4 Interview Ques - 1000 (Updated Sampath)

1000 INTERVIEW QUESTIONS
GET READY FOR THE INDUSTRY

1. What is hardware?
A. The physical components of a system which can to touched and feel is called
hardware
2. What is cache memory? And its types?
A. It is small and fast memory which stores the data that is required for the
processor for processing.
B. L1, L2 &L3.
3. What is the difference between DDR1, DDR2 & DDR3?
DDR 1
DDR 2
DDR 3
VOLTAG
E
PINS
2.5
184
1.8
240
1.5
240
FSB
266/333/40
0 MHz
533/667/800M
Hz
1066/1333/1600/1866M
Hz
4. What is the difference between core 2 duo and dual core?

DUAL CORE: separate cache memory for each core.
CORE 2 DUO: shared cache for both cores.
5. Name some processor manufactures?
Intel, AMD.
6. What are the latest processor of Intel and AMD?
7. What is file system and what is the example for the same?
FAT 32
NTFS
Size of Cluster is 4KB
Size of Cluster is 4KB
No security and quota options are available

in this file system.
Security and quota options are available

in this file system.
4tb(tera byte)volume size
volume size can be of 16eb(exa byte)
Max file size is 4GB

Max file 16TB minus 64KB
It defines the way in which files or folders are named, stored and organized.
FAT (File Allocation Table), FAT32 & NTFS (New Technology File System)
8. What is the difference between FAT32 and NTFS?
9. Converting FAT to NTFS?
Conver driveletter:/fs ntfs (Example: convert c:/fs ntfs)
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10.what type of problems are associated with operating system like window
XP?
Answer : If that PC having Windows XP Operating System
Given below are the problems
1. Select boot device in BIOS
2. If you are installed Multiple operating system, select which one you want it
(that files Boot.ini)
3. ntldr misssing press ctrl+alt+del to restart
4. ntdetect.com file is missing press
5. Kernel file is missing press c+a+d to restart (ntkernol)
6. Chkdsk error
7. No media device
8. Bad RAM
9. Fatal Error (Blue Screen)
10. Once enter the OS it is showing low disk
space / low virtual memory, etc..
11. Not properly installed hardware and software drivers (see the device
manager)
12. Your HDD having Bad Sectors
13. Again and again restart
14. System is hanging
11.What is boot loader?
Answer: Boot loader is called Master Boot Record (MBR), where our os is
loaded.
12.What is the technical difference between Desktop Support & Help Desk?
The difference between desktop support and helpdesk are the following:
1. Desktop support is the one doing the troubleshooting on hand.
2. Helpdesk support is the one receiving the call and troubleshoot it remotely.
13. What are the core files required to boot Windows XP?
Answer: ntldr, boot.ini, bootsect.dos, ntdetect.com, ntbootdd.sys,
ntoskrnl.exe, hal.dll, system, device drivers (s.sys)
14.A user calls you they cant login in said they have tried several times what is the
best way to troubleshoot this
Answer:
1. Ask the user check username, password.
2. Check the network connectivity
3. Check the server is on / off
4. Check the system is member of domain/not. If not please connect the
system to domain.
15.What do you mean by formatting and its types?
It is a process of erasing data or creating tracks and sectors and selecting the
file system is called formatting.
Low level formatting and high level formatting.
Low level formatting: creating tracks and sectors is called low level formatting
and it is also called as physical formatting.
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High level formatting: selecting the file system is called high level formatting
and it is also called as logical formatting.
16.How many USB devices can a single pc support?
127
17.ow many PCI devices can we attach to single pc?
It depends upon the mother board manufactures.
18.What do you mean by track, sector and cluster?
Concentric circles on the disk are called tracks.
Sector is the part of track and the size of the sector is 512bytes.
Cluster is a group of sectors.
19.What is the size of sector?
512 bytes
20.What is MBR and what does it contains?
MBR stands for Master Boot Record.
First sector of the hard disk is called MBR.
It contains list of bootable files of O.S and partition information.
21.What do you mean by SMPS? What is the function of SMPS? List out the
different voltages given by SMPS?
SMPS (Switch Mode Power Supply): it is used to convert AC to DC.
Voltage
Blue
white
black
orange
red
yellow
-12 V
-5 V
+3.3 V
+5 V
+12 V
22.List out the different connectors of SMPS and its uses?

Molex, ATX 20/24pin, Mini plug 4pin, Mini or Berg 4pin, SATA power connector.
23.What is BUS?
BUS is the interface through which data is transferred.
24.What is FSB & BSB?
FSB (Front Side Bus): it is the path used by the processor to communicate with
RAM.
BSB (Back Side Bus): it is the path between L2 cache and L3 cache
25.What do you mean by jumper setting in IDE devices?
It is used to set master and slave configuration.
26.What is the difference between IDE & SATA?
SATA(Serail
Advanced
IDE(Interated Drive
Technology
Electronic)
Aattachment)
it has 40 pin
it is 7 pin
it transfer the data 16bit at a
it transfer the data
time with a spped of
1 bit at a time with
100/133Mbps
a speed of 600Mbps
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we can connect 2 IDE devices
to single cable
we can connect 1
device for one cable
max SATA cable

max IDE cable length is 45CM
length is 1M
27.What do you mean by RAID and its types?
RAID (Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disk) or (Redundant Array of
Independent Disk): it is used for fault tolerance. Fault Tolerance provides
continuous availability for data.
28.What is the speed of USB 2.0 and USB3.0?
480Mbps and 5000Mbps.
29.List out the different I/O ports of mother board with uses and no of pins?
30.
31.What is BIOS and what is the function of BIOS?
BIOS (Basic Input Output System)
The BIOS software is built into the PC, and is the first code run by a PC when
powered on ('boot firmware').
The primary function of the BIOS is to set up the hardware and load and start
an operating system
32.What is the function of Northbridge and south bridge?
North Bridge: it controls the communication between RAM, AGP and processor.
South bridge: it controls the communication between other parts of the
mother board.
33. My monitor display a message Please check signal cable what might
be problem and how to troubleshoot the problem?
VGA cable not connected, VGA cable problem, VGA port problem, RAM or RAM
slot problem.
Note: if the monitor is displaying frequency out of range or HZ symbol then
problem with resolution.
34.My monitor display a message Disk boot failure or insert boot media
and select proper boot device what might be problem and how to
troubleshoot the problem?
Hard disk power or data cable is not connected.
IDE/SATA on board interfaces may be disable in BIOS.
OS not available.
35.My pc is continuously restarting what might be the problem?
Virus.
VIRUS stands for (Vital Information Resource Under Seize)
36.My pc is restarting after certain time? What might be the problem?
Overheating. Apply heat sink paste also called as thermal compound and also
check CPU fan.
37.What is fire wire port? IEEE standard for fire wire?
It is used to transfer videos and photos at high speed.IEEE standard for fire
wire is IEEE 1394a(400Mbps) and IEEE 1394b(800mbps)
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38.What are IRQ lines?
IRQ(Interrupt ReQuest) lines: this are the lines used by the processor to
communicate with the other devices.
39.What is the difference between IDE and SCSI?

IDE(Interated Drive Electronic)
it has 40 pin
SCSI(Small Computer
System Interface)
58,68 and 80pin
hard disk rotation speed is 7200RPM
hard disk rotation speed is

1000 to 15000RPM
data transmission speed is 100/133Mbps
data transmission speed is

320Mbps.
we can connect 2 IDE devices to single cable
it depends up on the cable.

Max 32 devices
max IDE cable length is 45CM
max SATA cable length is 25M
40.What is SCSI?
Small Computer System Interface
41.MODEM stands for? What is the function of modem?
MODEM stands for Modulation and Demodulation. MODEM is used to convert
digital signal to analog signal and vice versa.
42.Blue screen of death what might be problem?
It may be problem drivers compatibility or RAM problem or Bad sectors.
43.Edition of OS(XP, Vista & WIN 7)
XP
VISTA
XP-Home
home basic
XPhome
Professional
premium
Business
Enterprise
Ultimate
WINDOWS-7
Starter
home basic
home
premium
professional
business
enterprise
ultimate
44.Min requirement to install operating system

RECOMDE
WINDOWS-7
D
XP for all
VISTA for all
for all
RAM
128MB
1 GB
1 GB
PROCESSO 300MHz
1.0GHz
1.0GHz
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R
HARD DISK
2GB
15 GB
15 GB
45.Types of user Accounts ?

Administrator, standard and guest.
46.What is kernel? What is the kernel file for windows?

Kernel is the interface between hardware and OS. NTOSKRNL is the kernel files
for windows.
47.What is shell?
Shell is the interface between kernel and hardware.
48.What do you mean by booting?

Booting is the process of downloading OS form hard disk to RAM.
49.What do you mean by cold booting and worm booting?

Cold booting: Starting the computer by turning power on is called cold
booting.
Warm booting: Restarting the computer by performing a
reset operation (pressing reset, Ctrl-Alt-Del, etc.) while the computer is still
turned on
50.What do you mean by dual booting?

It is the process of selecting operating system is called dual booting if multiple
O.S is installed.
51.What are the bootable files for XP, VISTA & WINDOWS-7?
XP: NTLDR, Boot.ini
VISTA & WINDOWS-7: Bootmgr, winresume.exe and winload.exe
52.How to update windows?
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Control panel security setting windows update
53.What do you mean by updates?

Process of downloading new features is called updates.
54.What is the I.E version of XP, VISTA & WIN-7?

XP-6.0, VISTA-7.0 and WIN-7 8.0
55.What does u mean by service pack?

Service pack is a collection of updates and hot fixes.
A hot fix is code (sometimes called a patch) that fixes a bug in a product
a bug is a coding error in a computer program.
56.What is antivirus? Types of antivirus?

Antivirus is a program which is used to detect and delete the virus.
57.What is the difference between remote desktop and remote assistance?

By using remote desktop only single user can interact with the desktop where
as in remote assistance both users can interact with same desktop.
58.What is Backup? Types of backups?

Creating a duplicate copy of an existing data is called backup.
XP: normal backup, daily backup, copy backup, incremental backup and
differential backup.
Vista/win-7: normal and incremental backup.
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59.What is the difference between incremental and differential backup?
Incremental backup takes more time for backup and restoration is fast where
as in differential backup it takes less time for backup and more time for
restoration.
60.What is the difference between backup and copy?

COPY
BAKCUP
size of data will be same
it will compress the size
it does not allow you to
modification is possible
modified
copy cannot be schedule
backup can be schedule
automatic restoration is not possible to its original
location
we can restore the data to its

original location dynamically
61.What is re store point?

A restore point is a saved "snapshot" of a computer's data at a specific time.
By creating a restore point, you can save the state of the operating system
and your own data so that if future changes cause a problem, you can restore
the system and your data to the way it was before the changes were made
62.What is last known good configuration?
The Last Known Good Configuration is basically a copy of a computers
hardware configuration and its driver settings. It is taken from the systems
registry readings when a computer has a good, clean boot up.
This copy is made for whenever a computer fails to boot up successfully.
When that happens, the systems operating system is able to pull up the good
copy and perform a successful startup.
63.What are the features of windows 7?

Windows aero, improved graphics, I.E version 8.0, virtual hard disk, windows
power shell and bit drive locker.
64.What is bit locker drive?

It is a feature in win-7 which is used to protect the drive by assigning
password.
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65.What is printer and types of printer?

Printer is a output device which is used to convert softcopy into hardware
copy.
Types of printers: impact and non-impact
Impactdot matrix
Non-impact laser, inkjet.
66.What is print spooler?

A software program responsible for managing all print jobs currently being
sent to the Computer printer
67.What is partition and types of partitions?

Logical division of an hard disk is called partition.
Partition are of three types. 1 primary partition 2. Extended partition 3. Logical
partition.
Max we can create 4 primary partitions, 1 extended partition and n no of
logical partition.
68.What is the difference between basic disk and dynamic disk?

By default every hard disk is basic disk. The main difference between basic
disk and dynamic is we can combine space from multiple hard disks as single
logic unit.
69.What is defragmentation?
The process of moving data to the adjacent cluster is called defragmentation.
Defragmentation improves the performance of the disk.
70.What is roll back drivers?

If the device fails after updating the driver, we can restore the old driver by
using roll back option.
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71.What is device driver? And types?

Device driver is the program or software which is the interface between
computer and hardware.
Drivers are of two types. 1) signed drivers 2) Unsigned drivers
A signed driver is basically a digitally signed driver, which means that the
driver software is associated with a digital certificate given by micro soft.
Run sigverif is the command to verify list of signed and unsigned drivers
72.What is the use of device manager?

Device manger is a console which display the status of device and drivers.
By using device manger we can trouble shoot the device.
XP
Yellow color question mark device is connected drivers are not installed.
Red color cross mark device is disabled.
VISTA AND WIN-7
Yellow color question mark device is connected drivers are not installed.
Down arrow device is disabled.
73.What is ICS?
ICS stands for Internet Connection Sharing which is used to share the internet.
74.Question about 'When I choose ''Shut Down'' from the Start Menu, my
computer restarts instead of shutting down
Answer : Change the registry setting:
>HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\software\microsoft\windows NT\current version\winlogon
Change
>PowerdownAftershutdown from 0 to 1.
75.How to remove start-up items?

Answer: Having programs run when windows loads slows down your start.
There are two ways do disable programs that may be in your startup (like icq,
messanger,)
The easiest is to do the following:
1. start --> run --> msconfig
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2. Click on the "startup" tab (furthest right)\
3. Unclick any items you don't want to load when windows starts.
76.When I choose "Shut Down" from the Start Menu, my computer hangs at
the "Please Wait" screen
Answer:
Most likely, one or more of your drivers is not allowing itself to be unloaded.
This, supposedly, is less of a problem in Windows 98 and Windows Me than in
Windows 95 (most drivers are no longer unloaded when you shut down), but it still
seems to trip up Windows from time to time.
Try hitting Enter when it hangs to "wake it up."
Try holding Shift while clicking Ok in the "Shut Down" dialog - this might allow you to
shut down faster, and bypass whatever is causing your system to hang.
This can also happen if the sound file for Shutdown becomes corrupted. Double-click
on the Sounds icon in Control Panel and remove or change the sound event for
Shutdown.
77.When I boot the system, the fans turn on, but I see nothing on screen.
If no video or audio (no beeps or anything), check to be sure the PC speaker is
connected properly. If it is and you still are getting no feedback, then you may have a
bad motherboard or a device connected to it is faulty. Could be faulty RAM or a CPU.
Check the connections between all these devices and the motherboard. But,
nonetheless, since the computer is doing nothing, something is faulty at the
hardware level.
If no video, but static from the PC speaker, then you need to go after the
motherboard or key system device. Pretty much the same as above.
If you're getting a pattern of beeps from the PC speaker, then consult the beep codes
section for a clue as to where to start.
78.Scandisk says I have bad sectors, is this serious?
Answer:
Hard disks can form bad sectors over time if they become too old. If ScanDisk only
finds a few bad sectors, then ignore the problem since ScanDisk will prevent the
sectors from being used by your hard disk. If, however, you have a lot of bad sectors,
seriously think of replacing your hard disk before you lose all your data!
79.My evaluation copy of Windows Vista is expiring. What should I do now?

Answer:
Don't panic, just purchase a copy of Windows Vista. You cannot purchase an
activation key, you need the Windows Vista CD. Do a clean install, and make sure you
back up all of your data before installing.
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80.Vista not recognizing external USB hard drive. How do I fix this?
Answer:
Three things I could think of to solve this:
1. Possible fix - download the "Reliability update for the USB stack in Windows Vista".
Search it in Google or Microsoft Vista support site.
2. Try connecting the external USB hard drive into an Add-in USB card.
3. Last resort - access your computer BIOS and disable all USB support for legacy
drives.
81.You receive a "Microsoft Internet Explorer has encountered a problem

and needs to close.
When I double click the explorer icon, it gives me an error message that states,
"Internet Explorer has encountered a problem and needs to close. We are sorry for
the inconvenience." "If you were in the middle of something, the information you
were working on might be lost.
Error Signature: AppName: iexplore.exe
AppVer: 6.02800.1106
ModName: winshow.dll
ModVer:1.0.0.1 Offset: 00009901
Answer: To manually disable script debugging in Internet Explorer, follow these
steps:
1. Start Internet Explorer.
2. On the Tools menu, click Internet Options.
3. On the Advanced tab, under the Browsing section, click to select the
Disable script debugging (Internet Explorer) check box and the Disable
script debugging (Other) check box if it is present.
4. Click OK, and then restart your computer.
If these steps resolved the error message, you are finished.
If these steps did not resolve the error message, go to the "Download the updates to
the Pdm.dll from the product update Web site" section.
82.What are the display problems?
83.What is network and its type s?

Network is a collection of connected devices together through a transmission
media for sharing resources.
Types of networks:
LAN (Local Area Network): if the devices are connected with in a diameter of
1Km is called LAN.
CAN (Campus Area Network): if the devices are connected with in a diameter
of 5Km to 10Km is called CAN.
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MAN (Metropolitan Area Network): if the devices are connected with in a
diameter of 2Km to 100Km is called MAN.
WAN (Wide Area Network): WAN is a collection of two or more LAN. It covers
entire geographical area.
84. I remotely connected to a machine on my network. I deleted a file and

then went to see if I could locate it in either the remote machine's or my
recycle bin, but could not. Is there a way to recover
Answer : I think you can use the "Undelete" command from prompt. Open a prompt
window and go to the folder from which the file was deleted.
e.g. c:\some directory>
Then type undelete at the prompt. It should look for recently deleted files and the
tool will ask you to provide the first letter of the file if it finds any deleted files.
85.What is networking?
Creating communication between connected devices on a network is called
networking.
86.What is protocol?
Protocol is a set of rules which are predefined for the purpose of
communication.
87.What is port no? what are the port no for

DHCP,DNS,FTP,HTTP,HTTPS,TFTP,Telnet,SMTP,POP3 &IMAP?
PROTOC
OL
DHCP
DNS
FTP
TFTP
HTTP
HTTPS POP3
IMAP
SERVER67
DATA-20
CLIENTCONTROL
PORT NO
68
53
-21
69
80
443
110
143
Every service protocol has its own service address which is known as Port no.
88.What is telnet?
Telnet provided access to a command-line interface (usually, of an operating
system) on a remote host
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Telnet
SM
23
25
89.List out the OSI Layers.

Application layer, Presentation layer, Session layer, Transport layer, Network
layer, Data link layer, and Physical layer.
90.What is the function of application layer?

It is responsible for providing access to the network resources. It is also called
as user interaction layer.
91.What are the protocols works at application layer?

DHCP, DNS, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, HTTP
92.What is the function of presentation layer?

It is responsible for translation, encryption and data compression.
93.What are the protocols works at presentation layer?

SSL(Secure Socket Layer) it is similar to telnet, MMIE:Multipurpose Internet
Mail Extensions (MIME) is an Internet standard that extends the format of email
94.What is the function of session layer?

It is responsible for establishing, managing and terminating sessions.
95.What are the protocols works at session layer?

PPTP (Point to Point Tunneling Protocol), L2TP (Layer2 Tunneling Protocol),
NetBIOS (Network Basic Input Output System)
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96.What is the function of transport layer?
It is responsible for end to end delivery of entire message. It is also
responsible for segmentation.
97.Transport layer is also called as ____CORE____ layer?
98.What are the protocols works at transport layer?

UDP(User Datagram Protocol), TCP(Transmission Control Protocol)
99.What is the function of network layer?

Network layer is responsible for end to end delivery of packets and routing.
Routing is the process of selecting the best path if multiple path are available.
Data unit at network layer is called Packet which contains source IP address
and Destination IP address.
100.
What are the protocols works at network layer?

IP, IPSec, ICMP, and APPLE TALK.
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol): it is used to send error and query
messages to the sending device.
101.
What are the devices works at network layer?

Router, Layer3switch. Layer3 switch has functionality of Router and Switch.
102.
What is the function of data link layer?

It is responsible for node to node delivery of frames.
A frame contains source MAC address and destination MAC address.
Data unit at the data link layer is called Frames.
103.
What are the sub layers of data link layer?

Data link layer has two sub layers. 1) MAC (Media Access Control) 2) LLC
(Logic Link Control)
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104.
What are the protocols works at data link layer?

PPP (Point to Point Protocol), HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control)
105.
What are the devices works at data link layer?

Switch, Layer3switch and NIC.
106.
What is the function of physical layer?

Physical layer is responsible for actual transmission of bits over the medium. It
deals with electrical and mechanical functions.
107.
What are the devices works at physical layer?

Repeater and Hub
108.
At which layer error will be detected?

At data link layer error will be detected.
109.
At which layer error will be corrected?

At transport layer error will be corrected.
110.
What is FTP and its function?

FTP stand for (File Transfer Protocol) it is used to upload and downloading of
files and folders from server to client and client to server.
111.
What is TFTP and its function?

TFTP stands for (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) its function similar to that of FTP
but it is a connectionless protocol.
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112.
What is SMTP and its function?

SMTP stands for (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol): it is used to transfer the mails
from one mail sever to another mail server.
113.
What is ARP and RARP?

ARP stand for (Address Resolution Protocol): it is used to find MAC address of
the device if IP address is known.
RARP stands for (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol): it is used to find the IP
address of the device if MAC address is known.
114.
What is POP & IMAP with its functions?

POP(Post Office Protocol): it is used to download mails form mail server to
client pc. IMAP(Internet Message Access Protocol):it is used to access the
emails from a remote server and it does not download the mails.
115.
What is the difference between hub and switch?
HUB
SWITCH
it is a broad cast device
it is a unicast device
it works at physical layer of OSI
it works at data link layer of OSI
model
model
max no of ports are 24
it shares the bandwidth
it does not shares the bandwidth
116.
117.
What is bandwidth?
It is the capacity of the medium to carry the signal.
What is the difference between switch and router?
SWITCH
model
it works based up on MAC address
ROUTER
it works at network layer of OSI
model
it works based up on IP address
switch transfer the data between

LAN segments
Router transfer the data between

LAN and WAN segments
itStudents
cannot share
or transfer the
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data using internet connection
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Routers are capable of sharing an

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118.
What is the difference between UDP & TCP?

TCP
UDP
it is connection oriented
it is connection less
protocol
protocol
it is reliable
it is not reliable
it is slower
it is faster
acknowledgement is possibel
no acknowledgement
119.
What do you mean by topology?

Topology defines the physical and logical structure of the network.
120.
What are the types of topology?

Physical topology: it defines the way in which the devices are connected over
a network.
Logical topology: it defines the way in which the devices are communicating
with each other over the physical topology.
121.
Which cable support maximum distance and maximum speed?

Fiber optic cable and its speed is 1Gbps to 10Gbps (theoretically unlimited)
122.
What is the max speed and distance supported by UTP cable and its
types?
1000Mbps and distance up to 100M.
Cat-1,cat2,cat-3,cat4,cat-5,cat-5e,cat6-,cat7
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123.
What is the difference between cat5, cat5e, cat6 and cat7?

Max speed of cat5, cat5e, cat6 and cat7 is same but the signaling frequency is
different.
Cat5 and Cat5e100MHz, Cat6250MHz, Cat7600MHz.
124.
What is IP address? Types of IP address?

IP address is logical address which is used to identify the device on a network.
IP address is of two types.
Private IP address and Public IP address.
Public IP address is given by ISP where as Private IP address is used in
organization.
125.
What is the difference between broad band and base band signal?
Base band
Broad band
digital signals are transmitted by using Base
analog signals are transmitted by using Broad
band
band
In a baseband transmission, the entire
bandwidth of the cable is consumed by a
single signa
it is a bi-direction communication
126.
In broadband transmission, signals are sent on

multiple frequencies, allowing multiple signals
to be sent simultaneously.
it is a uni-direction communication
What is the difference between

IPV4
it is a 32 bit address
it is a binary address
it is separated by .
It is not well suited for mobile
network
IPV4 and IPV6?

IPV6
it is a 128bit address
it is a hexadecimal address
it is separated by colon :
it is better suited to mobile
networks
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127. What is subnet mask and what are the default subnet mask for class
A, class B and class C?
Subnet mask: it is used to identify the network bit and host bit of the network.
CLASS SUBNET MASK
A
255.0.0.0
B
255.255.0.0
C
255.255.255.0
128.
What are the private IP address for class A, class B and class C?
CLASS RANGE
A
B
C
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 to
192.168.255.255
129.
What is wireless network?

Wireless network is a network set up by using radio signal frequency to
communicate among computers and other network devices
130.
What are the IEEE standards for wireless network?

standa
max
rd
speed range
46meter
802.11
2Mbps
s
802.11
54Mbp 46meter
a
s
s
802.11
11Mbp 91meter
b
s
s
802.11
54Mbp 91meter
g
s
s
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131.
What is Wi-Fi?
Wi-Fi (wireless fidelity) is technically an industry term that represents a type of
wireless local area network (LAN) protocol based on the 802.11 IEEE network
standard
132.
What are WPA and WPA2 in wireless network?

Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) and Wi-Fi Protected Access II (WPA2) are two
security protocols and security certification programs developed by the Wi-Fi
Alliance to secure wireless computer networks
133.
What is SSID?
A service set identifier (SSID) is a name that identifies a particular 802.11
wireless LAN
134.
What are the devices used to create wireless LAN?

Wireless NIC card, Access point
135.
What is MAC address?

MAC address is the hardware or physical address which is embedded in the
device given by IEEE.
136.
What are the commands to view the MAC address?

Get mac and ipconfig /all is the command to find the MAC address.
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137.
What is the difference between IP address and MAC address?

IPV4
It is a logical address
it is a 32 bit binary address
it is temporary address
Separated by .
MAC
it is a physical address
it is 48 bit hexa decimal address
it is permanent address
separated by -
138.
What is the max distance supported by fiber optic cable?

100KM
139.
What is host and node?

Host: any device on a network with valid IP address is called as Host.
(example: PC network printer)
Node: any device on a network is called Node. (example: switch)
140.
What is gateway?
The entrey and exit of the network
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141.
What are server and client?

Server provides the services to the client request.
Client request for the services from the server.
142. What are the difference between 2003 and 2008 server?
2003
2008
no virtualization
virtualization is available
windows power shell is not
available
windows power shell is available
no RODC
RODC
IIS 6.0
IIS7.0
RIS
WDS
143.
What is domain?
Domain is a collection of devices with centralized administrator.
144.
What is work group?

Workgroup is a collection of devices without centralized administrator.
145.
What is domain controller?

Domain controller is a server that control or responsible of provide to host
access of all resoure like printer, files, mail within the domain.
146.
What is active directory?

Active directory is data base which stores the information about the objects
likes users, group,O.U etc
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147.
Where does active directory database is stored?

Active directory information will be stored in a file NTDS.DIT (New Technology
Directory Service.Directory Information Tree) default size of NTDS.DIT is
12.1Mb
Default Location of NTDS.DIT is C:/Windows/NTDS
148.
What are the protocols for active directory and port nos?
Kerberos and LDAP are the protocol of active directory.
Ports no for Kerberos (88) and LDAP(389)
149.
What is Kerberos?
Kerberos is a computer network authentication protocol which works on the
basis of "tickets" to allow nodes communicating over a non-secure network to
prove their identity to one another in a secure manner
150.
What is Sysvol?
The System Volume (Sysvol) is a shared directory that stores the server copy
of the domain's public files that must be shared for common access and
replication throughout a domain.
151.
What is tree and forest?

Tree: The hierarchical of individual domains is called tree.
Forest: The hierarchical of individual domains tree is called forest.
152.
Where the domain user information does is stored?

NTDS.DIT file
153.
Where the local user information does is stored?

SAM(Security Account Manager)
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154.
When do we called a server as active directory?

A sever which has FSMO roles is called is active directory.
155.
What is FSMO roles and how many types of FSMO Roles are there?
FSMO stands for Flexible Single Master Operation.
It has 5 roles and they are classified into two types forest wide and domain
wide
1.Schema master (forest wide), 2. Domain Naming Master (forest wide), 3.
PDC Emulator (domain wide), 4. PDC Emulator (domain wide), 5. RID Master
(domain wide).
156.
What is DCHP? What is the function of DHCP?

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) it is used to assign IP address to
the client automatically.
157.
What do you mean by APIPA and its range?

APIPA stands for Automatic Private IP Address. Whenever a DHCP server
unable to assign IP address client system then client system generate an IP
address itself is known as APIPA.
Range of APIPA 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254
158.
What is the default lease period of IP address?

8 days
159.
What do you mean by DHCP scope and what does it stores?
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A DHCP scope is a valid range of IP addresses which are available for
assignments or lease to client computer. It contains IP address range(address
pool), address leases, reservation and exclusion
160. What do you mean by reservation, exclusion, address leases and

address pool?
Reservation: means a particular IP is reserved for a particular PC
Address leases: it maintains the list of IP addresses which are assigned to the
client PCs.
Address Pool: it contains range of IP address to be assigned to the clients.
161.
How to trouble shoot basic DHCP issues?

Ipconfig /release is the command to remove the current IP address.
Ipconfig /renew is the command to request for new IP address.
162.
What is DNS? What is the function of DNS?

DNS mean Domain Naming Service/server used for name resolution.
Name resolution: mapping host name with IP address and IP address with host
name
163.
What do you mean by zone in DNS and its types?

Zone is a place where resource records are stored.
Zone is of two types. 1. Forward Lookup Zone: this contains information about
hostname with IP address. 2. Reverse Lookup Zone: this contains information
about IP address with hostname
164.
What are primary and secondary DNS servers?

Primary DNS server are called master server where as Secondary DNS servers
are called alternate or backup DNS servers.
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165.
How to verify DNS is properly configure or not?

nslookup is the command to check the DNS is correctly configured or not.
166.
What are the features of Windows 2008 server?

Virtualization, RODC, built in drivers, group policy comment etc.
167.
What is IIS?
IIS(Internet Information Service) is tool which is used for hosting of web sites.
Website is a collection of web pages.
168.
What is the version of IIS in 2003 and 2008?

2003 IIS v 6.0 and in 2008 server IIS v 7.0
169.
What is network and its type s?

Network is a collection of connected devices together through a transmission
media for sharing resources.
Types of networks:
LAN (Local Area Network): if the devices are connected with in a diameter of
1Km is called LAN.
CAN (Campus Area Network): if the devices are connected with in a diameter
of 5Km to 10Km is called CAN.
MAN (Metropolitan Area Network): if the devices are connected with in a
diameter of 2Km to 100Km is called MAN.
WAN (Wide Area Network): WAN is a collection of two or more LAN. It covers
entire geographical area.
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170. I remotely connected to a machine on my network. I deleted a file
and then went to see if I could locate it in either the remote machine's
or my recycle bin, but could not. Is there a way to recover
Answer : I think you can use the "Undelete" command from prompt. Open a prompt
window and go to the folder from which the file was deleted.
e.g. c:\some directory>
Then type undelete at the prompt. It should look for recently deleted files and the
tool will ask you to provide the first letter of the file if it finds any deleted files.
171.
What is networking?
Creating communication between connected devices on a network is called
networking.
172.
What is protocol?
Protocol is a set of rules which are predefined for the purpose of
communication.
173. What is port no? what are the port no for

DHCP,DNS,FTP,HTTP,HTTPS,TFTP,Telnet,SMTP,POP3 &IMAP?
PROTOC
OL
DHCP
DNS
FTP
TFTP
HTTP
HTTPS POP3
IMAP
SERVER67
DATA-20
CLIENTCONTROL
PORT NO
68
53
-21
69
80
443
110
143
Every service protocol has its own service address which is known as Port no.
174. What is telnet?
Telnet provided access to a command-line interface (usually, of an operating
system) on a remote host
175.
List out the OSI Layers.

Application layer, Presentation layer, Session layer, Transport layer, Network
layer, Data link layer, and Physical layer.
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Telnet
SM
23
25
176.
What is the function of application layer?

It is responsible for providing access to the network resources. It is also called
as user interaction layer.
177.
What are the protocols works at application layer?

DHCP, DNS, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, HTTP
178.
What is the function of presentation layer?

It is responsible for translation, encryption and data compression.
179.
What are the protocols works at presentation layer?

SSL(Secure Socket Layer) it is similar to telnet, MMIE:Multipurpose Internet
Mail Extensions (MIME) is an Internet standard that extends the format of email
180.
What is the function of session layer?

It is responsible for establishing, managing and terminating sessions.
181.
What are the protocols works at session layer?

PPTP (Point to Point Tunneling Protocol), L2TP (Layer2 Tunneling Protocol),
NetBIOS (Network Basic Input Output System)
182.
What is the function of transport layer?

It is responsible for end to end delivery of entire message. It is also
responsible for segmentation.
183.
Transport layer is also called as ____CORE____ layer?
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184.
What are the protocols works at transport layer?

UDP(User Datagram Protocol), TCP(Transmission Control Protocol)
185.
What is the function of network layer?

Network layer is responsible for end to end delivery of packets and routing.
Routing is the process of selecting the best path if multiple path are available.
Data unit at network layer is called Packet which contains source IP address
and Destination IP address.
186.
What are the protocols works at network layer?

IP, IPSec, ICMP, and APPLE TALK.
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol): it is used to send error and query
messages to the sending device.
187.
What are the devices works at network layer?

Router, Layer3switch. Layer3 switch has functionality of Router and Switch.
188.
What is the function of data link layer?

It is responsible for node to node delivery of frames.
A frame contains source MAC address and destination MAC address.
Data unit at the data link layer is called Frames.
189.
What are the sub layers of data link layer?

Data link layer has two sub layers. 1) MAC (Media Access Control) 2) LLC
(Logic Link Control)
190.
What are the protocols works at data link layer?

PPP (Point to Point Protocol), HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control)
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191.
What are the devices works at data link layer?

Switch, Layer3switch and NIC.
192.
What is the function of physical layer?

Physical layer is responsible for actual transmission of bits over the medium. It
deals with electrical and mechanical functions.
193.
What are the devices works at physical layer?

Repeater and Hub
194.
At which layer error will be detected?

At data link layer error will be detected.
195.
At which layer error will be corrected?

At transport layer error will be corrected.
196.
What is FTP and its function?

FTP stand for (File Transfer Protocol) it is used to upload and downloading of
files and folders from server to client and client to server.
197.
What is TFTP and its function?

TFTP stands for (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) its function similar to that of FTP
but it is a connectionless protocol.
198.
What is SMTP and its function?

SMTP stands for (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol): it is used to transfer the mails
from one mail sever to another mail server.
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199.
What is ARP and RARP?

ARP stand for (Address Resolution Protocol): it is used to find MAC address of
the device if IP address is known.
RARP stands for (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol): it is used to find the IP
address of the device if MAC address is known.
200.
What is POP & IMAP with its functions?

POP(Post Office Protocol): it is used to download mails form mail server to
client pc. IMAP(Internet Message Access Protocol):it is used to access the
emails from a remote server and it does not download the mails.
201.
What is the difference between hub and switch?
HUB
SWITCH
it is a broad cast device
it is a unicast device
it works at physical layer of OSI
model
model
it shares the bandwidth
it does not shares the bandwidth
202.
203.
What is bandwidth?
It is the capacity of the medium to carry the signal.
What is the difference between switch and router?
SWITCH
model
it works based up on MAC address
ROUTER
it works at network layer of OSI
model
it works based up on IP address
switch transfer the data between

LAN segments
Router transfer the data between

LAN and WAN segments
it cannot share or transfer the

data using internet connection
Routers are capable of sharing an

internet connection
204.
What is the difference between UDP & TCP?
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TCP
it is connection oriented
protocol
it is reliable
it is slower
acknowledgement is possibel
UDP
it is connection less
protocol
it is not reliable
it is faster
no acknowledgement
205.
What do you mean by topology?

Topology defines the physical and logical structure of the network.
206.
What are the types of topology?

Physical topology: it defines the way in which the devices are connected over
a network.
Logical topology: it defines the way in which the devices are communicating
with each other over the physical topology.
207.
Which cable support maximum distance and maximum speed?

Fiber optic cable and its speed is 1Gbps to 10Gbps (theoretically unlimited)
208.
What is the max speed and distance supported by UTP cable and its
types?
1000Mbps and distance up to 100M.
Cat-1,cat2,cat-3,cat4,cat-5,cat-5e,cat6-,cat7
209.
What is the difference between cat5, cat5e, cat6 and cat7?

Max speed of cat5, cat5e, cat6 and cat7 is same but the signaling frequency is
different.
Cat5 and Cat5e100MHz, Cat6250MHz, Cat7600MHz.
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210.
What is IP address? Types of IP address?

IP address is logical address which is used to identify the device on a network.
IP address is of two types.
Private IP address and Public IP address.
Public IP address is given by ISP where as Private IP address is used in
organization.
211.
What is the difference between broad band and base band signal?
Base band
Broad band
digital signals are transmitted by using Base
analog signals are transmitted by using Broad
band
band
In a baseband transmission, the entire
bandwidth of the cable is consumed by a
single signa
it is a bi-direction communication
212.
In broadband transmission, signals are sent on

multiple frequencies, allowing multiple signals
to be sent simultaneously.
it is a uni-direction communication
What is the difference between

IPV4
it is a 32 bit address
it is a binary address
it is separated by .
It is not well suited for mobile
network
IPV4 and IPV6?

IPV6
it is a 128bit address
it is a hexadecimal address
it is separated by colon :
it is better suited to mobile
networks
213. What is subnet mask and what are the default subnet mask for class
A, class B and class C?
Subnet mask: it is used to identify the network bit and host bit of the network.
CLASS SUBNET MASK
A
255.0.0.0
B
255.255.0.0
C
255.255.255.0
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214.
What are the private IP address for class A, class B and class C?
CLASS RANGE
A
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
B
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 to
C
192.168.255.255
215.
What is wireless network?

Wireless network is a network set up by using radio signal frequency to
communicate among computers and other network devices
216.
What are the IEEE standards for wireless network?

standa
max
rd
speed range
46meter
802.11
2Mbps
s
802.11
54Mbp 46meter
a
s
s
802.11
11Mbp 91meter
b
s
s
802.11
54Mbp 91meter
g
s
s
217.
What is Wi-Fi?
Wi-Fi (wireless fidelity) is technically an industry term that represents a type of
wireless local area network (LAN) protocol based on the 802.11 IEEE network
standard
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218.
What are WPA and WPA2 in wireless network?

Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) and Wi-Fi Protected Access II (WPA2) are two
security protocols and security certification programs developed by the Wi-Fi
Alliance to secure wireless computer networks
219.
What is SSID?
A service set identifier (SSID) is a name that identifies a particular 802.11
wireless LAN
220.
What are the devices used to create wireless LAN?

Wireless NIC card, Access point
221.
What is MAC address?

MAC address is the hardware or physical address which is embedded in the
device given by IEEE.
222.
What are the commands to view the MAC address?

Get mac and ipconfig /all is the command to find the MAC address.
223.
What is the difference between IP address and MAC address?
IPV4
It is a logical address
it is a 32 bit binary address
it is temporary address
Separated by .
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MAC
it is a physical address
it is 48 bit hexa decimal address
it is permanent address
separated by -
224.
What is the max distance supported by fiber optic cable?

100KM
225.
What is host and node?

Host: any device on a network with valid IP address is called as Host.
(example: PC network printer)
Node: any device on a network is called Node. (example: switch)
226.
What is gateway?
The entrey and exit of the network
227.
What are server and client?

Server provides the services to the client request.
Client request for the services from the server.
228. What are the difference between 2003 and 2008 server?
2003
2008
no virtualization
virtualization is available
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windows power shell is not
available
no RODC
IIS 6.0
RIS
windows power shell is available

RODC
IIS7.0
WDS
229.
What is domain?
Domain is a collection of devices with centralized administrator.
230.
What is work group?

Workgroup is a collection of devices without centralized administrator.
231.
What is domain controller?

Domain controller is a server that control or responsible of provide to host
access of all resoure like printer, files, mail within the domain.
232.
What is active directory?

Active directory is data base which stores the information about the objects
likes users, group,O.U etc
233.
Where does active directory database is stored?

Active directory information will be stored in a file NTDS.DIT (New Technology
Directory Service.Directory Information Tree) default size of NTDS.DIT is
12.1Mb
Default Location of NTDS.DIT is C:/Windows/NTDS
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234.
What are the protocols for active directory and port nos?
Kerberos and LDAP are the protocol of active directory.
Ports no for Kerberos (88) and LDAP(389)
235.
What is Kerberos?
Kerberos is a computer network authentication protocol which works on the
basis of "tickets" to allow nodes communicating over a non-secure network to
prove their identity to one another in a secure manner
236.
What is Sysvol?
The System Volume (Sysvol) is a shared directory that stores the server copy
of the domain's public files that must be shared for common access and
replication throughout a domain.
237.
What is tree and forest?

Tree: The hierarchical of individual domains is called tree.
Forest: The hierarchical of individual domains tree is called forest.
238.
Where the domain user information does is stored?

NTDS.DIT file
239.
Where the local user information does is stored?

SAM(Security Account Manager)
240.
When do we called a server as active directory?

A sever which has FSMO roles is called is active directory.
241.
What is FSMO roles and how many types of FSMO Roles are there?
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FSMO stands for Flexible Single Master Operation.
It has 5 roles and they are classified into two types forest wide and domain
wide
1.Schema master (forest wide), 2. Domain Naming Master (forest wide), 3.
PDC Emulator (domain wide), 4. PDC Emulator (domain wide), 5. RID Master
(domain wide).
242.
What is DCHP? What is the function of DHCP?

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) it is used to assign IP address to
the client automatically.
243.
What do you mean by APIPA and its range?

APIPA stands for Automatic Private IP Address. Whenever a DHCP server
unable to assign IP address client system then client system generate an IP
address itself is known as APIPA.
Range of APIPA 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254
244.
What is the default lease period of IP address?

8 days
245.
What do you mean by DHCP scope and what does it stores?

A DHCP scope is a valid range of IP addresses which are available for
assignments or lease to client computer. It contains IP address range(address
pool), address leases, reservation and exclusion
246. What do you mean by reservation, exclusion, address leases and

address pool?
Reservation: means a particular IP is reserved for a particular PC
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Address leases: it maintains the list of IP addresses which are assigned to the
client PCs.
Address Pool: it contains range of IP address to be assigned to the clients.
247.
How to trouble shoot basic DHCP issues?

Ipconfig /release is the command to remove the current IP address.
Ipconfig /renew is the command to request for new IP address.
248.
What is DNS? What is the function of DNS?

DNS mean Domain Naming Service/server used for name resolution.
Name resolution: mapping host name with IP address and IP address with host
name
249.
What do you mean by zone in DNS and its types?

Zone is a place where resource records are stored.
Zone is of two types. 1. Forward Lookup Zone: this contains information about
hostname with IP address. 2. Reverse Lookup Zone: this contains information
about IP address with hostname
250.
What are primary and secondary DNS servers?

Primary DNS server are called master server where as Secondary DNS servers
are called alternate or backup DNS servers.
251.
How to verify DNS is properly configure or not?

nslookup is the command to check the DNS is correctly configured or not.
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252.
What are the features of Windows 2008 server?

Virtualization, RODC, built in drivers, group policy comment etc.
253.
What is ADC and RODC ?

ADC (Additional Domain Controller): additional domain is the backup domain
which is used for
load balancing and fault tolerance.
RODC Read Only Domain Controller
254.
What is terminal server?

It is a service where multiple users can take remote desktop of the server at a
time. By default only two remote desktop are available.
255.
What is DFS?
Distributed file system maintains the load balance between the file servers
and allows users to access the data on file severs
256.
What is Group policy?

GROUP POLICY: It is an administrative tool for managing users settings and
computers settings across the network.
257.
What is OU?
It is a logical container which contains active directory objects (users, groups,
computer etc..) It is also called sub tree and OU is the smallest scope or unit
to which you can assign group policy setting or delegate administrative
authorize.
258.
What is VPN?
A virtual private network (VPN) is a secure way of connecting to a private
Local Area Network at a remote location, using the Internet.
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259.
What are the VPN encryption protocols?

PPTP (Point to Point Tunneling Protocol), L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling
Protocol),SSTP(Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol)
260.
What is hibernate mode?

In hibernate mode the current state of the system is saved to the hard drive,
and the system will power down. When a user turns the system power back
on, the saved information is read from the hard disk.
261.
What is firewall?
Firewall which block unwanted and unauthorized access to the network and
system.
262.
What is IP Sec?
Short for IP Security, a set of protocols developed by the IETF to support
secure exchange of packets at the IP layer.
263.
What is the version of server 2008?

a. Operating systems. Released to manufacturing officially released on
February 27, 2008
264.
What is mean by delegation control?

a. Delegation of Control is assigning a person or group specific
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administrative permissions
265.
266.
file
What is packet?
A block of information with IP address
What is segment?
A segment is a defined portion or section of something larger such as a data
What is frame?
A block of information with MAC address
267.
What is port number?

Every service protocol has its own service address is known as port number
268.
What is Network ID?

It represents the IPaddress to which network
269.
What is the Registry?

Registry is the database most Windows-based operating systems use to keep
track of the
settings for
270.
When would you use a crosslink cable?

To connect the similar devices
271. What are the main advantages and disadvantages of Fiber-Opticbased networks?
Advantage Data transfer rate is speed compared to other
272.
What is Internet?
It is a World Wide Collection of computer networks co-operating with
each other to
exchange data using
273.
Define Trust relation?

Creating the communication between two Domains.
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274.
What are the main features of ICS?

Address translation, Public and private interface, Firewall, DHCP allocator and
DNS proxy.
275.
What is the use of tracert command

This checks the path of a data packet flowing from one router to another,
until it reaches its destination.
276.
What is the use of ping command?

It checks weather a computer can transmit data over a network.
277.
What is an offline file?

A file on a remote server that is temporarily stored locally. In order to
allow users access to data when they are not on the network
278. Ping tool work using which protocol?

ICMP
279.
280.
What are the requirements for ADDS?

Windows 2000/2003 Server Operating System
TCP/IP protocol and IP address
Network Card with Active state
NTFS partition
Explain about RAID-1

Min. and max. 2 Hard disk
If anyone disk fails data can be recovered from other disk
50% space wastage
No read/write performance improvement
Good for storing Operating system
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281.
Explain about RAID-5 ?

Data is stored in distributed format across all the disk
Min 3 max. 32
If anyone disk fails data can be recovered using parity
Parity space wastage eg. Parity = total space \ no of disk
Good for storing data.
282. Difference between Windows NT , 2003 and 2008 ?

Win NT
Win 2k3
Directory Service
FAT16 and NTFS 4.0
FAT16
Compression
No IPSec
No Shadow Copy
Basic disk
IIS Ver 4
System Policy
283.
FAT16, FAT32 and NTFS 5.0

Compression, Encryption and Disk
Quota
IPSec built-in
Shadow Copy
Basic and Dynamic Disk
IIS Ver 6
Group Policy
FAT32 and NTFS 5.0
IPSec built-in
Shadow Copy
Basic and Dynamic Disk
IIS Ver 7
Group Policy
Difference between Windows XP home and Windows XP prof
Xp Home Basic
no Remote desktop
NO
Offline folders
1 processor
workgroup member
NO
Encryption
NO GPO
No ASR
284.
Active Directory Service
Win 2k8
Active Directory Domain
Services
Xp Profosnal
Remote desktop
Offline folders
2 processor
Workgroup and domain member
Encryption
GPO
ASR
What is mail server ?

Mail server is software which maintains user mailboxes. eg : Exchange server
Lotus domino, etc.
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285.
Port numbers for various application and services

There are total 65536 ports available. Below is the list of some well-known
ports
286.
What is Logon script ?

Logon script is a bat file or script file which runs when a user logs on.
287.
Where are logon script stored?

They are stored in Sysvo folder of DC
288. What two hardware considerations should be an important part of

the planning process for a Windows Server 2008 deployment?
Ans: Any server on which you will install Windows Server 2008 should have at
least the minimum hardware requirement for running the network operating
system. Server hardware should also be on the Windows Server 2008 Hardware
Compatibility List to avoid the possibility of hardware and network operating
system incompatibility.
289. Which Control Panel tool enables you to automate the running of
server utilities and other applications?
The Task Scheduler enables you to schedule the launching of tools such as
Windows Backup and Disk Defragmenter.
290. When a child domain is created in the domain tree, what type of trust
relationship exists between the new child domain and the trees root
domain?
Child domains and the root domain of a tree are assigned transitive trusts. This
means that the root domain and child domain trust each other and allow
resources in any domain in the tree to be accessed by users in any domain in the
tree.
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291. What is the primary function of domain controllers?

The primary function of domain controllers is to validate users to the network.
However, domain controllers also provide the catalog of Active Directory objects to
users on the network.
292. What are some of the other roles that a server running Windows
Server 2008 could fill on the network?
A server running Windows Server 2008 can be configured as a domain controller,
a file server, a print server, a web server, or an application server. Windows
servers can also have roles and features that provide services such as DNS,
DHCP, and Routing and Remote Access.
293. Which Windows Server 2008 tools make it easy to manage and
configure a servers roles and features?
The Server Manager window enables you to view the roles and features installed
on a server and also to quickly access the tools used to manage these various
roles and features. The Server Manager can be used to add and remove roles and
features as needed.
294. What Windows Server 2008 service is used to install client operating
systems over the network?
Windows Deployment Services (WDS) enables you to install client and server
operating systems over the network to any computer with a PXE-enabled network
interface.
295. What domain services are necessary for you to deploy the Windows
Deployment Services on your network?
Windows Deployment Services requires that a DHCP server and a DNS server be
installed in the domain
296. How is WDS configured and managed on a server running Windows

Server 2008?
The Windows Deployment Services snap-in enables you to configure the WDS
server and add boot and install images to the server.
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297. What is the difference between a basic and dynamic drive in the
Windows Server 2008 environment?
A basic disk embraces the MS-DOS disk structure; a basic disk can be divided into
partitions (simple volumes).
Dynamic disks consist of a single partition that can be divided into any number of
volumes. Dynamic disks also support Windows Server 2008 RAID
implementations.
298. What is RAID in Windows Server 2008?

RAID, or Redundant Array of Independent Disks, is a strategy for building fault
tolerance into your file servers. RAID enables you to combine one or more
volumes on separate drives so that they are accessed by a single drive letter.
Windows Server 2008 enables you to configure RAID 0 (a striped set), RAID 1 (a
mirror set), and RAID 5 (disk striping with parity).
299. What types of Active Directory objects can be contained in an

Organizational Unit?
Organizational Units can hold users, groups, computers, contacts, and other OUs.
The Organizational Unit provides you with a container directly below the domain
level that enables you to refine the logical hierarchy of how your users and other
resources are arranged in the Active Directory.
300. What are Active Directory sites in Windows Server 2008?
Active Directory sites are physical locations on the networks physical topology.
Each regional domain that you create is assigned to a site. Sites typically
represent one or more IP subnets that are connected by IP routers. Because sites
are separated from each other by a router, the domain controllers on each site
periodically replicate the Active Directory to update the Global Catalog on each
site segment.
301. Can servers running Windows Server 2008 provide services to clients
when they are not part of a domain?
Servers running Windows Server 2008 can be configured to participate in a
workgroup. The server can provide some services to the workgroup peers but
does not provide the security and management tools provided to domain
controllers.
302. What does the use of Group Policy provide you as a network
administrator?
Group Policy provides a method of controlling user and computer configuration
settings for Active Directory containers such as sites, domains, and OUs. GPOs are
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linked to a particular container, and then individual policies and administrative
templates are enabled to control the environment for the users or computers
within that particular container.
303. What tools are involved in managing and deploying Group Policy?
GPOs and their settings, links, and other information such as permissions can be
viewed in the Group Policy Management snap-in.
304. How do you deal with Group Policy inheritance issues?

GPOs are inherited down through the Active Directory tree by default. You can
block the inheritance of settings from upline GPOs (for a particular container such
as an OU or a local computer) by selecting Block Inheritance for that particular
object. If you want to enforce a higher-level GPO so that it overrides directly
linked GPOs, you can use the Enforce command on the inherited (or upline) GPO.
305. How can you make sure that network clients have the most recent
Windows updates installed and have other important security features
such as the Windows Firewall enabled before they can gain full network
access?
You can configure a Network Policy Server (a service available in the Network
Policy and Access Services role). The Network Policy Server can be configured to
compare desktop client settings with health validators to determine the level of
network access afforded to the client.
306. What is the purpose of deploying local DNS servers?

A domain DNS server provides for the local mapping of fully qualified domain
names to IP addresses. Because the DNS is a distributed database, the local DNS
servers can provide record information to remote DNS servers to help resolve
remote requests related to fully qualified domain names on your network.
307. In terms of DNS, what is a caching-only server?

A caching-only DNS server supplies information related to queries based on the
data it contains in its DNS cache. Caching-only servers are often used as DNS
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forwarders. Because they are not configured with any zones, they do not generate
network traffic related to zone transfers.
308. How the range of IP addresses is defined for a Windows Server 2008
DHCP server?
The IP addresses supplied by the DHCP server are held in a scope. A scope that
contains more than one subnet of IP addresses is called a superscope. IP
addresses in a scope that you do not want to lease can be included in an
exclusion range.
309.
How do you view replication properties for AD?

By using Active Directory Replication Monitor.
Start> Run> Replmon
310. whatt are sites what are they used for?

One or more well-connected (highly reliable and fast) TCP/IP subnets. A site allows
administrators to configure Active Directory access and replication topology to
take advantage of the physical network
311. Logical Diagram of Active Directory?, what is the difference between

child domain & additional domain Server?
Well, if you know what a domain is then you have half the answer. Say you have
the domain Microsoft.com. Now Microsoft has a server named server1 in that
domain, which happens to the be parent domain. So its FQDN is
server1.microsoft.com. If you add an additional domain server and name it
server2, then its FQDN is server2.microsoft.com.
Now Microsoft is big so it has offices in Europe and Asia. So they make child
domains for them and their FQDN would look like this: europe.microsoft.com &
asia.microsoft.com. Now lets say each of them have a server in those child
domains named server1. Their FQDN would then look like this:
server1.europe.microsoft.com & server1.asia.microsoft.com..
227. What are Active Directory Groups?

Groups are containers that contain user and computer objects within them as
members. When security permissions are set for a group in the Access Control
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List on a resource, all members of that group receive those permissions.
Domain Groups enable centralized administration in a domain. All domain
groups are created on a domain controller.
In a domain, Active Directory provides support for different types of groups
and group scopes. The group type determines the type of task that you
manage with the group. The group scope determines whether the group can
have members from multiple domains or a single domain
312. What are the types of Group Types?

* Security groups: Use Security groups for granting permissions to gain access
to resources. Sending an e-mail message to a group sends the message to all
members of the group. Therefore security groups share the capabilities of
distribution groups.
* Distribution groups: Distribution groups are used for sending e-main
messages to groups of users. You cannot grant permissions to security groups.
Even though security groups have all the capabilities of distribution groups,
distribution groups still requires, because some applications can only read
distribution groups.
313. Where are group policies stored?

Ans : %SystemRoot%System32\GroupPolicy
314. What is GPT and GPC?

Ans:Group policy template and group policy container.
315. Where is GPT stored?

Ans %SystemRoot%\SYSVOL\sysvol\domainname\Policies\GUID
316. How can you restrict running certain applications on a machine?

Ans :Via group policy, security settings for the group, then Software Restriction
Policies.
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317. .Whats the major difference between FAT and NTFS on a local
machine?
Ans: FAT and FAT32 provide no security over locally logged-on users. Only native
NTFS provides extensive permission control on both remote and local files.
318. Whats the difference between standalone and fault-tolerant DFS

(Distributed File System) installations?
Ans :The standalone server stores the Dfs directory tree structure or topology
locally. Thus, if a shared folder is inaccessible or if the Dfs root server is down,
users are left with no link to the shared resources. A fault-tolerant root node
stores the Dfs topology in the Active Directory, which is replicated to other
domain controllers. Thus, redundant root nodes may include multiple connections
to the same data residing in different shared folders.
319. Where exactly do fault-tolerant DFS shares store information in

Active Directory?
Ans : In Partition Knowledge Table, which is then replicated to other domain
controllers.
320. How do you double-boot a Win 2003 server box?

The Boot.ini file is set as read-only, system, and hidden to prevent unwanted
editing. To change the Boot.ini timeout and default settings, use the System
option in Control Panel from the Advanced tab and select Startup.
321. What do you do if earlier application doesnt run on Windows Server

2008?
Ans :When an application that ran on an earlier legacy version of Windows cannot
be loaded during the setup function or if it later malfunctions, you must run the
compatibility mode function. This is accomplished by right-clicking the application
or setup program and selecting Properties > Compatibility > selecting the
previously supported operating system.
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322. What are the Windows Server keyboard shortcuts?

Ans :Winkey opens or closes the Start menu. Winkey + BREAK displays the
System Properties dialog box. Winkey + TAB moves the focus to the next
application in the taskbar. Winkey + SHIFT + TAB moves the focus to the previous
application in the taskbar. Winkey + B moves the focus to the notification area.
Winkey + D shows the desktop. Winkey + E opens Windows Explorer showing My
Computer. Winkey + F opens the Search panel. Winkey + CTRL + F opens the
Search panel with Search for Computers module selected. Winkey + F1 opens
Help. Winkey + M minimizes all. Winkey + SHIFT+ M undoes minimization. Winkey
+ R opens Run dialog. Winkey + U opens the Utility Manager. Winkey + L locks
the computer.
323. What is Active Directory?

Ans :Active Directory is a network-based object store and service that locates and
manages resources, and makes these resources available to authorized users and
groups. An underlying principle of the Active Directory is that everything is
considered an objectpeople, servers, workstations, printers, documents, and
devices. Each object has certain attributes and its own security access control list
(ACL).
324. How can you force the client to give up the dhcp lease if you have
access to the client PC?
Ans: ipconfig /release
325. I cant seem to access the Internet, dont have any access to the
corporate network and on ipconfig my address is 169.254.*.*. What
happened?
Ans: The 169.254.*.* net mask is assigned to Windows machines running
98/2000/XP if the DHCP server is not available. The name for the technology is
APIPA (Automatic Private Internet Protocol Addressing).
326.
How much is the weight of 20 mangoes and 30 oranges?
i. 1 orange weighs twice that of 1 mango

ii. 2 mangoes and 3 oranges weigh 2 kg
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327. Secure services in your network require reverse name resolution to

make it more difficult to launch successful attacks against the services.
To set this up, you configure a reverse lookup zone and proceed to add
records. Which record types do you need to create?
Ans :PTR Records
328. What is the main purpose of a DNS server?
Ans :DNS servers are used to resolve FQDN hostnames into IP addresses and vice
versa
329. SOA records must be included in every zone. What are they used
for?
Ans :SOA records contain a TTL value, used by default in all resource records in
the zone. SOA records contain the e-mail address of the person who is responsible
for maintaining the zone. SOA records contain the current serial number of the
zone, which is used in zone transfers.
330. What is the main purpose of SRV records?
Ans : SRV records are used in locating hosts that provide certain network services
331. Before installing your first domain controller in the network, you installed a
DNS server and created a zone, naming it as you would name your AD domain.
However, after the installation of the domain controller, you are unable to locate
infrastructure SRV records anywhere in the zone. What is the most likely cause of
this failure?
Ans : The zone you created was not configured to allow dynamic updates. The
local interface on the DNS server was not configured to allow dynamic updates.
332. You are administering a network connected to the Internet. Your users
complain that everything is slow. Preliminary research of the problem indicates
that it takes a considerable amount of time to resolve names of resources on the
Internet. What is the most likely reason for this?
Ans : DNS servers are not caching replies.. Local client computers are not caching
replies The cache.dns file may have been corrupted on the server.
333. what is NSlookup ?

Answer : it is a tool used troubleshoot DNS related issues
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334. Explain DHCP 4 packets ?

Answer:Discover = client sends request for IP
Offer = DHCP server send and Offer with IP address
Request = if clients accepts the IP it sends a request to DHCP
Ack = DHCP server sends ack for the same
335. What is WINS ?

Answer : It is used to resovle NetBIOS Computer name to IP address
336. What are user profile ?

Answer: User profile is user common environment which contents settings like desktop
my docs, temp, outlook settings, IE settings, start menu, etc.
337. What are the different types of profile ?

Local Profile : Stored on local machine where the user log on. User get different
Roaming Profile : Stored in shared folder of server. User get same profile when
he logs on to different machine. User can modify his profile
Mandatory profile :Stored in shared folder of server. User get same profile when
he logs on to different machine. User cannot modify his profile.
338.
Difference between Roaming and Mandatory profile?

Roaming Profile: User can modify his profile
Mandatory Profile: User cannot modify his profile
339. Difference between Roaming and Local profile

Answer:
Local Profile
Roaming Profile
stored on local machine
stored on shared folder of server
user get different profile for for
user get same profile on different machine.
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different machine
stored in C:\docs and settings
These profile are automatically
created when a user logs on to
a machine
Stored on shared folder of a server

These profile is required to be configured as per
requirement
340. How to configure a user profile as mandatory?

Answer: To configure a profile as mandatory we need to configure a profile as
roaming
and then rename the ntuser.dat to ntuser.man from the shared folder
341. What are home directory?

Answer: Home directory are user personal folder for storing personal data and
Automatically mounted as network drive when a user logs on to any machine in a
domain
Home directory setting is configured using Active directory users and computer
snap-in
342. How to stop and start server using command line

Answer: use NET START to start a service and NET STOP to stop the service
Eg : NET STOP spooler
NET START spooler
343. How to send message to remote user, computer, etc. using command
line?
Answer: use NET SEND command
Eg : NET SEND 10.0.0.1 "how are u"
344. How to create/delete user using command line?

Answer: use NET USER command
Eg : NET USER tommy 123 /add - created a user tommy with password 123
NET USER tommy /delete
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345. How to create/delete grup using command line?

Answer: use NET GROUP command (This command is used only on DC
Eg : NET GROUP admins /add
346. How to create/delete local group using command line?

Answer: use NET LOCALGROUP command
Eg : NET LOCALGROUP admins /add
347. What is RPC protocol?

Answer: RPC stands for Remote Procedure Call. It uses port number 135. RPC is an
interprocess communication technique that allows client and server software to
348. What is Network Monitor Agent?

Answer: Network Monitor Agent is a packet capturing software. It is also called as
sniffer
349. What is the default share in Windows 2008 Server?

Answer: The default share in Windows 2008 is
a) Admin$
b) All drives i.e. C$. D$ .etc
IPC$
Net logon (Only on DC
Sysvol (Only on DC
350. How to create a hidden share in Windows?

Answer: In share name of a folder Specify $ after the share name i.e. data$
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351.
What are the 4 major virtualization areas?

Server
Storage
Desktop
Application
352. What happens if primary domain controller fails?

Answer.You wont be able to access the network resources/login properly to your
account.
353. What is a default gateway? What happens if I don't have one?

Answer: a gateway is a routing device that knows how to pass traffic between
different subnets and networks. A computer will know some routes (a route is the
address of each node a packet must go through on the Internet to reach a specific
destination), but not the routes to every address on the Internet. It won't even know
all the routes on the nearest subnets. A gateway will not have this information either,
but will at least know the addresses of other gateways itcan hand the traffic off to.
Your default gateway is on the same subnet as your computer, andis the gateway
your computer relies on when it doesn't know how to route traffic.The default
gateway is typically very similar to yourIP address, in that many of the numbers may
be the same. However, the default gateway is not your IP address. To see what
defaultgateway you are using, follow the steps below for your operating syste
354. You need to view at network traffic. What will you use? Name a few tools ?
Answer: Monitoring network traffic too
355. How do I know the path that a packet takes to the destination?
Answer :use "tracert" command-line
356. What is the BOOTP protocol used for, where might you find it in
Windows networkinfrastructure?
Answer. Incomputing, Bootstrap Protocol , or BOOTP is aUDPnetwork protocol used
by a network client to obtain itsIP addressautomatically. This is usually done during
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thebootstrapprocess when a computer is starting up. The BOOTP servers assign the
IP address to each client froma pool of addresses. We can find,
Bootstrap Protocol in DHCP Pool configuration in CSCOSwitchers and Router
357. Describe the process of working with an external domain name

If it is not possible for you to configure your internal domain as a subdomain of
your externaldomain, use a stand-alone internal domain. This way, your internal
and external domainnames are unrelated. For example, an organization that uses
the domain name contoso.comfor their external namespace uses the name
corp.internal for their internal namespace.The advantage to this approach is that
it provides you with a unique internal domain name.The disadvantage is that this
configuration requires you to manage two separate namespaces.Also, using a
stand-alone internal domain that is unrelated to your external domain
mightcreate confusion for users because the namespaces do not reflect a
relationship betweenresources within and outside of your network. In addition,
you might have to register twoDNS names with an Internet name authority if you
want to make the internal domain publiclyaccessible.
358. Describe the importance of DNS to AD.

When Microsoft began development on Active Directory, full compatibility with the
domainname system (DNS) was a critical priority. Active Directory was built from
the ground up not just to be fully compatible with DNS but to be so integrated
with it that one cannot existwithout the other. Microsoft's direction in this case did
not just happen by chance, but becauseof the central role that DNS plays in
Internet name resolution and Microsoft's desire to makeits product lines embrace
the Internet.While fully conforming to the standards established for DNS, Active
Directory can expandupon the standard feature set of DNS and offer some new
capabilities such as AD-IntegratedDNS, which greatly eases the administration
required for DNS environments. In addition,Active Directory can easily adapt to
exist in a foreign DNS environment, such as Unix BIND,as long as the BIND
version is 8.2.x or higher.When Microsoft began development on Active Directory,
full compatibility with the domainname system (DNS) was a critical priority. Active
Directory was built from the ground up not just to be fully compatible with DNS
but to be so integrated with it that one cannot existwithout the other. Microsoft's
direction in this case did not just happen by chance, but becauseof the central
role that DNS plays in Internet name resolution and Microsoft's desire to makeits
product lines embrace the Internet.While fully conforming to the standards
established for DNS, Active Directory can expandupon the standard feature set of
DNS and offer some new capabilities such as AD-IntegratedDNS, which greatly
eases the administration required for DNS environments. In addition,Active
Directory can easily adapt to exist in a foreign DNS environment, such as Unix
BIND,as long as the BIND version is 8.2.x or higher
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359. How do I clear the DNS cache on the DNS server?

To clear DNS Cache do the following:
Start2. Run3. Type "cmd" and press enter4. In the command window type
"ipconfig /flushdns
360. How does IPSec work?

IPSec is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standard suite of protocols that
provides data authentication, integrity, and confidentiality as data is transferred
between communication points across IP networks. IPSec provides data security
at the IP packet level. A packet is a data bundle that is organized for transmission
across a network, and it includes a header and payload (the data in the packet).
IPSec emerged as a viable network securitystandard because enterprises wanted
to ensure that data could be securely transmitted over theInternet. IPSec protects
against possible security exposures by protecting data while in transit
361. How do I monitor IPSec?

The IP Security Monitor snap-in, a new feature in WindowsServer 2003, can be
used tomonitor and troubleshoot IPSec activity. The IP Security Monitor snap-in
provides enhancedIPSec security monitoring. As long as the IPSec policy is active,
you can monitor how theIPSec policy is functioning within your networking
environment through the IP SecurityMonitor.
362. Active Directory Structure

Active Directory has a hierarchical structure that consists of various components
whichmirror the network of the organization. The components included in the
Active Directoryhierarchical structure are listed below:
Sites
Domains
Domain Trees
Forests
Organizational Units (OUs)
Objects
Domain Controllers
Global Catalog
Schema
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363. What are GPO links? What special things can I do to them?
Answer.To apply the settings of a GPO to the users and computers of a domain,
site, or OU, you need to add a link to that GPO. You can add one or more GPO
links to each domain, site,or OU by using GPMC. Keep in mind that creating and
linking GPOs is a sensitive privilege that should be delegated only to
administrators who are trusted and understand Group Policy
364. What are the requirements for installing AD on a new server?

Answer: An NTFS partition with enough free space, An Administrator's username and
password
The correct operating system version A NIC Properly configured TCP/IP (IP address,
subnet mask and - optional - defaultgateway) A network connection (to a hub or to
another computer via a crossover cable)
An operational DNS server (which can be installed on the DC itself) A Domain name
that you want to use
365. What are sites? What are they used for?

Answer: An Activity Directory site is a region of a network that has high
bandwidthconnectivity.
A site is a collection of one or more subnets connected by high speed links.
A site may span multiple domains.
A domain may span multiple sites.Sites are used for the following functions:
To optimize replication for speed and bandwidth consumption between
domaincontrollers
To locate the closest domain controller for client logon, services, and
directorysearches
To direct DFS client to the server in the site
To optimize the replication of Sysvo
366. What is an Attribute?

Attribute is a place of information about objects (Properties of Objects)
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367. What is infrastructure Master?
Is responsible for updating user and group information and updating Global
Catalog Only one infrastructure master per domain
368. What is RID Master?

Relative identifier is responsible for assigning unique IDs to the object s created in
the AD. Only one RID Master per domain.
369. What is a Schema?

Schema is design of AD, defines objects and classes, set of rules.
370. What is a child DC?

CDC is a sub domain controller under root domain controller which share name
space
371. How many ADC can create on a DC?

Any no. of ADCs
372. What are the additional tools found after installing a DC?
Active Directory User and Computers,
Active Directory Sites and Services,
Active Directory Domain & Trust,
Domain Controller Security Policy,
Domain Security Policy
373. What is a member server?

2003 & 2008server which is a part of the domain
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374. What is a standalone server?

Server which is not a part of domain
375. What are the different Objects in AD?

Answer:Users, Groups, Computers, Printers, OUs, Contacts & Share Folders
376. Tools for troubleshooting DNS?

DNS Console, NSLOOKUP, DNSCMD, IPCONFIG, Logs, PM.
377. What main file is used for Active Directory backup andhow it is
made?
Answer: Active Directory backup is made using NTbackup utility. Thebackup is
made once with the system state and they are restoredalso together because
they depend on each other. The system statehas different components like:a)
The registryb) Boot files or startup files (files
required by the operating systemto start).c) The component servicesd) The
system volume or the SYSVOL folder this is a folder thatcontains files that are
shared on a domain.e) The Active Directory
378. Are you familiar with monitoring?
Answer:Yes, monitoring is a base activity of a system administrator,he/she
manages all the access rights and the server space, securityof the user accounts
is one of the most important things here. Alsoan administrator must make sure
that the users activity doesntaffect in any way the integrity of the server.
379. Can you explain to us about you experience in the past regarding
windows administration?
A:I have ten years of experience in this field, I was passionate about computers
since childhood and I installed many operating systems athome and inside
organizations including these versions of windows:95, 98, 98 SE, NT, Millenium,
2000, 2003 Server, XP, Seven, Vista. Ialso managed these systems and performed
maintenance, I worked with different applications from the windows environment.
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380. Whats a Windows profile? When would you delete one, and what
gets deleted?
If youre looking for someone to do desktop support, they should have at least a
vague idea of where the users data can be stored. Bonus points if they can
explain where common application settings are stored, what the Registry is, and
how roaming profiles work
381. When an end user says a file went missing, what do you do?
End users delete files all the time, but before you recover it from backup, first do
a search on the drive to make sure they didnt drag & drop it to another folder.
(Normally I dont give interview answers here, but that ones an exception.) Then,
after they explain that, Id ask them to cover things like VSS snapshots, end user
recovery in Explorer and how to restore from their favorite backup program.
382. Whats PowerShell, and how do you feel about it?

I dont necessarily need PowerShell experience (although its a big plus for
Windows sysadmins) but I want to know that theyre at least vaguely aware of the
concept and what it means. Bonus points if they can relate scripting to the *nix
world, and if they bring up Windows Core.
383. Who Invented the Internet Protocol (IP)?

In May, 1974, the Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) published
a paper titled "A Protocol for Packet Network Interconnection." The paper's
authors -- Vinton Cerf and Robert Kahn -- described a protocol called "TCP" that
incorporated both connection-oriented and datagram services.
It soon became apparent to the two men that this design should be subdivided
into two separate protocols. Session management was not easy to do in an
application-independent way. In practice, an application could sometimes run
more efficiently or be implemented more easily when it managed network
connections itself. "TCP" became Internet Protocol (IP) that supported datagrams
and Transmission Control Protocol (TCP/IP) that added connection semantics as a
layer on top of IP.
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299.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the term that describes running a processor faster than its rating for
increased performance?
Over clocking
Over clocking is the practice of increasing the clock frequency of the frontside
bus to increase performance. Overclocking usually requires better than
standard cooling efforts to avoid damage to the processor
Und.
300.
Ans.
Exp.
Which packaging is used for DDR SDRAM memory?

184-pin DIMM
DDR SDRAM is manufactured on a 184-pin DIMM. DIMMs with 168 pins were
used for SDR SDRAM. The SIMM is the predecessor to the DIMM, on which
SDRAM was never deployed. RIMM is the Rambus proprietary competitor for
the DIMM that carries DRDRAM instead of SDRAM.
Und.
301.
Ans.
Exp.
Which motherboard design style is most widely implemented?

ATX
Although all the motherboard design styles listed are in use today, the ATX
motherboard style (and its derivatives) is the most popular design.
Und.
302.
Ans.
Exp.
Which motherboard socket type is used on the Pentium 4 chip?

Socket 478
Most Pentium 4 chips use the Socket 478 motherboard CPU socket, although
not exclusively. Nevertheless, no other option listed is used for these
processors.
Und.
303.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
Which of the socket technology that is designed to ease insertion of modern

CPUs?
ZIF
ZIF sockets are designed with a locking mechanism (zero insertion force)
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304.
Ans.
Exp.
Which is used to store data and programs for repeated use? Information can
be added and deleted at will, and it does not lose its data when power is
removed.
Hard drive
Hard drive stores data on a magnetic medium, which does not lose its
information after the power is removed, and which can be repeatedly written
to and erased.
Und.
305.
Ans.
Exp.
Which motherboard socket type is used with the AMD Athlon XP?
Socket A
The Socket A (remember A for AMD) motherboard socket is used primarily
with AMD processors, including the Athlon XP.
Und.
306.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
Which style of port is the PS/2?

Mini-DIN 6
PS/2 port is also known as a mini-DIN 6 connector.
307.
What are the numbers of pins that can be found on DIMM modules used in
desktop motherboards?
DIMMs used in desktop-motherboard applications have one of three possible
pin counts. SDR SDRAM is implemented on 168-pin modules. DDR SDRAM and
16-bit RIMMs are implemented on 184-pin modules. DDR2 and DDR3 are
implemented on 240-pin modules with different keying. Dual-channel RIMM
modules have 232 pins. Modules with 200 and 204 pins are used in the
SODIMM line,
Ans.
Und.
308.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the maximum speed of USB 2.0 in Mbps?

480
The USB 2.0 spec provides for a maximum speed of 480 megabits per second
(Mbpsnot megabytes per second, or MBps).
Und.
309.
Ans.
Exp.
What standards are specified by IEEE 1284?

EPP , ECP
Bidirectional parallel ports can both transmit and receive data. EPP and ECP
are IEEE-1284 standards that were designed to transfer data at high speeds in
both directions so that devices could return status information to the system.
Und.
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310.
Ans.
Exp.
Which peripheral port type was designed to transfer data at high speeds over
a D-sub interface?
IEEE 1284
EEE 1284 standard defines the ECP parallel port to use a DMA channel and the
buffer to be able to transfer data at high speeds to printers.
Und.
311.
Ans.
Exp.
Which motherboard form factor places expansion slots on a special riser card
and is used in low-profile PCs?
NLX
The NLX form factor places expansion slots on a special riser card and is used
in low-profile PCs.
Und.
312.
Ans.
Exp.
Which Intel processor type might be mounted on a SECC for motherboard

installation?
Pentium II
The unique thing about the Pentium II is that it was attached to a single edge
contact cartridge (SECC) for insertion into the motherboard, instead of the
standard PGA package. Athlon is an AMD processor, the early version of which
was slot-based, but not considered SECC, in any event.
Und.
313.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
314.
Ans.
Exp.
You have just purchased a motherboard that has an LGA775 socket for an Intel
Pentium 4 processor. What type of memory modules will you need for this
motherboard?
DIMM
Pentium 4 processors are always mated with memory mounted on DIMMs.
What type of expansion slot is preferred today for high-performance graphics
adapters?
PCIe
Although technically all slots listed could be used for video adapters, PCIe
excels when compared to the other options and offers technologies, such as
SLI, which only make PCIes advantage more noticeable.
Und.
315.
Ans.
What is the physical component where data are stored in a HDD?
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Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.
Exp.
Platter
A conventional HDD contains discs called platters, on which data are stored
magnetically through read/write heads by way of a magnetic coating
Und.
316.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the largest NTFS volume size supported by Windows XP?

256TB
A fixed number of clusters is supported by each operating system, leading to
a corresponding maximum volume size. If the maximum NTFS cluster size of
64KB is used, Windows XP can support a single-volume size of 256TB. When a
cluster size of one sector or 512 bytes (1/2KB) is used, the maximum volume
size reduces to 2TB.
Und.
317.
Ans.
Exp.
Which technology is based on flash memory and is intended to eventually

replace conventional hard disk drives that have moving discs and other
mechanisms?
Solid-state drives
Solid-state disks (SSDs) are capable of replacing conventional HDDs,
contingent upon cheaper components and higher capacities.
Und.
318.
Ans.
Exp.
Which optical disc format supports a data capacity of 25GB?

Single-sided, single-layer Blu-ray disc
Blue-ray discs have a single-sided, single-layer capacity of 25GB. The best of
the other options achieve no more than roughly 17GB.
Und.
319.
Ans.
Exp.
Describe the concept of hot-swappable devices?

Power does not need turned off before the device is inserted or removed.
Hot-swappable devices can be removed while the power to the system is still
on.
Und.
320.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
What are the five output voltages produced by a common PC power supply?
3.3VDC, +5VDC, 5VDC, +12VDC, and 12VDC
PCs power supply produces +3.3VDC, +5VDC, 5VDC, +12VDC, and 12VDC
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321.
Ans.
Exp.
What kind of device uses unique physical traits of the user to authenticate
their access to a secure system or location?
Biometric device
Biometric input devices scan a physical trait of the user, such as voice,
fingerprint, and retina, for authentication purposes during attempts to access
computer systems and other property.
Und.
322.
Ans.
Exp.
What kind of media is most commonly used when large amounts of data need
to be archived on a regular basis?
Tape
Although inefficient as an interactive medium, sequential tape-based storage
continues to be developed in increasing capacities. Tape remains the best
choice for frequently backing up large amounts of data for redundancy and
archival purposes.
Und.
323.
Ans.
Exp.
What can you use to convert video to a format that can be uploaded to the
Internet, among other things?
video capture card
A video capture card is used to convert raw video input to a format that can
be shared electronically. Although many TV tuner cards provide this
functionality, it is their video-capture component that gives them this
capability
Und.
324.
Ans.
Exp.
Why might you use a KVM switch?

You have more than one server and dont want to buy certain external
peripherals separately for each.
KVM switches are ideal when you have multiple computers situated near one
another and do not want to commit the extra desk space to each computer
having its own keyboard, mouse, and monitor.
Und.
325.
Ans.
Exp.
Which category of adapters includes NICs?

Communications
Network interface cards are considered to be a form of communications
adapter.
Und.
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326.
Ans.
Exp.
What type of adapter has an RJ-11 jack built in?

Modem
Modems have RJ-11 jacks for interface to the Public Switched Telephone
Network (PSTN). The modular jacks that Ethernet NICs have are known as RJ45 jacks.
Und.
327.
Ans.
Exp.
What type of pointing device features a ball and buttons on the top and a flat,
steady surface on the bottom?
Trackball
A trackball is a sort of stationary mouse that has the ball for movement
detection on the top of the device along with the keys. The ball is actuated by
the thumb or fingers, not by moving the device along a flat surface or mouse
pad. Trackballs are ideal where desk space is limited. There is no such thing as
a trackpad.
Und.
328.
Ans.
Exp.
When replacing a power supply, which of the following tends to vary among
power supplies and must be chosen properly to support all connected
devices?
Wattage
Power supplies are rated in watts. When you purchase a power supply, you
should make sure that the devices inside the computer do not require more
wattage than the chosen power supply can offer. The voltage is fairly standard
among power supplies and has nothing to do with the devices connected to
the power supply.
Und.
329.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the best choice as a personal display technology if a user wants to

save desk space and not have to deal with interference from nearby
speakers?
LCD
LCDs do not have electron guns that are aimed by magnets like CRTs do. This
difference makes LCDs more compatible with nearby speaker magnets.
Additionally, the cathode ray tube for which such monitors are named is a
rather bulky component, requiring more desk space to accommodate the
CRTs cabinet.
Und.
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330.
Ans.
Exp.
Which statement about LCDs is most accurate?

LCDs tend not to be as clear as CRTs.
At the same resolution, CRTs are more likely to display a clearer image than
LCDs. LCDs are normally limited to a fixed, native resolution but require less
power than CRT monitors. Although LCD screens are not regularly and
systematically refreshed the way CRTs are, the LCD refresh rate dictates how
often any one pixel is allowed to change.
Und.
331.
Ans.
Exp.
Which video technology has a resolution of 1280 x 1024?

XGA
XGA has a resolution of 1280 x 1024. Consult Table 3.1 for the resolutions that
characterize other technologies
Und.
332.
Ans.
Exp.
What is contrast ratio?

The ratio of luminance between the darkest and lightest colors that can be
displayed
Contrast ratio is a selling point for LCDs. Higher contrast ratios means darker
blacks and brighter whites. The measure of luminance between adjacent
pixels is known as contrast, not contrast ratio.
Und.
333.
Ans.
Exp.
Which interfaces allows audio to be sent out over the same cabling
infrastructure as video?
HDMI
HDMI is a digital interface and cabling specification that allows digital audio to
be carried over the same cable as video.
Und.
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334.
Ans.
Exp.
After a presentation using a video projector, when in a hurry to pack

everything up and head to the airport, what should you avoid doing
immediately?
Unplugging the projectors power cable
Unplugging the power to the projector before the projectors fan has had the
opportunity to cool the unit and stop running on its own can lead to expensive
repairs on the projector or to the cost of replacing the projector outright.
Und.
335.
Ans.
Exp.
What might cause your display to appear in a resolution of 640 x 480?

You have booted into Safe Mode
Safe Mode disables as many nonessential drivers and services as possible.
One of the nonessential drivers it disables is the driver for the graphics
adapter. Windows uses its standard VGA driver to control the graphics adapter
while you are in Safe Mode. Another reason for defaulting back to standard
VGA is that you might have a corrupt or incorrect driver for your adapter.
Und.
336.
Ans.
Exp.
Which results can occur with improper display settings?

You might have to scroll to see parts of the Desktop.
If your monitor allows you to change the resolution, it might not actually allow
you to change the resolution. As confusing as that sounds, your monitor might
maintain its optimal hardware resolution, such as an LCDs native resolution,
and force you to scroll to see any pixels created by the chosen software
resolution that it cannot fit on the hardware screen at that particular moment.
Und.
337.
Ans.
Exp.
Where can you find the best degaussing tool for modern CRT monitors?
Built into the monitor
The built-in degaussing tool of the latest CRT monitors is designed to work
with the monitor in whom it is found. External degaussing tools, while
effective, can be a little hard on the delicate inner workings of the CRT.
Software alone cannot degauss a CRT monitor.
Und.
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338.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
339.
Ans.
Exp.
Which laptop input device was released with the IBM ThinkPad series of
laptops?
Point stick
The Touch point stick was released with the IBM ThinkPad series of laptops.
Which laptop accessory allows you to power your laptop from a car or
airplane?
DC adapter
DC adapter converts the DC output from a car or airplane accessory power
plug into the DC voltages required by your laptop.
Und.
340.
Ans.
Exp.
Which is the fastest and most modern interface used as an expansion method
for external peripherals, such as mice, web cams, scanners, and printers, and
is popular on laptops and desktops alike.
USB
USB is used most often in laptops as an expansion bus for external
peripherals. Although parallel and PS/2 allow for connection of external
peripherals, they are not as flexible or widely used for expansion as USB.
Und.
341.
Ans.
Exp.
Which kind of laptop was designed to look and function likes a paper
notebook?
Tablet
The tablet PC is a notebook with a flip-around screen that allows a user to hold
it like a large notebook and write notes directly on the screen with a special
stylus.
Und.
342.
Ans.
Exp.
Which expansion buses uses serial communications and is capable of

operating in USB and PCIe modes?
Express Card
The Express Card bus brings USB 2.0 and PCIe to the small-form factor
computing industry. CardBus supports USB 1.1 and PCI only. Mini PCI is PCI,
not PCIe
Und.
343.
Ans.
Which tab of the Display Properties dialog box in Windows XP has a button
that launches Power Options Properties, allowing you to enable hibernation
and set power schemes, among other things?
Screen Saver
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The Screen Saver tab of Display Options has a Power button in its Monitor
Power section that launches the Power Options Properties applet.
Und.
344.
Ans.
Exp.
What component allows you to keep desktop devices, such as keyboard,

monitor, and mouse, permanently connected so they can be used by an
attached laptop?
Docking station
A docking station made specifically for its associated brand and model of
laptop can host desktop components permanently, regardless of whether the
laptop is attached to the docking station. When the laptops portability is not
required, but instead use of the desktop components is the priority, attaching
the laptop to the docking station makes such components available to the
laptop without separately attaching each component
Und.
345.
Ans.
Exp.
When replacing your laptops AC adapter, which of the following purchase is

acceptable to obtain the same or better results?
An AC adapter with a higher wattage rating than the original
When you replace a laptops AC adapter, you should match the voltage ratings
of the original adapter. This also means you should use an adapter with a
fixed voltage if that matches the characteristics of the original;
Und.
346.
Ans.
Exp.
Which laptop input device is a flat surface that you can slide across with your
finger to control the cursor?
Touchpad
The touchpad is an input device usually built into the laptop. It allows you to
control the mouse pointer by dragging your finger across the surface.
Und.
347.
Ans.
Exp.
Which memory type has the smallest form factor?

Micro DIMM
The SODIMM and Micro DIMM are the common laptop small-form factor
memory standards. Of the two, MicroDIMM is smaller.
Und.
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348.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
What should you use to clean electronic connectors on expansion cards?

Denatured alcohol
To clean electronic connectors, use denatured isopropyl alcohol.
349.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the first step in the troubleshooting process?

Identify the problem
The first step is to identify the problem. Once you have done that, you should
(in order) establish a theory of probable cause, test the theory, establish a
plan of action to resolve
Und.
350.
Ans.
Exp.
What type of device can help keep your computers running for a short period
of time in the event of a power outage?
Uninterruptable power supply (UPS)
UPS contains batteries that can keep your system running for a short period of
time in case of a power outage.
Und.
351.
Ans.
Exp.
What feature does Windows Vista includes, which is a copy of your system
configuration that can be used to roll back the system to a previous state if a
configuration error occurs.
Restore point
Windows Vista (and XP) can use restore points to roll back the system
configuration to a previous state.
Und.
352.
Ans.
Exp.
When you make a normal backup of your files, what does Windows clear to
show that the file was backed up?
Archive bit
When you make a normal or incremental backup, the archive bit gets cleared,
indicating that the file was backed up.
Und.
353.
Ans.
Exp.
One of your users claims that his hard drive seems to be running slowly. What
tool can you use to check to see how fragmented the hard drive is?
Disk Defragmenter
Disk Defragmenter will analyze the hard drive to determine how fragmented it
is and will allow you to defragment the hard drive. There is no Disk Analyzer
tool. Disk Cleanup can help you free up space by deleting unneeded files.
Checkdisk (Chkdsk) can help you find problems on the hard drive,
Und.
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354.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to ensure that your computer receives automatic updates to

Windows and Microsoft Office. Which tool will take care of this for you?
Microsoft Update
Windows Update downloads patches for the Windows operating system.
Microsoft Update downloads patches for Windows and other Microsoft
applications.
Und.
355.
Ans.
Exp.
You open a computer case and discover an excessive amount of dust inside.
What should you do?
Use a computer vacuum to remove the dust.
A computer vacuum should be used to suck up dust and other small particles.
A regular vacuum generates electrostatic discharge (ESD) and should never
be used. Blowing into a computer case isnt recommended; if needed, you can
use compressed air to blow small bits of dust or debris out of a computer. Dust
can harm computer components.
Und.
356.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
357.
Ans.
Exp.
Which tool do you use to create a copy of all of the data on your Windows XP
computer?
The Backup utility is used to create copies of data on your computer.
Which can you do to help eliminate security problems?

Establish security policies and procedures. Update your operating systems,
Update your applications. Update your network devices.
Establishing security policies and procedures, updating your operating
systems, updating your applications, and updating your network devices are
all good measures to take to help eliminate potential security problems.
Und.
358.
Ans.
Exp.
Last night after you went home, your Windows XP computer ran a normal
backup of your My Documents folder. Today you want to back up only the files
that youve made changes to since then. Which options can you choose to do
this?
Incremental, Daily
Both Normal and Copy will back up all files, not just those that have changed.
Incremental will back up all files that have changed since your last backup.
Daily will back up all files that have changed during that day.
Und.
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359.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following tools can you use to delete temporary Internet files and
other unneeded files to free up disk space?
Disk Cleanup
Disk Cleanup can help you free up space by deleting unneeded files. Disk
Defragmenter will analyze the hard drive to determine how fragmented it is,
and will allow you to defragment the hard drive. There is no Disk Analyzer
tool. Checkdisk (Chkdsk) can help you find problems on the hard drive, but it
does not delete files.
Und.
360.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following utilities can scan the hard drive for physical errors?
Chkdsk
Chkdsk, which is now called Error Checking, will scan the hard drive for
physical errors.
Und.
361.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following types of backups mark the files as being backed up?
(Choose all that apply.
Normal, Incremental
Normal and incremental backups clear the archive bit. Copy and differential
backups do not.
Und.
362.
Ans.
Exp.
If the video on your laptop is not working, what should you do to troubleshoot
it?
Toggle the video function key., Try using an external monitor.
Two helpful things to try are toggling the video output function key (usually
Fn+F8) and plugging an external monitor into the laptop. Removing the
display is possible but not recommended. Powering the system off and back
on isnt likely to correct the problem.
Und.
363.
Ans.
Exp.
While inspecting a motherboard, you notice a discolored area. What is usually

a cause of this?
A Power surge
Discolored areas on the board are often caused by overheating. This can be
the result of power surges
Und.
364.
Ans.
Every computer has a diagnostic program built into its BIOS called the
________.
POST
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Every computer has a diagnostic program built into its BIOS called the poweron self-test (POST). The BIOS is the software stored on the CMOS chip.
Und.
365.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following is an error in Windows that happens when a program

accesses memory another program is using or when a program accesses a
memory addresses that doesnt exist?
General protection fault
A general protection fault (GPF) is a common error in Windows. It happens
when a program accesses memory that another program is using or when a
program accesses a memory address that doesnt exist. Typically, GPFs are
the result of sloppy programming; they can often be fixed by clearing the
memory with a reboot.
Und.
366.
Ans.
Exp.
What would be the best thing to use to clean a laptop display?

LCD cleaner
Laptop LCD video displays can scratch easily. To clean them, its best to use a
cleaner designed specifically for LCD screens.
Und.
367.
Ans.
Exp.
What two devices are commonly used to cool components within a PC?
Fans Heat sinks
Heat sinks and fans are commonly used to cool components within a PC.
Compressed air can be used to blow out small particles or dust.
Und.
368.
Ans.
Exp.
You are having problems with the video card in one of your computers. Where
could you check for troubleshooting information?
The video card manufacturers website, The manual that came with the card
Good sources of troubleshooting information are manufacturers websites,
product manuals, and training materials.
Und.
369.
Ans.
Which Windows error message is displayed when a program is forced to quit

because it did something Windows didnt like?
Illegal operation
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Illegal operation is the Windows error message displayed when a program is

forced to quit because it did something Windows didnt like. The errors details
include which module experienced the problem, the memory location being
accessed at the time, and the registers and flags of the processor at the time
of the error.
Und.
370.
Ans.
Exp.
The display on your laptop appears warped and fuzzy. You plug in an external
monitor, and the image on it is fine. What is the most likely cause of the
problem?
The LCD display
It has to be a problem with the LCD display. If it were the video card, then the
display would appear warped and fuzzy on the external monitor as well. While
many motherboards contain video circuitry, this answer is not specific enough.
If the video driver were corrupted, you would have the same problem on all
displays
Und.
371.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the utility under Windows XP which is useful for troubleshooting error
conditions.
Dr. Watson
Windows 2000 and XP come with Dr. Watson, which is a debugger that can
help troubleshoot error conditions. Windows Vista replaced Dr. Watson with
Problem Reports and Solutions.
Und.
372.
Ans.
Exp.
Which laptop input device is a flat surface that you can draw on with your
finger to control the mouse pointer?
Touchpad
The touchpad is a mousing surface built into the laptop. It allows you to use
your finger to control the mouse pointer by drawing on the surface.
Und.
373.
Ans.
Exp.
Before installing a new application on a computer, which of the following

should you do?
Close all running applications.
Before installing an application, its best to close all open applications first. If
an open application is using a file that the installation process needs to
access, the installation could fail. Formatting the hard drive and reinstalling
Windows are unnecessary. Install Shield is a wizard that Windows-based
applications typically use to aid in the installation, but its not something you
open manually.
Und.
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374.
Ans.
Exp.
You turn a computer on, but nothing shows up on the monitor. Instead of one
beep, you hear one long beep followed by three short beeps. What is the
problem?
Not enough information; you need to look up the beep code to determine the
problem.
It may well be that the video card is dead. Different BIOS manufacturers use
different beep codes, though, so youll want to look it up to be sure. If the
motherboards were dead or the BIOS werent functioning, you wouldnt get to
the POST routine, so you wouldnt get a beep code.
Und.
375.
Ans.
Exp.
A user has an application that is constantly crashing. The user has rebooted,
and the application is still failing. What should you do?
Reinstall the application.
If an application is crashing, its likely that there is a missing or corrupted file.
The easiest way to fix this is to reinstall the application. Reinstalling Windows
isnt necessary.
Und.
376.
Ans.
Exp.
You turn a computer on and it doesnt boot up properly. From inside the case
you hear a rhythmic ticking sound. What is most likely the problem?
The hard drive
The only components that typically make noise are the ones that have moving
parts, such as fans and hard drives. In most cases, a rhythmic ticking sound
will be something thats generated by the hard drive.
Und.
377.
Ans.
Exp.
A user calls saying his laptop wont power on. He charged it all night so he
knows the battery is fine. What should you have him do first?
Plug the laptop in using an AC adapter and try to power it on.
If a laptop wont power up on battery, always try to use AC power. You never
know when a battery could have failed. If he had a spare and didnt have an
AC power cord, trying a spare might work, but trying AC power is the best bet.
There is no battery power switch on laptops.
Und.
378.
Ans.
A computer is experiencing random reboots and phantom problems that

disappear after reboot. What should you do?
Open the cover, clean the inside of the computer, and reseat all cards and
chips.
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Exp.
When a computer is experiencing random reboots and phantom problems that

disappear after reboot, you should open the cover, clean everything (if its
dirty), and reseat all cards and chips. Some components could have gunk on
them that carries an electrical charge, or could have experienced "chip creep,"
where they slowly work themselves out of their sockets
Und.
379.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following is used to properly discharge voltage from an

unplugged computer monitor?
High-voltage probe
A high-voltage probe is designed to release the electricity from high-voltage
components, which are found in the back of CRT computer monitors. Wearing
an antistatic wrist strap when working on a computer monitor can cause the
stored up electric current to be released through your body, which could result
in serious injury or death!
Und.
380.
Ans.
Exp.
Which measures can be implemented to reduce the risk of ESD?

Antistatic wrist strap Antistatic bag Antistatic floor mat
Antistatic wrist straps, bags (for parts), and floor mats can all help reduce the
risk of ESD. There are no antistatic hair nets (but if you have long hair, its
best to tie it back so it doesnt contact the computer parts).
Und.
381.
Ans.
Exp.
While working on a users system, you discover a sticky note attached to the
bottom of the keyboard that has their username and password written on it.
The user is not around, and you need to verify that the network connection is
working. What should you do?
Page the user.
You should page the user and let her know she needs to verify access. You
also should tell her that you saw the sticky note and highly recommend that
she change her password to a new value and not write it down. Logging in to
the system using the information you found would be violating the privacy of
that user and should not be done. Further, logging in with someone elses
information makes you a potential scapegoat for any data that is corrupted or
missing until the user changes the password.
Und.
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382.
Ans.
Exp.
A customer is trying to explain to you a problem with his system.

Unfortunately, he has such a thick accent that you are unable to understand
what he is saying. What should you do?
Apologize and find another user or manager who can help you translate.
While there is no perfect solution to problems of this type, the best solution is
to find someone else who can mediate and help you understand the problem.
Und.
383.
Ans.
Exp.
You have been trying to troubleshoot a users system all day when it suddenly
becomes clear that the data is irretrievably lost. Upon informing the customer
of this, he becomes so angry that he shoves you against a wall. What should
you do?
Try to calm the user down, and leave the site if you cannot.
Physical abuse violates respect and should be avoided at all costs. You should
try to calm the user down. If you cannot do this, you should leave the site
immediately and not return until it is safe to do so. You may also want to
report the incident to your management so that theyre aware of the situation.
Und.
384.
Ans.
Exp.
A customer tells you that the last technician who was there spent three hours
on the phone making personal calls. What should you do with this
information?
Inform your manager.
The customer is expressing a concern that she was not shown respect by a
technician from your company. You should apologize and make your manager
aware of the situation or concern. Unless you are a supervisor, which is not
implied in the question, you should not personally talk to the technician about
the issue.
Und.
385.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
386.
Ans.
Exp.
You arrive at the site of a failed server to find the vice president nervously
pacing and worrying about lost data. What should you do?
Inform him that youve dealt with similar situations and will let him know what
needs to be done as soon as possible.
You should always act with confidence and in a way similar to how you would
want to be treated if you were in the customers situation. Ignoring,
downplaying, or joking about the vice presidents obvious concern are very
poor choices
Which statement is true regarding upgrading a computer system?
When upgrading RAM, it is possible that you can upgrade RAM only.
Very often, computer systems prove to have an upgrade path for their RAM.
Also, upgrading the RAM is the least expensive upgrade compared to the
increase in performance that you can observe, up to a point
Und.
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387.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
388.
Ans.
Exp.
Which two of the following are todays best choices for video adapter
technology?
PCIe AGP
While installing a CPU, you apply gentle pressure to the surface of the CPU,
but it will not seat. When you examine the pins of the CPU to see if they are
straight, you find that a number of them are bent. Why are the bent pins not
the original problem?
The socket has a ZIF mechanism that must be released before inserting the
CPU.
You should never apply insertion pressure to a CPU. With ZIF sockets, you
release the lever on the side of the socket, and the CPU should drop right in,
sometimes with delicate urging but never with what could be considered
pressure.
Und.
389.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the term for an operating systemindependent operation that ties a

hard drive to its controller card?
Low-level formatting
The question describes low-level formatting, which is performed by the
manufacturer for ATA (IDE) drives but must be performed by the installer for
SCSI drives. Partitioning and high-level formatting are based on the operating
system being used, and scrubbing is an informal term used to describe the
behavior of certain integrity-checking utilities.
Und.
390.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
What does the red stripe on a ribbon cable indicate?

Pin 1
The red stripe on the cable indicates pin 1.
391.
Which system resource allows an expansion card, for instance, to signal the
CPU that it requires some of the CPUs time?
IRQ lines
Interrupt request (IRQ) lines perform as stated in the question. The other three
resources have nothing to do with this action.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
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392.
Ans.
Exp.
On the primary IDE channel, if a single hard disk is attached, its jumper should
be set to _______
Single if available, otherwise Master
If there is a Single setting, it should be used. Otherwise, use Master. Slave is
never appropriate for a single drive. There is no such jumper setting as Boot.
Und.
393.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the name of the utility that allows you to check hardware resources
and alter them, if allowed?
A Device Manager
Only Device Manager allows you access to the resources being used by the
various hardware components. Task Manager and Control Panel allow you to
monitor and alter certain items but not hardware resources, as Device
Manager is designed to do
Und.
394.
Ans.
Exp.
Where can you obtain the service manual for a laptop computer?
From the manufacturers website
Laptop service manuals can be obtained from the manufacturers website. Its
very rare that paper service manuals are shipped with the laptop. Pressing F1
while in Windows will open Windows Help, and pressing F2 on many laptops
during the system boot will take you into the BIOS.
Und.
395.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following are components of an LCD?

Inverter Screen
The components of an LCD screen are the inverter, screen, and backlight. The
video card is also a key component of the LCD system. A CRT is a different
technology than LCD
Und.
396.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following are laptop memory form factor standards?

Micro DIMM SODIMM
The two laptop memory form factor standards are the 144-pin SODIMM and
172-pin MicroDIMM.
Und.
397.
Ans.
Exp.
What type of connector does a Mini PCIe card have?

52-pin card edge
Mini PCIe cards have 52-pin card edge connectors. Mini PCI cards have either
a 100-pin stacking connector or a 124-pin card edge connector.
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Und.
398.
Ans.
Exp.
Which LCD component is responsible for providing the right kind of power to
the monitor?
Inverter
The inverter provides power to the backlight. The backlight provides light to
the LCD screen, and the screen displays the picture.
Und.
399.
Ans.
Exp.
What type of connector does a Mini PCI type IA card have?

100-pin stacking
Mini PCI cards have either a 100-pin stacking connector or a 124-pin card
edge connector. Type I cards have a 100-pin card edge connector. Mini PCIe
cards have 52-pin card edge connectors.
Und.
400.
Ans.
Exp.
Which laptop component is often upgraded with an external PCMCIA device?

Network card
Network cards are available in PCMCIA forms. If your network card fails or you
need an upgrade, you can easily install an external PCMCIA NIC.
Und.
401.
Ans.
Exp.
When upgrading the system BIOS, what is one way you may be able to
change the boot sequence?
By pressing F2 while the system is booting up
Pressing F2 on many laptops during the system boot will take you into the
BIOS. Pressing F1 while in Windows will open Windows Help. Inserting a boot
CD will not change the boot sequence. There is no BIOS key on the laptop.
Und.
402.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
How many pins does a SODIMM memory module have?

144
SODIMM memory chips have 144 pins. MicroDIMM chips have 172 pins.
403.
Ans.
Exp.
What should you do first to remove external devices from your laptop?
Click the Safely Remove Hardware icon
Before removing external hardware, you should click the Safely Remove
Hardware icon.
Und.
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404.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following is a digital connector for video that you may find on
video card?
DVI
DVI connector is for digital video. A VGA connector is for analog video. LCD
and CRT are monitor types.
Und.
405.
Ans.
Exp.
What are common types of Mini PCI card devices?

Hard drive controller Network Sound cardcard
Hard drive controllers (SATA and SCSI), network cards, and sound cards can all
be found in Mini PCI forms. Hard drives are not made in Mini PCI form.
Und.
406.
Ans.
Exp.
Your laptop has 2GB of installed memory and uses shared video memory. If
the video card is using 512MB, how much is left for the rest of the system?
1.5GB
If the laptop is using shared video memory, then the system memory is
shared with the video card. If the video card is using 512MB (half a gigabyte),
then there is 1.5GB left for the system
Und.
407.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
Which two of the following are types of LCD screens?

Active matrix Passive matrix
The two types of LCD screens are active matrix and passive matrix.
408.
You have just installed a new printer. After it is installed, it prints only garbled
text. Which of the following is likely the problem?
Incorrect print drivers
If a printer is using out-of-date or incorrect printer drivers, the printer may
produce pages of garbled text. The solution is to ensure that the most recent
printer drivers are downloaded from the manufacturers website
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
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409.
Ans.
Exp.
What are the most common causes of crinkled paper coming out of a laser
printer?
The printers gears. The printer has an obstructed paper path are stripped.
The printers paper path is probably obstructed by something, or its gears
have been stripped by paper feeding incorrectly. Obstructions are usually
caused by paper from a previous jam. When cleaning out a paper jam, make
sure you get all the paper
Und.
410.
Ans.
Exp.
You have a bubble-jet printer. Recently, papers are being printed with
excessive amounts of ink, and the ink is smearing. What is the most likely
cause of the problem?
A faulty ink cartridge
If an ink cartridge is faulty or develops a hole, it can release excessive
amounts of ink, which will lead to smearing. A corrupted printer driver would
result in printing garbage. Bubble-jet printers do not have a fuser. Excessive
humidity may cause smearing, but not too much ink being disbursed.
Und.
411.
Ans.
Exp.
You are troubleshooting a client system. The client has just installed a new
device, but the system now reports a resource conflict at I/O addresses
0x02E802EF. What is this address range normally used for?
COM4
Most devices attached to the computer system are assigned an I/O address
range. If two devices share even a single address, a conflict occurs. In this
case, COM4 uses the address range 0x02E802EF (also referred to as base-I/O
address 0x02E8) by default
Und.
412.
Ans.
Exp.
Which is a valid CPU and socket/slot pairing?

Core 2 Quad, Socket T
Socket T, or LGA 775, accommodates such processors as the Core 2 Quad and
Core 2 Duo processors as well as the faster and later Pentium 4 CPUs
Und.
413.
What is the term for the concentric magnetic rings on the surface of a disk
platter?
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Ans.
Exp.
Track
Tracks are concentric rings formed magnetically in the factory or through lowlevel formatting. Tracks form the boundaries within which data is written to
the surface of a platter
Und.
414.
Ans.
Exp.
What differentiates a solid-state drive from a conventional hard disk drive?

No moving parts
Solid-state drives have no moving parts like conventional hard disk drives.
They rival smaller conventional drives in capacity but are not yet offered in as
large a capacity overall. They tend to be more expensive than conventional
drives per byte of capacity but use the same drive interfaces, such as SATA
interfaces, for example
Und.
415.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
How much data can a single layer of a standard DVD hold?

4.7GB
A single-sided, single-layer DVD holds 4.7GB of data.
416.
Which of the following display types bombards the viewing screen with
electrons, making the device more susceptible to magnetic interference?
CRT
Displays based on cathode ray tube (CRT) technology excite phosphor dot
trios on the back of the viewing screen by shooting electrons from electron
guns, making the phosphors glow in red, green, or blue. By varying the
intensity of the bombardment among the three dot phosphors, millions of
colors per pixel are attainable. Magnetic interference can affect the aim of the
electron guns. LCDs and touchscreen panels do not use dot phosphors to
display images
What is the name of the standard that defines power management for laptop
computers?
ACPI
ACPI is the power management standard introduced in 1996. Its an extension
of the system BIOS that is responsible for managing power to devices in your
system.
Ans.
Exp.
417.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
418.
Ans.
Exp.
What are benefits of a USB connection, making it a popular choice for

printers?
It automatically recognizes new devices.
It has a higher transfer rate than a parallel connection. It has a higher transfer
rate than a serial connection.
Und.
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419.
Ans.
Exp.
When chips heat and cool repeatedly, they can work their way out of their
sockets. This phenomenon is called what?
Chip creep
Chip creep is when the chip wiggles itself out of a socket. This can be caused
by the chip heating and cooling repeatedly. With most chips today held in by
clips, this is not usually a problem anymore.
Und.
420.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following standards supports communications up to 54Mbps?

802.11g
The 802.11g standard supports speeds up to 54Mbps. 802.11x refers to the
family of 802.11 standards, and 802.11b supports only up to 11Mbps.
Bluetooth is limited to 3Mbp
Und.
421.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
422.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following communication technologies is designed for use with

peripheral devices such as keyboards, mice, and wireless headsets
Bluetooth
Bluetooth was made to work as a Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN). As
such, its perfect for computer peripherals such as keyboards, mice, and
wireless headsets
Which of the following CPU-cooling methods requires a pump in order to
function?
A Liquid cooling
Liquid cooling and phase-change cooling methods use pumps to circulate the
cooling medium. The other technologies use physics that do not require
pumps to function
Und.
423.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following is a reason for using thermal compound on a CPU?

To promote the uniform transfer of heat from the CPU to the heat sink
Thermal compound has become mandatory in creating a uniform heat-transfer
layer between the CPU and heat sink.
Und.
424.
Ans.
Exp.
Which interfaces offers the highest data rate?

FireWire
FireWire comes in 400 and 800Mbps versions. The closest competitor in this
list of options is USB 1.1, which tops out at 12Mbps. You have to employ USB
2.0 at 480Mbps to challenge FireWire (IEEE 1394)
Und.
425.
What is the term for one of the segments of a track on the platter of a
magnetic disk?
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Ans.
Exp.
Sector
Tracks are segmented into sectors, each of which routinely stores up to 512
bytes of data. Sectors are created in the factory or during low-level
formatting. Clusters and allocation units are two terms for a collection of one
or more sectors. Clusters are formed during high-level formatting by an
operating system.
Und.
426.
Ans.
Exp.
What type of adapter card would be used in the accelerated graphics port of
an ATX motherboard?
AGP video card
The AGP port is specifically designed to provide increased performance for
video cards. No other common device has been adapted for use in the AGP
port.
Und.
427.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following can help to improve the sharpness of display quality?
Increasing the refresh rate
Increasing the refresh rate serves to sharpen a displays image, as long as the
monitor supports the selected rate
Und.
428.
Ans.
Exp.
When turning on a newer CRT, you hear an extremely short buzzing sound.
The user says the monitor has always done that, and the CRT appears to be
okay. What caused the sound
The monitor is degaussing itself.
Newer CRTs have a self-degaussing feature that activates whenever the
monitor is powered on. This increases the quality of the image and reduces
the need to perform a manual degaussing
Und.
429.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the piece of software that allows the operating system to talk to a
hardware device called?
Device driver
Device drivers are software applications that enable the operating system to
talk to hardware devices.
Und.
430.
Ans.
Exp.
Which standards is backward compatible with both 802.11a and 802.11b?

802.11n
The 802.11n standard utilizes both the 2.4GHz and 5GHz spectrums, and is
backward compatible with both 802.11a (5GHz) and 802.11b (2.4GHz).
802.11g operates at 2.4GHz and is only backward compatible with 802.11b.
802.11i is a security specification.
Und.
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431.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the communication methods is point-to-point, limited to a distance of

about one meter?
Infrared
Infrared communications are point-to-point only and are limited to about one
meter. Bluetooth can work up to 100 meters, depending on the version.
Wireless Ethernet network signals can travel for several hundred meters, and
cellular communications can span several kilometers
Und.
432.
Ans.
Exp.
A piconet is limited to how many devices?

Eight
A piconet (Bluetooth network) can have eight devices on it. One device can
communicate with seven other devices on the same network.
Und.
433.
Ans.
Exp.
You are configuring a wireless router and want to limit who can access the
device. How can you limit access?
MAC filtering
You can limit the computers that have access to the wireless router through
MAC filtering. Only computers with specific MAC addresses will be allowed to
use the device. There is no IP filtering or DNS filtering. All routers will have an
SSID by default, but using an SSID does not specifically limit access
Und.
434.
Ans.
Exp.
Authentication systems or methods are based on which of the following

factors?
Something you know, such as a password or PIN
Something you have, such as a smart card or an identification device,
Something physically unique to you, such as your fingerprints or retinal
pattern
Und.
435.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the recommended use policy on magnetic-tipped screwdrivers inside

computers?
Do not use them.
A good rule of thumb when it comes to magnetic-tipped screwdrivers is to
avoid using them inside a computer case. Magnetic tools can damage data on
disks that use a magnetic storage scheme
Und.
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436.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following terms refers to a single memory module playing the
role of two separate modules?
Double-sided
Double-sided memory uses additional pins on the modules to allow access to
only half the memory locations at a time. The memory controller switches to
whichever side it needs to access at any given moment.
Und.
437.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following is the ability of a single application to have multiple

requests in to the processor at one time?
Multithreading
The ability of a single application to have multiple requests in to the processor
at one time is known as multithreading.
Und.
438.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the maximum number of devices that can be supported by USB?

256
Though it is unlikely that it would ever be necessary, a single USB chain can
theoretically support 127 different peripheral devices. This includes scanners,
cameras, MP3 players, printers, keyboards, and so on
Und.
439.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the name of the technology that allows the hard disk subsystem to
warn you of an impending failure before data loss occurs?
SMART
The Self Monitoring and Reporting Technology (SMART) was designed to warn
users and technicians that data loss is imminent. This early warning often
allows data to be backed up and a hard drive replaced before such data loss
occurs
Und.
440.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the function of a loopback plug?

It tests the functionality of a NIC.
Loopback plugs take the signal going out on the transmit path and connect it
back to the receive path. This allows you to test certain legacy ports as well as
Ethernet NICs to make certain they are working correctly
Und.
441.
Ans.
Exp.
What should be done if the system detects a resource conflict on a PC?

Manually assign resources to the conflicting components
If for some reason the system assigns duplicate resources, such as an IRQ, to
two different PC components, it is possible to manually set which resources
one of the components will use. Traditionally, all resources were manually set;
however, Plug and Play, which is not a service, has changed that
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Und.
442.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the Desktop?

The virtual desk on which all of your other programs and utilities run By
default,
The Desktop contains the Start menu, the Taskbar, and a number of icons.
Because it is the base on which everything else sits, how the Desktop is
configured can have a major effect on how the GUI looks and how convenient
it is for users.
Und.
443.
Ans.
Exp.
Which dialog box helps you to change Screensaver?

Display Properties
The screensaver can be changed in the Display Properties dialog box. To
access this dialog box, you can either right-click anywhere on the Desktop and
choose Properties from the context menu or open Control Panel and click the
Display applet
Und.
444.
Ans.
Exp.
How can we increase the size of taskbar?

Moving the mouse pointer to the top of the Taskbar, pausing until the pointer
turns into a double-headed arrow, and then clicking and dragging
You can increase the Taskbars size by moving the mouse pointer to the top of
the Taskbar, pausing until the pointer turns into a double-headed arrow, and
then clicking and dragging. Keep in mind that in Windows XP, you have to
unlock the Taskbar first by right-clicking on it and deselecting Lock The
Taskbar
Und.
445.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following file attributes are available to files on a FAT32 partition?
Hidden, Read Only, Archive, System
FAT32 does not have as many options as NTFS, such as Encryption and
Compression. These attributes are available only on NTFS partitions
Und.
446.
Ans.
Exp.
The Windows Explorer program can be used to do which of the following?

Copy and move files Change file attributes
The Windows Explorer program can be used to copy and move files and to
change file attributes.
Und.
447.
Ans.
What are Standard permissions?

Permissions grouped together for easy assignment
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Standard permissions, unlike special permissions, have been grouped together

to make it easier for administrators to assign permissions
Und.
448.
Ans.
Exp.
OPERATING SYSTEM
Virtual memory is configured through which system tool?
System control panel
Virtual memory settings are accessed through the Performance tab or area of
the System control panel.
Und.
449.
Ans.
Exp.
If a program doesnt have a shortcut on the Desktop or in the Programs

submenu, you can start it by
Using the Run command and typing in the name of the program
To run any program, select Start > Run and type the name of the program in
the Open field. If you dont know the exact name of the program, you can find
the file by clicking the Browse button. Once you have typed in the executable
name, click OK to run the program.
Und.
450.
Ans.
Exp.
What can you do if a program is not responding to any commands and

appears to be locked up?
Open Task Manager, select the appropriate task, and click End Task.
You can use Task Manager to deal with applications that have stopped
responding.
Und.
451.
Ans.
Exp.
In Windows, a deleted file can be retrieved using which of the following?

Recycle Bin
All deleted files are placed in the Recycle Bin. Deleted files are held there until
the Recycle Bin is emptied. Users can easily recover accidentally deleted files
from the Recycle Bin.
Und.
452.
Ans.
Exp.
Which type of resource do you configure in Device Manager?

Hardware
Device Manager is used in Windows to configure all hardware resources that
Windows knows about.
Und.
453.
Ans.
Exp.
To back up the files on your disks in Windows, which Windows program can
you use?
Backup
The Backup utility is provided with all versions of Windows, but it has different
levels of functionality in the different versions
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Und.
454.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following files bootstraps Windows XP?

NTLDR
The NTLDR file bootstraps the system (is the initial file that starts the
operating system) and in turn loads the BOOT.INI. There is no file called
BOOTSTRAP.EXE, and NTBOOTDD.SYS is called only if youre using a SCSI boot
device.
Und.
455.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
456.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following partitions is specifically the partition from which the
operating system boots?
Active partition
The operating system boots from the active partition. Active partitions must
be primary partitions, but a primary partition does not have to be active (as
there can be up to four primary partitions per hard drive)
Which of the following Registry hives contains information about the
computers hardware?
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
There are five basic hives in the Windows Registry: HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT,
HKEY_CURRENT_USER, HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE, HKEY_USERS, and
HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE stores information about the
computers hardware. HKEY_CURRENT_MACHINE, HKEY_MACHINE, and
HKEY_RESOURCES do not exist.
Und.
457.
Ans.
Und.
Within Windows 2000, what is the maximum length of a filename?

255 characters
458.
What type of backup will back up all selected files and then clear the archive
bit?
Normal
A normal backup will back up all selected files and then clear the archive bit,
letting the system know that the file was backed up. There is no Complete
backup option. Incremental will only back up files that have changed since the
last backup, and it does clear the archive bit. Copy backs up all files but does
not clear the archive bit. Windows 2000 (and XP/Vista), filenames can be no
longer than 255 characters. Under DOS, files were limited by the 8.3 standard
of 8 characters plus a 3-character file extension.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
459.
Which of the following utilities will rearrange the files on your hard disk to
occupy contiguous chunks of space?
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Ans.
Exp.
Disk Defragmenter
Windows Disk Defragmenter rearranges files on your hard disk so they occupy
contiguous spaces (as much as possible). Windows Explorer lets you view and
manage files but not manage their location on the physical hard disk.
Scandisk will check the hard drive for errors, and Windows Backup backs up
files but does not manage their physical location
Und.
460.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
461.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following is the name of the graphical interface included with
Windows Vista?
Aero
The interface included with Windows Vista is called Aero.
Which of the following tools allows you to test DirectX functionality?

DxDiag
The DxDiag utility (DirectX Diagnostics) is used to test DirectX functionality.
Telnet is used to establish a remote connection, Msinfo32 shows configuration
settings, and ping can let you know if a remote host can be reached.
Und.
462.
Ans.
Exp.
What do you use in Windows XP to create a recovery disk?

Automated System Recovery (ASR)
Windows XP uses Automated System Recovery (ASR). It makes a backup of
your system partition and creates a recovery disk.
Und.
463.
Ans.
Exp.
In Windows XP, which utility is responsible for finding, downloading, and

installing Windows service packs?
Windows Update
Windows Update automatically (by default) finds, downloads, and installs
service packs and other Windows updates. None of the other options are real
utilities.
Und.
464.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the first file used in the boot-up of Windows XP?

NTLDR
The first file used in the Windows Vista (as well as 2000) boot process is
NTLDR. Both the NTOSKRNL.EXE and NTBOOTDD.SYS files are used in the boot
process, but neither is the first file run. Neither AUTOEXEC.BAT nor
CONFIG.SYS is involved in the Windows Vista/XP/2000 boot process.
Und.
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465.
Ans.
Exp.
What does Safe Mode allow you to do?

Start Windows using only basic files and drivers.
Safe Mode is a good option to choose to restore files that are missing or to fix
a configuration error. With only basic files and drivers loaded, you can more
easily identify the source of the problem.
Und.
466.
Ans.
Exp.
Which an Ethernet standard implemented via a card that allows a sleeping"

machine to awaken when it receives a wakeup signal?
Wake on LAN
Wake on LAN is an Ethernet standard implemented via a card that allows a
"sleeping" machine to awaken when it receives a wakeup signal.
Und.
467.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the quickest solution to fixing a corrupted NTOSKRNL.EXE file?

Boot from a startup disk and replace the file from the setup disks or CD.
The solution to a corrupted NTOSKRNL.EXE file is to boot from a startup disk
and replace the file from the setup disks or CD.
Und.
468.
Ans.
Exp.
During what type of installation must a user be present to?

Attended
In an attended installation, a user must be present to choose all of the options
when the installation program gets to that point.
Und.
469.
Ans.
Exp.
In Windows Vista and XP, how do you access advanced startup options?
By pressing F8 during the first phase of the boot process
Pressing F8 during the first phase of the boot process brings up the Advanced
Startup Options menu in Windows.
Und.
470.
Ans.
Exp.
Which advanced startup option in Windows 2000 would you use to be able to
return to a previously functioning environment?
Last Known Good Configuration
Last Known Good Configuration enables you to restore the system to a prior,
functional state if a change was made to the Registry that turned out to be
problematic.
Und.
471.
Ans.
In Windows 2000 and XP, which of the following files is specifically responsible
for enabling communication between the system hardware and the operating
system?
HAL.DLL
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HAL, or the Hardware Abstraction Layer, is the translator between the

hardware and the operating system.
Und.
472.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following is a replacement for RIS?

WDS
Beginning with Windows Server 2003, RIS was replaced by Windows
Deployment Service (WDS). This utility offers the same functionality as RIS.
Und.
473.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the first step when installing Windows onto a system that doesnt
already have a functioning operating system?
Partitioning
New disk drives or PCs with no OS need to have two critical functions
performed on them before they can be used: partitioning and formatting.
These two functions are performed by two commands, FDISK.EXE and
FORMAT.COM, or by the Windows installation program itself.
Und.
474.
Ans.
Which is/are performed by formatting the hard drive?

Formatting scans the surface of the hard drive platter to find bad spots and
marks the areas surrounding a bad spot as bad sectors 2 Formatting lays
down magnetic tracks in concentric circles. 3The tracks are split into pieces of
512 bytes called sectors. 4 Formatting creates a File Allocation Table that
contains information about the location of files.
Und.
475.
Ans.
Exp.
After installation of the operating system, what do the newer versions of

Windows require in order to curb software piracy?
Activation
Windows Vista and XP require the installation to be followed by a process
known as product activation to curb software piracy. Youve successfully
completed an upgrade to Windows 2000 Professional. Several days later, you
add your old printer, using the driver that originally came with it. Now the
printer, which has never had a problem, wont print.
Und.
476.
Ans.
Which of the methods correctly adds new hardware to a Windows 2000

system if Plug and Play does not work?.
Choose Start > Settings > Control Panel and then double-click the
Add/Remove Hardware icon. On the Desktop, double-click the My Computer
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icon, double-click the Control Panel icon, and then double-click the
Add/Remove Hardware icon.
Plug and Play will automatically detect new hardware and install the proper
software. If it is not successful, you can use the Add/Remove Hardware Wizard.
Und.
477.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
478.
Ans.
Exp.
If Plug and Play does not work with a particular device on a Windows Vista
machine, what Control Panel utility can you use?
Add Hardware
When Plug and Play does not work, the Add New Hardware applet in the
Control Panel can be used in Windows Vista. In some earlier versions of
Windows, this same functionality was provided by the Add/Remove Hardware
Wizard.
Which utility that comes with Windows 2000 Professional is used to create an
image of an existing computer for network installation?
Sysprep
The Sysprep utility comes with Windows 2000 Professional and is used to
make an image of a computer. Ghost is a third-party utility made by Norton.
Sys image is not a known Windows utility, and RIS only comes with Windows
Server operating systems
Und.
479.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
What is the name of the swap file in Windows Vista.

PAGEFILE.SYS
The name of the virtual memory swap file is PAGEFILE.SYS.
480.
If you have 256MB of RAM in a Windows 2000 machine, what is the minimum
recommended size for the swap file?
384MB
The minimum recommended swap-file size under Windows 2000 is 1.5 times
the amount of physical RAM: 1.5 x 256MB = 384MB.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
481.
Ans.
Exp.
Where would you configure a workstation to boot from the USB drive first and
hard drive only if there is not a bootable USB device attached?
NTLDR , C:\WINDOWS\TEMP\1st.txt , Boot.ini
Boot order is configured in the BIOS of the workstation and not in a Windowsrelated file.
Und.
482.
Ans.
You just clicked Start > Run. Which of the following can you type to open a
command prompt? (Choose all that apply.)
CMD, COMMAND
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Und.
To open a command prompt, you can use CMD or COMMAND.
483.
Ans.
Exp.
Which command is primarily used to modify text files?

EDIT
The EDIT command is a holdover from the DOS days and is used to edit textbased files. Notepad and WordPad are both Windows-based utilities, and EDT
does not exist.
Und.
484.
Ans.
Exp.
Which location is common for system files?

C:\Windows\System32
The C:\Windows\System32 directory is where many of the Windows Vista, XP,
and 2000 system files reside.
Und.
485.
Ans.
Exp.
You believe that your system files are corrupted in Windows XP. You run
System File Checker. What do you do to make System File Checker
automatically repair your system files if repair is needed?
Run SFC /SCANNOW.
The SFC command will run System File Checker. The /SCANNOW option will
scan files, and SFC automatically repairs files it detects as corrupted.
Und.
486.
Ans.
Exp.
You are at a command prompt, and your current directory is

C:\Windows\Temp\Files\Old. Which command will get you to the root of D?
D:
To change drives at the command prompt, simply type in the drive letter and
a colon, and press Enter. However, if you were previously at a specific
directory in D: (say, D:\TEMP), then typing D: and pressing Enter would take
you to D:\TEMP.
Und.
487.
Ans.
Which command can you use to convert a FAT partition to an NTFS partition?
CONVERT
Exp.
The CONVERT command is used to convert FAT partitions to NTFS. You cannot
convert NTFS to FAT, however.
Und.
488.
Ans.
Exp.
You are at a command prompt. Which command can you use to see whether
you have a network connection to another computer?
PING
The PING command tests to see whether you can reach a remote host on the
network.
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Und.
489.
Ans.
Exp.
You are at a command prompt. You want to make a file called WORK.DOC a
read-only file. Which command do you use to accomplish this?
ATTRIB +R WORK.DOC
The ATTRIB command is used to set file attributes. To add attributes, use the
plus sign (+). To remove attributes, use the minus sign (-). The Read-Only
attribute is designated by R. The problem, verifies full system functionality,
and documents your findings.
Und.
490.
Ans.
Exp.
Which tool do you use to create a restore point in Windows XP?

System Restore
The System Restore tool is used to create restore points. Backup creates
backups of your hard drive. You can use Backup to create copies of your
configuration (like a restore point) along with other data, but to specifically
create a restore point use System Restore. There are no Restore Point or
Emergency Repair tools (although there is an emergency repair disk).
Und.
491.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
492.
Ans.
Exp.
If a program doesnt have a shortcut on the Desktop or in the Programs

submenu, how can you start it?
By using the Run command and typing the name of the program
To run any program, select Start > Run and type the name of the program in
the Open field. If you dont know the exact name of the program, you can find
the file by clicking the Browse button. Once you have typed the executable
name, click OK to run the program.
Which option can be used with a command at a command prompt to see what
options are available with it?
/?
To see the options available with a command, use /? For example, to see what
options are available with the PING command, you would enter: ping /?
Und.
493.
Ans.
Exp.
Which utility is shown in this graphic?

Msconfig
The utility shown in the figure is Msconfig running on a Windows XP
workstation.
Und.
494.
Ans.
Which of the following CHKDSK options automatically incorporates the

operations that would be done with /f?
/r
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The /r option not only locates bad sectors, but also recovers the data that is
found in them (the purpose for the /f option).
Und.
495.
Ans.
Und.
Which of the following options exist with COPY and not with XCOPY?
XCOPY can be thought of as an expanded version of COPY
496.
Ans.
Exp.
Which utility is shown in this graphic?

Ipconfig
The utility shown in the figure is ipconfig running on a Windows XP
workstation.
Und.
497.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
Which option is used with PING to continue contacting the host until stopped?
t
To continue pinging the host until stopped, use the -t option.
498.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
Which command enables you to verify entries on a DNS server?

nslookup
The nslookup utility enables you to verify DNS entries on a server.
499.
Ans.
Exp.
Which version of Windows Vista does not include offline folder capabilities?
Home Premium
The two biggest modifications to offline folders in Windows Vista are the
inclusion of the Sync Center and the restriction of offline file support to the
Business, Enterprise, and Ultimate versions.
Und.
500.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
Which option is used with PING to specify a buffer size other than the default?
l
To specify a buffer size to be used with PING, use the -l option.
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501.
Ans.
Exp.
What do you use in Windows XP to create a recovery disk?

Automated System Recovery (ASR)
Windows XP introduced a new feature for system recovery, Automated System
Recovery (ASR). Included with XP, it makes a backup of your system partition
and creates a recovery disk.
Und.
502.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the default interface used by Windows Vista?

Aero
The default interface used with Windows Vista is Aero. You can, however,
choose to use the Classic Windows interface in its place.
Und.
503.
Ans.
Exp.
What does Safe Mode allow you to do?

Start Windows using only basic files and drivers.
Safe Mode is a good option to choose to restore files that are missing or to fix
a configuration error. With only basic files and drivers loaded, you can more
easily identify the source of the problem.
Und.
504.
Ans.
Exp.
Which Control Panel applet is used to set the keyboard language layout in
Windows Vista?
Regional and Language Options
The Regional and Language Options is used in Windows Vista (and XP). In
Windows 2000, the applet was Regional Options.
Und.
505.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the quickest solution to fixing a corrupted NTOSKRNL.EXE file?

Boot from a startup disk and replace the file from the setup disks or CD-ROM
The solution to a corrupt NTOSKRNL.EXE file is to boot from a startup disk and
replace the file from the setup disks or CD-ROM. Replacing the corrupted
NTOSKRNL.EXE file might also be the solution, but the quickest fix (provided
its the problem) is to look at the BOOT.INI file.
Und.
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506.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following is the most common error in Windows, and it happens
when a program accesses memory another program is using or when a
program accesses a memory address that doesnt exist?
General protection fault
A general protection fault is the most common error in Windows. It happens
when a program accesses memory that another program is using or when a
program accesses a memory address that doesnt exist. Generally, GPFs are
the result of sloppy programming; they can often be fixed by clearing the
memory with a reboot.
Und.
507.
Ans.
Exp.
Which Windows error message is displayed when a program is forced to quit

because it did something Windows didnt like?
Illegal operation
Illegal operation is the Windows error message displayed when a program is
forced to quit because it did something Windows didnt like. The errors details
include which module experienced the problem, the memory location being
accessed at the time, and the registers and flags of the processor at the time
of the error.
Und.
508.
Ans.
Exp.
Which Control Panel applet is used to configure how Windows files are
searched?
Indexing Options
The Indexing Options applet is used to configure how Windows files are
searched.
Und.
509.
Ans.
Exp.
In Windows XP, how do you access advanced startup options?

By pressing F8 during the first phase of the boot process
Pressing F8 during the first phase of the boot process brings up the Advanced
Startup Options menu in Windows 2000, XP, and Vista.
Und.
510.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
In Windows 2000, which utility do you use to create an ERD?

Backup
The Backup utility lets you create an ERD in Windows 2000.
511.
In Windows XP, which utility is responsible for finding, downloading, and

installing Windows service packs?
Windows Update
Windows Update is responsible for finding updates, patches, and service
packs, downloading them, and installing them on your computer
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
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512.
Ans.
Und.
Exp.
513.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
514.
Ans.
What is the feature in Windows XP called, which is a copy of your system

configuration that can be used to roll back the system to a previous state if a
configuration error occurs.
Restore point
Windows XP automatically creates restore points, which are copies of your

system configuration. You can also create them manually through the System
Restore utility.
Which of the items are used to populate the Sidebar in Windows Vista?
Gadgets
The Sidebar is populated with gadgets.
You have an application open in Windows 2000 that is not responding. Which
of the utilities can you use to forcibly close the nonresponsive application?
Task Manager will show you a list of running processes and applications and
allow you to close applications that are not responsive (or even ones that are
running normally).Installing and upgrading windows 7
Und.
515.
Ans.
Exp.
Which utility can you use to prepare a USB storage device so that you can
boot from it to install Windows 7 on a laptop computer that does not have a
DVD-ROM drive
Diskpart
You can use the Diskpart utility to prepare a USB storage device so you can
boot from it to install Windows 7.
Und.
516.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to deploy a new computer for software compatibility testing. This
computer needs to be able to boot into the Windows 7, Windows XP, and
Windows Vista operating systems. In which order should you install the
operating systems to meet this objective without having to edit boot entries
using Bcdedit?
Windows XP, Windows Vista, and then Windows 7.
You need to install Windows XP first, Windows Vista, and then Windows 7
because that is the order that Microsoft released them. This allows you to boot
among the three operating systems.
Und.
517.
Which versions and editions of Windows 7 can you install to take advantage of
the hardware resources on a computer that has 16 GB of RAM?
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Ans.
Exp.
Und.
Windows 7 Professional x64 Windows 7 Home Premium x64

X64 versions of Windows 7 can utilize more than 4 GB of RAM.
518.
You want to use WDS to perform a network installation of Windows 7. Which

hardware devices must the computer have, assuming that you are not booting
the computer from a WDS discover image?
A PXE-compliant network adapter.
To deploy over the network using WDS requires the computer either a PXE
compliant network adapter or be booted from a WDS discover image.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
519.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the minimum number of volumes that a computer running Windows

XP should have if you want to support dual-booting with Windows 7?
2
Two volumes are the minimum number required to support dual-booting
between Windows XP and Windows 7. The Windows 7 installation routine
creates an extra 200-MB system volume on one of these volumes when you
install Windows 7, but two volumes is the minimum number required on a
Windows XP computer prior to attempting to install Windows 7 for dual-boot
configuration
Und.
520.
Ans.
In which scenario must you perform a migration rather than an up gradation?

windows Vista Business (x86) to Windows 7 Professional (x64)
Windows Vista Home Premium (x64) to Windows 7 Home Premium (x86)
Windows XP Professional (x64) to Windows 7 Professional (x64)
Und.
521.
Ans.
Exp.
A user has a home computer with a cable Internet connection and no other
computers on his home network. Which methods can this person use to
upgrade from Windows 7 Home Premium to Windows 7 Ultimate?
Windows Anytime Upgrade
A user can utilize Windows Anytime Upgrade with a home Internet connection
to upgrade from Windows 7 Home Premium to Windows 7 Ultimate.
Und.
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522.
Ans.
Exp.
Which utilities can you use to transfer user encryption certificates from a
computer running Windows XP Professional to Windows 7 Professional?
Windows Easy Transfer , USMT
USMT can be used to transfer user encryption certificates from a computer
running Windows XP Professional to a computer running Windows 7
Professional. Windows Easy Transfer can be used to transfer user encryption
certificates from a computer running Windows XP Professional to a computer
running Windows 7 Professional.
Und.
523.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
Which must you download from Microsoft's Web site to obtain USMT 4.0?
WAIK
The WAIK contains USMT 4.0.
524.
You have a laptop computer that does not have a DVD-ROM drive. There are
no computers running Windows Server 2008 in your network environment. You
do not have access to Windows PE.
USB storage device. You can install Windows 7 using a USB storage device.
Windows PE is required to perform an installation from a network share.
You want to perform a fresh installation of Windows 7 on 10 laptop computers
that do not have DVD-ROM drives. You want to use a shared folder on your
network as an installation source. You plan to boot the laptop computers from
a USB storage device.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
525.
Ans.
Exp.
Which editions of Windows 7, when installed normally to a hard disk, can you
dual-boot with an installation of Windows 7 on a virtual hard disk (VHD) file?
Windows 7 Enterprise, Windows 7 Ultimate to dual-boot between a traditional
Windows 7 install and a VHD install, you need Windows 7 Enterprise and
Windows 7 Ultimate as the traditional installation.
You have a large number of desktop computers in your organization that have
Windows XP Professional installed. Each computer has multiple disk drives.
You want to perform a gradual migration to Windows 7 Professional, but you
still want to allow users to access older applications in Windows XP.
Und.
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526.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the steps should you take to enable these computers to support
dual-boot with the Windows 7 operating system?
Use Diskpart to shrink the existing volume. Install Windows 7 on the new
volume., Create a new volume using Diskpart.
You can use the Diskpart utility included with Windows Vista to shrink the
existing volume, allowing you to create a new volume on which you can install
Windows 7. You need at least two volumes to dual-boot between Windows 7
and Windows Vista.
Und.
527.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the hardware components needs to be improved before it will be

possible to install Windows 7 successfully on the computer?
The hard disk drive ,The RAM
Windows 7 requires 1 GB of RAM and 16 GB of hard disk drive space before
Windows 7 can be installed. You will need to purchase a laptop that has more
RAM and hard disk space, or perform an upgrade if this is possible, before
Windows 7 can be installed.
Und.
528.
Ans.
Exp.
Windows 7 can be run on a computer with a display resolution of 800 x 600,

so you don't need to change this. Windows 7 requires that a processor be
faster than 1 GHz, so your current specifications are adequate. On which
computers can you perform a direct upgrade to Windows 7 Professional?
A computer running Windows Vista Business.
A computer running Windows Vista Business can be upgraded directly to
Windows 7 Professional. Computer running Windows Vista Ultimate can only
be upgraded to Windows 7 Ultimate. Upgrades can occur only to equivalent or
higher SKUs.
Und.
529.
Ans.
Exp.
You have a group of computers running Windows Vista RTM. All computers are
members of a Windows Server 2008 domain. You want to upgrade these
computers to Windows 7. Which steps should you take on each of these
computers prior to attempting the upgrade?
Install Windows Vista SP1.
Only Windows Vista computers that are running Service Pack 1 or later can be
upgraded to Windows 7.
Und.
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530.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to upgrade a computer running the x64 version of Windows Vista
Enterprise SP1 to Windows 7. To which of the following Windows 7 versions
and editions can you upgrade?
Windows 7 Ultimate x64, Windows 7 Enterprise x64
You can only upgrade a computer running Windows Vista Enterprise x64 to an
equivalent or better x64 edition of Windows 7.
Und.
531.
Ans.
Exp.
To which of the editions of Windows 7 can you upgrade a computer running

Windows Vista Business?
Windows 7 Professional , Windows 7 Enterprise , Windows 7 Ultimate
Windows Vista upgrades occur to the equivalent edition or higher of Windows
7. The equivalent Windows 7 SKU of Windows Vista Business is Windows 7
Professional. Windows Vista Business can also be upgraded to Windows 7
Enterprise (if your organization has a volume licensing agreement with
Microsoft) and Windows 7 Ultimate.
Und.
532.
Ans.
Exp.
You work for a charity organization in southeast Asia. Your organization

recently purchased several computers running Windows 7 Home Basic. Your
organization does not have a volume licensing agreement with Microsoft.
Which editions of Windows 7 can you upgrade a computer running Windows 7
Home Basic to using Windows Anytime Upgrade?
Windows 7 Professional Windows 7 Ultimate Windows 7 Home Premium
Windows 7 Home Basic can be upgraded to Windows 7 Home Premium,
Windows 7 Professional or Windows 7 Ultimate.
Und.
533.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following installation sources can you use to perform an upgrade
of a computer running Windows Vista to the Windows 7 operating system?
Network share A DVD-ROM A USB storage device
Direct upgrades from Windows Vista to Windows 7 need to be initiated from
within Windows 7. You can start a direct upgrade from a USB storage device,
network share, or DVD-ROM. A user at your organization has purchased a
laptop that has Windows 7 Home Premium installed on it. The user wants to
protect their data using BitLocker and Bit Locker To Go.
Und.
534.
Ans.
Exp.
535.
Which edition of Windows 7 should you upgrade to allow the user to meet this
objective?
Windows 7 Ultimate
Windows 7 Ultimate and Windows 7 Enterprise are the only SKUs of Windows 7
that support Bit Locker and Bit Locker To Go.
Your organization has 50 computers running Windows Vista Enterprise x86
deployed. You recently upgraded the RAM in all these computers from 2 GB to
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Ans.
Exp.
8 GB. You want to ensure that all 8 GB are usable when you deploy Windows 7
on the same hardware. Which of the following plans should you implement?
Migrate the computers to Windows 7 Enterprise x64.
Only an x64 edition of Windows 7 can address 8 GB of RAM. It is not possible
to upgrade from an x86 version of Windows Vista to an x64 version of
Windows 7. It is necessary to migrate to Windows 7 Enterprise x64 to satisfy
the question requirements.
Your organization has 50 computers running Windows XP Professional (x64)
that you want to replace with 50 computers running Windows 7 Enterprise
(x64).
Und.
536.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following tools can you use to automate the process of migrating
user profile data from the original computers to the replacement computers?
The User State Migration Tool (USMT) 4
USMT 4 and later can be used to automate the transfer user profile data from
computers running Windows XP Professional (x64) to Windows 7 Enterprise
(x64).
Und.
537.
Ans.
Exp.
Which are required if WDS is to be installed and to deploy images?

AD DS DNS DHCP
The WDS server role needs to be installed on a server in an AD DS domain.
WDS typically deploys to PXE-compliant target client computers that rely on
DHCP for their IP configuration.
The WDS server role needs to be installed on a server in a network that
contains at least one DNS server.
Und.
538.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
539.
You want to create a bootable USB storage device containing a Windows PE

image so that you can capture a reference Windows 7 deployment using
ImageX. Which of the following tools do you need to deploy to create this tool?
Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK)
You can create a Windows PE image through the Windows AIK.
Which of the following must you do to automate the Windows Deployment

Services (WDS) Image Capture Wizard so that a reference system is
automatically captured and uploaded to the WDS server without administrator
intervention?
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Ans.
Exp.
Add the new WDS capture image to the WDS server.

Create a WDSCapture.inf file.
Create a WDS capture image and save WESCapture.inf within the image
To automate the WDS image capture process, you need to create a
WDSCapture.inf file and place it in the same folder in the WDS capture image
as the WDSCapture.exe utility, and then configure the WDS server to use this
new capture image. Add the new WDS capture image to the WDS server.
Und.
540.
Ans.
Exp.
Which methods can you use to deploy a customized Windows 7 image to 100
computers on your network while meeting three objectives: minimizing the
time to perform the installation, minimizing network traffic, and minimizing
the amount of physical resources required?
Install Windows 7 from a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server.
Windows 7 can be deployed to 100 computers using WDS. WDS allows you to
employ multicast transmissions, meaning that the operating system image
needs to be transferred across the network only once.
Installing with a DVD-ROM method would either require you to use multiple
DVD-ROMs to match the speed of a WDS multicast transmission, violating the
requirement to minimize physical resources, or it would take significantly
longer than a WDS deployment if you used only a couple of DVD-ROMs.
Und.
541.
Ans.
Exp.
You are attempting to install Windows 7 from a customized image hosted on a

Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server. The computer that you are
attempting the install on has a Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)compliant network card. When you turn on the computer, you receive a
message that no operating system is present. Which of the following courses
of action should you pursue to resolve this problem?
Configure the computer's BIOS to boot from the network adapter.
WDS is a network-based installation method that allows computers that boot
from their network card to receive a custom operating system from a WDS
server. If a computer is not configured to boot from its network adapter, the
WDS server cannot be contacted.
Und.
542.
Ans.
You want to use Windows Deployment Services (WDS) to deploy a highly

customized Windows 7 image to a group of laptop computers that do not have
DVD-ROM drives or Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)-compliant network
adapters. Which of the following tools can you use to allow these computers
to receive an operating system image from the WDS server?
Configure a USB storage device with a bootable WDS discover image.
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WDS discover images allow computers without PXE-compliant network

adapters to install customized installation images hosted on a WDS server.
Und.
543.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following tools can you use to deploy customized Windows 7
images automatically to client computers in your organization that have
Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)-compliant network adapters? (Each
correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A Windows Deployment Services (WDS). System Center Configuration
Manager 2007
You can use System Center Configuration Manager 2007 and WDS to deploy
customized Windows 7 images automatically to client computers in your
organization that have PXE-compliant network adapters.
Und.
544.
Ans.
Exp.
A computer running Windows 7 is experiencing intermittent STOP errors after

several device drivers were updated. Which of the following tools can you use
to determine which device driver is causing the problem?.
Reliability Monitor, Driver Verifier Manager,
Driver Verifier Manager can be used to monitor and diagnose problems that
might occur with device drivers. Although it is not as detailed a diagnostic tool
for device drivers as Driver Verifier Manager, Reliability Monitor also may
assist you in determining which device driver is causing the problem.
Und.
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Und.
545.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
546.
Ans.
Exp.
Which command-line command displays the IP configuration of a computer's

interfaces?
Ipconfig
The Ipconfig command displays the IP configuration of a computer's interfa
Which of the following methods can you use to display the properties of a LAN
connection
In the Network And Sharing Center, click Change Adapter Settings. Doubleclick the LAN connection. In the Local Area Connection Status dialog box, click
Properties.
In the Network And Sharing Center, click Change Adapter Settings. Right-click
the LAN connection and choose Properties.
In the Network And Sharing Center, click Change Adapter Settings. Right-click
the LAN connection and choose Status. In the Local Area Connection Status
dialog box, click Properties.
This procedure accesses the Local Area Connections Properties dialog box.
This is an alternative method of accessing the Local Area Connections
Properties dialog box. Double-clicking the LAN connection opens the Local
Area Connection Status dialog box. Clicking Properties accesses the Local Area
Connections Properties dialog box.
Und.
547.
You are examining a DNS forward lookup zone to investigate problems with
name resolution. What type of resource record enables DNS to resolve a host
name to an IPv6 address?
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Ans.
Exp.
Und.
AAAA
An AAAA (quad-A) resource record resolves a host name to an IPv6 address
548.
You want to ensure that only certain designated wireless laptops can connect
to your network. What do you need to enable?
MAC address control
The MAC address is unique to an interface and does not change. MAC ensures
that only computers whose wireless interfaces have one of the listed MAC
addresses can access a wireless network. Be aware that if a new computer
needs to access the network, or if you replace the wireless adapter in a
computer, you need to register the new MAC address in the WAP.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
549.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following reasons might explain why a helper is unable to

connect to a Remote Assistance session when two stand-alone clients running
Windows 7 are located on the same LAN?
The Remote Assistance panel has been closed on client Aberdeen.
If the Remote Assistance panel is closed, it stops any possible Remote
Assistance connection.
Und.
550.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following commands, when used to set the Internet Protocol (IP)
address of a computer running Windows 7, will NOT lead to network
connectivity problems?
Netsh interface ipv4 set address name="Local Area Connection" static
172.16.47.24 255.255.192.0 172.16.0.1
Only the setting consisting of IP address 172.16.47.24, subnet mask
255.255.192.0, and default gateway of 172.16.0.1 has the host address and
the default gateway on the same network.
Und.
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551.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following IP addresses, when returned by an IPCONFIG query

issued in a Command Prompt window, would indicate that a computer running
Windows 7 has not received an address from a local DHCP server?
169.254.15.123
P addresses in the range between 169.254.0.0 through 169.254.255.255 are
in the Automatic Private Internet Protocol Addressing (APIPA) range. The APIPA
range is assigned by Windows 7 when no DHCP server is present and no
manual address has been assigned. There is no Dynamic Host Configuration
Protocol (DHCP) server on your local area network.
Und.
552.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following command-line utilities can you use to display a copy of
the IPv4 and IPv6 routing tables on a computer running Windows 7?
Netstat
The command netstat -r can be used to display the IPv4 and IPv6 routing
tables of a computer running Windows 7. Your computer running Windows 7
has two network interfaces.
Und.
553.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the commands can you use to determine which IPv4 address is
assigned to each specific interface?
Ipconfig
You can use the Ipconfig utility to display Internet Protocol (IP) address
information, such as which IP address is associated with a specific interface.
You execute the Ipconfig command on a computer that runs Windows 7
Enterprise. You get the results shown in the exhibit.
Und.
554.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the commands would you execute to verify that the computer has
connectivity with the local area network?
ping 192.168.15.1
You can verify network connectivity by using the Ping command to probe the
default gateway address. If you get a response, your computer is connected to
the network. If you do not get a response, your computer has connectivity
problems.
Und.
555.
All of the client computers in your organization run Windows 7. You allow
employees to connect to their computers running Windows 7 remotely
through a Terminal Services Gateway Server on the perimeter network. As a
security measure, you want to limit these incoming remote desktop
connections to computers running Windows Vista and Windows 7. Which of
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the following settings should you configure on the Remote tab of each
computer running Windows 7 to meet this goal?
Remote Desktop: Allow Connections Only From Computers Running Remote
Desktop With Network Level Authentication.
You should enable the Remote Desktop: Allow Connections Only From
Computers Running Remote Desktop With Network Level Authentication
setting. This will limit remote desktop connections to computers running
Windows Vista and Windows 7.
Und.
556.
Ans.
Und.
557.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to allow users to connect to their computers using Remote Desktop
without making them members of the local Administrators group. So which of
the following local groups should you add the user accounts to which you want
to grant this access?
Remote Desktop Users
You work for Fabrikam's Denmark subsidiary. The Denmark head office is
located in Copenhagen. There are branch offices in the towns of Billund and
Odense, which are connected to the Copenhagen office by a high-speed wide
area network (WAN). All users in your organization have computers running
Windows 7. Due to budget cuts, support staff is available only at the branch
office locations, two days per week. Help desk calls are routed to the
Copenhagen office at all other times. You need to be able to provide guidance
regularly to users in the branch offices to help them with complex tasks using
a complex in-house application. Which of the following operating system
components could you use to provide this help when talking users through
these tasks over the phone?
Remote Assistance
Remote Assistance allows you to see a user's screen when talking him through
complex tasks on his computer over the telephone, so it is the best option.
Und.
558.
Ans.
Router connects through an internal cellular modem to the Internet. You want
to allow your friend, who is visiting with her laptop, to connect to the Internet.
Both laptop computers are running Windows 7 and have wireless network
adapters. Which of the following items should you select on the Set Up A
Connection Or Network wizard on your laptop computer so that you can share
your Internet connection with your friend?
Set Up A Wireless Ad Hoc Network
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You should choose the Set Up A Wireless Ad Hoc Network item. This allows you
to set up an ad hoc wireless network through which you can share your
Internet connection.
Und.
559.
Ans.
Exp.
You have a laptop computer that has Windows 7 installed. The wireless
networks in one of the buildings you work in are configured not to broadcast
their SSIDs. Which of the following options in the Set Up A Connection Or
Network wizard can you use to connect your laptop computer's wireless
adapter to the hidden wireless network?
Manually Connect To A Wireless Network
Because a network that does not broadcast its SSID will not be automatically
detected by a computer running Windows 7, you will need to use the Manually
Connect To A Wireless Network option of the Set Up A Connection Or Network
wizard to enter the hidden network's SSID to make a connection.
Und.
560.
Ans.
Exp.
The network adapter configuration of a computer running Windows 7 is

displayed in the exhibit. The computer is unable to communicate with the
network. Which of the following steps could you take to restore connectivity?
Select Local Area Connection and then click Enable This Network Device
The exhibit shows that both network adapters are disabled. To resolve this
problem, enable one or both of the adapters.
Und.
561.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following Advanced Sharing Settings option should you configure
to ensure that shared resources on a client running Windows 7 are visible to
all other computers in the Home Group?
Network Discovery
Network Discovery allows the client to find other computers on the network. It
also allows other computers on the network to view resources shared by the
client.
Und.
562.
Ans.
You have used Runas with the /savecred option to save the credentials of an
administrator account on a client running Windows 7. You have finished
performing the tasks that you needed to and now want to remove those
credentials from the computer. Which of the following tools could you use to
do this?
Credential Manager
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You can use the Credential Manager to remove credentials saved using the
Runas command.
Und.
563.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to ensure that users are forcibly logged off from their computers
running Windows 7 if they remove their smart cards. Which of the following
policies and settings should you configure to accomplish this goal?
Interactive Logon: Require Smart Card: Enabled , Interactive Logon: Smart
Card Removal Behavior Properties: Force Logoff
You should configure the Interactive Logon: Smart Card Removal Behavior
Properties: Force Logoff policy setting because you want users logged off
when they remove their smart cards. You should configure the Interactive
Logon: Require Smart Card: Enabled policy because this requires users to log
on using a smart card.
Und.
564.
Ans.
Exp.
A user has forgotten the password to the stand-alone desktop computer

running Windows 7 that she uses at your organization. The user does not have
a reset disk. You have an account on this computer that is a member of the
local Administrators group. Which of the following steps can you take to
resolve this user's authentication problem?
Reset her password.
You need to reset her password. The user loses access to encrypted files if she
has not backed up her EFS key. The user also loses access to any saved
credentials stored in Windows Vault
Und.
565.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to ensure that users of stand-alone clients running Windows 7 in

your organization change their passwords every three weeks. Which of the
following policies should you configure on each computer to accomplish this
goal?
Maximum Password Age
The Maximum Password Age policy ensures that a user must change his
password after a certain amount of time has expired. In this case, you would
set the policy to 21 days.
Und.
566.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following tools can you use to configure a group of clients
running Windows 7 to use BranchCache in peer caching mode
Netsh , Local Group Policy Editor
You can use Netsh in the BranchCache context and the Local Group Policy
Editor to configure BranchCache on a client running Windows 7.
Und.
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567.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to configure clients running Windows 7 Enterprise in a branch office

to use BranchCache only if the round-trip network latency when attempting to
access files hosted over the WAN exceeds 120 ms. Which of the following
policies should you configure to accomplish your goal?
Configure BranchCache For Network Files
The Configure BranchCache For Network Files policy allows you to set the
latency value above which network files are cached by client computers in the
branch office.
Und.
568.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following tools can you use to configure administrator accounts
to always be prompted for credentials at a User Account Control (UAC) prompt
on a stand-alone computer running Windows 7 Enterprise?
Gpedit.msc , Secpol.msc
You can use Secpol.msc and Gpedit.msc to modify the UAC-related Group
Policies on a computer running Windows 7 Enterprise.
Und.
569.
Ans.
Exp.
A friend has brought you a computer running Windows 7 Ultimate. The friend
has local access but is unable to install software. Which of the following User
Account Control (UAC) policies should you change to resolve this problem?
User Account Control: Detect Application Installations And Prompt For
Elevation
You should configure the User Account Control: Detect Application Installations
And Prompt For Elevation policy. This policy, if disabled, will block the
installation of applications because access to elevation will be impossible.
Und.
570.
Ans.
Exp.
You are at home, connected to your home network. When you open the
Homegroup item in Control Panel, you see the message displayed in the
exhibit. Which of the following steps can you take to resolve this issue?
Use the Network And Sharing Center to change your current active network to
the Home network location.
You should set your current active network to the Home network location. You
can connect to a homegroup only when your computer is connected to a
network that has the Home network location.
Und.
571.
You want to allow users in your homegroup to be able to access a color laser
printer that is connected directly to a computer on which you have installed
Windows 7. You travel with your computer and you do not want to make
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Ans.
resources available when you are connected to a WiFi network at an airport

lounge. Which of the following Advanced Sharing settings in the Network And
Sharing Center should you configure to accomplish your goal?
Turn on File And Printer Sharing in the Home Or Work profile.
Turn on Network Discovery in the Home Or Work profile. To share a printer,
you should turn on Network Discovery in the Home Or Work profile and turn on
File And Printer Sharing in the Home Or Work profile
Und.
572.
Ans.
Exp.
Kim Acker's user account is a member of the Engineers, Accounting, and

Research local groups on the computer named Canberra. The Engineers group
has been granted the Full Control (Allow) permission on the file
C:\Compressed\Test.txt. The Accounting group has been granted the Read
(Allow) permission on the file C:\Compressed\Test.txt. The permissions for the
Research group are shown in the exhibit. Given this information, which of the
following permissions does Kim have for the file C:\Compressed\Test.txt
Read (Deny)
Deny permissions override Allow permissions. A Read (Deny) permission, as
shown in the exhibit, will deny Kim access to the file because it will override
the permissions assigned to the other groups of which Kim's account is a
member
Und.
573.
Ans.
Exp.
You consult for a small business that uses eight computers running Windows 7
Professional in a workgroup. One user logs on to a large number of Web-based
invoicing systems. That user is being given a new computer but is reluctant to
switch computers because she is concerned that she may have forgotten
several of the user names and passwords to these Web sites, which are stored
on her current computer. What tool can you use to transfer these Web site
user names and passwords from the existing computer to the new computer?
Credential Manager
The Windows 7 Credential Manager stores user name and password data for
Web sites and other resources. You can back up the Credential Manager vault
and restore it on another computer as a way of transferring Web site user
name and password data
Und.
574.
You connect to several stand-alone computers running Windows Server 2008

from your computer running Windows 7 Enterprise. You have saved the unique
user names and passwords that you use to connect automatically to these
computers. This morning, the administrators of these computers reset your
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Exp.
passwords to new ones as part of a new security procedure. What steps can
you take to update the stored passwords on your computer running Windows
7?
Edit the password settings in Credential Manager.
You can edit user name and password settings for remote computers using
Credential Manager.
Und.
575.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following BitLocker policies should you configure to ensure that
BitLocker To Go Reader is available on all FAT-formatted removable devices
protected with BitLocker?
Allow Access To BitLocker-Protected Removable Data Drives From Earlier
Versions Of Windows
The Allow Access To BitLocker-Protected Removable Data Drives From Earlier
Versions Of Windows policy allows you to ensure that BitLocker To Go Reader
is available on all FAT-formatted removable devices protected with BitLocker.
Und.
576. Kim Akers has set the file Brisbane.doc (which is hosted on an office file
server) to be available offline using her portable computer running Windows 7.
Kim goes home for the weekend and works on Brisbane.doc. Same Abolrous
comes into the office on the weekend and works on the copy of Brisbane.doc
stored on the office file server. Which of the following tools can Kim use to
resolve the conflict that occurs when she connects her computer to the office
network?
Ans. The Sync Center control panel
Exp. The Sync Center control panel can be used to resolve offline file sync conflicts.
Und.
577.
Ans.
Exp.
Your organization's Routing and Remote Access server has Windows Server
2003 R2 installed. Which of the following protocols can you use to connect to
the VPN server?
L2TP/IPsec ,PPTP
PPTP is supported by Routing and Remote Access servers running Windows
Server 2003 R2.. L2TP/IPsec is supported by Routing and Remote Access
servers running Windows Server 2003 R2.
Und.
578.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following policies should you configure to allow a computer

without a TPM chip that is running Windows 7 Enterprise to utilize BitLocker to
protect its hard disk drive?
Require Additional Authentication At Startup
By configuring the Require Additional Authentication At Startup policy, it is
possible to disable the BitLocker requirement that a computer have a
compatible TPM chip.
Und.
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579.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following computers can you configure as a DirectAccess server?

A server running Windows Server 2008 R2 with two network adapters that has
been assigned two consecutive public IPv4 addresses
The DirectAccess server needs to have two network adapters and needs to be
assigned two consecutive public IPv4 addresses.
Und.
580.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following VPN types support the VPN reconnect feature of
Windows 7?
IKEv2
The IKEv2 VPN type is the only VPN type that supports the VPN reconnect
feature in Windows 7.
Und.
581.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to enable BitLocker on several laptop computers that have Windows
7 installed but that do not have Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chips. Which of
the following must you do before you can use a universal serial bus (USB)
storage device as a startup key
Configure the Require Additional Authentication At Startup Group Policy.
To enable BitLocker on computers running Windows 7 that do not have TPM
chips, you need to configure the Require Additional Authentication At Startup
Group Policy. This policy allows you to use a USB storage key instead of a TPM
chip.
Und.
582.
Ans.
Exp.
Last week, a manager at the company you work for left his laptop computer,
which has Windows 7 Enterprise installed, on a train. The manager was able to
recover the laptop, but the event got the CIO thinking about the security of
data on portable computers. Which of the following technologies could you
deploy to the laptop computers running Windows 7 Enterprise in your
organization to ensure that unauthorized third parties would be unable to
recover any data or boot the computer into Windows if they found the
computer?
BitLocker
BitLocker allows you to encrypt the entire hard drive and to require that a
personal identification number (PIN) be entered before the computer boots
into Windows.
Und.
583.
You recently started work at Contoso, Ltd, as the manager of client computing.
You have learned that your predecessor used employee birthdates as the
Trusted Platform Module (TPM) startup personal identification number (PIN) for
computers on which BitLocker was deployed. Because this policy has become
common knowledge, the security measure has become less effective. You
want to change this so that future computers require a TPM PIN of 12 digits or
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Ans.
Exp.
greater. Which of the following strategies could you pursue to accomplish this
goal?
Configure the Minimum PIN Length For Startup Policy Group Policy.
You should configure the Minimum PIN Length For Startup Policy Group Policy.
This will allow you to specify a minimum TPM PIN length for all new
deployments of BitLocker but will not change the PIN length for existing
BitLocker deployments.
Und.
Exp.
you can configure a computer to require both a TPM PIN and a specially
configured USB flash drive using the Manage-bde command-line tool.
Und.
Und.
584.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following messages on a computer running Windows 7

Enterprise's network status icon indicates that the computer has connected to
your organization's DirectAccess server successfully?
Internet and Corporate Access
The Internet and Corporate Access status message indicates that a computer
running Windows 7 has connected successfully to DirectAccess.
Und.
585.
Ans.
You are configuring a virtual private network (VPN) connection as shown in the
exhibit. This VPN should support the VPN Reconnect feature of Windows 7.
Which of the following types of VPN should you select to support this feature
IKEv2
Exp.
Und.
IKEv2 VPNs support the VPN Reconnect function of Windows 7.
586.
When Windows 7 is configured according to its default settings, which of the

following tasks can a standard user perform with respect to Windows Update?
Install updates.
The default Windows 7 Windows Update settings allow standard users to
install updates.
.
Even though you have configured scheduled updates to occur during the
lunch hour, you have found that a significant percentage of the computers are
not turned on at this time. You want to ensure that any updates scheduled for
Ans.
Exp.
587.
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Ans.
Exp.
installation install soon after these computers start up again. Which of the
following policies should you configure to accomplish this goa
Reschedule Automatic Updates Scheduled Installations
You should configure the Reschedule Automatic Updates Scheduled
Installations policy because it allows you to configure a computer that is
switched off during the scheduled update period to install updates after it is
turned on.
Und.
588.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following policies should you configure if you want a client
running Windows 7 to use a WSUS server located at updates.contoso.internal
as a source of updates rather than the Microsoft Update servers?
Specify Intranet Microsoft Update Service Location
You should configure the Specify Intranet Microsoft Update Service Location
policy because it allows you to specify a local WSUS server for updates.
Und.
589.
Ans.
Exp.
You require fault tolerance for your operating system so that your computer
running Windows 7 Home Premium can still boot up if a disk fails. You have
two disks and unallocated space on your second disk. What do you do?
Create a RAID-1 volume
You can use a RAID-1 volume to mirror the disk that holds your operating
system and provide fault tolerance.
Und.
590.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to prohibit read, write, and execute access to all types of external
storage devices. What computer policy setting do you enable?
All Removable Storage Classes: Deny All Access
Enabling this policy denies all access to all types of external storage devices.
It overrides any access rights granted by other policies.
Und.
591.
Ans.
Exp.
You are moving a dynamic volume from the Canberra computer running
Windows 7 to the Aberdeen computer running Windows 7. The disk had been
allocated drive letter H: on Canberra. Drives C:, D:, and E: already exist on
Aberdeen. You have not configured Aberdeen to prevent new volumes from
being added to the system. What drive letter is allocated to the disk on
Aberdeen?
H:
When moved to a new computer, dynamic volumes retain the drive letter they
had on the previous computer, in this case H:.
Und.
592.
A client running Windows 7 is experiencing intermittent performance

problems. You suspect the problems might be caused by an application that
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Ans.
Exp.
you recently installed but you have forgotten exactly when you did this. Which
tool or feature would you use to determine when the application was
installed?
Reliability Monitor
Reliability Monitor tracks application installations. It enables you to determine
whether what applications have been installed and exactly when the
installations occurred.
Und.
593.
Ans.
Which types of information are stored in Reliability Monitor?

Application failures are recorded in Reliability Monitor.
Windows errors are recorded in Reliability Monitor.
Application installs and uninstalls are recorded in Reliability Monitor.
Device driver failures are recorded in Reliability Monitor.
Und.
594.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to use Performance Monitor to display performance data captured in

a DCS. You open the tool and access the Performance Monitor Properties
dialog box. On which tab can you choose whether to display current activity in
real time or log files that you have saved using a DCS?
Source
On the Source tab, you can choose whether to display current activity in real
time or log files saved using a DCS. If you display a log file, you can use this
tab to control the time range that is displayed in the Performance Monitor
window.
Und.
595.
Ans.
Exp.
What WIM tool do you use to view Windows Management-generated events

and event information, such as the event's date and time, class, point of
origin, and description?
WMI Event Viewer
WMI Event Viewer displays events for all instances of registered consumers. It
enables to view Windows Management-generated events and event
information, such as the event's date and time, class, point of origin, and
description.
Und.
596.
Ans.
Exp.
Which tool provided by Windows 7 helps you determine which applications are
responsible for activity on your hard disk, including which files and folders are
being accessed?
Resource Monitor
The Resource Monitor tool, provided as part of Windows 7, helps you
determine which applications are responsible for activity on your hard disk,
including which files and folders are being accessed.
Und.
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597.
Ans.
Exp.
Your computer is configured to dual-boot between Windows Vista Professional

and Windows 7 Enterprise. Currently, it boots into Windows Vista by default.
You want to specify Windows 7 as the startup default operating system and
configure how Windows 7 reacts in the event of a system failure. You boot the
computer into Windows 7. What tool do you use to accomplish your goal?
System Configuration
System Configuration (Msconfig) enables you to specify the startup operating
system in a dual-boot configuration and configure how Windows 7 reacts to a
system failure.
Und.
598.
Ans.
Exp.
There is a Windows Software Update Services (WSUS) server on your

organization's network. Which of the following Group Policies must you
configure to ensure that your computer running Windows 7 obtains its updates
from the WSUS server rather than from Microsoft Update?
Specify Intranet Microsoft Update Service Location
you configure the Specify Intranet Microsoft Update Service Location policy to
specify the location of a local WSUS server
Und.
599.
Ans.
Exp.
Only members of the Helpdesk Users and Administrators Active Directory

Domain Services (AD DS) groups have local administrator privileges on
computers running Windows 7 in your environment. Some members of the
sales team spend weeks away from the office. You want to ensure that
members of the sales team are able to install updates without giving them
any unnecessary privileges.
Allow Non-Administrators To Receive Update Notifications
When configured, the Allow Non-Administrators To Receive Update
Notifications policy allows non-administrative users to receive update
notifications and install updates.
Und.
600.
Ans.
Exp.
Several months ago, Microsoft released a software update that conflicted with
custom software installed on several of your organization's computers running
Windows 7. At the time, you declined the update. The vendors who developed
the custom software now have published a fix. You have sent this fix to all the
computers with the custom software installed, and now you want to install the
declined update. Which of the following items should you select in the
Windows Update section of Control Panel to accomplish this goal?
Restore Hidden Updates
You can use the Restore Hidden Updates function to view and install updates
that you have previously declined to install.
Und.
601.
Several salespeople in your organization have Tablet PCs with Windows 7

Enterprise installed. Each of these Tablet PCs has a cellular modem card
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Ans.
Exp.
602.
Ans.
Exp.
installed. When salespeople are traveling, they connect to the Internet either
through the cellular modem card or through a hotel Internet connection. You
want them to minimize the amount of data transmitted over the cellular
modem card as a way of minimizing costs, but you also want to keep these
computers as up to date as possible. You enable the Allow Standard Users To
Install Updates On This Computer option. Given this information, which
options should you choose for the Important Updates in Windows Update
setting?
Check For Updates But Let Me Choose Whether To Download And Install Them
You should choose the Check For Updates But Let Me Choose Whether To
Download And Install Them option. This will allow salespeople to download
and install updates when connected to a hotel Internet connection, but it will
not force the download when they are connected to their cellular connection
You have just added two Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) hard disk
drives to a desktop computer running Windows 7 Enterprise. Which of the
following tools can you use to create a spanned NTFS volume using these
drives
Diskpart
Diskpart can be used to create spanned volumes and format them with the
NTFS file system.
Und.
603.
Ans.
Exp.
Several users in your organization who have computers with Windows 7

installed are running out of disk space. Which of the following tools can you
use to remove temporary Internet files, offline Web pages, unused hibernation
data, and thumbnail files automatically from the volume to free up space?
Disk Cleanup
The Disk Cleanup utility can be used to remove downloaded program files,
temporary Internet files, offline Web pages, hibernation files, Recycle Bin files,
setup log files, temporary files and thumbnails
Und.
604.
Ans.
Exp.
You are responsible for managing laptop computers at Contoso, Ltd. You want
to ensure that users are notified if there is a problem with the network firewall,
antivirus software, anti-spyware, or Windows Update on their computers
running Windows 7. Which of the following Control Panel items should you use
to configure notification settings for these critical components?
Action Center
Configuring settings using the Action Center item in Control Panel allows you
to specify which components Windows 7 will check for problems. If problems
are found, Action Center will notify you.
Und.
605.
You have noticed a significant amount of disk activity on a computer running

Windows 7. Which of the following tools can you use to determine which
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Exp.
currently running program on the computer is causing this disk activity and
which files and folders are being accessed?
Ans:A Resource Monitor, Process Explorer
You can use both Process Explorer, which is a tool available from the Microsoft
Windows Sysinternals site, and the Resource Monitor to determine which
applications are responsible for activity on the hard disk, including which files
and folders are being accessed.
Und.
606.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to be able to determine whether any one of seven specific types of
events, spread over the System and Security logs, has occurred on a
computer running Windows 7 when you open Event Viewer. Which of the
following should you configure to accomplish this goal?
Configure a custom view.
You should create a custom view. Custom views are persistent, which means
you can access them whenever you open Event Viewer.
Und.
607.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following items in the Advanced Tools section of the Performance
Information And Tools item of Control Panel allows you to view details of
software and hardware problems affecting Microsoft Windows performance?
View Performance Details In Event Log
The View Performance Details In Event Log item provides a list of all
performance-related problems that have been recorded in the event log. This
can help you diagnose which software and hardware components are causing
Windows 7 performance issues.
Und.
608.
Ans.
Exp.
You are configuring the performance options of a computer running Windows 7

Enterprise. This computer is used as a test application server by a small group
of developers in your organization. You want to minimize the chances that any
of the applications that they are developing can inadvertently cause security
problems on the computer by strictly enforcing data execution prevention. You
also want to configure processor scheduling to best support the computer's
role as a Web server. Which of the following performance options should you
configure?
Turn On DEP For All Programs And Services Except Those I Select
Adjust For Best Performance Of: Background Services
You should configure the Adjust For Best Performance Of: Background Services
option because the computer will be functioning as a Web server rather than
running applications as a workstation would.
Und.
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609.
Exp.
Which of the following tools can you use to start and stop services on a
computer running Windows 7 without rebooting the computer?
Services.msc , Task Manager
You can use the Services console (Services.msc) to start and stop services
without rebooting the computer. You can use Task Manager to start and stop
services without rebooting the computer
Und.
610.
Ans.
In which area should you click the Settings button in the following exhibit to
change the properties of the Windows 7 page file?
You can modify the page file setting by adjusting the virtual memory settings.
This can be done by clicking Settings in the Performance area
Und.
611.
Ans.
Exp.
A user on your company network creates a new file and works on it during the
day. He saves the file but decides he no longer needs it and deletes it just
before the office closes. Overnight, a file and folder backup takes place. The
next morning, the user decides he needs the file after all. He calls you for
help. What action can you take?
Ask the user to open his Recycle Bin.
The overnight backup makes no changes to the Recycle Bin. The file was
deleted the previous evening, so it is in the Recycle Bin.
Und.
612.
Ans.
Exp.
You have recently installed Windows 7 Ultimate on a laptop computer,

installed applications such as Office, and downloaded and installed all
outstanding updates. The computer has two internal hard disks, both
formatted with the NTFS file system. You also have an external USB hard disk
that you have plugged into the laptop. You used the convert fs/ntfs command
to convert the external hard drive to the NTFS file system. You have an 8-GB
USB flash memory device and the laptop contains a DVD-ROM writer. In your
workplace, you can plug in to the corporate network and connect to a network
share on a file server running Windows Server 2008 R2. On what devices can
you create a full System Image backup of the laptop's system volume?
The second internal hard disk
The network share.
The external hard disk
You can use Backup And Restore to write a System Image backup to an
internal hard disk.
You can use Backup And Restore to write a System Image backup to an
external hard disk (if formatted with the NTFS file system).
You can use Backup And Restore to write a System Image backup to a network
share provided the computer is running Windows 7 Professional, Windows 7
Ultimate, or Windows 7 Enterprise.
Und.
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613.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to centralize backups by backing up all client computers in your

company's production network to a network share on a file server Windows
Server 2008 R2. All your client computers run Windows 7, but because your
company has grown through a series of mergers, some run Windows 7
Professional, some run Windows 7 Enterprise, and some run Windows 7
Ultimate. Which computers can you back up to a network share
All your company's client computers.
You can save backups to a network share on computers running Windows 7
Professional, Windows 7 Ultimate, and Windows 7 Enterprise.
Und.
614.
Exp.
You are testing unsigned device drivers on a computer on an isolated test

network. You install a display driver and find that the computer boots to a
blank screen. You restart the computer and press F8. What Advanced Boot
Options could you choose to help remedy the situation?
Known Good Configuration (Advanced)
Enable Low Resolution Video
Last Safe Mode
Safe Mode loads a minimal set of drivers. The computer will boot successfully
and you can roll back the unsigned driver.
Enable Low Resolution Video loads the default, low-resolution display driver.
The problem driver does not load, and you can boot the computer and roll
back this driver.
Und.
615.
Ans.
Exp.
You are investigating instability and boot problems on a computer running

Windows 7 Enterprise. You boot using the Last Known Good Configuration
(Advanced) option and perform a system restore. This does not solve your
problems, and you want to undo the system restore. Can you do this, and
what is the reason for your answer?
Yes. You can undo a system restore that you perform after either booting
normally or booting using Last Known Good Configuration (Advanced).
If you perform a system restore after either booting normally or booting using
Last Known Good Configuration (Advanced), this creates a restore point that
enables you to undo the system restore
Und.
616.
Ans.
Exp.
You are troubleshooting instability problems on a computer running Windows 7

Ultimate and suspect that they might be related to hardware faults in RAM.
You access the System Recovery options. Which option is most likely to help
you diagnose the problem?
Windows Memory Diagnostic
Windows Memory Diagnostic analyses the computer memory (RAM) for
hardware problems
Und.
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617.
Ans.
Exp.
Which utilities can you use to back up a computer running Windows 7

Enterprise from the command line?
Wbadmin.exe
The Wbadmin.exe command-line utility can be used to back up a computer
running Windows 7 Enterprise.
Und.
618.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to create a full system image backup using Backup And Restore.
Which of the following locations can you use as a backup destination for a
system image?
A Internal hard disk drive
External hard disk drive
Network location
You can use the Backup And Restore utility to write a system image backup to
an internal hard disk drive, an external hard disk drive, and a network
location.
Und.
619.
Ans.
Exp.
You are making a system image using Backup And Restore of a computer
running Windows 7 Enterprise. What format will the Backup And Restore utility
write this backup in?
VHD format
The Backup And Restore utility in Windows 7 Enterprise writes system image
backups in Virtual Hard Disk (VHD) format. This allows you to mount a backup
in the Disk Management console or using the Diskpart utility.
Und.
620.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to allow Kim Akers to use the Backup and Restore utility to back up
her computer. Her computer has Windows 7 Enterprise installed. Which of the
following local groups should you add Kim's user account to without granting
her unnecessary privileges?
Backup Operators
You should add Kim's user account to the Backup Operators group. Members
of the Backup Operators group are allowed to back up the computer.
Und.
621.
Exp.
Which types of data can you select to back up using the Backup And Restore
utility in Windows 7 Ultimate if you choose not to include a system image?
Windows Internet Explorer favorites
Custom libraries
Documents library
You can use Backup And Restore to select several types of data files, including
Internet Explorer favorites, all normal libraries (Documents, Music, Pictures,
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Videos), and custom libraries. It is also possible to select for backup the
contents of the desktop, saved games, and searches.
Und.
622.
Ans.
Exp.
Yesterday you installed an application written by one of your organization's

developers. The application has caused your computer to become unstable.
You have attempted to uninstall the application, but you were unsuccessful.
You use Backup And Restore to create a system image on a network share
once every four weeks. You last did this action three weeks ago. Which of the
following methods could you use to remove the application while minimizing
the amount of administrative effort
A Perform a system restore.
System restore points are created on a regular schedule and prior to events
like the installation of applications and drivers. You should perform a system
restore because it will return your computer to the state it was in prior to the
application installation
Und.
623.
Exp.
You work as a tester with a group of developers who create custom software
and hardware for scientific laboratories. You have just installed an application
and driver software for a new product that your company is prototyping. After
you install the software, the computer reboots but experiences a STOP error
before you reach the Windows 7 logon screen. You reboot and press F8. Which
of the following startup options could you select so that you can uninstall the
application and driver software?
Last Known Good Configuration
Safe Mode
The Last Known Good Configuration allows you to boot into Microsoft Windows
using its last known working configuration. Because the failure occurred after
you installed the application and drivers and you have not yet performed a
successful logon, the last known good configuration should help you resolve
this issue.
Safe Mode may also help you resolve the issue described in the question
because it loads a minimal set of drivers.
Und.
624.
restore
Exp.
In which of the following circumstances is it possible to reverse a system

restore operation?
You have booted into Last Known Good Configuration and performed a system
You have booted into Microsoft Windows normally and performed a system
restore.
You can undo a system restore when you have booted into Windows normally
and performed a system restore because a restore point is created prior to the
system restore occurring. This allows you to roll back any changes you make
immediately.
You can undo a system restore when you have booted into a Last Known Good
Configuration session because this is essentially the same as booting into
Windows normally. Prior to performing a system restore from the Last Known
Good Configuration environment, Windows creates a restore point which you
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can roll back to if the system restore does not resolve the problem you are
attempting to fix. Boot off the installation media. Click Repair Your Computer.
Use the System Restore option.
You should boot off the installation media, click Repair Your Computer, and
then select the Use System Restore option. You can use the System Restore
option to revert to the most recent system restore point. This will be more
recent than the system image backup taken several weeks ago
Und.
625.
Exp.
A computer running Windows 7 will not boot into Microsoft Windows and you
cannot access the Launch Startup Repair option. You have a system image
stored on a removable hard disk drive that was taken last week. Which
troubleshooting strategies should you pursue first?
A Boot off the Windows 7 installation media.
Select Repair Your Computer.
Select the option to use recovery tools.
You should attempt to use the recovery tools first. These tools automatically
fix common problems that stop computers running Windows 7 from booting
Und.
626.
Ans.
Exp.
Your computer running Windows 7 encounters a STOP error immediately after

booting. When you restart, you receive the message shown in the exhibit.
Which options should you select to troubleshoot this problem?
Launch Startup Repair
A new feature of Windows 7 is that it automatically offers the Startup Repair
option when it detects that a previous attempt to start Windows was
unsuccessful. Startup Repair runs through a routine that looks for and
attempts to fix the most common problems that will stop Windows 7 from
booting.
Und.
627.
Ans.
Your computer running Windows 7 Enterprise is configured as shown in the

exhibit. On which volumes would it be possible to use the Previous Versions
function?
Volume C, Volume H, Volume E
It is possible to use the Previous Versions function only on volumes that have
system protection enabled. In the exhibit, volume E, volume C, and volume H
have system protection enabled.
Und.
628.
Ans.
An important file that Ian has been working on has become corrupt in the last
few hours. Ian has not performed a backup for several days. Ian's computer is
running Windows 7 Ultimate. System protection is enabled for all volumes on
Ian's computer. How can Ian recover the most recent version of the file that
has become corrupt?
Use Restore Previous Versions.
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Exp.
Restore Previous Versions allows you to restore earlier versions of your files
that were created as a part of the System Restore process. These previous
versions are called shadow copies.
Und.
629.
Ans.
Exp.
A user calls you on the phone. She deleted a file and emptied the Recycle Bin
before she realized that she had deleted the wrong file. The accidentally
deleted file is one that she had been steadily modifying over the last week.
Her computer is configured to back up its files once a week, and the last such
backup was six days ago. System Restore is enabled on the computer. A
system image was created a month ago. Which methods can you use to
recover the lost file?
Use Restore Previous Versions to restore the folder hosting the file that was
deleted.
Although you will not be able to recover the file itself if it is deleted using the
Restore Previous Versions function, you can restore the folder that hosted the
file, which will restore the folder and its contents. If there are other files in the
folder that might have changed since the last system restore point was
created, you could copy those out of the folder and then copy them back once
the restore is complete.
Und.
630.
Ans.
Exp.
A company analyst updates a financial spreadsheet every day. You need to

recover the version of this particular spreadsheet that existed two months
ago. You use the Previous Versions function and find that the oldest version
stored is dated one month ago. Which of the strategies could you use to
recover the necessary file?
Use Backup and Restore to recover the file.
You should use Backup And Restore to recover the file. The Previous Versions
functionality will store a previous version of a file for only a limited amount of
time before automatically deleting it. After this time has expired, the only way
that the file can be recovered is by using Backup And Restore.
Und.
NETWORK ESSENTIALS
631.
You have just set up a network that will use the TCP/IP protocol, and you want
client computers to automatically obtain IP configuration information. Which
type of server do you need for this?
Ans. DHCP
Exp. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server provides IP configuration
information to hosts when they join the network. A Domain Name System
(DNS) server resolves hostnames to IP addresses. A domain controller may
provide login authentication, but it does not provide IP configuration
information. There is no IP configuration server.
Und.
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632.
Ans.
Exp.
You have a computer with the IP address 171.226.18.1. What class is this
address?
Class B
Class A addresses have a first octet between 1 and 126, Class B between 128
and 191, and class C between 192 and 223. With a first octet of 171, this is a
Class B address.
Und.
633.
Ans.
Exp.
Which IEEE 802 standard defines a bus topology using coaxial baseband cable
and is able to transmit at 10Mbps?
802.3
The IEEE 802.3 standard specifies the use of a bus topology, typically using
coaxial base band cable, and can transmit data up to 10Mbps.
Und.
634.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following wireless IEEE standards operate on the 2.4GHz radio
frequency and are directly compatible with each other?
802.11b 802.11g
Both 802.11b and 802.11g operate in the 2.4GHz range and use similar
transmission standards. Many devices on the market are listed as 802.11b/g,
meaning they will work with either system. Alternatively, 802.11a operates in
the 5GHz range. Finally, 802.11d is not a commonly implemented standard.
Und.
635.
Ans.
Exp.
Which OSI layer signals "all clear" by making sure the data segments are error
free?
Transport layer
It is the responsibility of the Transport layer to signal an "all clear" by making
sure the data segments are error free. It also controls the data flow and
troubleshoots any problems with transmitting or receiving data frames.
Und.
636.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
Which TCP/IP protocol uses port 80?

HTTP
HTTP uses port 80. HTTPS uses 443, Telnet 23, and POP3 110.
637.
Which type of media access method used by NICs that listen to or sense the
cable to check for traffic and send only when they hear that no one else is
transmitting
CSMA/CD
CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) specifies
that the NIC pause before transmitting a packet to ensure that the line is not
Ans.
Exp.
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being used. If no activity is detected, then it transmits the packet. If activity is
detected, it waits until it is clear. In the case of two NICs transmitting at the
same time (a collision), both NICs pause to detect and then retransmit the
data.
Und.
638.
Ans.
Exp.
What model is used to provide a common way to describe network protocols?

OSI
The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is used to describe how
network protocols should function. The OSI model was designed by the
International Organization for Standardization (ISO).
Und.
639.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the primary function of the SSID?

A name used to identify a wireless network
A service-set identifier (SSID) is the unique name given to the wireless
network. All hardware that is to participate on the network must be configured
to use the same SSID. Essentially, it is the network name. When you are using
Windows to connect to a wireless network, all available wireless networks will
be listed by their SSID.
Und.
640.
Ans.
Exp.
A physical star topology consists of several workstations that branch off a

central device called ?
Hub
At the center of a star topology is a hub or a switch. A NIC is a network card,
which each computer must have to be on the network. Bridges and routers
are higher-level connectivity devices that connect network segments or
networks together.
Und.
641.
Ans.
Exp.
Of all network cabling options, which offers the longest possible segment
length?
Fiber-optic
Fiber-optic cable can span distances of several kilometers, because it has
much lower crosstalk and interference in comparison to copper cables.
Und.
642.
Ans.
Exp.
What devices transfer packets across multiple networks and use tables to
store network addresses to determine the best destination?
Routers
Routers are designed to route (transfer) packets across networks. They are
able to do this routing, and determine the best path to take, based on internal
routing tables they maintain.
Und.
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643.
Ans.
Exp.
In which network design do users access resources from other workstations

rather than from a central location?
Peer-to-peer
A peer-to-peer network has no servers, so all of the resources are shared from
the various workstations on which they reside. This is the opposite of a clientserver network, in which the majority of resources are located on servers that
are dedicated to responding to client requests
Und.
644.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
645.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following wireless communication standards is often described in

terms of a wireless personal area network?
Bluetooth
Bluetooth networks are often called wireless personal area networks (WPANs).
Which two of the following are standards for cellular communications?

GSM CDMA
The Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) and Code Division
Multiple Access (CDMA) are cellular standards. A SIG is a Special Interest
Group, and cold cathode fluorescent lamp (CCFL) is a backlight on a laptop.
Und.
646.
Ans.
Exp.
What is a type of network where all of the computers appear to be on the local
network even if they are physically located in a remote location?
A VPN
A virtual private network (VPN) is one where all computers appear to be on
the local LAN even if they are not. VPNs are useful for remote access as well
as if you have networks in multiple locations.
Und.
647.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the most secure wireless encryption standard for 802.11x networks
WPA2
WEP was the original encryption standard developed for WiFi networks, but it
is easily hacked. WPA is an upgrade, but WPA2 is more secure and
incorporates the entire 802.11i standard. SAFER+ is used to encrypt Bluetooth
communications.
Und.
648.
Ans.
Exp.
If you are going to run a network cable in the space above the drop ceiling in
your office, which type of cable should you use?
Plenum
For areas where a cable must be fire retardant, such as in a drop ceiling, you
must run plenum-grade cable. Plenum refers to the coating on the sleeve of
the cable, not the media (copper or fiber) within the cable itself. PVC is the
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other type of coating typically found on network cables, but it produces
poisonous gas when burned.
Und.
649.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
650.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
651.
Ans.
Exp.
To increase security, you decide to use your firewall to block the Telnet
protocol. Which port will you need to block to prevent Telnet from being used?
23
The Telnet protocol uses port 23. If this port is blocked, Telnet cannot be used.
When SSL and HTTP are used together, what does the beginning of a site
address become?
https://
When SSL and HTTP are used together, the beginning of the site address
becomes https://.
Which troubleshooting tool can be used at the command line to see the IP
configuration data given by a DHCP server to a Windows XP workstation?
Ipconfig
The ipfconfig utility can be used at the command line with Windows XP to see
the networking configuration values. Ipfconfig is a Unix-based utility; winipcfg
is a Windows-based utility similar to ifconfig, and there is no Windows hijack
utility.
Und.
652.
Ans.
Exp.
You are administering a system that has been locked down for security
reasons. You notice that among all of the other ports, port 443 and port 80
have been disabled. What services are associated with these ports?
HTTP , HTTPS
Each TCP/IP protocol uses a particular port number. In this case, the HTTP
protocol uses port 80 and HTTPS uses port 443. Telnet uses port 23. FTP
requires two ports (21 and 20) to establish the connection and send data;
most FTP requests result in FTP opening an arbitrary higher-numbered port
(such as 13426) to transfer the data.
Und.
653.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following protocols can be used by a client to access e-mail on a

server?
POP3
The IMAP and POP3 protocols can be used to retrieve e-mail from mail servers.
DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. FTP is for file downloads. SMTP is for
sending e-mail to an e-mail server.
Und.
654.
Ans.
Which tool can be used to test connectivity and see the path taken to reach
another host?
Tracert
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Exp.
The tracert (trace route) utility can be used to test connectivity and see the
path taken to reach another host. Ping is used to see if another system is
active and reachable. Ipconfig shows your IP configuration information, and
nslookup allows you to verify entries on a DNS server
Und.
655.
Ans.
Exp.
Which a command-line utility that enables you to verify entries on a DNS

server?
Nslookup
Nslookup is a command-line utility that enables you to verify entries on a DNS
server. Ping is used to see if another system is active and reachable. The
tracert (trace route) utility can be used to test connectivity and see the path
taken to reach another host. Ipconfig shows your IP configuration information.
Und.
656.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following technologies is limited to 10 meters?

Bluetooth
Bluetooth is a wireless standard; Class 2 devices are limited in range to about
10 meters.
Und.
657.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
658.
Ans.
Exp.
Which elements are required to communicate on a TCP/IP network?

IP address Subnet mask
To communicate on a TCP/IP network, you need to have a unique IP address
and a valid subnet mask. The default gateway and DNS server are optional.
What is the lowest grade of cable required to run 1000BaseT?
UTP CAT-5e
In order to run 1000BaseT, you need CAT-5e or better. The T in 1000BaseT
indicates twisted pair, and not fiber-optic cable.
Und.
659.
Ans.
Exp.
You are installing a network and will use wired connections. You have a
distance of 80 meters between nodes in some cases. What is the maximum
distance you can run UTP cable?
100 meters
UTP cable can run for a maximum distance of 100 meters. Thinnet coaxial can
run up to 185 meters, and multimode fiber can run up to 400 meters
Und.
660.
Ans.
Exp.
You need to recommend a wireless cellular service to a client who travels

globally. Which type of service should you recommend?
GSM
WiFi and Bluetooth are not cellular standards. Of the two cellular standards,
GSM is used worldwide and CDMA is used only in the United States.
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Und.
661.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following 802.11x standards provides data transmission speeds

up to 54Mbps?
802.11a 802.11g
Both 802.11a and 802.11g provide data transmission speeds of up to 54Mbps.
802.11b only goes up to 11Mbps. 802.11i is a security standard
Und.
662.
Ans.
Exp.
663.
Ans.
Firewalls use a set of rules to make determinations on which traffic to block.

What are those rules called?
ACL
Firewalls use an access control list (ACL) to determine which packets are
allowed through it.
Which of the addresses is a nonroutable IP address?
A Private, nonroutable addresses are 10.0.0.0-10.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255.
Und.
664.
Ans.
APIPA addresses are in which address range?

A Automatic Private IP Addressing addresses are in the 169.254.0.0 network.
The other network addresses listed are private nonroutable IP addresses.
Und.
665.
Ans.
Exp.
Which utility is used to view the inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on
your machine?
Netstat
The netstat utility is used to view TCP/IP connections on your computer.
Nbtstat shows NetBIOS over TCP/IP information. Ipconfig shows your IP
configuration information. Nslookup is a command-line utility that enables you
to verify entries on a DNS server.
Und.
666.
Ans.
Exp.
Which command is used to determine if another computer is reachable via

TCP/IP?
PING
To see if another computer is online and available, you can use the PING
command. IPCONFIG shows your IP configuration information. NBTSTAT shows
NetBIOS over TCP/IP information. NET USE allows you to make a connection to
a shared network resource such as a printer or a hard drive.
Und.
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667.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following acronyms describes the "name" of a wireless network?

What is the name of a wireless network called?
SSID
The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the name of the wireless network. You
should always change the SSID from the default! WEP and WPA are wireless
security standards. MAC is the hardware address built into network card
Und.
668.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following are examples of ways you can increase the security of
your wireless network?
Enable MAC filtering Change the SSID from the default Use WPA
Enabling MAC filtering only allows specific computers to use the wireless
router. You should disable SSID broadcasts, not enable them, to increase
security. Changing the SSID from the default is always a good idea, and you
should use some sort of wireless security such as WPA or WEP.
Und.
669.
Ans.
Exp.
You have just set up a network that will use the TCP/IP protocol, and you want
client computers to be able to search for and communicate with other
computers by using hostnames. Which type of server will help with this?
DNS
Domain Name System (DNS) server resolves hostnames to IP addresses. A
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server provides IP configuration
information to hosts when they join the network. A domain controller may
provide login authentication, but it does not provide IP configuration
information.
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4 Interview Ques - 1000 (Updated Sampath)

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4 Interview Ques - 1000 (Updated Sampath)

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1000 INTERVIEW QUESTIONS

GET READY FOR THE INDUSTRY

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Size of Cluster is 4KB

Size of Cluster is 4KB

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Security and quota options are available

4tb(tera byte)volume size

volume size can be of 16eb(exa byte)

Max file size is 4GB

1000 INTERVIEW QUESTIONS

1000 INTERVIEW QUESTIONS

22.List out the different connectors of SMPS and its uses?

1000 INTERVIEW QUESTIONS

max SATA cable

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39.What is the difference between IDE and SCSI?

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hard disk rotation speed is

data transmission speed is 100/133Mbps

data transmission speed is

we can connect 2 IDE devices to single cable

it depends up on the cable.

max IDE cable length is 45CM

max SATA cable length is 25M

44.Min requirement to install operating system

1000 INTERVIEW QUESTIONS

45.Types of user Accounts ?

46.What is kernel? What is the kernel file for windows?

48.What do you mean by booting?

49.What do you mean by cold booting and worm booting?

50.What do you mean by dual booting?

52.How to update windows?

1000 INTERVIEW QUESTIONS

53.What do you mean by updates?

54.What is the I.E version of XP, VISTA & WIN-7?

55.What does u mean by service pack?

56.What is antivirus? Types of antivirus?

57.What is the difference between remote desktop and remote assistance?

58.What is Backup? Types of backups?

1000 INTERVIEW QUESTIONS

60.What is the difference between backup and copy?

we can restore the data to its

61.What is re store point?

63.What are the features of windows 7?

64.What is bit locker drive?

1000 INTERVIEW QUESTIONS

65.What is printer and types of printer?

66.What is print spooler?

67.What is partition and types of partitions?

68.What is the difference between basic disk and dynamic disk?

70.What is roll back drivers?

1000 INTERVIEW QUESTIONS

71.What is device driver? And types?

72.What is the use of device manager?

75.How to remove start-up items?

1000 INTERVIEW QUESTIONS

79.My evaluation copy of Windows Vista is expiring. What should I do now?

1000 INTERVIEW QUESTIONS

81.You receive a "Microsoft Internet Explorer has encountered a problem

83.What is network and its type s?

1000 INTERVIEW QUESTIONS

84. I remotely connected to a machine on my network. I deleted a file and

87.What is port no? what are the port no for

97.Transport layer is also called as CORE layer?