I.

CRIMINAL LAW (RPC BOOK 1)

1. It makes criminal an act done before the passage of the law which was innocent when done, ans
punished it.
a. Ex post facto law
b. Bill of attainder
c. Law on preferential application
d. Self repeating laws
2. Refers to one of three equal portions, called minimum, medium and maximum of a divisible
penalty.
a. Degree
b. Period
c. Prescription
d. Duration
3. Which among the foregoing is considered as the primary source of criminal law?
a. Act No. 3815
b. Special Penal Laws
c. Penal Presidential Decrees under martial law
d. Constitution
4. Those punishable by correctional penalties shall prescribe in how many years?
a. 20 years
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
d. 15 years
5. It is the forfeiture of the right of the state to execute the final sentence after a certain lapse of time.
a. Prescription of the crime
b. Prescription of the penalty
c. Degree of the penalty
d. Period of the penalty
6. It is that branch or division of law which defines crimes treats of their nature, and provide for their
punishment.
a. Civil law
b. Criminal law
c. Procedural law
d. Substantive law
7. Refers to a sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period defined by law subject to the
termination by the parole board at any time after service of the sentence.
a. Suspension
b. Indeterminate sentence
c. Frescription
d. Period of penalty
8. Refers to the purpose to use a particular means to effect such result.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Intent
Motive
Deceit
Fault

9. John commences with the execution of a felony by fails to perform all acts which should produce
it, the development or stage refers to:
a. Consummated
b. Attempted
c. Frustrated
d. Negligence
10. Any bodily movement that tends to produce some effect in the external world.
a. Act
b. Omission
c. Dolo
d. Culpa
11. Libel and other similar offenses shall prescribe in how many years?
a. 15 years
b. 10 years
c. 5 years
d. 1 years
12. An entire penalty enumerated in the graduated scale of penalties.
a. Degree
b. Period
c. Prescription
d. Duration
13. Refers generally to acts made criminal by special laws.
a. Felony
b. Mala ince
c. Mala inse
d. Mala prohibita
14. Under RA 7659, the death penalty may be suspended when the accused is among the foregoing,
except:
a. A woman, while pregnant
b. Persons over 70 years old
c. Woman within one year after delivery
d. Persons over 18 but under 21 years of age
15. Which among the following is not a requisite for Dolo?
a. Intelligence
b. Freedom
c. Intent
d. Deceit

16. Refers to the loss of the right of the state to prosecute the offender after a certain lapse of time.
a. Prescription of the crime
b. Prescription of the penalty
c. Degree of the penalty
d. Period of the penalty
17. Things which are wrongful in their nature.
a. Evil
b. Mala ince
c. Mala inse
d. Mala prohibita
18. Felonies punishable by death, reclusion perpetua and reclusion temporal shall prescribe in:
a. 20 years
b. 15 years
c. 10 years
d. 5 years
19. Acts and omissions punishable by law.
a. Dolo
b. Culpa
c. Felonies
d. Crime
20. Ariel intending to kill Jiggs to avenged lost honor stabbed the latter three times in the chest,
however due to prompt medical attention Jiggs was able to survive the attack, Ariel was culpable
for what felony?
a. Physical injuries
b. Attempted Homicide
c. Frustrated Homicide
d. Frustrated Murder
21. When all the elements necessary for the execution and accomplishment of a felony are present it is
said to be:
a. Consummated
b. Attempted
c. Frustrated
d. Negligence
22. It is a physical activity or deed, indicating the intention to commit a particular crime.
a. Act
b. Omission
c. Fault
d. Overt act
23. Abberatio ictus refers to:
a. Mistake of the facts
b. Mistake of the identity
c. Mistake of the blow

d. Ignorance of the law

24. What must be considered in determining whether the crime committed is only attempted, frustrated
or consummated?
a. Nature of the offense
b. Elements constituting the felony
c. Manner of commission
d. All of these
25. Refers to crimes consummated in one instant or by a single act.
a. Formal crimes
b. Informal crimes
c. Rational crimes
d. Irrational crimes
26. Refers to the obligation or suffering the consequences of crime.
a. Imputability
b. Culpability
c. Liability
d. Responsibility
27. A quality in which an act may be ascribed to a person as the author or owner.
a. Imputability
b. Culpability
c. Liability
d. Responsibility
28. Refers to felonies which the law imposes penalties which are correctional in nature.
a. Grave
b. Less grave
c. Light
d. Serious
29. When the law attaches capital punishment or afflictive penalties the felony is said to be?
a. Grave
b. Less grave
c. Light
d. Serious
30. Infractions to the law punishable by arresto menor or a fine not exceeding 200 pesos or both.
a. Grave
b. Less grave
c. Light
d. Serious
31. Light felonies are made punishable only when they are:
a. Consummated
b. Attempted
c. Frustrated

d. Intended
32. Exemption to the general rule in cases of light felonies.
a. When committed against persons
b. When committed against chastity
c. When committed against honor
d. When committed against liberty
33. It exists when two or more persons come to an agreement to commit a felony.
a. Plan
b. Conspiracy
c. Piracy
d. Proposal
34. What occurs when a person who have decided to commit a felony told somebody else of his plan?
a. Conspiracy
b. Piracy
c. Proposal
d. None of the above
35. Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with the law, so that such person is deemed not
to have transgressed the law and is free from both criminal and civil liability.
a. Justifying circumstances
b. Mitigating circumstances
c. Exempting circumstances
d. Aggravating circumstances
36. Equivalent to assault or at least threatened assault of an immediate nature.
a. Intent
b. Culpa
c. Dolo
d. Unlawful aggression
37. The following are the requisite for self defense, except:
a. Unlawful aggression
b. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it
c. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person defending himself
d. Lack of intent on the part of the person defending himself
38. What crime exists when a single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave felonies?
a. Complex
b. Continuing
c. Composite
d. Compound
39. Who among the following are exempted from criminal liability?
a. Children under 9 years of age
b. Insane persons
c. Children over 9 under 15 years of age acting with discernment

d. Imbecile persons
40. Refers to desired acts of a persons to commit a crime.
a. Motive
b. Intent
c. Fault
d. Deceit
41. Those circumstances which if attendant to the commission of the crime would serve to lower the
penalty to a lesser degree.
a. Justifying
b. Exempting
c. Mitigating
d. Aggravating
42. An aggravating circumstance which generally apply to all crimes such as dwelling, nighttime or
recidivism.
a. Generic
b. Specific
c. Qualifying
d. Inherent
43. Refers to occurrences which happens beyond the sway of man's will.
a. Nature
b. Accidents
c. Events
d. Crimes
44. Boy a policeman persuades Allan to commit a felony, he arrested the latter after its execution is
committing.
a. Instigation
b. Entrapment
c. Conspiracy
d. Proposal
45. Refers to circumstances which if attendant in the commission of a crime serve to increase the
penalty without however exceeding the maximum of the penalty by law for the offense.
a. Justifying
b. Exempting
c. Mitigating
d. Aggravating
46. They are aggravating circumstances which change the nature of the crime, e.g. Homicide to
murder in case of treachery.
a. Generic
b. Specific
c. Qualifying
d. Inherent

47. Refers to aggravating circumstance which apply only to particular crimes.

a. Generic
b. Specific
c. Qualifying
d. Inherent
48. An aggravating circumstance which come in the commission of the crime.
a. Generic
b. Specific
c. Qualifying
d. Inherent
49. Refers to a building or structure exclusively used for rest or comfort.
a. House
b. Home
c. Dwelling
d. All of the above
50. Whenever more than three armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of an
offense it is deemed to have been committed by:
a. Group
b. Brigands
c. Band
d. Team
51. Refers to a person who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been previously convicted
by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the RPC.
a. Delinquent
b. habitual delinquent
c. Recidivist
d. Offender
52. A person who has within a period of 10 years from the date of release or last conviction is said to
have been found guilty of the same offense particularly those of physical injuries, estafa, theft and
robbery is considered as a:
a. Recidivist
b. Delinquent
c. Habitual delinquent
d. Quasi-recidivist
53. Any person who shall commit a felony while serving his sentence with a previous conviction is
classified as a:
a. Recidivist
b. Delinquent
c. Habitual delinquent
d. Quasi-recidivist
54. Which among the following is not a requisites of evident premeditation?
a. Sufficient lapse of time

b. Time when the offender decided to commit the felony

c. Act indicating the has clung to his determination
d. Deliberate intent
55. It involves trickery and cunning on the part of the offender.
a. Craft
b. Deceit
c. Fault
d. Intent
56. Gloria lends Mike a bolo which was used in the murder of Nany is liable as an:
a. Principal
b. Accessory
c. Accomplice
d. Conspirator
57. Persons who aide the felons to hide away evidences or profit from the fruits of the crime are said to
be:
a. Principals
b. Accessories
c. Accomplices
d. Conspirator
58. The following are exempt from criminal liability as accessories in cases that the principal should
be the foregoing relatives except:
a. Spouse
b. Ascendant
c. Descendant
d. Cousins
59. Capital punishment or maximum penalty imposed by law.
a. Reclusion Perpetua
b. Reclusion temporal
c. Arresto mayor
d. Death by lethal injection
60. Refers to alevosia, or means and methods employed to insure its execution.
a. Craft
b. Deceit
c. Intent
d. Treachery
61. It pertains to moral order, adding disgrace to the material injury caused by the crime.
a. Craft
b. Treachery
c. Ignominy
d. Evident premeditation
62. The following circumstances are always mitigated in terms of alternative circumstances, except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Low degree of education.

Intoxication wherein the drunk person has not intended it or not a habitual drunkard.
Relationship in crimes against property.
Relationship in crimes against persons.

63. Pol stabbing Army is considered as a:

a. Principal
b. Accessory
c. Accomplice
d. Instigator
64. Andy persuades Jose to steal from his boss is regarded as a:
a. Principal by direct participation
b. Principal by induction
c. Principal by indispensable cooperation
d. Instigators
65. Which in the following enumeration is an example of an afflictive penalty?
a. Fine
b. Arresto mayor
c. distierro
d. Prision mayor
66. What would be the nature of action for a person over nine years of age and under fifteen to incur
criminal liability?
a. Act with discernment
b. Show malice
c. Show criminal intent
d. Act negligently
67. It shall serve to deprive the offender rights of parental authority or guardianship.
a. Subsidiary penalty
b. Penalty
c. Suspension
d. Civil interdiction
68. Personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no property to meet the fire.
a. Subsidiary penalty
b. Distierro
c. Suspension
d. Civil interdiction
69. A form of protection rather than a penalty in cases of art 247 of the RPC.
a. Subsidiary penalty
b. Distierro
c. Suspension
d. Civil interdiction
70. The moving power which impels one to action for a definite result.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Intent
Motive
Deceit
Fault

71. It refers to an act committed or omitted in violation of a public law forbidding or commanding it.
a. Dolo
b. Culpa
c. Felony
d. Crime
72. In cases wherein the commission of an offense is necessary in the commission of another it is said
that the crime is:
a. Formal crime
b. Informal crime
c. Compound crime
d. Complex crime
73. When did Act no. 3815 took effect?
a. January 1, 1931
b. January 1, 1932
c. January 1, 1933
d. January 1, 1934
74. Ignorantia Facti Excusat means:
a. Ignorance of the law
b. Mistake of facts
c. Mistake of the blow
d. Mistake in identity
75. Under this rule, crimes are not triable in the courts of that country, unless their commission affects
the peace and security of the territory of the safety of the state is endangered.
a. French Rule
b. American Rule
c. Spanish Rule
d. English Rule
76. Failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to do.
a. Act
b. Omission
c. Dolo
d. Culpa
77. Light offenses prescribe in:
a. 12 months
b. 6 months
c. 4 months
d. 2 months

78. The foregoing are persons exempt from the operation of criminal law by virtue of the principles of
public international law, except;
a. Heads of state
b. Ambassadors
c. Consul
d. Charges d' affaires
79. It is a characteristic of criminal law stating that the law is binding on all persons who live and
sojourn in Philippine territory.
a. General
b. Territorial
c. Retrospective
d. Universal
80. It refers to a legislative act which inflicts punishment without a trial.
a. Bill of attainder
b. Ex post facto law
c. Law on preferential application
d. Self repealing laws

ANSWER KEY
I. CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE AND PROCEDURE
Criminal Law Book 1
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. A
11. D
12. A
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. A
17. C
18. A
19. C
20. D

21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.

A
D
C
D
A
D
A
B
A
C
A
A
B
C
A
D
D
A
C
B

41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.

C
A
B
A
D
C
B
D
C
C
C
C
D
D
A
C
B
D
D
D

61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.

C
D
A
B
D
A
D
A
B
B
D
D
B
B
A
B
B
C
A
A

II. CRIMINAL LAW (RPC BOOK 2)

1. It requires the concurrence of two things, that there being an actual assembly of men and for such
purpose of executing a treasonable design by force.
a. Aid or comfort
b. Levying war
c. Adherence to the enemy
d. All of the foregoing
2. What crime is committed against mankind, and whose jurisdiction consequently recognizes no
territorial limits?
a. Mutiny
b. Piracy
c. Espionage
d. Sedition
3. A person who executes a false affidavit may be held liable for:
a. Forgery
b. Perjury
c. Falsification
d. Attempted
4. A threatened to kill B if the latter will not give him 2,000 pesos. What crime has been committed
by A?
a. Grave threat
b. Grave coercion
c. Kidnapping for ransom
d. Attempted murder
5. The degree of proof required to convict a person accused of treason.
a. Dangerous tendency rule
b. Two witness rule
c. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
d. Substantial Evidence
6. PO1 mendoza, who without legal grounds detains Ms Sagun for being ugly is liable for:
a. Illegal detention
b. Arbitrary detention
c. Kidnapping
d. Expulsion
7. It is committed by a persons, who being under oath are required to testify as to the truth of a
certain matter at a hearing before a competent authority, shall deny the truth or say something
contrary to it.
a. Forgery
b. Perjury
c. Falsification
d. False testimony

8. A detained prisoner is allowed to eat and drink in a nearby restaurant on several occasions,
however is at all times duly guarded. Assuming that it was done with the warden's permissions,
the warden may be charged with what particular offense?
a. Infidelity
b. Negligence of duty
c. Laxity
d. Dereliction of duty
9. Refers to the omission of some acts which ought to be performed.
a. Misfeansance
b. Malfeasance
c. Nonfeasance
d. Dereliction of duty
10. Consists of acts which are offensive to decency and good customs, which having been committed
publicly, have given rise to public scandal to persons who have witness the same.
a. Immoral doctrines
b. Slander
c. Grave scandal
d. Libel
11. A person arrested for the commission of an offense punishable by afflictive penalties must be
delivered to the proper judicial authority within how many hours?
a. 12
b. 18
c. 36
d. 48
12. It is the unauthorized act of a public officer who compels a person to change his residence.
a. Violation of domicile
b. Arbitrary detention
c. Trespass to dwelling
d. Expulsion
13. A person having knowledge of the plans to commit treason and fails to disclose such information
to the governor, fiscal or mayor is guilty of what crime?
a. Treason
b. Espionage
c. Conspiracy to commit treason
d. Misprision of treason
14. It is a felony which in its general sense is raising of commotions or disturbances in the state
outside of the legal method.
a. Treason
b. Rebellion
c. Coup d' etat
d. Sedition
15. A police officer who, arrested a member of congress while going to attend a senate session for a

traffic violation is liable for.

a. Crime against popular representation
b. Acts tending to prevent the meeting of the National assembly
c. Violation of parliamentary immunity
d. All of the foregoing
16. Exemption to violation of parliamentary immunity, when a member of congress while in regular
session:
a. Committed a crime punishable by the Revised penal code
b. Committed a crime punishable by prision mayor
c. Committed a crime punishable by a penalty higher than prision mayor
d. None of the foregoing
17. Refers to persons having no apparent means of subsistence but has the physical ability to work and
neglects to apply himself or herself to lawful calling.
a. Burn
b. Vargant
c. Prostitute
d. Destitute
18. This crime is committed by raising publicly and taking arms against government to completely
overthrow ans supersede said existing government.
a. Treason
b. Rebellion
c. Coup d' etat
d. Sedition
19. The nature of the crime of treason and espionage.
a. War crime
b. Crime against national security and the law of nations
c. Crime against public order
d. Crimes against the state
20. A swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation, stealth, directed against duly constituted
authorities, public utilities, military camps and installation with or without civilian support, for the
purpose of diminishing state power.
a. Treason
b. Rebellion
c. Coup d' etat
d. Sedition
21. Groups which are organized for the purpose of committing any crime against the RPC or for other
purposes contrary to public morals.
a. Illegal assembly
b. Illegal association
c. Sedition
d. Rebellion
22. When a gathering of persons is held with the presence of armed men and the purpose of the

meeting is to commit any crime punishable under the RPC, what crime is committed?
a. Illegal assembly
b. Illegal association
c. Sedition
d. Rebellion
23. Implies anything which includes offensive or antagonistic movement or action of any kind.
a. Over acts
b. Employ force
c. Attack
d. Stealth
24. Mass uprising has been undertaken by supporters of Gloria Pandaka wherein they resort to
violence to stop the holding of the forthcoming elections, what crime was committed?
a. Illegal assembly
b. Violation of parliamentary immunity
c. Rebellion
d. Sedition
25. X a PCCr student assisted SPO1 Anico who was being assaulted by Mr. A while resisting arrest,
Mr. A they kicked Mr. X. What was the crime committed by Mr. A with respect to X.
a. Direct assault
b. Indirect assault
c. Resistance
d. Disobedience
26. Jason, a college student punched his gay teacher while on class may be held liable for:
a. Direct assault
b. Indirect assault
c. Resistance
d. Subversion
27. Includes medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant noises designed to annoy and
insult.
a. Outcry
b. Tumultuous
c. Assault
d. Charivari
28. Mr. K fired his pistol towards the sky during the celebration of his birthday is liable for:
a. Illegal possession of firearms
b. Illegal discharge
c. Alarm and scandal
d. All of the foregoing
29. Poly who frequently introduces himself as an NBI agent under false pretense may be held liable
for:
a. Usurpation of authority
b. Estafa

c. Disobedience
d. Resistance
30. Lex having been convicted of estafa escaped from BJMP personnel, what felony was committed?
a. Delivering prisoners from jail
b. Evasion of service of sentence
c. Resistance
d. Disobedience
31. To settle his debt, Lucas imitated 500 peso, he is liable for:
a. Falsification of documents
b. Intercalation
c. Forgery
d. Rubric
32. Breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes allegiance to it.
a. Treason
b. Espionage
c. Adherence to the enemy
d. Levying war
33. Any other name of a person which publicly applies to himself without authority of the law.
a. Alias
b. AKA
c. Fictitious name
d. True name
34. To avoid being charged with delay in the delivery of persons to proper judicial authorities, a person
caught in the act of committing a felony punishable by penalties which are correctional in nature
must be delivered to said authorities within how many hours?
a. 12
b. 18
c. 36
d. 48
35. Refers to the gathering, transmitting or losing information relative to national defense with intent
to be used to the injury of the Republic of the Philippines.
a. Treason
b. Espionage
c. Conspiracy to commit treason
d. Misprision of treason
36. PO2 Paras, forcibly entered the dwelling of Benjie who is a suspected drug pusher, what crime was
committed by the public officer?
a. Violation of domicile
b. Arbitrary detention
c. Trespass to dwelling
d. Expulsion

37. Refers to the resistance to a superior officer, and or raising of commotions and disturbance on
board a ship against the authority of the commander.
a. Mutiny
b. Espionage
c. Piracy
d. Sedition
38. The following are legal grounds for detention, except:
a. Commission of a crime
b. Violent insanity
c. Ailment requiring compulsory confinement
d. Suspected of committing a felony under the Revised Penal Code
39. It means intent to betray a person's country of origin.
a. Aid or comfort
b. Levying war
c. Adherence to the enemy
d. All of the above
40. To expedite the processing of benefit claims from the GSIS a clerk accepted 1,000 pesos from Mr.
H., the clerk is liable for:
a. Bribery
b. Qualified bribery
c. Indirect bribery
d. Direct bribery
41. B wanted to kill A, he then executed his plan by ramming over the latter with his automobile
killing B instantly, what was the crime committed?
a. Parricide
b. Murder
c. Homicide
d. Infanticide
42. Anne killed her husband Jojo by means of poison, she is liable for:
a. Parricide
b. Murder
c. Homicide
d. Infanticide
43. Pedro due to his addiction killed his child less than 3 days old, he is guilty of what crime?
a. Parricide
b. Murder
c. Homicide
d. Infanticide
44. It is the violent expulsion of a human fetus from the maternal womb of birth which results in death.
a. Infanticide
b. Abortion
c. Murder

d. Parricide
45. Takes place whenever a person is killed during a confusion attendant to a quarrel among several
persons not constituting a group and the perpetuators cannot be ascertained.
a. Homicide
b. Murder
c. Death caused by tumultuous affray
d. Riots
46. A public officer who refrains from arresting a person who has committed a crime punishable by
reclusion perpetua in exchange for money.
a. Bribery
b. Qualified bribery
c. Indirect bribery
d. Direct bribery
47. It is embezzlement by means of a appropriating funds or taking and misappropriating the same.
a. Malversation
b. Misfeasance
c. Malfeasance
d. Nonfeasance
48. A person who shall kill his father, mother or child shall be guilty of what felony?
a. Parricide
b. Murder
c. Homicide
d. Infanticide
49. The unlawful killing of a child less than three years old.
a. Parricide
b. Murder
c. Homicide
d. Infanticide
50. A person fired his pistol while paramour of his father was walking farther away from him killing
the latter instantly is guilty of?
a. Parricide
b. Murder
c. Homicide
d. Infanticide
51. Romeo, having carnal knowledge with a prostitute less than 12 years old is liable for:
a. Rape
b. Acts of lasciviousness
c. Seduction
d. Adduction
52. A private individual who detains another for the purpose of depriving the latter of his liberty for
more than three days is guilty of:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Illegal detention
Arbitrary detention
Serious illegal detention
Slight illegal detention

53. Jun who got into a dispute with Jeff, assaulted the latter for the purpose of delivering his victim to
the jailer is guilty of what crime?
a. Illegal detention
b. Illegal arrest
c. Physical injuries
d. Physical injuries
54. Refers to a crime committed by any person who threatens another with the infliction upon the
person, honor, or property of the latter or of his family of any wrong amounting to a crime.
a. Grave threat
b. Light threat
c. Grave coercion
d. Light coercion
55. When a threat to commit a wrong not constituting a crime is made by another, what crime is
committed?
a. Grave threat
b. Light threat
c. Grave coercion
d. Light coercion
56. A husband punched his pregnant wife due to constant nagging, caused the death of their unborn
child is guilty of:
a. Parricide
b. Abortion
c. Intentional abortion
d. Unintentional abortion
57. A formal and regular combat previously concerted between two parties in the presence of two or
more seconds of lawful age on each side, who make the selection of arms and fix all other
conditions.
a. Riot
b. Duel
c. Tumultuous affray
d. Mutilation
58. A woman cutting the penis of a male lover to deprive the latter of its use, is committing what
crime?
a. Physical Injury
b. Duel
c. Tumultuous affray
d. Mutilation
59. What crime was committed by Mike who bit off the ear of his opponent while in a boxing match?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Mutilation
Serious physical injury
Less serious physical injury
Slight physical injury

60. What crime is committed by a person who assaulted another, causing the latter to be absent from
work for two weeks?
a. Mutilation
b. Serious physical injury
c. Less serious physical injury
d. Slight physical injury
61. It is a felony wherein a person compels another by means of force, violence or intimidation to do
something against his will, whether right or wrong.
a. Grave threat
b. Light threat
c. Grave coercion
d. Light coercion
62. Any person who, by means of violence shall seize anything belonging to his debtor for the purpose
of applying the same to the payment of a debt, is committing:
a. Grave threat
b. Light threat
c. Grave coercion
d. Light coercion
63. It includes human conduct which, although not productive of some physical or material harm
would annoy an innocent person.
a. Light threat
b. Light coercion
c. Unjust vexation
d. None of the foregoing
64. Issuing a check without sufficient fund constitute what offense?
a. Swindling
b. Estafa
c. Violation of BP 22
d. all of the foregoing
65. What crime was committed when a person burned the house of his dead victim to hide the body of
the crime?
a. Complex crime
b. Murder
c. Arson with homicide
d. Homicide and arson
66. PO3 Diokno was stabbed at the back while walking along a dark alley, he died on the spot and the
perpetrator took his service pistol?
a. Murder

b. Robbery
c. Homicide and robbery
d. Robbery with homicide
67. It is the willful damaging of another's property for the sake of causing damage due to hate, revenge
or other evil motive.
a. Swindling
b. Destruction of property
c. Malicious mischief
d. Chattel mortgage
68. What crime was committed by Tess a married person, having sex with Ody who is not her
husband?
a. Adultery
b. Concubinage
c. Acts of lasciviousness
d. Seduction
69. Boy, married man who allowed his paramour to live in their conjugal dwelling is liable for what
crime?
a. Adultery
b. Concubinage
c. Acts of lasciviousness
d. Seduction
70. Lewd acts committed upon persons of either sex not amounting to rape by using force or
intimidation.
a. Adultery
b. concubinage
c. Acts of lasciviousness
d. Seduction
71. A person who ripped the dress of a woman and rubbed his penis over the woman's genital without
taking off the panty is liable for what crime?
a. Rape
b. Seduction
c. Forcible abduction
d. Acts of lasciviousness
72. Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with his girlfriend by promising the latter with marriage,
what crime was committed?
a. Seduction
b. Acts of lasciviousness
c. Abduction
d. None of the foregoing
73. Is the taking of personal property belonging to another, with intent to gain, by means of violence
against, or intimidation upon things of any person, or using force upon anything.
a. Robbery

b. Theft
c. Brigandage
d. Estafa
74. Allan took several jewelry from a room in which he entered through the window committed what
crime?
a. Robbery
b. Theft
c. Brigandage
d. Estafa
75. A genuine key stolen from the owner is considered as a:
a. False key
b. Hot item
c. Stolen item
d. Picklock
76. G stole a Rolex watch from a locker by means of the key of the owner, what crime was
committed?
a. Theft
b. Robbery
c. Possession of pick locks
d. Possession of false keys
77. A crime committed by more than three armed malefactors who form a band for the purpose of
committing robbery in the highway or kidnapping persons for the purpose of extortion or to obtain
ransom, or for any other purpose to be attained by means of force and violence.
a. Robbery
b. Kidnapping
c. Brigandage
d. Theft
78. Committed by any person who, with intent to gain but without violence or intimidation of persons
nor force upon things, shall take personal property of another without the latter's consent.
a. Robbery
b. Kidnapping
c. Brigandage
d. Theft
79. Jolina a housemaid who was caught in the act of carting away the furniture of her employer would
be charged of what crime?
a. Theft
b. Robbery
c. Qualified theft
d. Estafa
80. Altering the place of a mojon in the lot to insure that the property would be larger when surveyed
is a crime of:
a. Estafa

b. Chattel mortgage
c. Usurpation
d. Altering boundaries or landmarks
81. It is estafa or defrauding another by abuse of confidence, false pretenses or any other similar
means.
a. Swindling
b. Brigandage
c. Usurpation
d. All of the foregoing
82. A college professor having sexual intercourse with his student is guilty of what crime?
a. Seduction
b. Qualified seduction
c. Abduction
d. None of the foregoing
83. Joe recruited several barrio mates to engage in the sex trade, what crime was committed?
a. Prostitution
b. White slave trade
c. Slavery
d. None of the above
84. A person who forced his girlfriend to elope with him is guilty of what crime?
a. Forcible abduction
b. Consented abduction
c. Seduction
d. Qualified seduction
85. Juan was able to have carnal knowledge with Maria his girlfriend while the latter was drunk, what
crime was committed?
a. Acts of lasciviousness
b. Rape
c. Qualified seduction
d. None of the foregoing
86. Having carnal knowledge with a 16 year old girl with the use of deceit constitutes what crime?
a. Seduction
b. Abduction
c. Acts of lasciviousness
d. Rape
87. A public and malicious imputation of a crime, vice or defect.
a. Libel
b. Slander by deed
c. Slander
d. Incriminatory machination
88. Police officers to ensure conviction of the suspects were caught planting evidence, may be held

liable for what offense?

a. Libel
b. Slander
c. Slander by deed
d. Incriminatory machination
89. Unlawful extortion of money by threats of accusation or exposure.
a. Slander
b. Libel
c. Coercion
d. Blackmail
90. Voluntary but without failing to do an act from which material damage results by reason of
inexcusable lack of precaution on the part of the person performing the act.
a. Negligence
b. Imprudence
c. Reckless imprudence
d. Reckless negligence
Case study 1:
Akong, a cook in a local restaurant always fearing of bad elements is a very cautious man. One night
before going to bed, he locked himself in his room placing a chair against the door. Hours later, he
was awaken by someone trying to open the door. He called out twice, who is there?, but receive no
reply. Fearing that the intruder was a robber, he leaped from his bed and shouted is you enter the
room I will kill you! At that moment, he was struck by the chair that have been placed against the
door, and in the belief that he was being attacked, he seized a kitchen knife and struck and fatally
wounded the intruder who turned out to be his roommate Alex.
Questions:
91. Assuming that Akong is liable under the following circumstances, what crime has he committed?
a. Frustrated murder
b. Frustrated homicide
c. Serious physical injuries
d. Attempted
92. Which of the following evidence is least material to the case?
a. Chair
b. Bed
c. Knife
d. The warning
93. Which among the following specific circumstances may be invoked by Akong?
a. Treachery
b. Mistake of fact
c. Accident
d. Mistake of identity
94. Which among the following circumstance affecting criminal liability, in general applies in this
situation?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Justifying
Aggravating
Mitigating
Exempting

Case Study 2:
X and Y are neighbors, during a drinking session, X punched Y without any provocation. Y's injuries
required medical attendance for a period of 5 days.
Questions:
95. What was the crime committed by X?
a. Slight physical injuries
b. Ill treatment
c. Serious physical injuries
d. Less serious physical injuries
96. Considering the facts, that policeman on the case should?
a. File the case directly with the court
b. File the case before the prosecutor's office
c. File the case himself before the Barangay Court
d. Instruct Y to refer the matter first before the Barangay Court
97. Assuming that X was drunk at the time of the committed the offense; his drunkenness would be
considered as:
a. Mitigating circumstance
b. Exempting circumstance
c. Alternative circumstance
d. Aggravating circumstance
98. Should the result of the blow of X was death to Y, the investigator on case should concentrate and
stress on:
a. Whether or not X was drunk
b. Whether or not there was really no intent to kill
c. whether or not Y was also drunk
d. The Barangay court has no jurisdiction
Case Study 3:
Dr. Durante had frequently quarreled with his wife Veronica due to his illicit relation with his secretary,
he decided to at the spur of he moment to kill his wife after the latter slapped him. He mixed poison in
her milk, but when his wife drunk it, He employed his medical skills in extracting the substance from
her stomach thereby preventing her death.
Questions:
99. What crime/stage has been committed/reached by the acts of Dr. Durante?
a. Attempted parricide
b. Frustrated parricide
c. Consummated parried
d. consummated physical injuries

100. Should there be no marriage between Dr. Durante and Veronica, what crime was committed by
Dr. Durante?
a. Murder
b. Homicide
c. Physical injuries
d. Parricide
Case study 4:
C and B are brothers, by promise of price, induced A to kill B, a person living on a remote island. D
the owner of the only motor boat in that area and knowing of the criminal designs of C and B, offered
his services and transported B to the island. Once there, B alone killed C by shooting the latter while
sleeping.
Questions:
101. What crime has been committed A?
a. Homicide
b. Parricide
c. Infanticide
d. Murder
102. What was the criminal participation of C in the killing of his brother?
a. Principal by direct participation
b. Principal by induction
c. Principal by indispensable cooperation
d. Accomplice
103. The owner of the motor banca D is liable as a:
a. Principal by direct participation
b. Principal by induction
c. Principal by indispensable cooperation
d. Accomplice
104. What was the crime did C committed?
a. Homicide
b. Parricide
c. Infanticide
d. Murder
105. Assuming that A took several jewelry from B, and gave it to his wife who knew where it came
from and the latter sold it for profit, what was the criminal participation of the wife of B?
a. Principal
b. Accessory
c. Accomplice
d. None of the above

Criminal Law Book 2

1. B
2. B
3. B
4. B
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. C
9. C
10. C
11. C
12. D
13. D
14. D
15. C
16. C
17. B
18. B
19. A
20. C

21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.

B
A
C
D
B
A
D
C
A
B
C
A
C
B
B
A
A
D
C
D

41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.

B
A
D
B
C
B
A
A
B
B
A
C
C
A
B
D
B
D
B
C

61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.

C
D
C
C
D
C
C
A
B
C
D
A
A
A
A
B
C
D
C
D

81. A
82. B
83. B
84. A
85. B
86. A
87. A
88. D
89. D
90. C
91. C
92. B
93. B
94. A
95. A
96. D
97. C
98. B
99. D
100. C

101.
102.
103.
104.
105.

D
B
C
D
B

III. CRIMINAL PROCEDURE

1. What determines the jurisdiction in criminal cases?
a. Subject matter
b. Territory
c. Person accused
d. Extent of the penalty
2. This system of criminal justice is conducted either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the
offended party and the right to appeal is limited to the defense.
a. Fixed
b. Mixed
c. Inquisitorial
d. Accusatorial
3. Defined as a method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons alleged to have
committed a crime, and for their punishment in case of conviction.
a. Criminal justice system
b. Rules of court
c. Criminal procedure
d. Rules of procedure
4. A system characterized by the right to confrontation, to a public trial and be heard by competent
counsel.
a. Fixed
b. Mixed
c. Inquisitorial
d. Accusatorial
5. Refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be exercised.
a. Venue
b. Jurisdiction
c. Jurisprudence
d. Trial courts
6. The procedure in witness examination is:
a. Direct, cross, re-direct, re-cross examination
b. Direct, re-direct, cross, re-cross examination
c. Cross, direct, re-direct, re-cross examination
d. Cross, direct, re-cross, re-direct examination
7. In the Philippines, the system of criminal procedure is:
a. Fixed
b. Mixed
c. Inquisitorial
d. Accusatorial
8. A sworn statement charging a person with an offense subscribed by the offended party, any peace
officer or other peace officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Complaint
Charge sheet
Blotter
Information

9. Authority to hear and decide a case.

a. Venue
b. Jurisdiction
c. Jurisprudence
d. Hearing
10. Jurisdiction of the court is said to be ____________ when the law organizing a court does not
expressly enumerate the cause of which it may take cognizance.
a. Limited
b. General
c. Appellate
d. Original
11. Which among the following may not be filed before the judgment becomes final?
a. Motion to quash
b. Motion for reconsideration
c. Motion for new trail
d. Notice of appeal
12. Validity of the warrant of arrest expires:
a. After 10 days
b. After 30 days
c. After 365 days
d. No fixed duration
13. Lifetime of a search warrant:
a. 10 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
14. In criminal cases, the People of the Philippines is the:
a. Plaintiff
b. Complainant
c. Offended party
d. Aggrieved party
15. In civil cases the person charged is called:
a. Accused
b. Suspect
c. Defendant
d. Respondent
16. Refers to an accusation in writing charging a person with an offense subscribed by the fiscal and

filed with the court.

17. Prescription of the crime commence to run:
a. Upon re-appearance of the accused
b. Upon escape of the accused
c. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended party
d. Upon filing of the complaint or information
18. The duty of the party to present evidence to establish his claim is referred to as:
a. Burden of proof
b. Burden of evidence
c. Bill of particulars
d. Presentation of evidence
19. The law expanding the jurisdiction of the MTC.
a. RA 7961
b. RA 7691
c. RA 7975
d. RA 7196
20. Which among the following is not covered by the rules on summary procedures?
a. Violation of traffic laws
b. Violation of rental laws
c. Where the penalty does not exceed 6 months imprisonment
d. Where the penalty is more than six months imprisonment
21. In criminal cases, the person charged is referred to as:
a. Accused
b. Suspect
c. Defendant
d. Respondent
22. The part of trial wherein the civil aspect of the case may be amicably settled.
a. Plea bargaining
b. Hearing
c. Preliminary investigation
d. Pre-trial
23. In administrative cases the person charged is:
a. Accused
b. Suspect
c. Defendant
d. Respondent
24. It is usually called as the court of first instance.
a. Metropolitan trial court
b. Regional trial court
c. Court of appeals
d. Supreme court

25. In rape cases, who among the following may file a complaint?
a. Offended party
b. Peace officer
c. Public officer charged with enforcement of the law violated
d. State
26. Who among the following may not conduct a preliminary investigation?
a. City or provincial fiscals and their assistants
b. Judges of the MTC's
c. National and regional prosecutors
d. DOJ personnel
27. Taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an
offense.
a. Detention
b. Restraint
c. Arrest
d. Seizure
28. Refers to persons given by law the duty and power to exercise jurisdiction and maintenance of
peace and order as well as the protection of life liberty and property.
a. Persons in authority
b. Judges
c. Policemen
d. Prosecutors
29. Refers to a security given for the temporary release of a person in the custody of the law.
a. Bond
b. Bail
c. Surety
d. Insurance
30. Which among the following is a non-bailable offense?
a. Rape
b. Homicide
c. Robbery
d. Libel
31. The complaint or information should bear the following except:
a. Name of the court
b. Name of the accused
c. Name of the offended party
d. Designation of the offense by stature
32. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the first instance is regarded as:
a. General jurisdiction
b. Original jurisdiction
c. Delegated jurisdiction

d. Appellate jurisdiction
33. Judiciary Reorganization Act:
a. PD 968
b. PD 1612
c. BP 129
d. BP 22
34. In the metropolitan courts, the complaints is filed with the:
a. Office of the Secretary of justice
b. Office of the clerk of court
c. Office of the Ombudsman
d. Office of the prosecutor
35. Cases on appeal on judgement rendered by a Municipal Trial Court shall be elevated where?
a. Metropolitan Trial Court
b. Regional Trial Court
c. Court of Appeals
d. Supreme Court
36. Decisions rendered by the Court of appeals may be further elevated to what court?
a. Metropolitan Trial Court
b. Regional Trial Court
c. Court of Appeals
d. Supreme Court
37. A judicial examination and determination of the issues in an action or proceeding, civil or criminal.
a. Plea trial
b. Pre trial
c. Plea bargaining
d. Trial
38. Period provided for by law to post an appeal after receipt of judgment of conviction.
a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 30 days
39. Order of trial is:
a. Prosecution, rebuttal, defense, submission for decision
b. Defense, prosecution, rebuttal, submission for decision
c. Prosecution, defense, rebuttal, submission for decision
d. Defense, rebuttal, prosecution, submission for decision
40. A geographical division in which the action is allowed to be brought.
a. Venue
b. Jurisdiction
c. Jurisprudence
d. Territory

41. A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.

a. Counsel
b. Attorney on record
c. Attorney at law
d. Counsel de officio
42. It refers to the answer given by the accused to a charge or indictment.
a. Reply
b. Motion
c. Plea
d. Confession
43. Generally, after a plea of not guilty is entered, how many days is given by law for the accused to
prepare for his trial.
a. 2 days
b. 3 days
c. 4 days
d. 5 days
44. Refers to the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty of not guilty of the offense
charged, and the imposition of proper penalty and civil liability provided for by law on the
accused.
a. Conviction
b. Judgment
c. Decision
d. Conclusion
45. Days mandated by law for the perfection of a decision.
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 45 days
46. The foregoing personal property may be considered as objects of the search warrant, except those
which are:
a. Subject of the offense
b. Stolen or embezzled and other fruits of the crime
c. Used or intended to be used as a means of committing an offense
d. Property of the accused
47. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by an accused is:
a. Plea bargaining
b. Motion to quash
c. Motion to dismiss
d. Bill of particulars
48. When can arrest be made?
a. At any day

b. At any time of the day

c. At any time of the night
d. At any time of the day or night
49. Cases wherein the penalty does not exceed 6 months fail under the rule on:
a. Civil procedure
b. Criminal procedure
c. Summary procedure
d. Special procedure
50. The existence of a prejudicial question may cause the suspension of the:
a. Arraignment
b. Judgement
c. Trial
d. Preliminary investigation

Criminal Procedure:
1. B
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. A
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. B

11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

A
D
A
A
A
D
C
A
A
D

21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.

C
D
D
B
A
D
C
A
B
A

31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.

A
B
C
D
B
D
D
C
C
A

41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.

D
C
A
B
B
D
B
D
C
A