Service (RAS) entry
An IP DECT line
An IP line
6. Which requirement is not valid for establishing IP telephony between two IP Offices via

H.323?
A IP lines have to be configured in both directions with the remote IP Office configured as the
. H.323 gateway address
B. An IP line has to be configured on only one of the IP Offices
C. The underlying network connectivity has to be configured first (IP Routing, etc.).

D.

Voice compression modules are needed


7. What are the default telephony and data configuration settings for IP Office 500 V2 platforms?

(Choose three)
A.
The line group number is 0
B. When an unknown number is dialed, the line group number 0 is assigned
C. The destination for incoming voice calls is 200.
D.
The main hunt group number is 0.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.

8. Select the help functions available in Manager. (Choose five)


Video Tutorials
Index
Product Tour
Contact Us
Detect and Repair
Search
9. Which of the following statements is true regarding the licensing of PRI-U channels? (Choose

four)
A. Extended licenses are used based on the slots, from left to right.
B. T1/E1-R2 licenses are used for each channel which is set as in service
C. Maximum of 6 channels can be operated without a license for each PCB (port).
D. ETSI/QSIG licenses are used based on the number of calls in progress.
E. Incoming calls can be rejected if there are insufficient licenses
10.
A.
B.
C.
D.

How many plug-in card slots exist in IP Office 500 V2?


12
8
6
4

A.
B.
C.
D.

11. How many external expansion modules does IP Office 500 V2 support?
4
8
10
12

A.
B.
C.
D.

12. How many external expansion modules does the rear panel of IP Office 500 V2 support?
4
8
10
12

13. How do you upgrade IP Office units to a new software version?


A.1. File 2. Advanced 3. Upgrade 4. Type password 5. Click OK 6. Click Upgrade 7. Select Unit

B.1. File 2. Advanced 3. Upgrade 4. Select Unit 5. Click Upgrade 6. Type password 7. Click OK
C.1. File 2. Advanced 3. Upgrade 4. Select Unit 5. Click OK 6. Type password 7. Click Upgrade
D.1. File 2. Advanced 3. Upgrade 4. Type password 5. Click Upgrade 6. Select Unit 7. Click OK
14. Which two system users exist by default in the IP Office configuration and cannot be
deleted? (Choose two)
Standard User
RemoteManager
NoUser
Hot Desking User

A.
B.
C.
D.

15. What is the benefit of using short codes with the Dial feature in IP Office? .
A. To pass on the dialing information only to the line group IDs
B. To pass on the dialing information only to the locale
C. To pass on the dialing information only to the ARS tables
D.To pass on the dialing information not only to the line group IDs, but also to the ARS tables
16. For a call between two IP telephony devices, Avaya IP Office uses a Voice Compression
Channel for call setup and what other condition?
A. The devices are in two different countries
B.
The devices use DTMF tones
C. The devices use different codec types, such as G.729 and G.723
D. The devices are not using Networking (SCN)
17. For an IP Office wireless network, a Service Set Identifier (SSID) ensures which of the
following conditions?
A. Non-802.11b wireless devices can still connect to the IP Office wireless LAN.
B.Wireless devices with an SSID matching that of the network are given priority over nonmatching wireless devices.
C Wireless devices can communicate directly to each other without using the IP Office wireless
. LAN.
D.Only those wireless devices with a matching SSID to that of the wireless network can connect
18.
What is Quality of Service (QoS)?
A. A mechanism of prioritizing certain IP packets over other IP packets.
B. A method of compressing VoIP packets.
C. A measurement of IP network efficiency.
D.The amount of time that passes between the transmission and receipt of a VoIP packet.
19.
A.
B.
C.
D.

What does SIP stand for?


Simple IP Protocol
Silence-suppression Integration for Phones
Secondary Internet Protocol
Session Initiation Protocol

20. For what purpose does IP Office use Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) and H.323 protocols?
A. For connecting to Small Community Networking.
B. For discovering control units in the IP Office network.
C.
For transmitting VoIP.
D.
For uploading software updates
21. If "use user data" is specified in the SIP configuration form in the SIP URI tab...
A. ...users may send hyperlinks to preferred web-pages during call setup.
B. ...the user's individual SIP URI settings will be used when establishing calls.
C. ...a user may specify any additional data to be sent with the SIP-messages.
D. ..a user-specified port and IP is used when initiating a call via SIP.
22. An IP Office control unit can query what type of server to retrieve and store contact
A.
B.
C.
D.

information, such as names and telephone numbers?


Microsoft Internet Information Server (IIS).
Dynamic Host Control Protocol (DHCP) server.
Domain Name Service (DNS) server.
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) server

23. The Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) enables an IP Office control unit to:
A. Send core software upgrades to a remote control unit.
B. Automatically download software upgrades.
C.Receive software upgrades from a PC using IP Office Manager and automatically restart.
D. Reset specific extensions that are connected to the control unit.
A.
B.
C.
D.

24. On the System > LAN1 tab, the default IP address of 192.168.42.1 is what?
The license server
The IP Office control unit address
The PC running IP Office Manager
The DNS server

A.
B.
C.
D.

25. The System > Voicemail tab enables you to specify:


Which extensions are allowed to use voice messaging?
The number of recording minutes available to each user.
The voice messaging system in use in your telephony environment.
The voice messaging extension number

A.
B.
C.
D.

26. To access network locations using Uniform Resource Locators, a PC requires?


Dynamic Host Control Protocol (DHCP) server
File Transfer Protocol (FTP) server
Domain Name Service (DNS) server
Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS) server

27.
What is one use for source numbers?
A. They define the user's CLI (Calling Line Identification).

B. Numbers added here can call a user even if he is in "Do Not Disturb" state.
C Codes can be entered in here to e.g. allow users to collect their VoiceMail (IP Office Mode)
. without having to enter a password.
D The numbers listed in here are allowed to dial in to IP Office using the user's name and
. password in PAP/CHAP authentication.
28.
What does STUN stand for?
A. Simple Traversal of UDP through NAT (Network Address Translation) Routers
B. Static Telephony User Numbering scheme
C.
Stable Trunk Usage Necessity
D. System Telephony for Unorganized Networks
29.
A STUN Server is needed if...
A. ...H.323 should be used over the internet.
B. ...a NAT router/firewall is located between IP Office and the Internet.
C. ...dial in should be allowed for any user.
D. ...IP phones should load their software directly from the IP Office.
A.
B.
C.
D.

30. Which option has to be set in the user configuration for RAS access?
Name
Any Data
PAP and CHAP
Dial In On

A.
B.
C.
D.

31. What is the standard user configuration for RAS access to the network of IP Office?
CCC Agent
Hot Desking User
Standard User
Remote Manager

32. Which statement corresponding to Alternate Route Selection is correct?


A Different routes can be cascaded deeply so that very fine selection algorithms become
. possible.
B. ARS provides a means to specify incoming call routes based on short codes.
C With ARS it becomes possible to define a maximum of three different call routes, should one
. line not be available.
D ARS makes it possible to have multiple IP routes for one target IP address. The hop count is
. the deciding value for the route chosen.

A.
B.
C.
D.

33. The Visual Voice feature is available with which installations?


VoiceMail Lite, VoiceMail Pro and Embedded VoiceMail
Only VoiceMail Pro
Only Embeeded VoiceMail
VoiceMail Pro and Embedded Voicemail

34.

What is the Visual Voice feature used for?

A. It provides a button and an underlying menu to control a user's VoiceMail box.


B. It shows the current utilization of voice compression channels in IP Office.
C.It provides a screen display of the currently picked up voice signal's volume and spectrum.
D With VoiceMail Pro, this feature allows to have incoming mails for a user read by a text-to. speech system.
35. What does the no answer time define for sequential groups?
A. After this time, a hunt group call is forwarded to an overflow group.
B. After this time, the call is presented to the next group member if it hasn't been taken.
C. The delay before a call is forwarded to VoiceMail.
D. A ringing outgoing call is ended automatically after this time.
36. Which statement referring to routing of incoming calls is correct?
A. An incoming number is compared from right to left by default.
B.An incoming number is forced to be compared from right to left using the minus sign (-)
before any other digit.
C. The letter X stands for any number of incoming digits in the incoming number.
D An asterisk can be placed in the incoming number field to not have the caller see the incoming
. CLI.
37. Which statement regarding mobile twinning is correct?
A.
It does not have to be licensed.
B.If an account code is used, the users can enter the code when they answer a call at the external
telephone.
C If follow me is selected, both the follow me extension and the external telephone number will
. ring.
D. Licensed mobile twinning allows twinning with external phone numbers.
38.
The coverage appearance button is used to...
A. ...determine the state of a hunt group's queue.
B. ...call all other members of a user's hunt group.
C. ...view the display of the associated user's phone.
D. ...allow notification of an incoming call on the associated user's phone
39.
The bridged appearance button ...
A ...is used to toggle the state of a user's visibility in applications like SoftConsole and Phone
. Manager in a Small Community Network.
B....displays the state of another user's appearance button and can be used to accept calls for that
user.
C. ...is used to display a Conference Center's bridge state (active, inactive, full, empty).

D. ...displays if there is a message in a user's VoiceMail box.


40. A user using an analog modem can dial in to IP Office 500 if ...
A. ... an IP 400 Modem12 Card has been built in to IP Office.
B.... he has a modem and the number from which he is calling is placed in the source numbers
field.
C. ... he switches his modem to bearer capability "data" and dials a predefined number.
D ... his call arrives on the first line of an analog trunk card and the modem of IP Office has been
. activated for that call.
41. What has to be ensured if two IP Offices should be able to communicate with each other
A.
B.
C.
D.

when two networks with different IP-subnets are linked via a router?
The extension numbering scheme must be different on both sides.
IP Office has to be configured as an NAT router.
Such a link cannot be established using IP Office.
IP routes have to be defined in IP Office.

42. What is the difference between agents and hot desking users?
A. Hot desking users become agents as soon as they are added to a hunt group.
B. Hot desking users are not required to have "force login" enabled while Agents are.
C.
There is no difference.
D.Hot desking users can change physical extensions by logging on and off, while agents cannot.
43.
A.
B.
C.
D.

What does "N" stand for in a short code?


Any number of dialed digits.
The name of the dialing user.
ISDN - National number plan dialing.
The line group used for an outgoing call

44. Which of the following advantages is true for IP Office with two separated LAN ports?
A. No need to configure VLANs to connect to an internal and an external network.
B. Both network ports have different IP addresses.
C. Possibility to set up routes between both interfaces.
D.
All answers listed.
A.
B.
C.
D.

45. Enabling which setting removes the need for a VCM channel during IP to IP calls?
Out Of Band DTMF
Voice Networking
Allow Direct Media Path
Enable Faststart

A.
B.

46. Which feature of text-to-speech allows a user to listen to an e-mail using the telephone?
Alphanumeric Collection
Email Reading

C.
Call Routing
D. Ability to connect to other systems through multiple voice mail protocols

47. Assuming you have the appropriate licensing, which of the following items must be in place
for the e-mail reading feature to function?
A. The Voice Recording Library must be installed.
B.Only one language for email reading can be selected from the user local setting or system local
setting.
C. The user's e-mail address must be configured in Manager.
D. Avaya IP Office VoiceMail Pro must be running in IP Office mode, not Intuity mode.
A.
B.
C.
D.

48. A(n) prompts callers to take action on the line in order to direct their calls.
Call Route
Call Flow
Short Code
Auto Attendant
49. In an IP Office 500 V2 default configuration, when the LAN1 IP address is 192.168.42.1,
which are possible IP addresses in the default range for the internal DHCP server? (Choose
two)

A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.

192.168.42.1
192.168.42.2
192.168.42.200
192.168.42.222
50. Which of the following best describes Avaya IP Office ContactStore?
The only voice application which creates voice recordings.
Translates voice recordings into multiple languages.
Automatically sends voice recordings to conference participants.
Provides search and retrieval for call recordings.

51. What are the properties of Voicemail in IP Office? (Choose three)


A. Multilingual announcements and virtual mailboxes are available
B. Voicemail boxes are generated automatically for users and hunt groups
C. Announcement texts can be personalized
D. Remote access to voicemail boxes is not possible
E. Queue announcements cannot be generated
A.
B.
C.
D.

52. Which of the following is an Avaya IP Office ContactStore capability?


Searchable database of conference minutes/notes.
Compression of IP Office ContactStore user profiles.
Searchable database of IP Office ContactStore users.
Compression of voice recordings.

A.
B.
C.
D.

53. In IP Office Manager, which tab should be used to set up the telephony features?
Extensions
Service
Users
Hunt Group

54. What is the purpose of the Directories tab in IP Office Manager's Preferences?
A. To define the IP addresses and methods for the recognition process.
B.To select whether the configuration files loaded into Manager should be checked
automatically.
C.To define the working directories where the configuration files and software files are found.
D. To control the various security settings within IP Office Manager.