Chapter 6 (Questions 2008-2009 Compiled)

General pathology 2008-2009
Compiled by Bhupinder Bawa
Q1. The binding of bacterial lipopolysacchride to cell membrane require all of the
following proteins except?
A. MD2
B. CD14
C. TLR4
D. MyD88
E. LPS binding protein
Q2. Which of the following can act as ligand for CD21? (Robbins pp 199, PBVD
200)
1. C3b
2. C3d
3. Epstein-Barr virus
4. CD80
5. CD86
A. 1,2
B. 4,5
C. 1,2,3
D. 3,4,5
E. 1,3
Q3. Which of the following lymphocytes can directly recognize antigen?
1. αβ-TCR expressing T-lymphocyte

2. γ δ -TCR expressing T-lymphocyte
3. NK-T lymphocytes
4. IgM expressing B-lymphocyte
5. IgD expressing B-lymphocyte
A. 1,2
B. 4,5
C. 1,4,5
D. 2,4,5
E. 1,2,3,4,5
Q4. All the following contribute to innate immunity EXCEPT
A. Macrophages, neutrophils
B. Complement, NK cells
C. T-cells, B-cells
D. Mucous, saliva
E. Skin
Q5. The CD factor that plays an important role in LPS binding to TLR4
A. CD14
B. CD28
C. CD40
D. CD86
E. All the above
Q6. An activated T-cell after exposure to an antigen by MHC II undergo proliferation

under the influence of which cytokine
A. IL-2
B. IL-6
C. IL-1
D. IFN
E. TNF
Q7. Which of the following membrane bound immunoglobin molecules plays the role
of B-cell receptor and helps mature B-cell
A. IgG, IgM
B. IgE, IgM
C. IgM, IgD
D. IgA, IgE
E. IgD, IgE
Q8. The co-stimulatory molecule on CD4 positive cell that is important in T-cell
activation by AP (antigen presenting) cells
A. CD14
B. CD18
C. CD28
D. CD86
E. CD105
Q9. Which of the CD factor helps B-cell to differentiate into plasma cell?
A. CD14
B. CD28
C. CD40
D. CD86
E. CD105
Q10. Which of the following is/are part of the innate immune system?
1) Neutrophils
2) Macrophages
3) Natural killer cells
4) Complement proteins
5) Mucociliary apparatus
A. 1, 4, 5
B. 1, 3, 4, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 2, 4, 5
E. 5
Q11. Which of the following TLRs has double stranded RNA as a ligand?
A. TLR1
B. TLR2
C. TLR3
D. TLR4
E. TLR6
Q12. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. CD3 is the T-cell receptor

B. CD8+ cells recognize antigen in association with MHC I
C. CD4+ cells recognize antigen in association with MHC II
D. CD4 and CD8 molecules are required to initiate signals that activate T cells
E. γδ T cells recognize antigen without requirement for display by MHC molecules
Q13. TH2 cells secrete which of the following cytokines?
1) Il-2
2) Il-4
3) Il-5
4) Il-13
5) IFN-γ
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 5
C. 2, 3
D. 2, 3, 4
E. 3, 4, 5
Q14. Which TLR is responsible for binding LPS?

A. TLR-2
B. TLR-4
C. TLR-6
D. TLR-7
E. TLR-8
Q15. Where would you not normally expect to see a majority of T-lymphocytes?
A. Circulating in blood
B. Ileal Peyer’s patches
C. Paracortical areas of the lymph node
D. Peri-arteriolar sheaths of the spleen
E. All are correct
Q16. Which of the following is not a component of the T-cell receptor complex on
the surface of a helper T-cell?
A. CD3
B. CD4
C. CD28
D. CD80
E. TCR-α
Q17. A failure of T-cells to express CD40 ligand (now called CD154) has been
associated with which immunoglobulin syndrome? (Robbins p.199)
A. Hypo IgG
B. Hypo IgA
C. Hyper IgG
D. Hyper IgM
E. Hyper IgE
Q18. Which following TLR is involved with viral detection
A. TLR 2
B. TLR 3
C. TLR 4
D. TLR 5
E. TLR 6
Q19. Which molecule is not involved in the activation of transcription with TLRs
A. TIR
B. IRAK
C. CD28
D. NF-κВ
E. MyD88
Q20. TH2 lymphocytes do not produce

A. IL-2
B. IL-3
C. IL-4
D. IL-5
E. IL-13
Q21.Which is not part of Signal 1 of the T-cell receptor complex
A. CD4
B. CD28
C. ξ chains
D. CD3 complex
E. αβ heterodimer
Q22.. All of the following dendritic cells function as antigen presenting cells except?
A. Langerhan’s cells
B. Follicular dendritic cells
C. Interstitial dendritic cells
D. Circulating dendritic cells
E. Interdigitating dendritic cells
Q23. All of the following are true for NK cells except?
A. They are not MHC restricted

B. They are bone marrow derived
C. CD16 and CD 56 are used to identify NK cells
D. Their cytoplasm contains perforin and granzymes
E. They express both Fc receptor and antigen specific TCR
Q24. What is the sequence of events during antigen processing and presentation?
1. binding of peptides to newly synthesized MHC molecules

2. transportation of MHC molecule to cell surface
3. proteolysis of antigen into short peptides
4. presentation of antigen to lymphocytes
5. phagocytosis of foreign antigen
A. 1,2,3,4,5
B. 3,4,5,2,1
C. 5,3,2,1,4
D. 5,3,1,2,4
E. 3,5,4,2,1
Q25. The following are the professional antigen presenting cells (APC’s)
1. Dendritic cells
2. Macrophages
3. Neutrophils
4. B-cells
5. T-cells
A. 1
B. 1,4
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,2,4
E. 1,2
Q26.The significance of CD16 on the NK cells
1. Identification marker
2. IgG mediated cytotoxicity
3. Identification of virus infected cells
4. Inhibitory receptor to MHC I
5. No significance
A. 1
B. 1,2
C. 1,2,3
D. 4,5
E. 5
Q27. Which of the following is not true regards MHC molecules
A. NK cells are not MHC restricted

B. NK cells recognize self by MHC I
C. Endogenous antigens can express MHC I
D. MHC I is expressed only by infected cells
E. Exogenous antigens are expressed on MHC II
Q28. Which of the following pairs (tissue: monocyte/macrophage cell type) is

incorrect?
A. Liver: Kupfer cells

B. Bone: Osteoclasts
C. Kidney: Histiocytes
D. Brain: Microglial cells
E. Lung: Alveolar macrophages
Q29. In a virally infected cell, which change in cell surface molecule expression
would result in NK cell-mediated lysis?
A. Increased MHC class I expression
B. Decreased MHC class I expression
C. Increased MCH class II expression
D. Decreased MHC class II expression
E. Both a and d are correct
Q30. Which CD molecule allows NK cells to function in antibody-dependent cell-

mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)?
A. CD16
B. CD56
C. CD94
D. NKG2D
E. MHC class I receptor
Q31. Which of the following steps is not involved with processing of intracellular
antigens (Ag’s)?
A. Ag’s are degraded by the proteasome complex

B. Ag’s are internalized within endosomes or lysosomes
C. MHC class I/peptide complex is recognized by CD8+ T-lymphocytes
D. MHC class I/peptide complex is transported to the plasma membrane
E. Ag peptides are complexed with MHC class I in the endoplasmic reticulum
Q32.. Which cells express MHC class I molecules
1. B lymphocytes
2. Dendritic cells
3. Macrophages
4. Kupffer cells
5. Hepatocytes
A. 1
B. 1,2
C. 1,2,3
D. 1,2,3,4
E. 1,2,3,4,5
Q33. NK-cell mediated lysis requires
A. Decrease/loss of MHC class I molecules

B. Expression of antigen-specific molecules
C. Increase in ligands for activating receptor
D. A&C
E. All of the above
Q34. Which cytokine is not a part of innate immunity
A. IL-1
B. IL-6
C. TNF-α
D. TGB-β
E. Type 1 interferons
Q35. Peptide fragments of MHC class I molecules bind between
A. α1-α2
B. α2-α3
C. α1-β1
D. α1-β2
E. α1-α3
Q36. Which of the following statements about NK cells is incorrect?
A. Do not develop memory cells

B. They are bone marrow derived
C. Express CD3 but not CD4 or CD8
D. Are also referred to as large granular lymphocytes
E. Contain cytotoxic granules containing perforin and granzyme
Q37. Which of the following groups of chemokines are primarily produced by

macrophages?
A. C-C
B. C-C-C
C. C-X-C
D. X-C-X
E. C-X-X-C
Q38. Which of the following statements about the MHC-II pathway is incorrect?
A. MHC-II molecules have an α and β chain

B. MHC-II presents antigen to CD4+ T-cells
C. MHC-II molecules are associated with an invariant chain in the ER
D. Binding of MHC-II and antigen peptide occurs in an endocytic vesicle
E. Peptides that bind to MHC-II are usually derived from an endogenous source
Q39. Atopic individuals are characterized by?
A. Genetic predisposition to develop immediate hypersensitivity reactions

B. More IL-4 producing Th2 cells
C. Higher serum IgE levels
D. A and C only
E. All of the above
Q40. All of the following are required for direct activation and survival of eosinophils
except?
A. IL-3
B. IL-5
C. IL-13
D. Eotaxin
E. GM-CSF
Q41. Which of the following can lead to vascular permeability, smooth muscle spasm
and chemotaxis?
A. PAF
B. Histamine
C. Leukotriene B4
D. Prostaglandin D2
E. Leukotrienes C4, D4
Q42 .Mice deficient of TH2 cell differentiation compromises to mount which type of
hypersensitivity reaction
A. Type 1
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
E. All
Q43. The primary vascular changes in Type I hypersensitivity following mast cell
degranulation
A. Edema
B. Vascular dilation
C. Vascular leakage
D. Vascular constriction
E. None of the above
Q44. The antibody that mediates most of the Type I hypersensitivity reactions
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgM
D. IgE
E. All
Q45. Mast cell degranulation occurs by
A. Cross linking of soluble IgE antibodies in the vicinity of Mast cells

B. Binding of Allergin to IgE bound to Fc receptor of mast cell
C. Cross linking of IgE bound to Fc receptor on mast cells
D. Binding of IgE to Fc receptor on mast cell
E. All the above
Q46. Which of the following is a ligand for NK cell inhibitory receptor?
A. CD 94
B. MHC I
C. Self proteins
D. Viral proteins
Q47. Which of the following are markers for NK cells?
A. CD 3
B. CD 4
C. CD 16
D. CD 56
E. C and D
Q48. Which of the following is not expected in the acute phase of a type I
hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Cell lysis
B. Vasodilation
C. Mucus production
D. Smooth muscle contraction
E. Increased vascular permeability
Q49. Which of the following are examples of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction?
1) Anaphylaxis
2) Contact dermatitis
3) Pemphigus foliaceous
4) Neonatal isoerythrolysis
5) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3, 4, 5
C. 3, 4, 5
D. 4, 5
E. 5
Q50. Which of the following is not a metachromatic dye?
A. Giemsa
B. Thionine
C. Toluidine blue
D. Methylene blue
E. a and d
Q51. Which cell is not necessary in the development of Type I hypersensitivity

reactions?
A. Mast cells
B. Eosinophils
C. Dendritic cells
D. Th2 CD4+ T-cells
E. IgM producing B-cells
Q52. Which is not a primary mediator contained in mast cell granules?
A. Heparin
B. Chymase
C. Histamine
D. Prostaglandin D2
E. Both b and d
Q53. Which cell type is particularly important in sustaining Type I (late-phase)

responses?
A. Basophils
B. Mast cells
C. Eosinophils
D. Macrophages
E. Th2 CD4+ T-cells
Q54. Which species is most sensitive to developing anaphylaxis?
A. Rat
B. Mouse
C. Hamster
D. Chinchilla
E. Guinea pig
Q55. Which of the following is not a major product of arachadonic acid metabolism
in Type I hypersensitivity
A. Leukotriene B4
B. Leukotriene C4
C. Leukotriene D4
D. Prostaglandin D2
E. Prostaglandin D4
Q56. Which cytokine is not released from mast cells during Type I hypersensitivity
A. IL-2
B. IL-4
C. IL-5
D. IL-6
E. TNF-α
Q57. Necrotizing vasculitis is a lesion of which type of hypersensitivity reaction
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Q58. The following are diseases associated with Immune Complex mediated (Type
III) hypersensitivity:

2) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
3) Polayarteritis Nodosa
4) Pemphigus vulgaris
5) Arthus reaction
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3,5
C. 2,3,4
D. 2,3,5
E. 3,4,5
Q59. All of the following can be seen histologically in skin lesions due to SLE
except:
A. vasculitis
B. dermal edema
C. interface dermatitis
D. subcorneal pustules
E. basal cell vacuolation
Q60. Which of the following situations will most likely result in a type III
A. Antibody is in great excess to the quantity of antigen

B. Antigen is in great excess of the quantity of antibody
C. Antigen is in slight excess of the quantity of antibody
D. There is an excessive amount of complement proteins in the circulation
E. There is an exaggerated monocyte-macrophage phagocytic system response
Q61. Deposition of antigen-antibody complexes in a type III hypersensitivity reaction

induce the following local events?.
A. All the below

B. Platelet aggregation
C. Activation of Hageman factor
D. Activation of complement cascade
E. Activation of neutrophils and macrophages via Fc receptors engagement
Q62. Which of the following is not an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Pemphigus vulgaris
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Transfusion reaction
E. Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
Q63. Antigen-antibody complexes lead to tissue injury by which of the following

mechanisms?
A. Complement activation
B. Fc receptor engagement
C. Microthrombi formation following platelet aggregation
D. a&b
E. a, b, & c
Q64. Which of the following does not participate in ADCC during type II
hypersensitivity reactions?
A. Eosinophils
B. Neutrophils
C. Macrophages
D. Natural killer cells
E. CD8+ T-lymphocytes
Q65. Which immunoglobulins are most commonly implicated in type II and III
hypersensitivities?
A. IgA, IgE
B. IgG, IgA
C. IgM, IgA
D. IgM, IgG
E. IgE, IgM
Q66. Which of the following is not a Type II hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Equine infectious anemia

B. Neonatal isoerytholysis
C. Pemphigus foliaceous
D. Myasthenia gravis
E. Pernicious anemia
Q67. Which of the following is not a Type III hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Arthus reaction
B. Serum sickness
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
E. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Q68. What is the order of a Type III hypersensitivity reaction
1. Introduction of antigen
2. Formation of antibodies
3. Activation of complement
4. Binding of antibodies to antigen
5. Deposition of antigen-antibody complex in tissues
A. 1,2,3,4,5
B. 1,2,3,5,4
C. 1,2,4,3,5
D. 1,2,4,5,3
E. 2,4,5,3,1
Q69. All of the following cytokines are involved in delayed hypersensitivity reaction
except? :
A. IL-2
B. IL-4
C. IL-12
D. IFN-γ
E. TNF
Q70. Which of the following is unlikely to occur in transplant rejection??
A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction activated by indirect pathway

B. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction activated by direct pathway
C. Cell mediated cytotoxicity activated by indirect pathway
D. Cell mediated cytotoxicity activated by direct pathway
E. Antibody mediated humoral rejection
Q71. Which of the following cell:cytokine pairs does not participate in Type IV
hypersensitivity reactions?
A. CD4+ Th1 lymphocyte: IL-2

B. Antigen presenting cell: IL-1
C. Activated macrophages: TNF
D. Antigen presenting cell: IL-12
E. CD4+ Th1 lymphocytes: IFN-γ
Q72.DTH mediated by cytotoxic CD8+ T-lymphocytes most commonly occurs in

response to which type of disease?
A. Neoplasia
B. Viral infections
C. Fungal infections
D. Intracellular bacterial infections
E. Contact antigen hypersensitivity reactions
Q73. Which cell or antigen is considered the most important immunogen in the direct
pathway of T-cell mediated graft rejections?
A. Donor lymphocytes
B. Donor graft antigens
C. Donor dendritic cells
D. Recipient lymphocytes
E. Recipient MHC-I molecules
Q74. Which cell or antigen is considered the most important immunogen in the
indirect pathway of T-cell mediated graft rejections?
A. Donor lymphocytes
B. Donor graft antigens
C. Donor dendritic cells
D. Recipient lymphocytes
E. Recipient MHC-I molecules
Q75. Th2 lymphocyte responses are involved in which of the following

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Q76. Which of the following cytokines is essential for sustaining Th2 cells and
turning on IgE secretion in B cells?
A. IL-2
B. IL-4
C. IL-5
D. IL-10
E. IL-13
Q77. Which of the following is not the result of a primary mediator released from
mast cell degranulation?
A. Secretion by nasal, bronchial, and gastric glands

B. Smooth muscle contraction
C. Activate complement
D. Generation of kinins
E. Mast cell activation
Q78. Epithelial cells may produce all of the following except?
A. IL-6
B. IL-8
C. TNF
D. Eotaxin
E. GM-CSF
Q79. Which of the following is not a Type III hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Arthus reaction
B. Serum sickness
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
E. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Q80. What is the order of a Type III hypersensitivity reaction?
1. Introduction of antigen
2. Formation of antibodies
3. Activation of complement
4. Binding of antibodies to antigen
5. Deposition of antigen-antibody complex in tissues
A. 1,2,3,4,5
B. 1,2,3,5,4
C. 1,2,4,3,5
D. 1,2,4,5,3
Q81. Which of the following is not a function of IFN-γ?
A. Augments the TH1 response

B. Promotes secretion of Il-12 by macrophages
C. Increased phagocytic capability of macrophages
D. Increased expression of MHCII by macrophages
E. Promotes secretion of TGF-β from macrophages
Q82. Which of the following is not typically associated with a type IV

A. Pollens
B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Mycobacterium bovis
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
E. Mycoplasma haemofelis
Q83. Which of the following is not a mechanism of peripheral tolerance?
A. Suppression by regulatory T-cells

B. Sequestration of antigen in immune-privileged sites
C. Induction of anergy by lack of co-stimulation by an APC
D. Fas-Fas ligand signaling following persistent stimulation by APCs
E. Deletion of cells expressing high-affinity TCR binding to self-antigens with MHC
Q84. Which of the following is responsible for thymic expression of self-antigens?
A. CTLA-4
B. AIRE
C. CD18
D. B7-1
E. Fas
Q85. Which of the following is diagnostic for SLE in people and dogs?
A. Positive ANA
B. Presence of antierythrocytic antibodies
C. High CD4+:CD8+ ratio in the peripheral blood
D. Presence of anti-IgG antibody (rheumatoid factor)
Q86. Antibodies capable of activating complement include?
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgE
d. IgM
e A, B & D
Q87. Complement participates in which of the following?
1. Opsonization
2. Phagocytosis
3. Cytotoxicity
4. Inflammation
5. Leukocyte recruitment
A. 1,2,3,4,5
B. 1,2,5
C. 1,4,5
D. 2,3,4,5
E. 2,4,5
Q88. Which of the following cells facilitate ADCC?
A. Macrophages
B. Neutrophils
C. Eosinophils
D. NK cells
E. All of the above
Q89. Which of the following is not true of Type II hypersensitivity?
A. Directed against intrinsic or exogenous cell bound antigens

B. Mediated by antibodies IgG, and IgM
C. Does not affect acellular antigens
D. results in individual cell lysis
E. Can cause myasthenia gravis
Q90. Which of the following cells drives Delayed type hypersensitivity ?

A. CD4+ Th1
B. cd8+ CTL
C. cd4+ Th2
D. Macrophages
E. none of the above
Q91. Which of the following are products of activated macrophages?
A. PDGF
B. IL-12
C. TNF
D. IL-1
E. All of the above
Q92. CD8+ TCR binds to which of the following during T-cell mediated
cytotoxicity?
A. MHC-1
B. MHC-II
C. TLR-4
D. Fc receptor
E. a and D
Q93. Immune tolerance to self antigens is achieved all the following mechanism
include EXCEPT
A. Phagocytosis of reactive T-lymphocytes

B. Supression by regulatory T cells
C. Antigen sequestration
D. Apoptosis
E. Anergy
Q94. Glomerulonephritis in SLE is a
A. Type I Hypersensitivity
B. Type II Hypersensitivity
C. Type III Hypersensitivity
D. Type IV Hypersensitivity
E. All the above
Q95. The microscopic findings in canine SLE in the skin include all EXCEPT
A. Panniculitis
B. Interface dermatitis
C. Full thickness epidermal necrosis
D. Vasculitis with fibrinoid necrosis
E. Basal cell vacuolation and necrosis
Q96. Which of the following is not part of central tolerance?
A. AIRE
B. CTLA
C. Self-reactive TCR
D. Thymic epithelium
E. Membrane bound self antigen in the bone marrow
Q97. Which of the following do not participate in T cell anergy?
A. B7
B. CD28
C. CTLA
D. MHC I
E. Self antigens
Q98. Activation induced cell death can involve all of the following except?
A. Activated T lymphocytes
B. B cell CD 95
C. T cell Fas L
D. B cell FasL
E. BIM
Q99. Infections may contribute to autoimmune disease by which of the following

ways?
A. Upregulating the expression of co-stimulators on APC’s

B. Microbes expressing antigens similar to self antigens.
C. Tissue injury may expose cryptic self antigens
D. Tissue injury may alter self antigens.
E. all of the above
Q100. Which of the following statements about SCID in horses is incorrect?
A. Severe lymphopenia is seen

B. It is an autosomal recessive disorder
C. The thymus is small or undetectable
D. The CD4+:CD8+ ratio is about 15:1
E. The mutation is a spontaneous mutation in the DNA-dependent protein kinase gene
Q101. .Which of the following is correct regarding immunologic tolerance?
A. Both central and peripheral tolerance occur in the thymus

B. Immunologic tolerance is due to a lack of an immune response
C. All self reactive B and T lymphocytes are deleted during development
D. Peripheral tolerance has a greater influence than central tolerance in the development
of autoimmunity
E. All are incorrect
Q102. Which is not a mechanism for peripheral tolerance?
A. Anergy
B. Antigen sequestration
C. Suppression by regulatory T-cells
D. Fas-ligand activation-induced cell death
E. Production of autoimmune regulatory protein (AIRE)
Q103. Which is not a potential mechanism by which microbes trigger autoimmunity?
A. Molecular mimicry
B. Epitope spreading
C. Increased expression of cryptic epitopes
D. Decreased expression of MHC molecules
E. Up-regulation of co-stimulatory molecules on APC’s
Q104. Dysregulation of which cell causes loss of immunologic tolerance in SLE?
A. B-lymphocytes
B. CD4 T-lymphocytes
C. CD8 T-lymphocytes
D. Antigen presenting cells
E. Suppressor T-lymphocytes
Q105. Which of the following is false regarding amyloid?
A. All amyloid proteins form β-pleated sheets

B. All amyloid stains orange to red with Congo red stain
C. Only primary amyloidosis (AL type) bifringes green when polarized
D. Primary amyloidosis is the most common systemic form and is of the AL type
E. Both c and d
Q106. Which of the following pairs (disease : amyloid form) is incorrect?
A. Amyloid of aging : AA
B. Immune dyscrasias : AL
C. Familial amyloidosis : AA
D. Islet cell amyloidosis in cats : IAPP
E. Chronic inflammatory conditions : AA
Q107. The following is NOT true regarding amyloid
A. Aβ is derived from amyloid precursor protein

B. AA amyloid is derived from serum amyloid A
C. Aβ is associated with neurodegeneration in canines
D. B-cells and plasma cells are associated with AL amyloid
E. Serum amyloid P protein increases the susceptibility of amyloid fibrils to
proteolysis
Q108. AL amyloid is formed from:
A. Complement proteins
B. Immunoglobulin Fc portions
C. Immunoglobulin light chains
D. Immunoglobulin heavy chains
E. Entire immunoglobulin molecules
Q109. Congo red can be used to identify:
A. Serum amyloid A
B. Specifically AL amyloid
C. Specifically AA amyloid
D. Immunoglobulin molecules
E. Any cross-β-pleated configuration of amyloid
Q110. Familial amyloidosis in the dog and cat is due to deposition of:
A. Aβ amyloid fibril protein

B. AL amyloid fibril protein
C. AA amyloid fibril protein
D. Misfolded prion protein PrPSC
E. Both B and C
Q111. Peripherial tolerance does not include
A. Anergy
B. Antigen sequestration
C. Suppression by regulatory T cells
D. Negative selection of developing lymphocytes
E. Clonal deletion by activation-induced cell death
Q112. Type III hypersensitivity reactions in SLE affect

A. Skin
B. Joints
C. Kidneys
D. Vessels
E. All of the above
Q113. Common clinical signs of SLE include all of the following except
A. Fever
B. Anemia
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Erosive polyarthritis
E. Exfoliative or ulcerative dermatitis
Q114. Beagle pain syndrome is a
A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction

B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
Q115. Chronic recurrent gastrointestinal infections are likely caused by which defect
A. Granulocyte
B. Complement
C. T-Lymphocyte
D. B-Lymphocyte
Q116. A defect on CD40L would cause

1. Increased IgE
2. Increased IgM
3. Decreased IgA
4. Decreased IgG
5. Decreased IgM
A. 1,3,4
B. 1,2,3,4
C. 1,3,4,5
D. 2,3,4
E. 2,3,4,5
Q117. Canine XSCID T-lymphocytes are nonfunctional due to a defect of
A. IL-1
B. IL-2
C. IL-8
D. IL-11
E. IL-14
Q118. Which of the following are amyloid fibrillar proteins
1. AL
2. AA
3. Aβ
4. SAA
5. APP
A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,5
D. 1,2,4,5
E. 1,2,3,4,5
Q119. The most often idenitifed light chain in AL amyloidosis is
A. α
B. β
C. γ
D. λ
E. κ
Q110. Which of the following does not normally have AA fibrillar amyloid proteins
A. Reactive systemic amyloidosis

B. Familial systemic amyloidosis
C. Familial localized amyloidosis
D. Primary amyloidosis
1) D; (PBVD pp 195) MyD88 is required for signaling and not binding of LPS to
TLR
2) C. CD21 is complement receptor 2 required for B cell activation by
complement C3b and C3d. However, it also acts as receptor for Epstein-Barr
virus.
3) D. B-lymphocytes and γ δ -TCR lymphocyte don’t require MHC complex
and can directly recognize antigen.
4) C (Robbins p. 194)
5) A (Robbins p. 195)
6) A (Robbins p. 198)
12) A (Robbins p. 198) – CD3 are molecules associated with signal transduction
that are attached to the TCR
13) D (Robbins p. 198)
14) B (Robbins p. 195)
15) B (PBVD 199) Site of B-cell development in some species (ruminants, pigs,
dogs, and humans)
16) D (PBVD 198) Found on AP cells, binds CD28, and is part of the
costimulatory pathway ceded for T-cell activation
17) D (Robbins p. 199)- CD40 receptor on B-cells interacts with CD40 ligand
from helper T-cells and functions to allow B-cell development into antibody
secreting plasma cells. Failure to express CD40 ligand has been associated with
an inability to isotype switch, resulting in hyper IgM sybdrome.
18) B (Robbins/PBVD 195)
19) C (Robbins/PBVD 195) (The ligand binds to the TLR, activating TIR, which
recruits MyD88, followed by IRAK. The following cascade activates NF-κВ.)
20) A (/PBVD 199)
21) B (Robbins 197) (CD28 binds with CD80 or CD86 on the antigen presenting
cell to produce Signal 2)
22) B; (PBVD 201-202), Follicular dendritic cells are located in lymphoid
follicles; are not bone marrow derived, do not express MHC II molecules, and do
not function as antigen presenting cells. They have Fc receptors and C3b
receptors and thought to involve in development and maintenance of B
lymphocytes.
23) E; (PBVD pp 202) NK cells do not express antigen specific TCR or CD3
molecules
24) D.
25) D (Robbins p. 199) (Any cell is capable of presenting antigen to T cells which
are called non-professional APC’s)
27) D (PBVD p. 206) (Every cell expresses MHC I to prevent CD8 T cell
mediated cytotoxicity)
28) C (PBVD p. 201)- Kidney macrophages are called masangial cells
29) B (PBVD p. 203)
30) A (Robbins p. 201)CD16 is the Fc receptor for IgG
31) B (Robbins p. 204)Exogenous Ag’s are internalized and processed in
endosomes or lysosomes
32) E (PBVD 201)
33) D (PBVD 202/203)
34) D (Robbins p. 202)
35) A (PBVD 206)
36) C (PBVD pp. 201-202) – NK cells do not express CD3
37) C (PBVD pp. 204)
38) E (PBVD pp. 207)– MHCII molecules process antigens from an exogenous
source
39) E; (Robbins pp 209)
40) C; (Robbins pp 207-208, PBVD 214) IL-13 promotes IgE production and acts
on epithelial cells to stimulate mucus secretion.
41) A; Leukotrience C4, D4 and Prostaglandins D2 (vascular permeability and
smooth muscle spasm), Histamine (vascular permeability), Leukotriene B4
(chemotaxis)
42) A (Robbins. P 207)
43) B (Robbins. P 206)
44) D (Robbins. P 209)
45) B (Robbins. P 207)
46) B p201 Robbins.
47) E p 201 Robbins
48) A (PBVD p. 210)
49) C; (PBVD p. 210) anaphylaxis =type I, Contact dermatitis = Type IV
50) A (PBVD p. 213); metachromatic dyes are dyes that can stain components a
different colour to the dye. Giemsa is a mix of eosin and methylene blue, and
therefore not a metachromatic dye.
51) E (Robbins. P 207)
52) D (Robbins. P 208)
53) C-(PBVD p. 214) Eosinophils recruited during the early response play an
active role in the late-phase response by releasing components of their granules,
synthesizing lipid mediators, and producing cytokines
54) E (PBVD p. 215)
55) D (PBVD 214/Robbins 208)
56) A (PBVD 214/Robbins 209)
57) C (PBVD 210/Robbins 206)
58) D; PBVD 220
59) D
60) C; PBVD p. 218
61) A; (Robbins Fig 6-16)
62) D; Robbins p. 210
63) E (Robbins p. 214)
64) E (PBVD p.216) All the others have Fc receptors
65) D (PBVD p.218)
66) A (PBVD 218)
67) E (PBVD 220)
68) D (Robbins 213)
69) D; (Robbins pp 217)
70) C: (Robbins pp 219) cytotoxic lymphocytes may be generated by indirect
pathway but cannot kill graft cells as they recognize graft antigens presented by
hosts APC.
71) B (Robbins p. 217) IL-1 secreted from APC’s to naïve CD4+ T-lymphocytes
will drive a Th2 response
72) B (PBVD p. 226)
75) A (p 208 Robbins). TH2 responses are required to create IgE antibodies which
are then attached to Mast cells via Fc receptors and activate mast cell
degranulation by cross linking when an antigen binds to them.
76) B (pp 208 Robbins). IL-5 activates eosinophils, IL-13 promotes IgE production
and acts on epithelial cells to secrete mucus.
77) E (p209 Robbins). PAF directly activates mast cells at high concentrations, and
attracts eosinophils which directly activate mast cells. Histamine and PGD2 both
cause bronchospasm and mucus secretion. Neutral proteases and acid hydrolases
generate kinins and activate complement, which attracts neutrophils. PAF, and
LTB4 attract neutrophils and eosinophils. Primary mediators also include ECF
and NCF.
78) C (p209 Robbins). TNF causes epithelial cells to produce eotaxin.
79) E (PBVD 220)
80) D (Robbins 213)
81) E (Robbins p. 217) IFN-γ promotes secretion of PDGF which stimulates
fibroblast proliferation
82) E (PBVD p. 225)
83) E (PBVD p. 229) – this is central tolerance
84) B (PBVD p. 231) (autoimmune regulator)
85) E (PBVD p. 235) diagnosis of SLE requires demonstration of at least 4 out of
11 criteria (Robbins table 6-8, p. 228) of which a-d are some of the individual
criteria
86) E. (p210, 214 Robbins) Classical pathway- IgG, IgM, alternate pathway IgA.
87) A (p210 Robbins) C3b and C4b opsonize cells, and macrophages bind via
complement receptor and phagocytose them. Complement forms MAC for cell
lysis, and C3a, C5a recruit leukocytes. C3a activates mast cells, and C5a
activates endothelial cells
88) E. (p210 Robbins) Cells bind to Fc region of IgG or IgE (eos) and lysis occurs
without phagocytosis
89) C ( p210 Robbins) Type II reactions can be directed against basement
membrane or extracellular matrix components resulting in inflammation and
tissue dysfunction. It also may be directed against drug metabolites incorporated
into cell membranes
90) A (p 216 Robbins) Th1 cells produce IL-2, IFN-γ, and TNF
91) E (p 217 Robbins)
92) A (p218 Robbins)
93) A (Robbins p. 224 figure 6-27)
95) C (PBVD p0236)
96) B (p224 Robbins). CTLA is involved in peripheral tolerance by binding to B7
on APC’s and initiating an inhibitory signal to T cells. AIRE is thought to
stimulate expression of peripheral self-antigens in the thymus. Thymic
epithelium and bone marrow cells are involved in antigen presentation to T cells.
97) B (p224 Robbins). Anergy results from lack of costimulation (CD28-B7), B7
can bind to CTLA an dproduce an inhibitory signal  anergy. CD28 is not
involved.
98) D (p225 Robbins). CD95 = Fas, which can be present on B or T cells. As far
as I know B cells do not normally express FasL. Acitvation induced cell death
requires activated T cells which then express FasL.
99) E (p226-227).
100) D (PBVD p. 240) There is deficiency of all T and B-lymphocytes
101) D (PBVD p. 228)
102) E- (Robbins p.224) This protein is thought to stimulate expression of many
peripheral Ag’s in the thymus (central tolerance) and is critical for deletion if
immature self-reactive T-cells
103) D (PBVD p. 234) MHC expression is induced by cytokines
104) B (PBVD p.237)
105) C (PBVD p. 247)
106) A (PBVD p.248) Amyloid of aging is the Aβ form
107) E: (PBVD pp 247)
108) C (Robbins pp 259)
109) E (Robbins pp 259)
110) C (PBVD pp 248)
111) D (Negative selection of developing lymphocytes is central tolerance)
112) E (PBVD 235)
113) D (PBVD 235) (SLE is causes nonerosive polyarthritis; rheumatoid
arthritis is erosive)
114) C (PBVD pp 239)(Beagle pain syndrome is a polyarteritis)
115) D (PBVD pp 241) (IgA production in mucosal immunity is decreased)
116) D (PBVD pp 241) (CD40L is expressed on T-helper cells, allowing
immature B-lymphocytes to activate)
117) B (PBVD pp 242) (canine XSCID affects the gamma chain of IL-
2,4,7,9,15)
118) B (PBVD pp 247) (SAA and APP are precursors)
119) D (PBVD pp 247)
120) D (PBVD pp 248) (Primary amyloidosis is AL)
Which of the following is the major component of innate immunity?
a. Epithelial barriers
b. Complements
c. Phagocytes
d. NK cells
e. All of the above
Answer e ref. page197
Which of the following is correct?
1) Complement system is activated by binding to microbial component using the

alternative pathway in innate immunity
2) Complement system is activated by binding to microbial composnent using
the classical pathway in innate immunity
3) Complement system is activated by binding to antibodies using the alternative
pathway in adaptive immunity
4) Complement system is activated by binding to antibodies using the classical
pathway in adaptive immunity
a. 1,2
b. 1,3
c. 1,4
d. 2,3
e. 3,4
Answer c ref. page194
All of the followings are expressed by T cell, except:
a. CD3
b. ζ protein
c. CD 4
d. CD 21
e. CD 28
Answer d ref. page 198,199
Which of the following is correct?
a. NK cells rearrange T-cell receptor genes

b. NK cells are CD3 positive
c. Killer inhibitory receptors bind to class II MHC molecules
d. NKG2D is a killer inhibitory receptors
e. None of the above
Answer e ref. page 201
All of the following is a cytokine that mediate innate immunity, except”
a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-12
d. IFN-γ
e. TNF-α
Answer b ref. page 202
All of the following is correct regarding type I hypersensitivity, except:
a. Mast cells are central to the development of initial reaction

b. Most immediate hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by IgE antibodies
c. IgE is synthesized by TH2 (T-helper type 2 CD4) cells
d. Host susceptibility could be genetically determined
e. IgE antibody-IgE Fc receptor binding activates signal transduction for
degranulation of mast cell granules
Answer c ref. page 206,207
All of the following is type II hypersensitivity, except:
a. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

b. Purpura hemorrhagica
c. Transfusion reactions
d. Pemphigus vulgaris
e. Myasthenia gravis
Answer b ref. page 210
Which of the following is the direct effect of antigen-antibody complexes?
1. Platelet aggregation
2. Complement activation
3. Fc receptor engagement
4. C3b receptor engagement
5. Activation of Hageman factor
a. 1
b. 1,2
c. 1,2,3,
d. 1,2,3,4
e. 1,2,3,4,5
Answer e ref. page 213, 214 (fig 6-16)
All of the following conditions are mediated predominantly by Type IV

hypersensitivity, EXCEPT:
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Contact dermatitis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Autoimmune dermatitis
e. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Answer d ref. page 215, Table 6-6
Which of the following is correct regarding type IV hypersensitivity?
a. IL-12 proliferate T cells in autocrine and paracrine fashion

b. CD4+ T cells interact with antigen in association with class I MHC molecules
c. CD8+ T cells interact with antigen in association with class II MHC
molecules
d. IL-2 produced by antigen presenting cells is critical for the differentiation of
naïve CD4+ T cells to Th1 cells
e. Mechanisms by which cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill their targets include
perforin-granzymes pathway and Fas-Fas ligand pathway
Answer e ref. page 215,216
Which of the following are CORRECT? (197-198)
1) CD4 molecules bind to antigens presented by MHC class II molecules.

2) CD8 molecules bind to antigens presented by MHC class I molecules.
3) TH1 cells are involved in elimination of intracellular organisms.
4) TH2 cells are involved in elimination of extracellular organisms.
5) NK-1 T cells recognize glycolipids displayed by MHC molecules.
A) 1,2,3,4
B) 1,3,4,5
C) 2,3,4,5
D) 3,4,5
E) 4,5
Answer: A
Which of the following is INCORRECT? (Page 198-199)
1) IgM is presented on the surface of naïve B-cells.

2) Igα and Igβ bind antigens directly and are essential for signal transduction
through the antigen receptor.
3) T helper cells are needed in order for B cells to express other classes of
immunoglobulins.
4) B cells can present antigens to T cells.
5) Mature B cells constitute 60% of the circulating peripheral lymphocyte
population.
A) 1,3,5
B) 2,3,5
C) 2,5
D) 3,5
E) 4,5
Answer: C
Histamine causes the following EXCEPT? (Page 208)
A) Smooth muscle contractions

B) Increased vascular permeability
C) Increased mucous secretion
D) Vasodilation
E) Chemotactic for neutrophils
Answer: E
Which of the following does not influence wether the immune complex formation
will lead to tissue deposition and dz: (Page 213)
A) Valency of the antigen

B) Three dimensional structure of the complexes
C) Charge of the immune complexes
D) Avidity of the antibody
E) Class of immunoglobulins
Answer: E
Pathogenesis of immune complex mediated tissue injury is not mediated via: (page
214)
A) Platelet aggregation
B) Complement activation
C) Activation of NK cells
D) Activation of Hagemen factor
E) Fc receptor engagement
Answer: C
Which of the following are incorrect concerning PAF? (P208-209)
1) Causes platelet aggregation

2) Releases histamine
3) Bronchospams
4) Decreased vascular permeability
5) Vasodilation
6) Product of arachidonic acid metabolism.
A) 1,4,6
B) 2,3,6
C) 4,5,6
D) 4,5
E) 4,6
Answer: E
All of the following are true concerning graft rejections EXCEPT: (Page 220)
A) Chronic rejection is dominated by vascular changes, interstitial fibrosis and

tubular atrophy with loss of renal parenchyma.
B) Acute rejections may occur months or years later.
C) Hyperacute rejections point to an antigen-antibody reaction at the level of
vascular endothelium.
D) In acute humoral rejections, CD8+ cells injure the vascular endothelium
causing endothelitis.
Answer: D
Which of the following is an effector cell for type IV hypersensitivity reactions?
A) Eosinophils
B) Neutrophils
C) CD8+ T cells
D) CD4+ T cells
E) Plasma cells
ANSWER: C Page #’s: 215-219, Fig. 6-23 page 219
All of the following are the mechanisms of the peripheral tolerance of self-reactive T-
cells, except:
a. Anergy
b. Deletion of intrathymic T cells
c. Suppression by regulatory T cells
d. Clonal deletion by activation-induced cell death
e. Antigen sequestration in immune-privileged sites
Answer b ß central tolerance ref. page255
Most of the visceral lesions in systemic lupus erythematosus are mediated by:
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity
e. None of the above
Answer c ref. page230
Glomerulonephritis associated with systemic lupus erythematosus is due to which of

the following?
A) Antibodies directed against glomerular capillary membranes

B) Antigen-antibody complex deposition in glomeruli
C) Amyloid deposition in glomerular capillaries
D) Fibrin thrombi in glomerular capillaries
E) Glomerular necrosis
ANSWER: B Page #: 231
Microscopic skin lesions of canine systemic lupus erythematosus include which of

the following?
A) Full thickness epidermal necrosis

B) Suprabasal vesicles that contain acanthocytes
C) Subcorneal and intragranular pustules with acanthocytes
D) Interface dermatitis with apoptotic basal keratinocytes and vesicle formation
E) Interface dermatitis with apoptotic keratinocytes in all layers of the epidermis
ANSWER: D Page #: 233, Small Animal Dermatology 6th edition Page #707
The pathogenic mechanism of hyper-IgM syndrome is which of the following?
A) Lymphoproliferative disorder of IgM producing B cells

B) Abundance of B cells that produce IgA, IgE, and IgG
C) A defect in the CD40L expressed in T cells
D) A deficiency of antigen presenting cells
E) Absence of neutrophil myeloperoxidase
ANSWER: C Page: 241 Fig. 6-42 and 243
Which of the following cells are targets of HIV infection?
1. Plasma cell
2. CD4+ T cell
3. CD8+ T cell
4. Macrophage
5. Dendritic cell
a. 1,2,3
b. 1,3,4
c. 1,4,5
d. 2,3,4
e. 2,4,5
Answer e ref. 248

Which of the following is true regarding AA (amyloid-associated) amyloidosis?
1. AA has structural homology to immunoglobulin

2. AA is derived from SAA synthesized in the liver
3. AA does not have structural homology to immunoglobulin
4. AA is derived from a mutant form of transthyretin (TTR)
5. Bence Jones protein is frequently excreted in the urine
a. 1,2
b. 1,5
c. 2,3
d. 3,4
e. 4,5
Answer c ref. page259-260
Which of the following is AA amyloidosis?
1. Familial amyloidosis of Shar-Pei dogs

2. Familial amyloidosis of Abyssinian cats
3. Cutaneous amyloidosis of horses
a. 1
b. 1,2
c. 1,2,3
d. 2
e. 3
Answer b ref. Tizard p46-47 +α

The following are true regarding T-cell activation except:
A) IL-2 is needed for T-cell activation
B) Cytokines are secreted after activation
C) The TCR needs to engaged by MHC bound antigen
D) Coreceptors CD4 or CD8 need to bind to MHC molecule
E) The CD28 molecule needs to interact with B7-1 (CD80) and B7-2 (CD86) on the
antigen presenting cell
Answer: A page 198 IL_2 for proliferation and secretes is
The following components participate in B-cell activation except:

A) Extracellular antigens
B) IgM and IgD on B-cell surface
C) Transmembrane proteins Igα and Igβ
D) Complement receptor 2 (CD21)
E) CD3 proteins
Answer: E page 198-199
The following are true regarding NK cells except:

1) They are CD 3, CD16 and CD56 positive
2) NK cells secrete IFN-γ, TNF and GM-CSF
3) Inhibitory receptors recognize class I MHC receptors
4) Inhibitory receptors recognize class II MHC receptors
5) Activating receptors recognize stress-induced proteins
A) 1,2
B) 1,4
C) 2,3
D) 2,4
E) 4,5
Answer: B Pages 201-202
The following are true regarding the role of TH2 cells in Type 1 hypersensitivity
reactions except:
A) Secrete IL-2 for T cell proliferation TH1 does this
B) Secrete IL-5 which activates Eosinophils
C) Secrete IL-13 to promote IgE production
D) Secrete IL-4 to turn on IgE producing B cells
E) Secrete IL-13 to stimulate mucus secretion by epithelial cells
Answer: A pages: 208,198
The following are true regarding Type II hypersensitivity except:

A) Host cells opsonized by IgE stimulate Mast cells
B) Host cells opsonized by IgG antibodies are phagocytized
C) Host cells destroyed by antibody-dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC)
D) Host cells opsonized by byproducts of complement activation are phagocytized
E) Antibodies deposited in extracellular tissues cause damage by release of injurious
substances from leukocytes
Answer: A pages: 210-211

The following are diseases associated with Immune Complex mediated (Type III)
hypersensitivity:
2) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
3) Polayarteritis Nodosa
4) Pemphigus vulgaris
5) Arthus reaction
A) 1,2,3
B) 1,3,5
C) 2,3,4
D) 2,3,5
E) 3,4,5
Answer: D pages 212, 214
The following steps occur during type III hypersensitivity reactions except:
A) Activation of neutrophils and macrophages through the Fc receptor
B) Formation of antigen-antibody complexes in the circulation
C) Deposition of the immune complexes in blood vessels
D) Complement activation by AG-AB complexes
E) Production of IgE by B cells
Answer: E pages 213-214
The following cytokines are important in Delayed type hypersensitivity:

1) IL-2
2) TNF
3) IL-5
4) IL-12
5) IFN- γ
A) 1,2,3,4
B) 1,2,4,5
C) 1,3,4,5
D) 2,3,4,5
E) 1,2,3,4,5
Answer : B pages 216-217 IL-5 activates eosinophils
This protein or receptor is important in central tolerance to prevent autoimmunity:

A) AIRE (autoimmune regulator) protein
B) Membrane protein FasL
C) CTLA-4 receptor
D) FAS receptor
E) Foxp3
Answer: A page 224, 226 others affect peripheral tolerance
The following are contributing factors to the pathogenesis of SLE except:

A) IgG autoantibody production
B) IgE autoantibody production
C) Genetically susceptible individual
D) Activation of helper T cells and B cells
E) Immune complex and autoantibody mediated tissue injury
Answer: B Page 230
The presence of the following antinuclear antibodies is diagnostic for SLE:

1) Anti-double-stranded DNA
2) Anticentromere
3) Antihistone
4) Anti-Sm
5) Anti-Bm
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 2, 4
E) 3, 5
Answer: B page 229
The following are true regarding primary immunodeficiencies except:

A) Mutations in CD 40 or CD40L leads to Hyper-IgM syndrome
B) Autosomal recessive SCID is due to deficiency of (ADA) adenosine deaminase
C) A mutation in the γ chain subunit of cytokine receptors occurs with x-linked SCID
D) Isolated IgA deficiency is due to mutation that impairs expression of Class II
MHC molecules
E) Failure of B cell precursors to mature into B cells is due to mutations in B-cell
tyrosine kinase (Btk)
Answer: D pages 241, 242, and 244 (wrong b/c form of SCID
The following viruses are in the Lentivirus family except:

A) HIV
B) Visna virus of sheep
C) Bovine Leukemia Virus
D) Feline immunodeficiency virus
E) Simian immunodeficiency virus
Answer: C in oncornavirus page 246
The following virus(es) cause tumors in HIV infected patients:

1) Human Herpesvirus 8 (KSHV)
2) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
3) Human Papillomavirus
4) Cytomegalovirus
5) West Nile Virus
A) 1
B) 1,2
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
E) 1,2,3,4,5
Answer: C page 256
A defect resulting in an abnormality in all of the C-C receptors would result in which
of the following?
A) Resistance to infection with M-tropic HIV virus and a decreased response to

TNF
B) Resistance to infection with T-tropic HIV virus and decreased chemotaxis for
neutrophils
C) Resistance to infection with M-tropic HIV virus and decreased chemotaxis of
monocytes
D) Resistance to infection with T-tropic HIV virus and decreased chemotaxis for
eosinophils
E) Resistance to infection with M-tropic HIV virus and increased activation of
intracellular RAS leading to neoplasia
ANSWER: C Page #’s: 71, 98, and 248
Which of the following TLRs is involved in response to double stranded RNA

viruses? (p195)
A. TLR2
B. TLR3
C. TLR4
D. TLR5
E. TLR6
Answer: B
In the absence of which one of the following molecules, T-cells undergo apoptosis or
become unreactive? (p198)
A. CD3
B. CD4
C. CD8
D. CD28
E. CD40
Answer: D
The following are true regarding NK cells except:

A. Do not express CD3
B. Inhibited by decreased expression of MHC I molecules
C. Activated by IFN-α and IFN-β released by virus infected cells
D. CD 16 and CD 56 expression are commonly used for identification
E. Stress induced proteins and viral proteins are important ligands for activating
receptor
Answer: B page 203 decreased expression prevents binding of inhibitory receptor
All of the following are true concerning toll-like receptors except:
A. TLR 4 is specific for LPS

B. TLRs 1,2,4,6 recognize bacterial products
C. TLRs 3,7,8,9 are involved with viral detection
D. they are characterized as pattern recognition receptors
E. all TLRs contain a cysteine-rich repeat motif flanked by a leucine-rich motif
Answer: E pg 194-195 PBVD
Which of the following are correct regarding cytokines?
1. IFN-γ activated macrophages

2. C-C chemokines are produced largely by B cells
3. IL-15 stimulates growth and activity of NK cells
4. IL-12 stimulates differentiation to the TH2 pathway
5. interleukins mediate communication between leukocytes
A. 1,2,5
B. 1,3,4
C. 1,3,5
D. 2,3,4
E. 2,3,5
Answer: C pg 202-203
All of the following are true regarding NK cells except:
A. they are CD3 positive

B. CD16 and CD56 are used to identify NK cells
C. CD94-NKG2A is an inhibitory receptor of NK cells
D. they are also known as large granular lymphocytes
E. decreased expression of class I MHC molecules results in cell lysis
Answer: A pg 201
Which of the following cytokines released by mast cells during a type I reaction
contribute to B lymphocyte activation and IgE synthesis?
A. IL-4, IL-5
B. IL-4, IL-6
C. IL-5, IL-6
D. TNF-α, IL-4
E. TNF-α, IL-5
Answer: A pg 214, PBVD
Which one of the following diseases/disorders is an example of type III

hypersensitivity? (p 212)
1. Reactive arthritis
2. Bronchial asthma
3. Acute rheumatic fever
4. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
5. Autoimmune thrombocytopenia
Answer: A
Which of the following scenarios would most likely result in a Type III
A. antigen in great excess of antibody
B. antigen in slight excess of antibody
C. antibody in great excess of antigen
D. antibody in slight excess of antigen
E. equal amounts of antigen and antibody
Answer: B pg 218, PBVD
All of the following are Type III hypersensitivity reactions, except:
A. COPD
B. serum sickness
C. pemphigus foliaceus
D. Aleutian mink disease
E. systemic lupus erythematosus
Answer: C Tables 5-8 & 5-9, PBVD
Which of the following statements is false regarding IFN-γ? (p 216-217)
A. IL-12 is a potent inducer of IFN-γ secretion by T cells and NK cells.

B. IFN-γ is secreted by macrophages in delayed type hypersensitivity.
C. IFN-γ augments the differentiation of TH1 cells.
D. IFN-γ is a powerful activator of macrophages.
E. In DTH memory TH1 cells secret IFN-γ.
Answer: B
An increase in the amount of FLIP would affect T cell-mediated cytotoxicity in which

of the following ways?
A. increased cross-linkage of Fas

B. inhibition of Fas-Fas ligand-dependent killing
C. increased perfoin penetration of plasma membranes
D. decreased perfoin penetration of plasma membranes
E. altered granzyme function with lack of caspase activation
Answer: B pg. 29, 218
Which of the following are true concerning peripheral tolerance?
1. autoimmune disease may result from ocular trauma

2. lymphocyte activation may be inhibited by CD25+ TH2 cells
3. lack of a specific T helper cell may result in B lymphocyte anergy
4. Fas-Fas ligand signaling can lead to cell death of T and B lymphocytes
5. the absence of B7 on an antigen presenting cell may result in anergy of T
lymphocytes
A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,5
E. 1,2,3,4,5
Answer: E pg 230-231, PBVD
Which of the following are the most frequently affected tissues in animals with SLE?
1. skin
2. joint
3. spleen
4. kidney
5. bone marrow
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 2,3,5
E. 3,4,5
Answer: B pg 235, PBVD
All of the following histologic skin lesions are consistent with SLE except:
A. vasculitis
B. dermal edema
C. interface dermatitis
D. subcorneal pustules
E. basal cell vacuolation
Answer: C pg 236, 1217 PBVD
Which of the following statements concerning SCID are true?
1. SCID is autosomal recessive in Arabians

2. Arabians with SCID lack T and B lymphocytes
3. Dogs with SCID have normal IgG and IgA serum concentrations
4. Bassett hounds with SCID have increased numbers of B lymphocytes
5. CB-17 mice with “leaky SCID” produce low numbers of B lymphocytes after
6 months of age
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 2,3,5
E. 3,4,5
Answer: B pg 240-243, PBVD
Lack of CD14 will directly cause the following:

A) Secretion of only IgM from B cells
B) No interaction of CD4+ T cell with CD80
C) No binding of CD8 receptor to MHC I molecule
D) No binding of CD4 receptor to MHC II molecule
E) Inefficient LPS-induced signaling of toll like receptors
Answer: E page 195
Tcells bind to CD 40 for maturation of b cells and secretion of IgG, IgX and IgE
CD 28 on T cells bonds with CD 80
Which of the following cytokines secreted by macrophages and dendritic cells is

necessary to drive naïve CD4+ cells to Th1 cells?
A) IL-2
B) IL-5
C) IL-12
D) IFN-γ
E) Lymphotoxin
Answer: C pages 216-217
A=proliferation of T cells B=activates eosinophils D=powerful activator of

macrophages E=stimulate endothelium to facilitate extravasation of lymphocytes and
macrophages
All of the following pathogens are commonly associated with Type IV

hypersensitivity reactions except:
A) Listeria
B) Canine Adenovirus 1
C) Histoplasma capsulatum
D) Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus
E) Mycobacterium avium ssp. Paratuberculosis
Answer: B page 225 PBVD

A neoplasm composed of multiple cell types from more than one germ cell layer is a:
A) Cyst
B) Teratoma
C) Choristoma
D) Hamartoma
E) Pleomorphic adenoma (mixed tumor)
Answer: B Robbins page 271

Choristoma=histologically normal tissue in abnormal location;
Hamartoma=disorganized tissue but mature specialized tissue indigenous to particular
site
Which of the following is the definitive criteria for malignancy:

A) Mitosis
B) Anaplasia
C) Metaplasia
D) Metastasis
E) Infiltrative growth
Answer: D page 258 PBVD
The following domestic animal species have been documented to have a systemic,
familial form of amyloidosis:
1) Angus cow
2) Sharpei dog
3) Siamese cat
4) Abyssinian cat
5) Chow Chow dog
A) 1,2,3
B) 2,3,4
C) 2,3,4,5
D) 4,5
E) 5
Answer: B page 248
1. Which of the following cytokines are secreted by Th1 cells? (p. 198 Robbins)
1) IL-2
2) IL-4
3) IL-5
4) IL-13
5) IFN-γ
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 5
C) 2, 3
D) 3, 4
E) 3, 5
Answer: B
2. Which one of the following is not a ligand for TLR2? (p. 195 Robbins)
A) zymogen from fungi
B) lipoproteins from bacteria
C) double-stranded RNA from viruses
D) peptidoglycan from gram + bacteria
E) lipopolysaccharide from gram - bacteria
Answer: C
1) Initial activation of cytotoxic T-cells requires stimulation with which molecules?

Robbins p198
a) TCR + CD4 + MHC II

b) TCR + CD8 +MHC I
c) TCR + CD8 + MHC I; CD 28 + CD 80
d) TCR + CD4 + MHC II; CD 28 + CD 80
e) TCR + CD8 + MHC I; CD 21 + CD 28
Answer: c
2) Which of the following cytokines provide the stimulus for T-cell proliferation?
Robbins p 198
a) Il-1
b) Il-2
c) Il-4
d) Il-5
e) INF-γ
Answer: b
3) Which of the following can be pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)?

PBVD p195
1) LPS
2) Flagellin
3) peptidoglycan
4) Double stranded RNA
5) Single stranded RNA
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 5
d) 1, 2,3, 4
e) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Answer: e
1) Which of the following cell surface markers are used to identify NK cells?
Robbins p.200
1) CD16
2) CD3
3) CD21
4) CD56
5) CD8
a) 1
b) 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 4
e) 1, 5
Answer: D
2) Which of the following cytokines plays a major role in directing a TH1 response?
a) IFN-γ
b) TNF-α
c) Il-5
d) Il-4
e) Il-15
Answer: A
1) Which of the following is an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction?

Robbins p 206
a) Bronchial asthma
b) Contact dermatitis
c) Transplant rejection
d) Systemic lupus erythematosus
e) Autoimmune haemolytic anemia
Answer: e
2) Which of the following cytokines play a role in Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

Robbins p 208
1) Il-4
2) Il-5
3) Il-12
4) Il-13
5) IFN-γ
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 2, 3, 4, 5
e) 2, 5
Answer: c
3) Which of the following mechanisms of mast cell activation is NOT referred to as

an anaphylactoid reaction? PBVD p213
a) Il-8
b) Cold
c) NSAIDs
d) C3a and C5a
e) Cross-linking of membrane-bound IgE by antigen
Answer: e
4) Which of the following are NOT mast cell primary mediators? PBVD pp. 213-
214
1) Heparin
2) Serotonin
3) Histamine
4) Acid hydrolases
5) Platelet Activating Factor (PAF)
a) 4
b) 5
c) 1, 2
d) 2, 4
e) 4, 5
Answer: b
1) Which of the following situations will most likely result in a type III
PBVD p.
218
a) Antibody is in great excess to the quantity of antigen

b) Antigen is in great excess of the quantity of antibody
c) Antigen is in slight excess of the quantity of antibody
d) There is an excessive amount of complement proteins in the circulation
e) There is an exaggerated monocyte-macrophage phagocytic system response
Answer: c
2) Which of the following tissues/organs are particularly vulnerable to immune

complex disease? PBVD p. 218
1) Skin
2) Glomeruli
3) Blood vessels
4) Choroid Plexus
5) Synovial membranes
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 5
d) 2, 3, 4, 5
e) 3, 4, 5
Answer: b
3) Which of the following diseases is not an example of a type III hypersensitivity

reaction? PBVD p. 220
a) Serum Sickness
b) Bullous pemphigoid
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Equine infectious anemia
e) Systemic lupus erythematosus
Answer: b
4) The signs of anaphlyaxis in the horse are largely related to which body system/s?
Tizard p339
a) Liver
b) Intestine
c) Respiratory tract
d) b and c
e) a and b
Answer: d
5) The signs of anaphylaxis in the dog are largely related to which body system/s?
Tizard
p339
a) Liver
b) Intestine
c) Respiratory tract
d) b and c
e) a and c
Answer: a
1) Which of the following disorders is NOT associated with a type IV

PBVD pp. 223, 225
a) Tuberculosis
b) Blastomycosis
c) Allograft rejection
d) Allergic contact dermatitis
e) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Answer: e
2) Which of the following statements regarding transplant rejection is incorrect?

Robbins p 218-222
a) The direct pathway involves both CD4+ and CD8+ T-cells

b) The earliest signs of graft rejection can be seen 24-48 hours after transplantation
c) The antigens most responsible for transplant rejection are major histocompatibility
antigens
d) The direct pathway involves recipient T-cells recognizing allogeneic MHC
molecules on the surface of APCs in the graft
e) The indirect pathway involves recipient T-cells recognizing graft antigens in
association with the recipient’s own MHC molecules.
Answer: b
In a delayed hypersensitivity reaction, which one of the following cytokines secreted

by macrophages after an initial exposure to an organism is necessary for
differentiation of naïve CD4+ helper cells into TH1 cells?
A) IL-1
B) IL-2
C) IL-5
D) IL-12
E) IFN-γ
Answer: D

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Chapter 6 (Questions 2008-2009 Compiled)

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General pathology 2008-2009

Compiled by Bhupinder Bawa

Q3. Which of the following lymphocytes can directly recognize antigen?

1. αβ-TCR expressing T-lymphocyte

Q4. All the following contribute to innate immunity EXCEPT

Q6. An activated T-cell after exposure to an antigen by MHC II undergo proliferation

Q12. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. CD3 is the T-cell receptor

Q13. TH2 cells secrete which of the following cytokines?

Q14. Which TLR is responsible for binding LPS?

Q18. Which following TLR is involved with viral detection

Q20. TH2 lymphocytes do not produce

Q21.Which is not part of Signal 1 of the T-cell receptor complex

Q23. All of the following are true for NK cells except?

A. They are not MHC restricted

1. binding of peptides to newly synthesized MHC molecules

Q26.The significance of CD16 on the NK cells

Q27. Which of the following is not true regards MHC molecules

A. NK cells are not MHC restricted

Q28. Which of the following pairs (tissue: monocyte/macrophage cell type) is

A. Liver: Kupfer cells

Q30. Which CD molecule allows NK cells to function in antibody-dependent cell-

A. Ag’s are degraded by the proteasome complex

Q32.. Which cells express MHC class I molecules

Q33. NK-cell mediated lysis requires

A. Decrease/loss of MHC class I molecules

Q35. Peptide fragments of MHC class I molecules bind between

Q36. Which of the following statements about NK cells is incorrect?

A. Do not develop memory cells

Q37. Which of the following groups of chemokines are primarily produced by

A. MHC-II molecules have an α and β chain

Q39. Atopic individuals are characterized by?

A. Genetic predisposition to develop immediate hypersensitivity reactions

Q45. Mast cell degranulation occurs by

A. Cross linking of soluble IgE antibodies in the vicinity of Mast cells

Q46. Which of the following is a ligand for NK cell inhibitory receptor?

Q47. Which of the following are markers for NK cells?

Q49. Which of the following are examples of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction?

Q50. Which of the following is not a metachromatic dye?

Q51. Which cell is not necessary in the development of Type I hypersensitivity

Q52. Which is not a primary mediator contained in mast cell granules?

Q53. Which cell type is particularly important in sustaining Type I (late-phase)

Q54. Which species is most sensitive to developing anaphylaxis?

Q57. Necrotizing vasculitis is a lesion of which type of hypersensitivity reaction

1) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A. Antibody is in great excess to the quantity of antigen

Q61. Deposition of antigen-antibody complexes in a type III hypersensitivity reaction

A. All the below

Q62. Which of the following is not an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction?

Q63. Antigen-antibody complexes lead to tissue injury by which of the following

Q66. Which of the following is not a Type II hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Equine infectious anemia

Q67. Which of the following is not a Type III hypersensitivity reaction?

Q68. What is the order of a Type III hypersensitivity reaction

Q70. Which of the following is unlikely to occur in transplant rejection??

A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction activated by indirect pathway

A. CD4+ Th1 lymphocyte: IL-2

Q72.DTH mediated by cytotoxic CD8+ T-lymphocytes most commonly occurs in

Q75. Th2 lymphocyte responses are involved in which of the following

A. Secretion by nasal, bronchial, and gastric glands

Q78. Epithelial cells may produce all of the following except?

Q79. Which of the following is not a Type III hypersensitivity reaction?

Q80. What is the order of a Type III hypersensitivity reaction?