Sample Paper Anthe (Senior) - 2016 English

Sample Paper
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)

Sample Paper
Time : 2 Hours
MM : 360
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1.
Four bulbs, each of rating (100 W, 220 V) and

connected in parallel across a voltage supply of
220 V, are operated for five hours daily. If all the bulbs
are replaced by LEDs of rating (8 W, 220 V), how
many units of electrical energy will be saved every
month (30 days)?
A
d
(1) 55.2 units

(2) 60 units
(1)
(3) 4.8 units

4.
4
6
(1) 20 m/s
In the circuit diagram shown above, the readings of
voltmeter and ammeter respectively are
3.
dm
Mt
tM
dM
(4)
md
mt
For the shown displacement-time graph, the average
velocity of the body in 10 seconds is
Displacement (m)
V
2
I = 11 A
(2)
(3)
(4) 32 units
2.
d
t
(1) 6 V, 3 A
(2) 3 V, 6 A
(3) 12 V, 3 A
(4) 12 V, 12 A
20
0
3
6 10
Time (s)
(2) 13 m/s
35
m/s
(4) Zero
3
Magnetic field pattern in a region is as shown below.
The needle of a magnetic compass will be deflected
most when placed at point
(3)
5.
In the following figure, a person of mass m is

standing on a stationary trolley of mass M on a
smooth horizontal surface. The distance between the
front end of the trolley and point A is d. The
horizontal speed with which the person should jump
off the trolley, such that its front end just passes
through point A in time t, is
A
D
C
B
(1) A
(3) C
Space for Rough Work
(2) B
(4) D

6.
Sample Paper
10. A girl of mass 40 kg takes a staircase of 15 steps,
each of height 20 cm. If she utilizes a power of
80 W to climb the staircase, the time taken by her
is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
Same net force is applied on two different objects of

masses m and 3m. If x and y are the magnitudes of
their acceleration respectively, then the ratio
x
will
y
be
7.
(1) 1 : 3
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 9 : 1
2
th of its initial height. The ratio of
5
magnitude of momentum of the object just before
and after striking the ground is
vertically till
8.
9.
2: 5
(2)
5: 2
(3)
3: 5
(4)
5: 3
(2) 20 m
(3) 40 m
20
m
(4)
3
(3) 45 s
(4) 15 s
(1) 1 : 4
(2) 8 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 1
12. A positively charged particle going eastwards enters

a region of uniform and perpendicular magnetic field.
If the particle is deflected vertically upwards, the
direction of magnetic field is
A boy runs on a circular track of radius 20 m and

stops after covering one sixth of the track. The
magnitude of his displacement will be
(1) 20 m
(2) 40 s
11. Two copper wires A and B have their cross-sectional

areas in the ratio 1 : 2 and lengths in the ratio 2 : 1
respectively. The ratio of the resistivities of A and B
will be
An object of mass 2 kg is dropped from a certain

height. On rebounding from the ground, it rises
(1)
(1) Half a minute
(1) Southwards
(2) Northwards
(3) Due west
(4) Vertically downwards
13. The magnetic field inside an ideal solenoid carrying

constant non-zero current is
(1) Radial
(2) Non-uniform
(3) Uniform
(4) Zero
A gun recoils when a bullet is fired from it. Which of

the following is/are true w.r.t. this statement?
14. Choose the pair of quantities having same unit.

(1) Power and energy
(a) This phenomenon can be explained on the basis

of Newton's third law of motion.
(2) Current and potential difference

(3) Work and energy
(b) The magnitude of momentum of gun is greater

than that of bullet.
(4) Work and power
(c) The magnitude of momentum of bullet is greater

than that of gun.
15. When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, then at the

highest point
(d) The magnitude of momentum of bullet and that

of gun are equal.
(1) Acceleration is zero but velocity is non-zero
(1) (a) & (d)
(2) (a) & (b)
(3) Both acceleration and velocity are zero
(3) (a) & (c)
(4) Only (b)
(4) Both acceleration and velocity are non-zero
(2) Acceleration is non-zero but velocity is zero
Sample Paper

'X' can be identified as
16. A colourless and odourless gas P is evolved during

thermal decomposition of lead nitrate. P reacts with
natural gas to form compounds Q and R. P, Q and
R respectively are
(1) N2O, O2 and H2O
(2) CO2, O2 and Cl2
(3) O2, CO2 and H2O
(4) O2, CO2 and H2
(1) Oxalic acid
(2) Acetic acid
(3) Sulphuric acid
(4) Nitric acid
21. aMnO2 + bHCl cMnCl2 + dH2O + eCl2

pC2H5OH + qO2 rCO2 + sH2O
a, c, q and r in the above chemical equations
respectively are
17. The process that does not involve oxidation is

(1) Rancidity
(2) Corrosion
(1) 2, 4, 2 and 1
(2) 1, 1, 3 and 2
(3) Combustion
(4) Neutralisation
(3) 4, 2, 2 and 1
(4) 2, 1, 4 and 2
22. The number of moles of ammonia that have the

same mass as that of 3 moles of carbon dioxide is
18. Consider the given table
Elements
Carbon
Number of
Protons
Number of
Neutrons
(1) 0.19 mol
(2) 2.58 mol
(3) 9.04 mol

(4) 7.76 mol
23. Which of the following is an incorrect statement with
respect to Rutherford's atomic model?
(1) There is a positively charged centre in an atom
called nucleus
(2) Electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular
paths
If carbon and element X are isobars while Y and Z

are isotopes, then A, B, X and Z respectively
represent
(3) While revolving in discrete orbits the electrons do

not radiate energy
(1) 6, 7, oxygen and fluorine
(4) The size of nucleus is very small as compared

to the size of the atom
(2) 6, 6, nitrogen and fluorine

(3) 6, 7, nitrogen and oxygen
24. Match the following and choose the correct option.
(4) 7, 7, oxygen and nitrogen
Chemical Reaction
19. Which of the following gases is evolved at cathode
during the electrolysis of brine?
Type
(i) Slaking of lime
(a) Endothermic
(1) Cl2
(2) O2
(ii) Respiration
(b) Combination
(3) H2
(4) NO2
(iii) Neutralisation
(c) Exothermic
20. Consider the given Venn diagram :
(iv) Decomposition of
limestone
(1) (i) b,c; (ii) c; (iii) c,a; (iv) a,b
Constituents
of the
Constituents X
atmosphere
of acid rain
of venus
(2) (i) c; (ii) b; (iii) b,c; (iv) a

(3) (i) a,b; (ii) b,c; (iii) c; (iv) b
(4) (i) b,c; (ii) c; (iii) c; (iv) a
Sample Paper
29. On thermal decomposition of baking soda, salt X is
obtained. The aqueous solution of X will be
25. Read the following statements carefully.

Statement-1 : One mole of carbon weighs 12 g.
(1) Acidic
Statement-2 : 0.5 moles of nitrogen gas contains

3.011 1023 atoms of nitrogen.
(2)# Basic
(3) Amphoteric
Now, choose the correct option.
(4) Neutral
(1) Both the statements are correct
30. Compound A on reacting with baking soda produces

a colourless gas C, which when passed through lime
water forms a solution D. On further passing the gas
C through D, another solution E is formed. Identify
the nature of A and the colour of the solution E.
(2) Both the statements are incorrect

(3) Only statement-1 is correct
26. Which of the given metals liberate hydrogen gas on
reaction with both acids and bases?
(1) Acidic, blue
(2) Basic, red
(3) Basic, yellow
(4) Acidic, colourless
31. The green coloured pigment present in chloroplast

helps in
(1) Sodium
(2) Potassium
(1) Absorption of phosphorus from the soil
(3) Magnesium
(2) Absorption of light energy
(4) Zinc
(3) Removal of excess water through lenticels

(4) Exchange of respiratory gases
27. Which of the following contains the maximum

number of atoms?
32. Select incorrect statement(s) regarding the given

diagram of human brain.
(1) 48 g of helium
(2) 3.011 1021 molecules of ammonia

(3) 48 molecules of methane
(4) 3 mol of oxygen
28. Carbon cannot be used to reduce the oxides of
sodium and magnesium to their respective metals
because
(1) Sodium and magnesium have high affinity for

carbon than oxygen
(2) Sodium and magnesium have high affinity for

oxygen than carbon
(i) P is responsible for precision of voluntary

actions.
(3) Sodium and magnesium are least active metals
(ii) Centre associated with hunger is a part of P.
(4) Sodium and magnesium catch fire on exposure

to air
(iii) Involuntary actions like salivation and vomiting

are controlled by R.
Sample Paper

36. In the following diagram, which labellings are
correct?
(iv) Q helps in maintaining posture and balance of

the body.
(iv) Bowman's
capsule
(iii) Tubular part
(v) Glomerulus
of nephron
(v) Reflex actions are controlled by S.

(1) Only (i)
(2) (i), (iii) & (v)
(3) (ii) & (iii)
(i) Renal artery
(4) (iii), (iv) & (v)

(vi) Branch of
renal artery
33. In humans, ________ provides a surface where

exchange of gases can take place.
(ii) Collecting
duct
(1) Neuron
(2) Villi
(3) Nephron
(4) Alveolus
(1) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(2) (ii), (v) & (vi)
(3) (iv), (v) & (vi)
(4) (i), (ii) & (iii)
34. Statement-1 : Carbon dioxide is insoluble in water.

Statement-2 : Haemoglobin has a high affinity for
oxygen.
37. Which of the following sets of words should be used

to replace the underlined terms (wherever necessary)
to make the given statements correct?
(1) Both the statements are true

(2) Both the statements are false
(i) The saliva contains salivary amylase that breaks

down complex molecules of proteins.
(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false

(4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true
35.
Glucose
(i)
Pyruvate
(ii)
(ii) Undigested food material is removed from the

body through anus.
Lactic acid + energy
(iii) The hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium

which facilitates the action of the enzyme
trypsin.
The given reactions take place, respectively, in

(1) (i) Chloroplast
(ii) Subsidiary cells
(2) (i) Mitochondria
(ii) Chloroplast
(3) (i) Cytoplasm
(ii) Chloroplast
(4) (i) Cytoplasm
(ii) Muscle cells
(iv) The walls of large intestine contain glands which

secrete intestinal juice.
(v) Bile pigments break down large fat globules into
small globules.

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Sample Paper
42. Rings of cartilage are present in the throat to
(v)
(1) Fats
Anus
Trypsin Small Juice
(1) Absorb more oxygen from the air
(2) Sugar
Rectum
Pepsin
Small Pigments
(2) Filter the inhaled air
(3) Starch
Anus
Pepsin
Small Salts
(3) Prevent the air passage from collapsing
(4) Proteins Rectum
Trypsin Large Juice
(4) Produce more energy

43. While explaining the role of various plant hormones
practically, a teacher observed many wilted leaves on
a tree in the garden. Which of the following
hormones is/are responsible for this?
38. In which part of the alimentary canal digestion of

starch begins?
(1) Stomach
(2) Large intestine
(3) Liver
(4) Buccal cavity

(1) Auxins
39. The artificial kidney removes nitrogenous waste

products from blood through the process of
(2) Cytokinins
(1) Dialysis
(3) Abscisic acid
(2) Active transport
(4) Gibberellins
(3) Absorption
44. Which of the following is the first step of
photosynthesis?
(4) Imbibition
40. After an accident, Ram lost his memory, intelligence
and ability to think and reason out. It also affected
his ability to hear and see. Which part of the central
nervous system was most likely affected in the
accident?
(1) Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and

oxygen
(2) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
molecules
(1) Spinal cord
(3) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
(2) Forebrain
(4) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
(3) Midbrain
45. Statement-1 : The opening and closing of the

stomatal pore is the function of guard cells.
(4) Hindbrain
41. X and Y are the two endocrine glands located in
the brain. X releases a hormone Z which regulates
growth in humans. X and Y are
Statement-2 : The stomatal pore closes, if the guard

cells swell.
(1) X Hypothalamus and Y Pituitary gland

(2) X Thyroid gland and Y Pineal gland
(3) X Pituitary gland and Y Pineal gland
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) X Pituitary gland and Y Thyroid gland
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
Sample Paper
SECTION-B : MATHEMATICS
46. If , and are the zeroes of a cubic polynomial
ax3 + cx + d, then (1 + ) + + is equal to
(1)
2c
a
(2)
2d
a
(3)
d
a
(4)
c
a
50. In the given figure, if A and B are the mid-points of

the sides PR and QR respectively of PQR and
ACR = BCR, then PQR is always a/an
P
A
C
47. In the given figure, PQRS is a trapezium such that

PQ || SR. The ratio PR : QS is always equal to
(1) Scalene triangle

(2) Isosceles triangle
(3) Equilateral triangle
(1) PQ : SR
(4) Right angled triangle
(2) PO OR : QO OS
51. An English word consists of 9 alphabets. The sum

of twice the number of vowels and three times the
number of consonants present in the word is equal
to four more than four times the total number of
vowels in the English alphabets. The product of the
number of vowels and consonants present in the
word is
(3) PO + OR : QO OS
(4) PO2 : OQ2
48. If 0 < < 90, then
1 sin cos2
is always equal
cos (1 sin )
to
(1) tan
(2) cot
(3) tan
(4) cot
49. If (2
(1) 9
(2) 20
(3) 18
(4) 14
52. In a convex quadrilateral PQRS, SPR = 80,

QPR = 40, SQR = 40 and PR = PS. If
diagonals PR and QS intersect at O, then the
measure of POQ is
16 , then the value of a is
(1) 1
(1) 90
(2) 2
(2) 100
(3) 4
(3) 110
(4) 16
(4) 120
Sample Paper
53. The ratio of the radius of the base of a cylinder to

its height is 7 : 6. If the volume of the cylinder is
294 cm3, then its base diameter is
(1) 1 cm
(2) 14 cm
(3) 7 cm
(4) 12 cm
58. If
value of is
54. If the product of HCF and LCM of two natural

numbers is 378000, then which of the following can
be their HCF?
(1) 66
(2) 130
(3) 34
(4) 20
cot cos
2 3
and 0 < < 90, then the

cot cos
2 3
(1) 0
(2) 60
(3) 30
(4) 45
59. In the given figure, 1 = 2 = 3. If AD = 5 cm,

DC = 4 cm and the perimeter of BEC is 13 cm,
then the length of BE is
A
3
55. In the given figure, MNP is a right triangle such that

N = 90. MO2 NO2 is always equal to
(1) 4.1 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 3.5 cm
N
(1)
1
(MP 2 NP 2 )
4
(3) 2(MP 2 NP 2 )
56.
(2)
(4) 5 cm
60. If p(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d is a polynomial and
a + b + c + d = 0, then which of the following must
be a factor of p(x)?
1
(MP 2 NP 2 )
2
(4) MP 2 NP 2
(1) x + 1
(3)
2 3 can be expressed as
(1) 2
(3)
1 3
2
(4)
(2) x 1
(4) x
61. HOPE is a parallelogram as shown in the given

figure. The value of y is
(2) 3
x2
3 1
x
2x
O
3x
57. If the side x of a cube becomes 11 times of itself,

then its volume increases by
(1) 1330x3
(2) 1331x3
(3) 1321x3
(4) 1320x3
(1) 21
(2) 14
(3) 35
(4) 27
42
Sample Paper

67. If a, b, c and d are natural numbers such that
a2 + b2 = 41 and c2 + d 2 = 25, then the polynomial
whose zeroes are (a + b) and (c + d) can be
62. If sin(A + B) = sinAcosB + cosAsinB, then the value

of (sin1cos29 + cos1sin29) is
(1)
(3)
1
4
(2)
1
2
(4) 1
(2) x2 16x + 63
(3) x2 2x + 14
(4) x2 7x + 9
68. A rectangular tank, 50 cm long and 30 cm wide,

contains water upto a height of 9 cm. A box of
dimensions 25 cm 25 cm 20 cm is now placed
in the tank so that its square face rests on the
bottom of the tank. The quantity of water (in L) that
must be poured into the tank in order to just cover
the box is
63. For the given system of equations 3x 4y = 5 and

5x + by = c to be inconsistent, one pair of values of
b and c can be
(1) b
(1) x2 9x + 12
20
25
and c
3
3
(2) b = 6.4 and c = 20
(1) 0.4
(3) b = 6.4 and c = 19
(2) 16.5
(4) b
20
and c = 19
3
(3) 12.5
(4) 4
64. Let p, q, r and l, m, n be the lengths of the sides

of the two triangles such that p2 + q2 + r2 = 117,
l 2 + m2 + n2 = 117 and lp + mq + nr = 117. The
two triangles can always be proved congruent by
which of the following congruence criterion?
(1) ASA
(2) SAS
(3) RHS
(4) SSS
69. In the given circle with centre O, RL MQ. The

difference of the measures of QAT and LTM is
M
(3)
1
(3q 2 p )
2
3
(2q p )
2
(1) 30
(2) 70
(3) 20
(4) 50
70. If 2 sin 2 cos 1 0 and is an acute

angle, then the value of cosec is
(1) 2( 2 1)
(2) 10
(3)
(3) 27
T
Q
66. Which of the following numbers will completely divide

261 + 262 + 263 + 264?
(1) 100
2
(q p )
(2)
3
(4)
65. If (5, 5) is the solution of the system of equations

3x + 4y + 2p q = 0 and 4x + 3y + q 3r = 0,
then r is always equal to
1
(q p )
(1)
3
25
(4) 17
2 1
2
(2)
(4)
2( 3 1)
( 3 1)
2
Sample Paper
SECTION-C : MENTAL ABILITY

Directions (Q.78) : In a certain language, 45 is coded
as 3, 35 is coded as 5, 6 is coded as 2.
71. If FINE is coded as IFFI, TASTE is coded as

AETTE, then the code for TEACHER is
(1) EHAREER
(2) EHERERR
(3) EHEREER
(4) EHERRER
78. 34 will be coded as
72. In a party, there are 15 members. Each shakes hand

with one another. Total numbers of the handshakes
is
(1) 120
(2) 105
(3) 90
(4) 15
(2) 3
(3) 7
(4) 2
79. Choose the alternative which is different from the

others.
73. If x3 y3 = (x y) (x2 + y2 xy) and x3 + y3 = (x +

y)(x2 + y2 + xy), then (23 + 33) (33 23)
95
(1)
7
(1) 4
(1) Einstein
(2) Niels Bohr
(3) CV Raman
(4) Wright brothers
80. A digital display unit has 7 parts as shown.

T
35
(2)
19
L1
R1
L2 M
19
(3)
(4) 125
35
74. Choose the odd one out from the following:
R2
In a digital clock, there are hour display units

(H1, H2) and minute display units (M1, M2).
Mobile, iPhone, Laptop, LED, TV

(1) Mobile
(2) Laptop
(3) LED
(4) iPhone
H1
(2) 27
(3) 49
(4) 81
M1
M2
In a faulty digital clock, following parts and units are

not functioning properly:
75. 55 : 1 :: 42 : 8 :: 62 : 27 :: 93 : ?
(1) 16
H2
Display Units Part(s) of display unit, which

are not functioning properly
76. If rank of a student from last is 17th and 15th from

beginning, then how many students are there?
H1
L1, L2
(1) 31
(2) 32
H2
(3) 33
(4) 17
M1
M2
77. Find the missing term.

11 17 23 31
,
,
,
,?
19 29 37 43
(1)
41
47
41
(3)
53
(2)
Which of the following timing cannot be displayed

properly by the above digital clock due to faulty parts
of display units?
37
53
37
(4)
47
(1) 11:10 hrs
(2) 11:41 hrs
(3) 14:10 hrs
(4) 14:01 hrs
10
Sample Paper
81. Consider following four different dice (not necessarily

standard dice). Choose the odd one out.
(1)
(3)
83.
(2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(4)
Directions (Q.84 & Q.85) : Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions.
82. In the given question, the pair of figures bears a

certain relationship. Choose the option that exhibits
the same relationship.
Five members of a family are sitting on a dining table.

L is the mother of M. M is the sister of N, who is the son
of O. P is the only daughter-in-law of L.
84. How is P related to M?

(1) Sister
(2) Daughter
(3) Sister-in-law
(1)
(4) Daughter-in-law
85. O is M's _______ .
(2)
(1) Brother
(2) Sister
(3) Father
(4) Uncle
86.
(3)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(4)
11
Sample Paper
Directions (Q.89 and Q.90): Read the given information
carefully and answer the following questions.
87. In the following figure, how many triangles are possible?
In a report published, the sources of energy used in India

for the production of electricity in year 2012 are shown
below :
Sources of
Energy
(1) 32
(2) 30
(3) 28
(4) 24
88. If the following image is rotated by 180
anticlockwise,
Number of Electrical
units in Tera Watt Hour
Coal
708.3
Gas
115.4
Nuclear
26.7
Hydro
143.8
Renewable
58.6
Imports
4.6
then new image will be

89. If Hydro is also considered as a renewable form of
energy resource, then what will be the new
percentage of non-renewable form from which
electrical energy is produced?
(1)
(1) 19.1
(2) 80.9
(3) 89.1
(4) 89.9
90. If government decides to reduce the contribution of

polluting sources of energy (Coal, Gas and Nuclear)
by 20% keeping the total production of electricity
same and also makes the import contribution NIL by
increasing the required contribution of non-polluting
sources of energy, then the approximate percentage
contribution by non-polluting sources will be
(2)
(3)
(1) 26
(2) 32
(3) 36
(4)
(4) 40

Note : Answer key of Sample Paper is available at

www.aakash.ac.in & www.anthe.in
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)

Four bulbs, each of rating (100 W, 220 V) and

(1) 55.2 units

(3) 4.8 units

In the following figure, a person of mass m is

Space for Rough Work

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)

Same net force is applied on two different objects of

12. A positively charged particle going eastwards enters

A boy runs on a circular track of radius 20 m and

11. Two copper wires A and B have their cross-sectional

An object of mass 2 kg is dropped from a certain

(1) Half a minute

(3) Due west

(4) Vertically downwards

13. The magnetic field inside an ideal solenoid carrying

A gun recoils when a bullet is fired from it. Which of

14. Choose the pair of quantities having same unit.

(a) This phenomenon can be explained on the basis

(2) Current and potential difference

(b) The magnitude of momentum of gun is greater

(4) Work and power

(c) The magnitude of momentum of bullet is greater

15. When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, then at the

(d) The magnitude of momentum of bullet and that

(1) Acceleration is zero but velocity is non-zero

(1) (a) & (d)

(2) (a) & (b)

(3) Both acceleration and velocity are zero

(3) (a) & (c)

(4) Only (b)

(4) Both acceleration and velocity are non-zero

(2) Acceleration is non-zero but velocity is zero

Space for Rough Work

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)

16. A colourless and odourless gas P is evolved during

(2) CO2, O2 and Cl2

(3) O2, CO2 and H2O

(4) O2, CO2 and H2

(1) Oxalic acid

(2) Acetic acid

(3) Sulphuric acid

(4) Nitric acid

21. aMnO2 + bHCl cMnCl2 + dH2O + eCl2

17. The process that does not involve oxidation is

22. The number of moles of ammonia that have the

18. Consider the given table

(1) 0.19 mol

(2) 2.58 mol

(3) 9.04 mol

If carbon and element X are isobars while Y and Z

(3) While revolving in discrete orbits the electrons do

(1) 6, 7, oxygen and fluorine

(4) The size of nucleus is very small as compared

(2) 6, 6, nitrogen and fluorine

24. Match the following and choose the correct option.

(4) 7, 7, oxygen and nitrogen

(i) Slaking of lime

20. Consider the given Venn diagram :

(2) (i) c; (ii) b; (iii) b,c; (iv) a

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)