Professional Documents
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(c) independent of
(d) none of these
15. Fill up the blanks from among the alternatives given below: In a first
order reaction the time required to reduce the concentration of reactant from
1 mole/liter to 0.5 mole/liter will be ............. that required to reduce it from
10 moles/liter to 5 moles/liter in the same volume
(a) more than
(b) less than
(c) same as
(d) data insufficient; can't be predicted
16. Specific rate constant for a second order reaction
(a) is independent of temperature
(b) varies with temperature
(c) depends on the nature of the reactants
(d) both (b) and (c)
17. The reaction in which rate equation corresponds to a stoichiometric
equation is called
(a) elementary reaction
(b) non-elementary reaction
(c) parallel reaction
(d) autokinetic reaction
18. Equilibrium of a chemical reaction as viewed by kinetics is a
(a) dynamic steady state
(b) static steady state
c
(c) dynamic unsteady state
(e) none of these
19. For a zero order reaction, concentration of product increases with
(a) increase of reaction time
(b) increase in initial concentration
(c) total pressure
(d) decrease in total pressure
f
(d) none of these
59. In a CSTR
(a) reaction rate varies with time
(b) concentration varies with time
(c) both (a) and (b) occur
(d) neither (a) nor (b) occurs
C is called a pseudo-first
60. The use of space-time is preferred over the mean residence time in the
design of
(a) batch reactor
(b) ideal tubular-flow reactor
(c) slurry reactor
(d) CSTR
61. For all positive reaction orders for a particular duty
(a) mixed reactor is always larger than the plug-flow reactor
(b) the ratio of the volume of the mixed reactor to that of the plugflow reactor decreases with order
(c) reactor size is independent of the type of flow
(d) density variation during reaction affects design
62. With the same reaction time, initial concentration and feed rate, the
reaction 2A
B is carried out separately in CSTR and P.F. reactor of equal
volumes. The conversion will be
(a) higher in P.F. reactor
(b) higher in CSTR
(c) same in both the reactors
(d) data insufficient; cant be predicted
63. For an autocatalytic reactor, the suitable reactor set up is
(a) P.F. reactors in series
(b) CSTR in series
(c) CSTR followed by P.F. reactor
(d) P.F. reactor followed by CSTR
64. For multiple reactions, the reaction within the vessel affects the
(a) Size requirement
(b) CSTR
(c) Semi-batch reactor
(d) Plug-flow reactor
91 Which of the following factors control the design of a fluid solid
reactor?
(a) The reaction kinetics for single particle
(b) The size distribution of solids being treated
(c) Flow patterns of solids and fluids in the reactor
(d) All (a) (b) and (c)
92. Kinetics of solid catalyst reaction can be studied in a
(a) Batch reactor
(b) Plug-flow reactor
(c) Mixed reactor
(d) None of these
93. For high conversion in highly exothermic solid catalyzed reaction, use a
(a) Fixed bed reactor
(b) Fluidized bed reactor followed by a fixed bed reactor
(c) Fixed bed reactor followed by a fluidized bed reactor
(d) Fluidized bed reactor
94. In case of staged packed bed reactors carrying out exothermic reaction,
use
(a) High recycle for pure glass
(b) Plug flow for dilute liquid require no large preheating of
feed
(c) Cold shot operations for a dilute solution requiring large
preheating to bring the steam up to the reaction
temperature
(d) All (a) (b) and (c)
95. Which of the following will give the maximum gas conversion ?
(a) Fixed bed reactor
(b) fluidized reactor
(c) Semi-fluidized reactor
2.
c. pressure
d. concentration
Which of the following is a thermodynamic property of a system?
a. concentration
b. mass
c. temperature
d. entropy
3.
4.
5.
An irreversible process
a. is the analog of linear frictionless motion in machines
b. is an idealized visualization of behavior of a system
c. yields the maximum amount of work
d. yields the amount of work less than that of a reversible process.
6.
In a adiabatic process
a. heat transfer is zero
c. work done is a path function
7.
Enthalpy H is defined as
a. H = U PV
c. H U = PV
8.
9.
c. 2
d. 3
b. pressure process
d. entropy process
b. pressure process
d. none of these
b. entropy process
d. none of these
a.
b.
c.
d.
29. Number of components (C) phase (P) and degrees of freedom (F) are
related by Gibbs phase rule as
a. P + F C = 2
b. C =P F +2
c. F = C P 2
d. P = F C 2
b. all gases
d. gases at
36. The absolute entropy for all crystalline substances at absolute zero
temperature
a. is zero
b. is negative
c. is more than zero
d. cant be determined
very
low
b. V 1/T
d. PV/T = constant
b. dS < 0
d. dS = constant
b. dU = Cv dT
d. dW = pdV
b. dU dW = TdS
d. TdS dW dU > 0
b. dU dW TdS = 0
d. TdS dT + dW < 0
49. Cv is given by
a. ( U/ T)v
c. ( U/P)v
b. ( U/V)T
d. (V/ T)P
c.
d.
c. (dG)T, p=0
54. If different processes are used to bring about the same chemical
reaction, the enthalpy change is same for all of them.
a. Hesss law
b. Kirchhoffs law
c. Lavoisier and Laplace law
d. none of these
55. Change of heat content when one mole of the compound is burnt in
oxygen at constant pressure is called
a. calorific value
b. heat of reaction
c. heat of combustion
d. heat of formation
d. (dA)T, v > 0
b. decrease in entropy
d. none of these
b. A = U TS
d. none of these
b. G = H - TS
d. G = U+ TS
b. only A decreases
d. both G and A increases
67. Free energy charges for two reaction mechanism X and Y are
respectively 15 and 5 units. It implies that X is
a. slower than Y
b. faster than Y
c. three times slower than Y
d. three times faster than Y
68. Chemical potential is
a. an extensive property
b. an intensive property
c. a force which derives the chemical system to equilibrium
d. both b and c
69. Chemical potential of its component of a system is given by
a. i = ( G/ni)T,P,ni
c. i = ( G/ni)T,P
b. i = ( A/ni)T,P,ni
d. i = ( A/ni)T,P
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
b. solid helium
d. none of these
2.
3.
smoke formation
high gas temperature
high percentage of oxygen in flue gas
high carbon monoxide content in flue gas
11. Which of the following fuels is best for burning on chain grate smoker?
(a) non caking coal
(b) caking coal
(c) coking coal
(d) pulverized coal
12. Which of the following accounts for maximum energy loss in a boiler
(a) flue gases
(b) ash content in the fuel
(c) incomplete combustion
(d) unburnt carbon in flue gases
13. Over-fire burning in a furnace is a phenomenon characterized by
(a) supply of excess fuel
(b) supply of excess air
(c) burning carbon monoxide and other incombustible in upper zone
of furnace by
supplying more air
(d) none of these
14. When steam is passed over coal resulting in the endothermic reaction
(C + H2O ----- CO + H2), it is called
(a) carbonization of coal
(b) oxidation of coal
(c) coalification
(d) gasification of
coal
15. Fischer-Tropsch method aims at
(a) gasification of coal
(b) synthesis of gasoline (from water gas)
(c) hydrogenation of coal to produce gasoline
(d) none of these
16. Commercial production of petrol from coal (as practiced in a factory at
Sasol in South Africa) is done by
(a) hydrogenation of coal
(b) gasification of coal
(c) carbonization of coal
(d) none of these
17. In case pulverized coal from steam boiler, the secondary air serves the
main purpose of
(a) transportation of coal
(b) drying of coal
(c) combustion of coal by supplying in around the burner
(d) pre-heating the primary air
18. The main function of primary air in pulverized coal fired burner is to
(a) burn CO to CO2
(b) dry transport of the coal
(c) have proper combustion by supplying it around the burner
(d) pre-heat the tertiary air used for complete combustion of CO to
CO2
19. The advantage of firing pulverized coal in the furnace lies in the fact
that if
(a) permits the use of high ash content of coal
(b) permits the use of low fusion point ash coal
(c) accelerates the burning rate and economizes on fuel
combustion
(d) all of the above
20. Orsat apparatus is meant for
(a) gravimetric analysis of flue gas
(b) finding out combustion efficiency
(c) direct determination of nitrogen in flue gas by absorbing it in
ammoniacal cuprous chloride
(d) none of these
21. Pick out the wrong statement
(a) Theoretical flame temperature is temperature attained by the
products of combustion when the fuel is burned without loss or
gain of heat
(b) Burning the fuel with theoretically required amount of pure oxygen
results in attainment of maximum adiabatic flame temperature
(c) Burning the fuel with excess pure oxygen results in maximum
theoretical flame temperature
40. Coke oven gas is a better fuel than blast furnace gas because of its
higher
(a) calorific value, cleanliness and relatively low distribution cost (due
to its low specific gravity)
(b) adiabatic flame temperature
(c) heat release rate (thus requiring smaller combustion chamber)
(d) all of the above
41. Which of the following constituents of fuel does not contribute to its
calorific value on combustion
(a) hydrogen
(b) sulfur
(c) carbon
(b) hydrocarbons
(c) hydrogen
(d) oxygen
(b) flame
(d) ignition
45. Dry air required to burn one lb of carbon completely may be around
(a) 11.5 lb
(b) 2.67 lb
(c) 16 lb
48. Which of the following has the highest gross calorific value?
(a) blast furnace gas
(c) lignite
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
52. For every 10% increase in the excess air; the fuel consumption increases
by
(a) 0.1%
(b) 2%
(c) 5%
(d) 10%
53. Ash content in the coke produced from a coking coal having 20% ash
may be around
(a) 5%
(b) 2%
(c)17%
(d) 25%
54. Out of the following fuels, the difference between the net and gross
calorific value is maximum in case of
(a) pitch
62. Which of the following can be made into briquettes without the use of a
binder
(a) lignite
(b) bitumen
(c) molasses
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(b) methane
(c) unsaturates
(b) ash
(c) volatiles
(d) carbon
76. Which of the following is most reactive (as regards the formation of CO
+ H2 from C + H2O)?
(a) blast furnace coke
(b) carbonized
(c) caking
(d) non-caking
(b) ash
(c) iron
(d) moisture
(b) 4500
(c) 7500
(d) 2000
(b) 1800
(c) 4500
(d) 6500
81. Blast furnace gas is a very poisonous gas because of its predominantly
high
(a) H2S content
(c) CO content
(b) 5
(c) 20
(d) 55
(b) 5
(c) 20
(d) 50
(b) 10
(c) 25
(d) 55
86. Which of the following gases will require maximum amount of air for
combustion of 1 Nm3 gas?
(a) blast furnace gas
(a) Nickel
(c) Alumina
(b) sub-bituminous
(c) anthracite
(d) peat
(b) ammonia
(c) tar
(b) 600 C
(a) 2000C
(c) 1100 C
(d) 1600 C
(b) 1100 C
(c) 500-650 C
(d) 150 C
11. Gypsum is
(a) calcium chloride
(b) potassium sulfate
(c) sodium sulfate
(d) calcium sulfate
12. Glauber's salt is
(a) calcium sulfate
(b) potassium sulfate
(c) potassium chlorate
(d) sodium sulfate decahydrate
13. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of calcium and
magnesium
(a) bi-carbonates
(b) sulfates and chlorides
(c) carbonate
(d) chlorides
14. Widely used method for conditioning of boiler feed water is
(a) cold lime process
(b) coagulation
(c) hot-lime soda process
(d) sequestration
15. Hydrazine is largely used
(a) as a starting material for 'hypo'
(b) in photographic industry
(c) as rocket fuel
(d) in printing industry
16. Trinitro-toluene is
(a) used in glycerin manufacture
(b) an explosive
(c) used in dye manufacture
(d) used in paint manufacture
17. Oil is
(a) a mixture of glycerides
(b) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids
(c) solid at normal temperature
(d) ester of alcohols other than glycerin
18. Wax is
(a) a mixture of glycerides
(b) a mixture of esters of polyhydric alcohols except glycerin
(c) liquid at room temperature
(d) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids
b
31.
32.
33.
34.
27. Fat splitting catalyst is
(a) CaCO3
(b) ZnO
(c) alumina
(d) iron
28. Free alkali in toilet soap is
(a) less than that in a laundry soap
(b) more than that in a laundry soap
(c) same as that in a laundry soap
(d) not present in laundry soap
29. Soap cannot be used with hard water because
(a) hard water contains sulfate
(b) they form insoluble calcium soaps which precipitate
(c) they attract back the removed dirt
(d) they increase the surface tension
30. Builders are added in soap to
(a) boost cleaning power
CO + H2 is
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) catalytic
(d) autocatalytic
65. The combustion reaction C + O2
CO2 is
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) autocatalytic
(d) catalytic
66. Kopper-Totzek coal gasifier
(a) can give ammonia synthesis gas
(b) is a moving bed reactor
(c) cannot use cooking coal
(d) operate at very high pressure
67. Acrylonitrile is mainly used in
(a) polymer industry
(b) printing industry
(c) dyeing industry
(d) photographic industry
68. The major use of butadiene is
(a) as a plasticizer for unsaturated polyester
(b) in the manufacture of synthetic rubber
(c) as an anti-skinning agent in paint
(d) as corrosion inhibitor
69. Phenol is mainly used
(a) to produce benzene
(b) to produce phenol formaldehyde
(c) to produce polyester resin
(d) as a plasticizer for unsaturated polyester
70. Phthalic anhydride is made by
(a) Oxidation of naphthalene
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
83. Poly-Vinyl Chloride (PVC) is
(a) thermosetting
(b) thermoplastic
91. Dacron is
(a) a polyester
(b) an unsaturated polyester
(c) a polyamide
(d) an inorganic polymer
92. Celluloid is
(a) cellulose acetate
(b) regenerated cellulose
(c) cellulose nitrate
(d) cellulose acetate butyrate
93. Thermoplastic materials
(a) do not soften on application of heat
(b) are heavily branched molecules
(c) are solvent insoluble
(d) are capable of softening or fusing when heated and of
hardening again when cooled
94. Thermosetting materials
(a) are capable of becoming permanently rigid when heated or
cured
(b) soften on application of heat
(c) are solvent insoluble
(d) are heavily branched molecules
95. Type of glass used in optical work is
(a) soda-lime glass
(b) fiber glass
(c) lead glass
(d) borosilicate glass
96. Silicon carbide is
(a) an adhesive
(b) an abrasive
(c) a type of glass
(d) brittle
97. The temperature in the calcium carbide furnace is
(c) bacteria
(d) all a, b and c
111. Use of hydrated lime in water treatment
(a) before filtration, reduces the bacterial load on filters
(e) after filtration, combats the corrosiveness of water due to
presence of O2 and CO2
(c) is to adjust the pH value
(d) all a, b and c
112. The purpose of adding Na2CO3 to water of low alkalinity is to
(a) permit the use of alum as a coagulant
(b) increase the softening capacity of zeolite
(c) facilitate the easy regeneration of zeolite
(d) all a, b and c
113. Pick out the true statement pertaining to water treatment
(a) Slow sand filters can remove color completely
(b) Activated carbon can be used for taste and odor control without
subsequent filtration
(c) Application of activated carbon reduces the temporary hardness of
water
(d) Normally, the turbidity is removed by adding a coagulant prior
to sedimentation
result in
(a) pyrolysis of oil
(b) sintering of porous catalyst
(c) hydrogen embrittlement
(d) all a, b and c
122. Shaving soaps are
(a) soft potassium soaps (potassium salt of fatty acid) with free
stearic acid to give
lather a lasting property
(b) metallic soaps compounded with frothing agents
(c) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol
(d) usually soap soaps
123. Transparent soaps (e.g. Pears) are
(a) usually soft soaps (made from coconut oil) in which cane
sugar and alcohol are
added and finally washed with methylate spirit to achieve
transparency
(b) metallic soaps with frothing agent and free stearic acid to achieve
transparency
(c) metallic soaps with frothing agent from which glycerin has not
been recovered
(d) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol
124. Glycerin is recovered from lye by
(a) evaporation followed by vacuum distillation
(b) liquid extraction technique
(c) extractive distillation technique
(d) steam distllation
125. Glycerin is not used in the
(a) manufacture of explosive
(b) conditioning and humidification of tobacco
(c) manufacture of pharmaceuticals
(d) manufacture of caustic soda
(a) ML-1T-1
(c) MLT-1T
FLOW OF FLUIDS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Dimension of viscosity is
(b) MLT-1
(d) MLT
7.
8.
9.
11. The pressure intensity is the same in all direction at a point in a fluid
(a) only when the fluid is frictionless
(b) only when the fluid is at rest having zero velocity
(c) when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an
adjacent layer
(d) regardless of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent
layer
12. Choose the set of pressure intensities that are equivalent
(a) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 8.83 inches of Hg.
(b) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 20.7 inches of Hg.
(c) 10 psi, 19.7 ft. of water, 23.3 inches of Hg.
(d) 10 psi, 19.7 ft of water, 5.3 inches of Hg.
13. For a fluid rotating at constant angular velocity about vertical axis as a
rigid body, the pressure intensity varies as the
(a) square of the radial distance
(b) radial distance linearly
(c) averse of the radial distance
(d) elevation along vertical direction
14. The center of pressure is
(a) always below the centroid of the area
(b) always above the centroid of the area
(c) a point on the line of action of the resultant force
(d) at the centroid of the submerge area
15. A rectangular surface 3x4, has the lower 3 edge horizontal and 6
below a free oil surface (sp. gr. 0.8). The surface inclination is 300 with
the horizontal. The force in one side of the surface is :(y = specific
weight of water)
(a) 39.6y
(c) 49.2y
(b) 48y
(d) 58y
(b) ft-lb/ft3
(d) ft-lb.f/sec
(b) 0.5
(d) none of these
47. Bernoullis equation for steady frictionless, continuous flow states that
(a) total pressure at all sections is same
(b) total energy at all section is same
(c) velocity head at all section is same
(d) none of these
48. Drag is defined as the force exerted by the
(a) fluid on the solid in a direction opposite to flow
(b) the fluid on the solid in the direction of flow
(c) the solid on the fluid
(d) none of these
49. Drag co-efficient for flow past immersed body is the ratio of
(a) shear stress to the product of velocity head density
(b) shear force to the product of velocity head and density
(c) average drag per unit projected area to the product of velocity
head and density
(d) none of these
50. Stokes law is valid when the particle Reynolds number is
(a) < 1
(b) > 1
(c) < 5
(d) none of these
51. Drag co-efficient CD is given by (in Stokes law range)
(a) CD = 16
(b) CD = 24
Re.p
Re.p
(c) CD = 18.4
(d) CD = 0.079
Re.p
Re.p
54. For flow of fluid through packed bed, the superficial velocity is
(a) less than the average velocity through channels
(b) more than the average velocity through channels
(c) dependent on the pressure drop across the bed
(d) same as the average velocity through channels
71. The maximum depth from which a centrifugal pump can draw water
(a) dependent on the speed N of the pump
(b) dependent on the power of the pump
(c) 34 feet
(d) 150 feet
(b) slurries
(d) none of these
87. For a specific centrifugal air blower operating at constant speed and
capacity the power requirement and pressure vary
(a) directly as squares of gas density
(b) directly as gas density
(c) directly as square root of density
(d) inversely as gas density
88. Foot valves are provided in the suction line of a centrifugal pump to
(a) avoid priming every time we start the pump
(b) remove the contaminant present in the liquid
(c) minimize the fluctuation in dischrarge
(d) control the liquid discharge
89. Differential manometer measures
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
91. While
(a) opened
starting a centrifugal pump, its delivery
(b) closed
valve should be kept
(c) parabola
(a)
either opened
(vertex
or closed;
being itatdoes
the opening)
not make any difference
(d) hyperbolic
(b)
either opened or closed; depending on the fluid viscosity
(c) horizontal straight line
92. Path
(d) followed
zig-zag path
by water
(whichjetisissuing
geometrically
from theundefined)
bottom of a water tank will
be a
93. A centrifugal pump loses prime after starting. The reason of this trouble
may be
(c)
(a) low
incomplete
available
priming
NPSH and air leaks in(b)the
too
suction
high apipe
suction lift
(d)
all a, b, and c
94. Capacity of a rotary gear pump can be varied by
(a) changing the speed of rotation
(b) bleeding air into suction
(c) bypassing liquid from the suction or discharge line
(d) all a, b, and c
95. For liquid flow through a packed bed, the superficial velocity as
compared to average velocity through the channel in the bed is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) independent of porosity
96. Reciprocating pumps compared to centrifugal pumps
(a) deliver liquid at uniform pressure
(b) can handle slurries more efficiently
(c) are not subject to air binding
(d) can be operated with delivery valve closed
97. A tube is specified by its
(a) thickness only
(c) thickness and outer diameter both
98. For pipes that must be broken at intervals for maintenance, the
connector used should be a
(a) union
(b) tee
(c) reduces
(d) elbow
103. Erosion and pits formation on the impeller of a centrifugal pump may
be due to
(a) cavitation
(b) low speed of impeller
(c) its operation with delivery valve closed for considerable time
after starting the pump
(d) off centering of pump with motor
99. If more than two branches of pipes are to be connected at the same
point, then use
(a) elbow
(b) union
(c) tee
(d) none of these
104. Which of the following valves will incur maximum pressure drop for
the same discharge of water?
(a) globe valve
(b) gate valve
(c) needle valve
(d) butterfly valve
100. The most economical valve for use with large diameter pipes is
(a) butterfly valve
(b) globe valve
(c) needle valve
(d) none of these
105. While starting on axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be kept
(a) open
(b) closed
(c) either open or closed
(d) none of these
101. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the pressure
drop in a pipeline?
(a) velocity of liquid
(b) size of pipe
(c) length of pipe and number of bends
(d) none of these
102. Which of the following can be used to create a flow of gas where no
significant compression is required?
(a) reciprocating compressor
(b) blower
(c) axial flow compressor
(d) centrifugal compressor
107. A centrifugal pump has the following specifications:
Power 4 H.P.; Speed 800 rpm
Head 8 meters; Flow 1000 liters/minutes
If its speed is halved , then the new head will be
(a) 2 m
(b) 4 m
(c) 8 m
(d) 5.5 m
108. In question No. 107, the power consumed now will be
(a) 0.5 H.P.
(b) 2 H.P.
(c) 4 H.P.
(d) 1 H.P.
115. The most important factor which determines the maximum height to
which water can
be lifted by a pump at standard temperature
(62F) is
(a) barometric pressure
(b) speed of the impeller
(c) diameter of the impeller
(d) both b and c
116. Bear pump
(a) is a positive displacement pump
(b) is a centrifugal pump
(c) is a non-positive displacement pump
(d) can be started with delivery valve closed
117. When the water is warm, the height to which it can be lifted by a
pump
(a) decreases due to reduced velocity
(b) decreases due to reduced vapor pressure
(c) increases due to increased vapor pressure
(d) decreases due to increased frictional resistance
118. Multistage centrifugal pumps are generally used for
(a) high head
(b) low head but high discharged
(c) highly viscous liquid
(d) slurries of high solid concentration
123. Actual lift of pump always less than the theoretical lift and is limited
by
(a) specific gravity and temperature of the liquid
(b) leakage and pressure decreasing at higher elevations
(c) frictional resistance through pipes, fittings and passages
(d) all a, b and c
124. Fill up the blank
Nominal size of the discharge pipe of a pump is usually the
nominal size of the inlet pipe
(a) smaller than
(b) larger than
(c) same as
(d) twice
125. Horsepower requirement for given pump capacity depends upon the
(a) specific gravity of the liquid
(b) suction lift
(c) discharge head
(d) all a, b and c
1.
2.
3.
FLOW OF HEAT
A pipe carrying steam at about 300C traverses a room, the air
being still at 30C. the major fraction of the heat loss will be by
a. conduction to the still air
b. convection to the
air
c. radiation to the surrounding
d. conduction and
convection put together
A satellite in space exchanges heat with its surroundings by
a. Conduction
b. convection
c. Radiation
d. conduction as well
as convection
For the same temperature drop in the temperature ranges of 300400C the heat flow rate will be highest by
a. Conduction process
b. convection process
b. Radiation process
d. other factors should
be known before any conclusion
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
c.
Remain constant
depending on the heat flow rate
d. either b or c
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
d.
38.
39.
40.
41.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
d. A.F..=AF..+AF..
96. Choose the correct statement or statements
a. Radiosity is another name for emissive power
b. Radiation intensity is the flow per unit area
c. Radiation intensity is the radiant energy per unit solid angle
d. Irradiation is the total radiant energy incident on a surface
97. Choose the correct statement or statements
a. Convex surface have positive value for shape factor themselves
b. Concave surface have positive value for shape factor with
themselves
c. Flat surfaces have positive value for shape factor with
themselves
d. Irregular surfaces have positive value for shape factor with
themselves
98. If A=4 and A=2 and F =0.2 then
a. F= 0.2
b. F=0.8
c. F=0.4
d. F=0.1
b) spray dryer
c) tray dryer
d) rotary dryer
4.
5.
6.
X+1
b)
X
1-X
c) 1 + X
X
d) 1 X
7.
DRYING
1.
8.
9.
b) critical moisture
c) free moisture
d) bound moisture
13. Refractory bricks are usually dried in a
a) tray dryer
b) tunnel dryer
c) conveyor dryer
d) festoon dryer
14. Heat sensitive materials like certain pharmaceuticals and food stuff can
be dried
a) in indirect tray dryer
b) in spray dryer
c) by freeze drying
d) none of these
15. Moisture contained by a substance in excess of the equilibrium
moisture is called
a) unbound moisture
b) free moisture
c) critical moisture
d) bound moisture
17. In the constant rate period of the rate of drying curve for batch drying
a) cracks develop on the surface of the solid
b) rate of drying decreases abruptly
c) surface evaporation of unbound moisture occurs
d) none of these
18. The falling rate period in the drying of a solid is characterized by
a) increase in rate of drying
b) increasing temperatures both on the surface and within the
solid
c) decreasing temperatures
d) none of these
19. Dryer widely used in a textile industry is
a) cylinder dryer
b) conveyor dryer
c) tunnel dryer
d) festoon dryer
20. Sticky material can be dried in a
a) tray dryer
b) rotary dryer
c) fluidized bed dryer
d) none of these
21. Drying of a solid involves
a) only heat transfer
b) only mass transfer
c) both heat and mass transfer
d) none of these
22. A solid material shows case hardening properties while drying. Which
of the following
should be controlled to control the drying process?
a) flow rate of inlet air
b) relative humidity of outlet air
c) humidity of inlet air
d) temperature of the solid
23. Capacity of a rotary dryer depends on
a) its r.p.m
a)
b)
c)
d)
c) non-ideal in nature
d) at a fixed temperature
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
HUMIDIFICATION
1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
latent heat
humid heat
specific heat
sensible heat
7.
8.
9.
d) none of these
12. The difference of wet bulb temperature and adiabatic saturation
temperature of unsaturated
mixture of any system is
a) positive
b) negative
c) zero
d) none of these
13. When the temperature and humidity of air is low we usually use
a) natural draft cooling tower
b) forced draft cooling tower
c) induced draft cooling tower
d) none of these
14. The equipment frequently used for adiabatic humidification-cooling
operation with
recirculating liquid is
a) natural draft cooling tower
b) induced draft cooling tower
c) spray chamber
d) none of these
d) above which it will always become dry and below which it will
always stay damp.
19. Percentage saturation is..the relative saturation.
a) always smaller than
b) always greater than
c) not related to
d) none of these
20. Wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures become identical at
a) 100% saturation curve
b) 50% saturation curve
c) 78% saturation curve
d) none of these
21. Which of the following processes is followed by unsaturated air (with
dry bulb temperature
12oC and relative humidity 47%) passing through water spray washer
(temperature of water being constant at 40oC)?
a) humidification only
b) heating only
c) both heating and humidification
d) evaporative cooling
22. Which of the following remains constant during sensible cooling
process?
a) specific humidity
b) partial pressure of vapor
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
a)
b)
c)
d)
29. The relative saturation of a partially saturated mixture of vapor and gas
can be increased by
a) reducing the total pressure of the mixture
b) increasing the total pressure of the mixture
c) reducing the temperature of the mixture
d) both b and c
30. Condensation of a vapor-gas mixture just begin when
a) p = P
b) p P
c) p P
d) p>= P
where: p = partial pressure of the vapor
P = vapor pressure of the liquid
31. Unsaturated air (with dry and wet bulb temperatures being 35 oC and
25oC respectively) is
passed through water spray chamber maintained at 35 oC. The air will
be
a) cooled
b) humidified
c) both a and b
d) dehumidified
32. In case of unsaturated air
a) dew point wet bulb temperature
b) wet bulb temperature dry bulb temperature
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
33. Unsaturated air (with dry bulb temperature and dew point being 35 oC
and 18oC respectively)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the pressure (P)
as
a.) D T1.5
b.) D 1
P0.5
c.) D 1
d.) D 1
P
P1.5
Molecular diffusion is caused by
a.) transfer of molecules from low concentration to high concentration
region
b.) thermal energy of the molecules
c.) activation energy of the molecules
d.) potential energy of the molecules
Pick out the correct statement
a.) Diffusivity decreases with increase in temperature
b.) Diffusivity increases with increase in molecular weight
c.) Diffusivity increases with the size of the individual molecule
d.) None of these
Mass transfer co-efficient is defined as
a.) Flux = (Co-efficient) / (concentration difference)
b.) Co-efficient = Flux / concentration difference
c.) Flux = concentration difference / co-efficient
d.) None of these
Mass transfer co-efficient (K) and diffusivity (D) are related according
to film theory as
a.) K D
b.) K D
c.) K D1.5
d.) K D2
Penetration theory relates average mass transfer co-efficient (K) with
diffusivity (D) as
a.) K D
b.) K D
c.) K D1.5
d.) K D2
9.
b.) Re.Pe
d.) Re / Pe
b.) Pr x Sc
d.) St x Sh
( time)(area)(pressure)
mass transferred
(time)(area)(mass A / mass B)
d.) none of these
c.)
GAS ABSORPTION
16. In case liquid-liquid binary diffusion , diffusivity of one constituent
into another is not dependent on
a.) temperature and pressure
b.) concentration
c.) nature of the constituents
d.) none of these
1.
2.
18. Which of the following has the same dimension as mass diffusivity?
a.) momentum flux
b.) kinematic viscosity
c.) thermal diffusivity
d.) both b and c
3.
4.
5.
6.
Flooding results in
a.) High tray efficiency
8.
9.
13. For an absorber, both equilibrium and operating line will be straight for
a.) concentrated solution and non-isothermal operation
b.) dilute solution and non-isothermal operation
c.) dilute solution and isothermal operation
d.) concentrated solution and isothermal operation
At the same gas flow rate, the pressure drop in a packed tower being
irrigated with liquid
a.) is greater than that in dry packed
b.) is lower than that in drying packing
c.) is same as that in drying packing
d.) cannot be predicted as data are insufficient
Berl saddle made of carbon cannot be used
a.) for alkalis
c.) for H2SO4
atmosphere
11. The operating line for an absorbed is curved when plotted in terms of
a.) mole fractions
b.) mole ratios
c.) partial pressure
d.) mass fractions
12. In case of an absorber, the operating
a.) line always lies above the equilibrium curve
b.) line always lies below the equilibrium curve
c.) line can be either above or below the equilibrium curve
d.) velocity is more than the loading velocity
d.) none of
a.) negative
c.) 1
b.) positive
d.) -1
24. Ammonia present in the coke oven gas is removed by washing with
a.) caustic solution
b.) dilute
ammoniacal liquor
c.) dilute HCl
d.)
ethanolamine
b.) decreased
d.) better gas
b.) I,IV,V,VI
d.) I,IV,V,VII
23. When both the fluids flow concurrently in an absorber, the slope of the
operating line is
d.) 0.5
1.
2.
b.) maldistribution of
4.
6.
7.
FILTRATION
5.
3.
b.) cm / gm
d.) gm / gm.
b.) gm / cm-
c.) cm / gm-1
8.
9.
d.) gm -1
15. The speed of a rotary drum vacuum filter (in rpm) may be
a.) 1
b.) 50
c.) 100
d.) 500
10. In continuous filtration (at a constant pressure drop) filtrate flow rate
varies inversely as the
a.) square root of the velocity
b.) square root of the viscosity
c.) filtration time only
d.) washing time only
11. For separation of sugar solution from settled out mud we use
a.) sparkler filter
b.) plate and
frame
c.) centrifugal filter
d.) rotary drum
vacuum filter
12. The most common filter aid is
a.) diatomaceous earth
c.) sodium carbonate
17. For laminar of flow of filtrate through the cake deposited on septum
which of the following with the valid?
a.) Kozency-Carman Equation
b.) Leva's equation
c.) Clack-Plummer equation
d.) none of these
18. Which of the following may prove unsuitable for filtering volatile
liquids?
a.) pressure filter
b.) gravity filter
c.) centrifugal filter
d.) vacuum filter
19. In washing type plate and frame filter press the ratio of washing rate to
the final filtrate rate is
a.) 4
b.) 1/4
c.) 1
d.) 1/2
20. Moore filter is a
a.) leaf filter
c.) rotary filter
21. Diatomaceous earth is
a.) explosive
c.) filter medium
these
22. Flow of filtrate through cake in a plate and frame filter press is best
described by
a.) Kozency-Carman equation
b.) Hagen-Poiseu
equation
c.) Fanning's equation
d.) Kremser equation
29. Addition of filter aid to the slurry before filtration is done to .. of the
coke
a.) increase the porosity
b.) increase the compressibility coefficient
c.) decrease the porosity
d.) decrease the compressibility coefficient
30. The cake resistance increases steadily with the time of filtration in a
plate and frame filter employing constant .. filtration
a.) rate
b.) pressure
c.) both a and b
d.) neither a nor b
25. Which of the following represents the plot of filtrate cvolume versus
time for constant pressure filtration?
a.) parabola
b.) straight line
c.) hyperbola
d.) exponential curve
ADSORPTION
1.
Physical adsorption is
a. an irreversible phenomenon
b. a reversible phenomenon
c. accompanied by evolution of heat
d. both b and c
2.
3.
26. With increase in drum speed, in a rotary drum filter, the filtration rate
a.) increases
b.) increases linearly
c.) decreases
d.) is not affected
27. The inlet pressure in a constant rate filtration
a.) increases continuously
c.) remains constant
b.) decreases
d.) none of these
c. pressure decreases
b.
4.
temperature decreases
increases
d.
size of adsorbent
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
The change in enthalpy per unit weight of adsorbed gas when adsorbed
on gas free or outgassed adsorbent to form a definite concentration of
adsorbate is called its
a. integral heat of adsorption
b. heat of wetting
c. differential heat of adsorption
d. heat of normal condensation
c.
d.
leaching
a.
b.
c.
Cold Ca
d.
alumina
1.
2.
CENTRIFUGATION
1.
2.
3.
3.
4.
Which of the following is the most suitable for cleaning of fine coal
dust (< 0.5 m)?
a. Through washer
c. Spiral separator
b. Baum Jig Washer
d. Froth Flotation
4.
1.
2.
5.
FLOTATION
LEACHING
c. absorption
d. adsorption
b.
3.
4.
5.
6.
c. pressure
d. size of the solid
c.
2.
3.
extractive
d. steam distillation
c. dilute H2SO4
d. lime water
7.
8.
d. absorption
c.
d.
results in low
none of these
b.
( i ), ( iv ), ( v ), ( vii )
( vii )
( i ), ( iii ), ( v ), ( vi )
( vii )
c. ( i ), ( iii ), ( v ),
d. ( i ), ( ii ), ( iv ),
4.
5.
6.
c. temperature
d. none of these
Heats sensitive materials with very high latent heat of vaporization may
be economically separated using
a. liquid extraction
c. evaporation
a.
1.
distillation
d.
7.
8.
9.
11. The solvent used in liquid extraction should not have high latent heat of
vaporization because
a. the pressure drops and hence the pumping cost will be very
high
b. it cannot be recovered by distillation
c. its recovery cost by distillation may be prohibitively high
d. it will decompose while recovering by distillation
MATERIALS HANDLING
1.
b.
screw conveyor
conveyor
d.
pneumatic
a. 0.0074 cm
d. 0.0047 mm
b. 0.0074 mm
c. 0.0047 cm
2.
3.
The ratio of the area of opening in one screen (Taylor series) to that of
openings in the next smaller screen is
a. 1.5
b. 1
c. 2
d. none of
these
3.
4.
5.
6.
Screen efficiency is
a. recovery rejection b. recovery
these
4.
5.
6.
c. belt conveyor
d. bucket elevator
The capacity of a belt conveyor depends upon two factors. If one is the
cross section of the load, the other is the
a. speed of the belt
c.
thickness of the
belt
b. length of the belt
d.
material to be
transported
Dry powdery solid material are transported by a
a. belt conveyor
c. belt conveyor
b. screw conveyor
d. bucket elevator
Apron conveyors are used for
a. heavy loads and short runs
b. small loads, long runs
powdered materials
c.
7.
8.
SCREENING
1.
The ratio of the actual mesh dimension of Taylor series to that of the
next smaller screen is
a. 2
b. 2
c. 1.5
d. none of these
2.
c. rejection
d. none of
9.
a.
b.
c.
d.
18. The critical speed of a trommel (n) is related to its diameter (D)
10. Trommels separate a mixture of particles depending on their
a. size
c. screen size
b. wet ability
d. electrical and magnetic
11. Screen capacity is expressed in terms of
a. tons/h
b. tons/ft2
c. both a and b
2
tons/h-ft
d.
c. 200 openings/cm
d. 200 openings/inch2
1
D
a.
b.
N D
c. N D
d. N
1
D
Sphere
d
d
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
(1)
2
16
Re p
18.4
b. CD
Re p
a. C D
The drag force exerted on the sphere during its descent through the
second section is
4 3
r
3
a.
1 2 g
b.
d
4 3
r 1 g 61r
3
t2
4
1 g r 3
3
d
4 3
r 1 g 61r
3
t2
c.
d.
24
Re p
0.079
CD
Re p 0.23
CD
c.
7.
d.
8.
9.
c. <1
d.
c.
d.
d.
d.
3.
b.
6V
DS
V
6 DS
5.
6.
7.
c. < 1
d. 3
c.
2.
c. compression
DS
V
V
d.
DS
4.
none of these
c.
d.
8.
9.
states that the work required to form particle of any size from very
large feed is proportional to the square root of the volume to
surface ratio of the product
states that the work required for the crushing is proportion
c.
at least
d. none of these
c. ultragrinding
d. crushing
c. Ball mill
d. none of these
15. As the product becomes finer, the energy required for grinding
a. decreases
c.
is same as for coarser
grinding
b. increases
d.
is 1.5 times than for
coarser grinding
16. Ultrafine grinders operate principally by
a. slow compression
c. attrition
b. impact
d. cutting action
17. The energy consumed by a ball mill depends on
a. its speed
c. the density of the material
being ground
b. its ball load
d. all a, b and c
18. Grinding efficiency of a ball mill is of the order of
a. 1 5%
c. 75 80%
b. 40 50%
d. 90 95%
19. In case of a revolving mill, wet grinding compared to dry grinding
a. requires more energy
c.
complicates handling and
classification of the product
b. has less capacity
d. none of these
20. Choke crushing (in case of a jaw crusher) compared to free crushing
a. results in increased capacity
c. consumes more
power
b. consumes less power
d. both a and c
21. For efficient grinding, ball mills, must be operated
a. at a speed less than critical speed c. at a speed equal to critical
speed
b.
b. crusher
d. ultrafine grinder
29. Which of the following gives the crushing energy required to create
new surface?
a. Taggarts rule
c. Rittingers law
b. Ficks Law
d. none of these
24. To get fine talc powder from its granules, the equipment used is
a. roller crusher
c. jaw crusher
b. ball mill
d. gyratory crusher
c. fine grinding
d. attrition
26. The main differentiation factor between tube mill and ball mill is the
a. length to diameter ratio
c. final product size
b. size of the grinding media
d. operating speed
c. Df Dp
d. Dp Df
c. 10 20
d. as high as 100
c. feed size
d. none of these
c. cutting machine
b.
pyrite
d. galena
40. According to Bond crushing law, the work required to form particle of
size D from very large feed is
a.
S /V p
c.
b.
S /V p
d.
when
S /V p
and
S /V f
S /V p
S /V f
20. Fouling factor must be included in the calculation of over all design heat
transfer co-efficient when the liquid
a. containing suspended solids flows at low velocity
b. containing suspended solids flows at high velocity
c. is highly viscous
d. is of high specific gravity
21. The value of fouling factor depends upon the
a. characteristics of process fluid
b. velocity process fluid
containing suspended solids
c. suspended solids in the fluid
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
22. Floating head heat exchangers are used for
a. heat transfer between corrosive fluids
b. cases where temperature difference between the shell and the
tubes is more (>50 C)
c. co-current heat transfer systems
d. counter-current heat transfer systems
23. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, shortest center to center distance
between adjacent tubes is
a. called tube pitch
b. called tube clearance
c. always less than the diameter of the tube
d. none of these
24. Shortest distance between two tubes is
a. called tube pitch
b. called tube clearance
c. more in case of triangular pitch as compared to square pitch of tube
layout
d. none of these
25. In most of the shell and tube heat exchanger, the tube pitch is generally
a. less than the diameter of the tube
b. 1.25 -1.50 times the tube
diameter
c. 2.5 times the tube diameter
d. one-fourth of the tube
diameter
26. Triangular pitch tube layout as compared to square pitch in a shell and
tube heat exchanger
a. permits the use of less tubes in given shell diameter
d.
47. For turbulent flow (NRe>2100) of low viscosity fluid (<20 cp) in steel
pipes, the optimum inside pipe diameter is given by
a.
Diopt 3.9 q f
Diopt 4.7 q f
a.
0.49
Diopt 3.9 q f
Diopt 3 q f
where
0.45
c.
0.14
0.45
0.36
qf =
=
c =
Diopt
0.13
c
0.95
d.
0.18
Diopt 3.6 q f
Diopt q f
a.
0.487
Diopt 3 q f
Diopt q f
0.45
0.28
c.
0.025
0.36
0.364
0.18
d.
0.182
49. The necessary wall thickness for a metallic storage vessel is a function
of the
a. ultimate tensile strength (or yield point) of the material and operating
temperature
b. operating pressure and welding / joint efficiency
c. diameter of the vessel
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
50. Bubble cap plate column is
a. a finite stage contactor
b. used only for distillation, not for absorption
c. a differential stage contactor
d. a continuous contactor
51. The most common standard size of bubble caps used in industrial
operation is
a. 1" diameter cap with 0.5" diameter riser
b. 6" diameter cap with 4" diameter riser
c. 8" diameter cap with 1" diameter riser
d. 4" diameter cap with 8" diameter riser
52. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to the design of the distillation
column
a. Generally, a skirt clearance of 0.5 to 1.5 is recommended to prevent
plugging of the slots by residue build up.
b. The purpose of the slot is to disperse the gas into the liquid in the
form of small bubbles.
c. If sufficient slot area is not provided, the gas may pass through the
skirt clearance
d. none of these
53. For a given design of bubble cap, the number of bubble caps to be used
per tray is set by the
a. allowable gas velocity through the slots
b. plate spacing
c. diameter of the column
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
54. Maximum and minimum linear slot velocities (in the distillation column
design) as recommended by Davies are respectively
a. 12/ 0.5 and 3.4/ 0.5
b.3.4/ 0.5
0.5
and 12/
c. 3.4/ 0.5 and 12/ 0.5
d. 3.4/ 0.5
and 12/ 0.5
55. Normally, the ratio of the total riser area to the tower cross sectional
area (for bubble cap towers of
diameter more than 3 ft) is around
a. 0.4 - 0.6
b. 0.35 - 0.75
c. 0.1 - 0.2
d. 0.55 - 0.85
56. An adequate clearance between the tray and the shell wall of a
distillation column is provided to
a. drain the liquid from the tray when the unit is not in operation.
b. allow for thermal expansion and facilitate installation
c. avoid back-trapping
d. none of these
57. The function of manholes provided in the shell of a distillation column
is to
a.
keep a check on the liquid gradient over
the plate by direct visual observation
b.
give access to the individual trays for
cleaning, maintenance and installation
c.
guard against foaming and entrainment
by dumping anti-forming agent through it.
d.
all (a), (b) and (c)
58. Weep holes provided in the plates of a distillation column
a. facilitate draining out liquid from a tray when the unit is not in
operation
b. are normally located near the overflow weir so that any delivery of
liquid during operation follow approximately the same path as the
overflow fluid
c. must be large enough (usually 1/4 inch to 5/8 inch diameter) to
prevent plugging but should not deliver excessive amount of fluid
during operation
d. all (a), (b) and (c).
59 59. Excessive liquid gradient on a tray may result in
a. maldistribution of gas
b. back trapping
c. gas blowing beneath cap skirt
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
60. The maximum liquid gradient over a tray must not exceed
a. 0.5" - 1.25"
b. 2"-3.5"
c. 5"
d. half the
tray spacing
61. Liquid gradient over the tray results due to
a. the resistance offered to flow of liquids by caps and risers and
the flow of gas.
b. high gas
Ts + 1
3. Pick out the first order system from among the following
(a) damped vibrator
(b) mercury in glass thermometer kept in boiling water
(c) interacting system of two tanks in series
(d) non-interacting system of two tanks in series
4. Response of a system to a sinusoidal input called
(a) impulse response
(b) unit step response
(c) frequency response
(d) step response
5. What is the ratio of output amplitude to input amplitude for a sinusoidal
forcing
function in a first order system ?
(a) 1
(b) > 1
(c) < 1
(d) none of these
6. Phase lag of the sinusoidal response of a first order system is
(a) 120
(b) 30
(c) 180
(d) 90
7. Conversion formula for converting amplitude ratio (AR) into decibels is
(a) Decibel=20 log10 (AR)
(b) Decibel=20 log e(AR)
(c) Decibel=20 log10 (AR)0.5
(d) Decibel = log10 (AR)
8. A control system is unstable if the open loop frequency response
exhibits an
amplitude ratio exceeding unity at the cross-over frequency. This is
(a) Bode stability criterion
(b) Nyquist criterion
(c) Routh stability criterion
(d) both b and c
9. Typical specifications for design stipulates the gain margin and phase
margin to be
respectively
(a) > 1.7 and > 30
(b) < 1.7 and > 30
(c) < 1.7 and < 30
(d) >1.7 and < 30
10. The frequency at which maximum amplitude ratio is attained is called
(a) corner frequency
(b) resonant frequency
(c) cross-over frequency
(d) natural frequency
11. A negative gain margin expressed in decibels means
(a) a stable system
(b) unstable system
(c) critically damped system
(d) both a and c
_
_
_
_
_
_
(d) none of
(d)
(a)
(c)
0
2
e dt
8.
MATERIALS OF CONSTRUCTION
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Bog iron is used for adsorption of H2S from coke oven gas is
a. an intimate mixture of saw dust and iron dust (i.e. moist
ferric hydroxide)
b. iron impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)
c. carbon free iron
d. none of these
Iron alloyed with carbon up to 2% is called
a. pig iron
b. wrought iron
c. high carbon steel
d. none of these
The softest material in Mhos scale (for measuring hardness) is
a. talc
b. gypsum
c. rubber
d. none of these
Karbate is
a. a mixture of iron dust and saw dust
b. carbon impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)
c. acid resistant material
d. both (b) and (c).
Duralumin is an alloy of
a. aluminum, copper and manganese
b .aluminum, nickel and silicon
c. aluminum and nickel
d. none of these
Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by the addition of
a. phosphorus and tungsten
b. nickel and chromium
c. lead and vanadium
d. molybdenum and tungsten
White metal is an alloy of
a. lead, tin and cadmium b. copper, tin and zinc
c. copper and lead
d. none of these
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
a. karbate
b. lead or glass
c. fire clay bricks
d. PVC
Polymerization reactor used for the production of styrenebutadiene
rubber (SBR) is made of
a. vessel
b. stainless steel or glass lined vessel
c. karbate
d. wrought iron
Which of the following is the most suitable material of
construction for evaporator and its tubes for concentrating NaOH
solution to 70%?
a. cast iron
b. steel
c. nickel
d. karbate
Most common stainless steel type 316, which it highly resistant to
corrosion contains
a. 16 13% chromium, 10 14% nickel and 2 3%
molybdenum
b. 20 22% chromium, and 8 10% nickel
c. 2 4% chromium, 22% nickel and 2 4% molybdenum
d. none of these
Caustic soda can be stored in
a. steel drums
b. cast iron drums
c. brass drums
d. gun metal drums
Brass is an alloy of
a. nickel and tin
b. copper and zinc
c. tin and lead
d. copper, nickel and zinc
The carbonating tower used in Solvay Process of soda ash
manufacture is made of
a. cast iron
b. stainless steel
c. karbate
d. lead lined steel
Gun metal is an alloy of
a. nickel, tin and copper
b. copper, tin and zinc
c. copper, phosphorus and nickel
d. manganese, phosphorus and nickel
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
c. mildly
d. highly
45. In SO3 absorber (Contact Process), packing material used is of
a. cast iron
b. chemical stoneware
c. karbate
d. mild steel
46. Valves in pipe sizes of 2 and under are normally made of
a. wrought iron
b. brass
c. bronze
d. monel
47. Acid proof stoneware
a. has very low strength
b. cannot be heated
c. is broken by small temperature changes
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
48. Duriron is
a. acid resistant, brittle and very hard
b. high silicon iron
c. prone to breakage due to thermal expansion because of very high
co-efficient of thermal expansion.
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
49. Lead pipe is
a. especially resistant to solutions containing H2SO4
b. usually joined by burning (e.g. by melting to adjacent pieces
with a torch)
c. having very low elastic limit resulting in permanent deformation
from either mechanical or thermal strain
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
50. The most resistant material to alkaline corrosion is
a. duriron
b. nickel
c. aluminum
d. karbate
51. Presence of nickel in steel improves its
a. corrosion resistance b. cutting ability
c. wear resistance
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
52. An alloy of iron containing 4% carbon is called
a. high carbon steel
b. wrought iron
c. mild steel
d. none of these
53. Bell metal is an alloy of
a. copper and zinc
b. copper and tin
c. copper and nickel
d. zinc and tin
68. Containers made of high silicon cast iron (14% Si) are not suitable
for the storage of
a. acetic acid
b. benzoic and boric acids
c. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95%)
d. hydrochloric acid (concentrated)
69. Lead lined equipments and vessels are suitable for handling
a. hydrochloric acid (10%)
b. nitric acid
c. sulfuric acid up to 60C
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
70. Mild steel storage vessels are suitable for the storage of
a. anhydrous ammonia
b. fatty acids
c. hydrochloric acid (95%)
d. sulfuric acid (25%)
71. Nickel made clad equipments are suitable for handling
a. ammonia (both aqueous and anhydrous)
b. fruit juices, milk and its products and caustic soda solution
c. nitric acid and hydrochloric acid (concentrated)
d. sulfuric acid (concentrated)
72. Platinum and silver are corroded by
a. caustic soda solution
b. phosphoric acid
c. sulfuric acid (10%)
d. none of these
73. 18-8 stainless steel means that it contains
a. 18% chromium and 8% nickel
b. 18% chromium and 8% molybdenum
c. 18% nickel and 8% chromium
d. 18% molybdenum and 8% chromium
74. Stainless steel is not corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid (10%)
b. nitric acid (10%)
c. sulfuric acid (10%)
d. saturated brine
75. Tin vessels are corroded by
a. anhydrous ammonia
b. aromatic solvents
c. synthetic detergent solution
d. none of these
76. Rubber lined vessels are corroded by the action of
a. aqua regia
b. chloroform
c. sulfuric acid (95%)
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
77. Silicon rubber is not resistant to the corrosive action of
a. sulfuric acid (10%)
b. sulfuric acid (95%)
c. ether
d. both (b) and (c)
78. Perspex is nothing but
a. acrylic sheet
b. an elastomer
c. an alloy of lead and tin
d. aluminum foil clad with
bakelite
79. Teflon is corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid (10%)
b. hydrochloric acid (95%)
c. sulfuric acid
d. none of these
a. caustic soda
b. chlorinated brine
c. hypochlorous acid
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
91. Copper is dissolved from its ore by H2SO4 in percolation tanks made
of
a. wood
c. reinforced concrete lined with lead
b. stainless steel
d. high silicon iron (14%
Si)
92. Rotary dryers are generally made of
a. cast iron
b. mild steel
c. high silicon iron (14% Si)
d. tin lined with refractory
bricks
93. Kel-F is
a. nothing but polycholorotrifluroethylene
b. having excellent chemical and high temperature resistance (up to
200C)
c. an elastomer
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
94. Zircaloy used as a fuel cladding material in a nuclear reactor (thermal)
is an alloy of zirconium
a. tin, nickel, iron and chromium b. and graphite
c. and copper
d. none of these
95. Which of the following would not be a suitable material of
construction for handling aqueous
hydrofluoric acid (HF) at 100C?
a. none
b. stainless steel
c. graphite
d. Kel-F and Teflon
96. Specify the materials of construction suitable for handling
concentrated HNO3 at 100C.
a. high silicon iron, Kel-F and Teflon
b. silicon rubber
c. tin and wood
d. stainless steel
97. Concentrated HCl at 30C can be stored in a vessel made of
a
a. PTFE and porcelain
b. cast iron and aluminum
c. stainless steel and high silicon cast iron
d. copper, nickel and monel
ENGINEERING ECONOMY
1.
2.
3.
The following cost item which in common both the fixed and operating
cost of an enterprise is:
a. interest
b. depreciation
c. taxes
d. supplies
The length of time, usually in years for the cumulative net annual profit
to equal the investment is called:
a. receivable turnover
b. return of investment
c. price earning ratio
d. payback period
The reduction in value and marketability due to competition from
newest products / model
a. depreciated cost
b. fixed cost
c. indirect cost
d. obsolescence
Form of summary of assets, liabilities and net worth
a. production
b. break even point
c. balance method
d. balance sheet
5. The worth of property which is equal to the original cost less
depreciation.
a. earning value
b. scrap value
c. book value
d. face value
6. The type of interest that is periodically added to the amount of loan so
that subsequent interest is based on the cumulative amount.
a. compound interest
b. simple interest
c. interest rate
d. sinking fund
7. Output or sales at which income is insufficient to equal operating cost
a. break even point
b. investment
c. depreciation
d. cash flow
8. The price at which a given product will be supplied and purchased is
the price that will result in the supply and the demand being equal.
a. law of demand and supply b. law of diminishing returns
c. present worth method
d. obsolescence
9. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end of its estimated
life.
a. break even point
b. cash flow
c. interest
d. book value
10. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end if its estimated
life.
a. book value
c. salvage value
c. depreciation
d. cash flow
11. A lessening of the value of an asset due to a decrease in the quantity
available as a coal, oil and timber in forests.
a. depletion
b. depreciation
c. amortization
d. investment
4.
c. written contract
d. equity capital
13. Funds supplied and used by owners of an enterprise in the expectation
that profit will be earned.
a. equity capital
b. investment
c. working capital
d. present
14. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of interest must be paid
and the debt be repaid at a specific place and time
a. discount
b. cash flow
c. working capital
d. borrowed capital
15. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain
price at a given place and time
a. supply
b. demand
c. discount
d. investment
16. The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at
a given place and time.
a. supply
b. demand
c. discount
d. investment
17. A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product that
action of one will lead to almost the same action by the other.
a. monopoly
b. oligopoly
c. semi monopoly
d. perfect competition
18. Is the simplest form of business organization
a. sole proprietorship
b. enterprise
c. partnership
d. corporation
19. An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a
profitable business
a. sole proprietorship
b. enterprise
c. partnership
d. corporation
20. A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business
transaction which a real person could do.
a. sole proprietorship
b. enterprise
c. partnership
d. corporation
21. An increase in the value of capital asset is called
a. profit
b. capital gain
c. capital expenditure
d. capital stock
22. The reduction in the money value of a capital asset is called
a. capital expenditure
b. capital loss
c. loss
d. deficit
23. The difference between sales revenue and the cost of goods sold
a. net income
b. gross profit
c. rate of return
d. gross national
product
24. A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for which the demand
is consistently high in relation to its supply
a. money market
b. hard currency
c. treasury bill
d.
certificate
of
deposit
25. Defined as the certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a
period not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain
assets of a corporation
a. bonds
b. T-bills
c. stock
d. all of these
26. It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit
a. time deposit
b. bond
c. capital gain
d.
certificate
of
deposit
27. The amount of a company's profit that the board of directors of the
corporation decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders
a. dividend
b. return
c. share stock
d. par value
28. a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security
a. bond
b. bank note
c. coupon
d. check
29. The process determining the value of certain properties for definite
reasons
a. valuation
b. appraisal
c. estimate
d. both a and b
30. Represent ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock
a. authorized capital stock
b. preferred stock
c. common stock
d.
incorporators
stock
31. It is the difference between present worth and the worth of the paper at
some time in the future
a. discount
b. amortization
c. depletion
d. investment
32. The value which is usually determined by the disinterested third party
in order to establish a price that is fair to both seller and buyer.
a. fair value
b. market value
c. salvage value
d. book value
33. The price that can be obtained from the sale of property or second hand
a. book value
b. salvage value
c. fair value
d. market value
34. The process of determining the value of certain property for specific
reasons
a. amortization
b. appraisal
c. investment
d. depreciation
35. A bond whereby the security behind it are the equipments of the issuing
corporation
a. debenture bond
b. lien bond
c. collateral bond
d. mortgage bond
36. An annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the
periodic payment continue indefinitely.
a. ordinary annuity
b. deferred annuity
c. annuity due
d. perpetuity
37. It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the
product it is designed to produce at a profit
a. write off period
b. physical life
c. economic life
d. perpetual life
38. It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is
constant each year
a. Matheson formula
b. Straight line method
c. SYD method
d.
Sinking
fund
method
39. It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it and
which can engage in practically any business transaction which a real
person can do.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
a. sole proprietorship
b. partnership
c. corporation
d. all of the above
These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any
change in operation or policy which is made.
a. fixed cost
b. increment cost
c. variable cost
d. differential cost
The length of time at which the original cost of capital used to purchase
a unit have already been recovered.
a. economic life
b. write off period
c. physical life
d. salvage life
The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as:
a. compound interest
b. nominal interest
c. simple interest
d. effective interest
The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product /
services in a given region of the country.
a. franchise
b. branch
c. extension
d. outlet
It occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of
vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the
market
a. free market
b.
perfect
competition
c. open market
d. law of supply and
demand
In making economy studies, a minimum required profit on the invested
capital is included as a cost.
a. rate of return
b.
annual
cost
pattern
c. present worth pattern
d. capital cost
Depreciation method where the value of an asset decreases at a
decreasing rate.
a. SYD method
b. sinking fund
c. straight line method
d. declining balance
Cost of things that are neither labor nor materials
a. construction cost
b. expenses
c. labor cost
d. investment
Kind of obligation which has no condition attached
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
a. analytic
b. gratuitous
c. private
d. pure
Gross, profit, sales less cost of goods sold as a percentage of sale is
called
a. profit margin
b. gross margin
c. ROI (rate of return)
d. price earnings
The series of equal payments at equal intervals of time
a. interest
b. depreciation
c. annuity
d. amortization
A legally binding agreement on promise to exchange goods or services
a. contract
b. barter
c. memorandum
d. pro-forma
An index of short term paying ability is called
a. current ratio
b. receivable turnover
c. acid test ratio
d. profit margin ratio
Used to produce consumer goods
a. producer goods
b. supply
c. consumer goods
d. cash flow
It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time
where the first payment is made several periods after the beginning of
the payment
a. deferred annuity
b. delayed annuity
c. progressive annuity
d. simple annuity
A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there
are no goods substitute
a. monopoly
b. monopsony
c. oligopoly
d. oligopsony
The amount of a property in which a willing buyer will pay to a willing
seller for the property when neither one is under the compulsion to buy
or sell
a. fair value
b. goodwill value
c. book value
d. market value
A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each
period, beginning from the first period
a. ordinary annuity
b. annuity due
c. deferred annuity
d. perpetuity
c. increment
d. fixed cost
67. The difference between the book value and the actual lower resale
value is
a. salvage value
b. resale value
c. sunk cost
d. fixed cost
68. It occurs when a unique product or service is available only from a
single supplier and entry of all other possible suppliers presented.
a. competition
b. monopoly
c. inventory
d. profitability
69. A place where buyer and seller come together
a. market
b. shop
c. department store
d. parlor
70. Ratio of annual net profit and the capital invested
a. proportion
b. rate of return
c. load factor
d. use factor
71. The price of which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a
commodity
a. resale value
b. market value
c. book value
d. scrap value
72. The price of property when sold for a junk
a. scrap value
b. book value
c. resale value
d. market value
73. An interest earning fund in which equal deposits are made at equal
intervals of time
a. annuity
b. sinking fund
c. interest
d. investment
74. A term describing wealth which is placed in a business and could
include cash equipment, raw materials and finished products
a. capital
b. investment
c. collateral
d. assets
75. The first cost of any property includes
a. the original purchase price and freight and transportation charges
b. installation expenses
c. initial taxes and permits' fee
d. all of the above
ENGINEERING PHYSICS
1. Velocity of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is maximum at
(a) mean position
(b) extreme position
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these.
2. The number of waves that can be set up in a medium in one sec. is
called
(a) wavelength
(b) wave amplitude
(c) wave frequency
(d) wave period
3. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit near a planet is
independent of
(a) the mass of the planet
(b) the radius of the planet
(c) the mass of the satellite
(d) all are true.
4. If the length of a simple pendulum is increased by 2%, then the time
period
(a) decreases by 2%
(b) increases by 1%
(c) decreases by 1%
(d) increases by 2%.
5. In the case of damped motion the forces acted upon the particles are
(a) restoring force
(b) frictional force
(c) the external periodic force
(a) both restoring force and frictional force.
6. Hookes laws give us a relation between
(a) stress and strain
(b) Poissons ratio
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
39.
(c) newton
(d) meter/sec.
40. Substances having a net atomic or molecular magnetic dipole
moment zero (because atoms of several electrons with their orbital
and spin magnetic moments adding vectorially to zero) are called
(a) paramagnetic materials
(b) ferrites
(c) ferromagnetic materials
(d) diamagnetic materials.
41. Which of the following element is a dia-magnetic one?
(a) mercury
(b) iron
(c) BaTiO3
(d) nickel.
42. In paramagnetism
(a) the susceptibility varies inversely with temperature
(b) the susceptibility varies directly with temperature
(c) independent of temperature the susceptibility
(a) all the above are not true.
43. A hydrogen atom is paramagnetic and a hydrogen molecule is
(a) diamagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic
(d) none of these.
44. At Curie temperature
(a) ferromagnetism vanishes and the substance attains paramagnetic
behavior
(b) ferromagnetism becomes dominant
(c) ferromagnetic substance becomes diamagnetic
all the above are true
45. The magnetic elements of earths magnetic field are
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
(c) in some cases they coincide and in other cases they do not
coincide
(d) all the above statements are false.
Which one of the following is a polar molecule
(a)H2O
(b)H2
(c) O2
(d) CO2.
Potential difference between two points under the field of an electric
charge is the work done is moving a unit positive charge
(a) from to the mid-point of the line joining the points
(b) from the charge to
(c) from one point to the other
(d) all the above are false.
The dipole moment of the water molecule is
(a) 108 Debye unit
(b) 8.84 Debye unit
(c) Zero Debye unit
(d) 1.84 Debye unit.
The dimensions of potential difference are
(a) MLT2
(b) MLT 2
(c) ML2
(d) ML2T3A1.
Charge given to a conductor is
(a) directly proportional to the voltage
(b) inversely proportional to the voltage
(c) equal to the voltage
(d) none of these
Capacitor is a device used
(a) to conduct charges
(b) to store charges
(c) to reduce the potential difference
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
is
(b) meter/ohm
(c) ohm/meter
(d) all the above are wrong.
The resistance R of a conductor depends on
(a) the density of the metal
(b) color of the metal
(c) molecular weight of the metal
(d) all the above are false.
The low temperature coefficient of a material is the one in which
the
resistance
(a) increases slowly with decrease of temperature
(b) increases slowly with increase of temperature
(c) increases
with
increase
of temperature
(d) increases
with
decrease
of temperature.
Kirchhoffs laws are presented as
(a) I = 1, IR = 0
(b) IR = 0, I = E
(c) I = 0, IR = E
(d) R = 0, I = 0.
The cause for the resistance in the conductor is due to
(a) vibration of electrons
(6) collisions of electrons on atoms
(c) magnitude of the charge of the electron
(d) none of these.
The current flowing through a conductor depends on
(a) quantity of charge carriers
(b) charge and voltage
(c) resistance and voltage
(d) resistance alone.
The material having negative temperature coefficient of resistance
(a) copper
(b) aluminium
(c) silicon
(d) water.
73. A proton is moving perpendicular to a magnetic field
(a) gains momentum in opposite direction of motion
(b) the proton did not gain any momentum
(c) the magnetic field will not affect the motion of proton
(d) the proton bends to an arc of circle.
74. The probability of an electron colliding with an atom is higher if
(a) length and radius of the conductor are small
(b) length is small
(c) radius is large
(d) length of the conductor is higher and radius is smaller.
75. Constantan, nichrome and manganin are used for making standard
resistance
because their
(a) resistivity is low
(b) density is high
(c) resistivity is high
(d) temperature coefficient of resistance is high.
76. A proton is 1849 times heavier than electron. At 300 K, the average
random
velocity of the electron is
(a) 143 times that of the proton
(b) 123 times that of the proton
(c) 1849 times that of the proton
(d) 43 times that of the proton.
77. Though a number of charge carriers in a given volume remains
the same and independent in a metal, the resistivity of a metal
increases as the temperature increases because
(a) the mobility remains constant
87.
88.
89.
90.
(c) 2 mA
(d) 1 mA.
The acceleration of an electron in an electric field of
intensity 100 kV/m
(a) 100 x 102 m/s2
(b) 0.01 x 1015 m/s2
(c)
1.76 x 1016 m/s2
(d)
11.21 x1015 m/s2.
Current is flowing through a conductor of resistance 10 Q.
Indicate in which of the following cases maximum heat will
be generated
(a) 4.9 amp current for 3 minutes
(b) 3.9 amp current for 3 minutes
(c) 1.0 amp current for 4 minutes
(d) 1 amp current for 5 minutes.
The resistance of the shunt to be used to divert 60% of the
total current is 200 Q. The resistance of the galvanometer is
approximately
(a)733 a
(b)33 Q
(c)3.3 a
(d)133 a.
A superconductor at superconducting state
(a) requires larger power to carry even small current
(b) has no thermal losses but has high resistivity
(c) has no resistivity and no thermal losses associated with
the passage of large current
(d) all the above are true.
91. Masses of three wires of the same material are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3
and the
lengths in the ratio 3:2:1. Electrical resistance of these wires will be
in the
ratio
(a) 27 : 6 : 1
(b) 1 : 27 : 6
(c) 1 : 2 : 3
(d) 27 : 54 : 2.
92. If a metallic rod has no p.d. applied across it, then the mean
velocity of free electron is
(a) proportional to absolute temperature
(b) inversely proportional to T
(c) directly proportional to jf
(d) directly proportional to T2.
93. A copper wire is subjected to a p.d. of V volt. If the p.d. is doubled
(a) the drift velocity is doubled
(b) the drift velocity remains the same
(c) the drift velocity is reduced to one fifth of the initial value
(d) the drift velocity is increased to 5 times the initial value.
94. A steady current is passing through a linear conductor of nonuniform cross-section. The current density in the conductor is
(a) independent of the area of cross-section
(6) inversely proportional to the area of cross-section
(c) inversely proportional to the square of the area of crosssection
(d) all the above are false.
95.
Two unequal resistances are connected in series across a battery.
Which of the following statements is true?
(a) potential difference across each resistance is same
(6) potential difference across smaller resistance is lower
(c) potential difference across smaller resistance is higher
(d) potential difference can be higher or lower in any resistance.
96. The potential difference between the terminals of a cell is
(a) greater than its e.m.f. if the cell is being discharged
(b) greater than its e.m.f. if the cell is being charged
(c) less than its e.m.f. if the cell is being discharged
(d) less than its e.m.f. if the cell is being charged
(e) is equal to its e.m.f. if the cell is in open circuit.
a.
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
B
A
ml of EDTA solution
a.
b.
c.
16. Increasing the quantity of stationary liquid phase applied to the column
packing will, with everything else the same,
a. increase tR for a solute
b. decrease tR for a solute
c. not influence tR for a solute
d. decrease the nonequilibrium term in the van Deemer equation
17. A neutral molecule such as ethanol or sugar which has found its way
into the pores of a typical anion-exchange resin can be eliminated
a. only by replacement with a cation
b. only by replacement with an anion
c. only if replaced by another organic molecule on a one-for-one
exchange basis
d. by flushing out the water
18. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution coefficient,
K, is zero may be used to estimate
a. the volume within the column available to the moving phase
b. the volume within the column occupied by the packing
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material
d. the total volume of the column
19. Which of the following statements is false in normal phase absorption?
a. The more polar a compound, the more strongly it will be adsorbed
from a solution
b. A high molecular weight favors adsorption, other factors being
equal
c. The more polar the solvent, the stronger the adsorption of the
solute
d. The adsorption isotherm is usually nonlinear
20. The best measure of the quantity of a solute in LC is
a. the height of the elution band
b. the area of the elution band
c. the baseline width of the elution band
d. the retention volume
21. Which of the following would be the fastest way to decide which
adsorbent and what solvent system to use for a larger-scale
chromatographic separation of an organic reaction product from
materials formed in side reactions?
a. Paper chromatography
b.
c.
d.
Affinity chromatography
TLC
Adsorption chromatography with gradient elution
22. To deionize tap water by ion exchange for laboratory use, the best
approach employs
a. a column containing a strong-acid cation exchange in the hydrogen
form
b. a column containing a strong-base anion exchanger in the hydroxyl
form
c. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger in
the sodium form and a strong-base anion exchanger in the chloride
form
d. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger
in the hydrogen form and a strong-base anion exchanger in the
hydroxyl form
23. Line spectra are emitted by
a. incandescent solids
b. excited molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
24. Band spectra are emitted by
a. tungsten lamps and Nernst glowers
b. excited molecules in the vapor phase
c. excited atoms and monatomic ions
d. incandescent solids
25. A chemical engineer is conducting research on the development of
analytical methods based upon chemiluminescence. If a conventional
spectrofluorometer is used for the measurements, an the instrument has
separate switches for its various circuits, which switch will be left in
the "off" position?
a. detector power supply
b.
c.
d.
amplifier
source power supply
power to the motor drive of the scanning monochromator on the
emission side of the instrument
26. In flame spectroscopy, the highest temperature fuel oxidant
combination available as yet is
a. hydrogen-oxygen
b. hydrogen-nitrous oxide
c. acetylene-oxygen
d. acetylene-nitrous oxide
27. If the change in a molecule caused by absorption of light energy
involves change in the average separation of the nuclei of two or more
atoms, then the change is
a. electronic
b. vibrational
c. translational
d. rotational
28. The nephelometric method of analysis is based upon
a. Beer's law
b. Fajar's law
c. Bouger law's
d. Beer Lambert's Law
c.
37. If we compare flame spectrophotometry and emission spectroscopy,
which of the following statements will be true?
a. Flame photometry is more senstive than emission spectroscopy
b. Flame photometry can analyze more metals than emission
spectroscopy
c. Flame photometry is less sensitive to the matrix than emission
spectroscopy
d. Flame photometry is simpler to use than emission spectroscopy
38. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS) differs from visible
absorption spectrophotometry because AAS
a. has no light source
b. does not need a monochromator
c. does not follow Beer's Law
d. destroys the sample when a reading is made
39. Gas chromatography does not use this detector
a. thermal conductivity detector
b. refractive index detector
c. flame ionization detector
d. electron capture detector
40. In gas chromatography, the retention time is not dependent on
a. carrier gas velocity
b. column temperature
c. volume of compound analyzed
d. volatility of compound analyzed
3.
4.
5.
6.
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
7.
1.
2.
d.
8.
a.
b.
PV = constant
P = constant
V
c. V = constant
P
d. V = constant
T
e. n = constant
P
9. Of the following, ______________ is a valid statement of Charles law.
a. P = constant
T
b. V = constant
T
c. PV = constant
d. V = constant x n
e. V = constant x P
10. Which one of the following is a valid statement of Avogadros law?
a. P = constant
T
b. V = constant
T
c. PV = constant
d. V = constant x n
e. V = constant x P
11. The volume of an ideal gas is zero at _________.
a. 0C
b. -45F
c. -273K
-363K
e. -273C
12. Of the following, only _________ is impossible for an ideal gas.
a. V1 = V2
T1 T2
b. V1T1 = V2T2
c. V1 = T1
V2 T2
d.
13.
14.
15.
16.
d.
17.
V2 = T2 ( V1)
T1
e. V1 = T1 = 0
V2 T2
The molar volume of a gas at STP is _____L.
a. 0.08206
b. 62.36
c. 1.00
d.
22.4
e. 14.7
A gas is considered ideal if ___________.
a. it is not compressible
b. one mole of it occupies exactly 1 liter at standard temperature and
pressure
c. it can be shown to occupy zero volume at 0C
d. its behavior is described by the ideal-gas equation
e. one mole of it in a one-liter container exerts a pressure exactly 1
atm at room temperature
For which of the following changes is not clear whether the volume of
a particular sample of an ideal gas will increase or decrease?
a. increase the temperature and increase the pressure
b. increase the temperature and decrease the pressure
c. increase the temperature and keep the pressure constant
d. keep temperature constant and decrease the pressure
e. decrease the temperature and increase the pressure
Standard temperature and pressure (STP), in the context of gases, refers
to ____________________.
a. 298 K and 1 atm
b. 273 K and 1 atm
c. 298 K and 1 torr
d. 273 K and 1 pascal
e. 273 K and 1 torr
Of the following, ______________ correctly relates pressure, volume,
temperature, amount (mol), molecular mass (M), density (d) and mass
(g).
a. M = dRT
PV
b. M = gRT
PV
c. M = PT
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
GRV
d. M = gV
RT
e. M = RT
Gv
Of the following, _____________ correctly relates pressure, volume,
temperature, amount (mol), molecular mass (M), density (d) and mass
(g).
a. d = PM
RT
b. d = gRT
PM
c. d = PTM
gRV
d. d = gV
RT
e. d = RT
PM
Of the following gases, ____________ will have the greatest rate of
effusion at a given temperature.
a. NH3
b. CH4
c. Ar
d. HBr
e. HCl
An ideal gas differs from a real gas in that the molecules of an ideal gas
_________________.
a. have no attraction for one another
b. have appreciable molecular volume
c. have a molecular weight of zero
d. have no kinetic energy
e. has an average molecular mass
The statement, For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, gas
volume is inversely proportional to gas pressure. Is known as:
a. Avogadros law
b. Boyles law c. Charles law d. Grahams
law e. Kelvins law
If gas volume is doubled but the temperature remains constant:
a. the pressure stays the same
b. the molecules move faster
c. the kinetic energy increases
25. Which of the following assumptions is not used to explain the ideal gas
law?
a. gas particles themselves occupy a negligible percent of total gas
volume
b. inter-particle forces are negligible in gases
c. collisions between gas particles are perfectly elastic
d. collisions between gas particles and container walls are perfectly
elastic
e. individual gas particles are perfectly compressible to nuclear
size
26. If someone were to light a cigar at one end of a closed room, persons at
the other end of the room might soon perceive an odor due to gaseous
emissions from the cigar. Such a phenomenon is an example of:
a. monometry
b. ideality
c. effusion
d. diffusion
e. barometry
27. The fact that a balloon filled with helium will leak more slowly than
one filled with hydrogen is explained by citing:
a. Avogadros hypothesis
b. Daltons law c. Grahams law d.
van der Waals Theory e. ideal gas law
35.
36.
37.
38.
39. A container holds a small amount of liquid and its vapor in equilibrium
If the volume of the container is decreased, which of the following has
occurred once equilibrium is reestablished?
a. the temperature is lower
b. the temperature is higher
c. the pressure is higher
d. the pressure is lower
e. none of these
40. When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure, the
temperature of the liquid equals:
a. 100C
b. boiling point c. the normal boiling point
d. the vaporization point e. none of these
41. When a liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor in a closed container:
a. The rate at which molecules from the liquid phase enter the gas
phase exactly equals the rate at which molecules from the gas
phase pass into the liquid phase
b. A change in temperature will not change the pressure in the
container
c. The amount of gas in the container must exactly equal the amount
of liquid
d. Molecules cannot go from the liquid phase to the gas phase
because the amount of liquid in the container is constant
e. The vapor will gradually change back to the liquid state, that is, no
vapor will be left
42. Under which of the following conditions will vaporization best occur?
a. high mass, large surface area, high kinetic energy
b. weak forces between molecules, high kinetic energy, large
surface area
c. high molecular energy, small surface area
d. low kinetic energy, strong molecular forces, large surface area
e. small surface area, low kinetic energy, low molecular mass
43. Which of the following does NOT decrease rate of vaporization?
a. closing container lid
b. increasing forces between
molecules c. increasing mass of molecule
d. decreasing temperature
e. decreasing surface area
44. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the normal boiling
point of a liquid?
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
a. atmospheric pressure
b. strength of forces between molecules
c. rate of evaporation
d. rate of condensation
e. none of these answers
A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor. If some of the vapor is allowed
to escape, what is the immediate result?
a. condensation rate decreases
b. vaporization rate increases
c. condensation rate increases
d. vaporization rate decreases e. none of these
The phenomenon of supercooling refers to the existence of a
metastable:
a. the liquid at a temperature below that of its critical point
b. liquid at a temperature below that of its sublimation point
c. liquid at a temperature below that of its freezing point
d. gas at a temperature below that of its critical point
e. two-phase liquid/solid mixture at the freezing point
All of the following are true about crystals EXCEPT
a. A crystal softens and melts over a wide range of temperature
b. A crystal tends to shatter along defined planes
c. Crystals generally have a specific shape for a specific substance
d. Crystal usually have a high degree of symmetry
All of the following are logical consequences of the observed
macroscopic properties of crystals EXCEPT
a. The atoms or molecules of a crystal are arranged in a regularly
repeating pattern
b. The forces holding the atoms in a metal crystal are the same for
essentially every atom except at the surface
c. The distances between adjacent atoms or molecules vary
greatly
d. Some defects are present in the crystals
Which of the following has the largest number of lattice points per unit
cell?
a. The primitive (simple) cubic lattice
b. The face centered cubic lattice
c. The body centered cubic lattice
d. All these lattices have the same number of lattice points per unit cell
All of the following are true about lattice points in a crystal structure
EXCEPT
c.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
c.
61. Which of the following is always the same for allotropes of the same
element?
a. The atomic mass b. the molar mass
c. the structure d.
the chemical and physical properties
62. The semiconductor crystalline Si has a low electrical conductivity in
the dark because
a. crystalline Si is a molecular solid
b. the band gap energy is much greater than 3RT at 23C
c. the chemical bonding in the crystal is strong in all three
dimensions
d. Si has fewer valence electrons that elements that form metallic
solids
63. A laser pointer of a doped semiconductor junction (i.e., a region of A1
doped semiconductor bonded to a region of P doped semiconductor)
with a flowing current due to an applied voltage from a battery. Which
of the following statements is TRUE?
a. The color of the light is determined by the semiconductor band gap
b. The device works better warm rather than cold because the number
of thermally generated electrons is higher
c. Light is emitted at the interface when a hole from the A1 region
combines with an electron from the P region
d. Both (a) and (c)
64. In order to dope crystalline Si with extra electrons, which element
should be incorporated into the lattice?
a. P
b. A1
c. C
d. O
65. All of the following statements about NaCl crystalline lattice are true,
EXCEPT
a. Every Cl is surrounded by 4 Na at equal bond lengths, and vice
versa
b. The structure along the x,y and z axes of the unit cell is all the
same
If the length of one side of the unit cell and the atomic weights of
Na and Cl are known, then the density can be calculated
d. The unit cell is cubic even though the Na and Cl ions have
different ionin radii
66. All of the following statements about the different forms of solid C are
true, EXCEPT
a. Diamond is transparent and shows no color because its band
gap is quite large
b. Graphite slides easily because the C atoms are strongly bonded in
only two dimensions
c. In diamond the structure around each C atom is due to C sp3
hybridization
d. Diamond is hard yet brittle because the band gap is large
67. Solids with long-range microscopic order in their structures are called
a. amorphousb. crystalline
c. glasses
d. metals
e. none of these
68. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction
pattern contains many sharply defined spots. The specimen is
a. gaseous
b. crystalline
c. amorphous
d. plastic
e. liquid
69. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction
pattern contains three diffuse rings close to primary x-ray beam. The
specimen is
a. gaseous
b. crystalline
c. amorphous
d. polycrystalline e. colloidal
70. The colors in the gemstone opal result from
a. the diffraction of visible light by colloidal crystals in the stone
b. absorption by transition metal complexes
c. contamination by large organic molecules which absorb light in the
visible region
d. radioactivity
e. none of these
71. Which of the following symmetry elements can be found in an
equilateral triangle?
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
a. a 2-fold rotation
b. a 3-fold rotation
c. as mirror line or
plane
d. all of these
e. none of these
About half of all the crystals studied so far belong to the ______
crystal system
a. hexagonal
b. orthorhombic
c. cubic
d. triclinic
e. monoclinic
The crystal system with the minimum symmetry requirement of one 4fold rotation is
a. orthorhombic
b. cubic
c. tetragonal
d. triclinic
e. trigonal
Crystalline substances are ________. Amorphous substances are
________.
a. isotropic, isotropic b. anisotropic, anisotropic
c. isotropic, anisotropic d. anisotropic, isotropic
The three-dimensional array made up of all points within a crystal that
have the same environment in the same orientation is called the
a. unit cell
b. primitive cell c. crystal system
d. crystal lattice
e. symmetry pattern
The basic repeating structural unit of a crystal lattice is the
a. unit cell
b. atom
c. molecule
d. atomic cluster e. symmetry pattern
The number of lattice points in a primitive unit cell is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
e. this depends on the crystal system
a. 1
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
78. The conditions --- a b c, alpha= beta =gamma = 90 --- describe the
_________ unit cell.
a. tetragonal
b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic
d. hexagonal
e. trigonal
79. The conditions --- a b c, alpha = gamma = 90, 90--- describe
the _______ unit cell
a. tetragonal
b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic
d. hexagonal
e. trigonal
80. The number of lattice points in the unit cell for the body-centered cubic
lattice is
87.
88.
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 8
For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contributes _____
lattice points to the unit cell
a. 1/8
b.
c.
d. 1
e. none of these
In a face-centered cubic lattice, each lattice, each lattice point located in
a face of the unit cell is shared equally with ___ other unit cell
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
e. none of these
A metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. Which of the
following correctly relates the atomic radius r of the metal to the length
of an edge a of the unit cell?
a. r = a
b. r = a2
c. r = a3
2
4
4
d. This cannot be determined without additional information
e. none of these
The forces holding the molecules together in the lattice of a molecular
solid are
a. van der Waals forces
b. ionic bonds
c. covalent bonds
d. all of these
e. none of these
Molecular crystals typically
a. are soft
b. have low melting points
c. are
insulators
d. all of these
e. none of these
Most ionic solids crystallize in the ______ system
a. hexagonal
b. orthorhombic
c. cubic
d. tetragonal
e. monoclinic
The rock salt structure can be viewed as a _______ lattice of anions,
with cations occupying positions exactly between pairs of anions
a. face-centered cubic
b. monoclinic
c. trigonal
d. body-centered cubic
e. primitive cubic
In the rock salt structure, each ion is surrounded by ________
equidistant ions of opposite charge
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
e. none of these
89. Which of the following cannot possibly crystallize in the rock salt
structure?
a. VN
b. Na2S
c. ZrSe
d. NH4I
e. MgO
90. How many chloride ions are contained in a unit cell of CsCl?
a. 1/8
b.
c.
d. 1
e. 2
91. The coordination number of each cesium atom in CsCl is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
e. 12
92. A certain solid is a good insulator, is brittle, and has a high melting
point. The substance readily conducts electricity when molten. This
substance is most likely _____ in nature.
a. molecular
b. covalent
c. ionic
d. metallic
e. it could be more than one of these
93. In a metallic solid, _______ are located at the lattice points.
a. neutral metal atoms b. molecules
c. positively charged core
ionsd. electrons
e. atomic clusters
94. The metal with the highest melting point is
a. Pt
b. Rh
c. Nb
d. Ga
e.
W
95. A structure that forms naturally when identical rigid spheres are placed
as close together as possible is called a ____ arrangement.
a. primitive
b. close-packed c. face-centered d. dense
e. nematic
96. A crystal structure which yields close packing for uniform rigid spheres
is
a. primitive cubic
b. tetragonal
c. body-centered cubic
d.
all of these e. none of these
97. In the hexagonal close-packed structure, each atom has a coordination
number of
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
e. 12
98. In diamond, each carbon is covalently bonded to ________ other
carbon atoms
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
e. 8
a. its amplitude
b. its frequency
c. its wave length
d. none of the above
122.What term is used to define the phenomenon of emission of light in a
chemical reaction?
a. Chemical luminescence
b. Photosensitization
c. Both chemical luminescence and photosensitization
d. None of the above
123.Raman spectra may be obtained in
a. IR and Visible region
b. Visible region only
c. IR and micro wave region
d. UV and visible region
124.ESR spectra mainly helps in study of
a. compounds having hydrogen
b. compounds having carbons
c. free radicals
d. ionic compounds
125.Which one of the following rate laws has an overall order of 0.5 for the
reactions involving substances X, Y, Z.?
a.
Rate = k(Cx) (Cy) (Cz)
b.
Rate = k (Cx)0.5 (Cy) 0.5 (Cz)0.5
c.
Rate = k (Cx)1.5 (Cy) 1 (Cz)0
d.
Rate = k (Cx) (Cz)0/(Cy)2
126.Chemical reaction rates in solution do not depend to any great extent
upon
a. pressure
b. temperature
c. concentration
d. catalyst
127.Which of the following might be used as an electrode?
a. A stick
b. A nail
c. A glass rod
d. A soda straw
128.The e.m.f. value for oxidation from H2 at 1.0 atm to H+ at 1.0 x 10-1 M
is
a. 0.00V
b. 0.059V
c. 0.059V
d. 0.030V
129.A good reducing agent
a. will always react rapidly
b.
c.
d.
a. a galvanic cell
b. an electrolytic cell
c. a Daniel cell
d. a dry cell
138.A current of 9.65 ampere is drawn from a Daniel cell for exactly 1 hour.
The loss of mass of anode is
a. 0.180g
b. 23.6g
c. 0.197g
d. 11.8g
139.The following reaction does not occur spontaneously (all ions at 1m
concentration; all gases at 1 atmosphere pressure)
a.
2Cr(s) + 3Cl2(g) 2 Cr+3 + 6 Clb.
NO3- + 2 H+ + Ag(s) Ag+ + H2O + NO2(g)
c.
NO3- + 4 H+ + 3 Ag(s) 3 Ag+ + NO(g) +2H2O
d.
Cl2(g) + 2 Br- 2 Cl- + Br2
140.If 0.200 liter of 0.100 M NaCl are electrolyzed until the OH concentration is 0.0500M, how many moles of Cl2 gas are produced?
a. 5.00 x 10-3mole
b. 1.00 x 10-2mole
-2
c. 5.00 x 10 mole
c. 1.00 x 10-1mole
141.As the lead storage battery is charged,
a. the amount of sulfuric acid decreases
b. the lead electrode becomes coated with lead sulfate
c. sulfuric acid is regenerated
d. lead dioxide dissolves
142.If an aqueous solution of KI is electrolyzed (with platinum electrodes)
one would expect to find
a. potassium deposited at the cathode
b. oxygen liberated at the anode
c. the solution around the cathode becoming alkaline
d. the solution around the anode becoming brown
143.When an aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolyzed, a product formed at
the cathode is
a. Na
b. H+
c. OH
d. Cl2
144.If aqueous Cu SO4 is electrolyzed for one minute with a current of 2.00
ampere, the volume of ozygen produced at STP at the anode is
a. 3.10 x 10-4 liter
b. 6.96ml
c. 1.16 x 10-4 liter
d. 1.16 ml
d. Electrophotometer
d. Cd (NO3)2
a.
The positive ions will start moving towards the anode and negative
ions will stop moving
b. The negative ions will continue to move towards the anode and the
positive ions will stop moving
c. Both negative and positive ions move towards the anode
d. None of these movements will take place
152.What is the standard cell potential for the cell Zn; Zn +2 (IM) ll Cu+2
(IM); Cu (E for Zn+2 l Zn = -.76; E for Cu+2 l Cu = +0.34)
a. -0.076 + 0.34 = -0.42 V
b. 0.34 (-0.76) = +1.10V
c. 0.34 (-0.76) = +0.42V
d. 0.76 (+0.34) = -1.10V
153.One Faraday of current was passed through the electrolytic cells placed
in series containing solutions of Ag +, Ni+2 and Cr+3 respectively. The
amount of Ag (At.Wt. 108), Ni (At. Wt. 59) and Cr (At. Wt. 52)
deposited will be:
Silver
Nickel
Chromium
a.
108g
29.5g
108g
59g
108g
108g
108g
117.5g
17.5g
b.
52.0g
c.
108g
d.
166g
154.Given standard electrode potentials
E
Fe++ + 2e Fe
Fe+++ + 3e Fe
-0.440V
-0.036V
0.78V
when both the half cells (a) and (b) are connected with SHE, the
metallic electrode Co is found to be ve and Hg electrode is found to be
+ve. The correct sign for the electrode potentials will be:
a. +ve for half cell (I)
b. +ve for half cell (ii)
c. ve for half cell (ii)
156.When an iron wire is immersed in an acidic solution of CuSo4, the blue
color of the solution is lost after some time. This is due to
a.
reduction of Cu++
b.
oxidation of CuSO4
c.
formation of double complex between iron and copper sulfate
d.
formation of a colorless salt of Cu++
157.Magnesium cannot displace from solution the ions of
a. sodium
b. lead
c. copper
d. gold
b. C = F-P+2
c. C = F-P+1
d. P = C+F+2
a. phases
b. components
c. degrees of freedom
c. transition temperature
d. all of the above
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
ALGEBRA
1.
The sum of two numbers is 11. The sum of their reciprocals is 11/30.
Find the smaller number.
a. 6
b. 5
c. 2
d. 3
2.
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
162. How many phases will be there in the system made of water and
methyl alcohol?
a. 3
b. 1
c. 1
d. 0
CaCO3
Solid
CaO + CO2
solid
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
c. 2
d. 3
peritectic temperature
meritectic temperature
4.
The sum of two numbers is 4 and their product is 2. Find the sum of
their reciprocals.
a.
b.
c. 2
d. 4
5.
A number has two digits whose sum is 10. The difference between the
original number and the number resulting from an
interchange of its digit is 54. What is the original number?
a. 45
b. 54
c. 28
d. 82
6.
A number is less than 100, and its tens digit is four more than its units
digit. If the number with the digits reversed is
subtracted from the original number, the remainder is three times the
sum of the digits. Find the original number.
a. 84
b. 48
c. 26
d. 62
gas
a. 0
a. 0
7.
A fathers age is now five times that of his first-born son. Six years
from now, the old mans age will be only three times that
of his son. Find the sons present age.
a. 12
b. 30
c. 6
d. 36
8.
9.
If the altitude and the base of a triangle were each increased by 2 cm,
the area would increase by 19 cm2. If the altitude is
increased by 3 cm and the base is decreased by 4 cm, the area will be
decreased by 5 cm2. Find the base of the triangle.
a. 7
b. 10
c. 9
d. 8
14. A pipe can alone fill a tank in 5 hrs, while a drain could do the contrary
in 12 hrs. How long would it take the pipe to fill the
tank if the drain was simultaneously opened during the duration of the
filling job and if the tank were entirely emptied at the
start?
a. 7.6 hrs
b. 8.6 hrs
c. 4.42 hrs
d. 4.06 hrs
15. A pipe can fill a tank in 7 hrs while a drain pipe can empty the tank in a
matter of 11 hrs. If for the first 4 hrs, the drain was
left open while the pipe was filling it, how much longer would it have
taken the input pipe to fill the tank full if the tank was
emptied at the start?
a. 5.5 hrs
b. 7.6 hrs
c. 15.2 hrs
d. 6.12 hrs
16. An ocean going vessel traveling at 20 kph between two ports of call of
a short distance of 45 km, takes an hour and 12
minutes less time when going with the low tide current than against it.
What was the rate of the current?
a. 0.44 kph
b. 225 kph
c. 20.5 kph
d. 5 kph
17. A job can be done in as many days as there are men in the
group. If the number of men is reduced by 4, the work is
delayed by 5 days. How many were there in the original group?
a. 18
b. 16
c. 20
d.
24
18. A project can be done by 8 girls in 5 days. 5 boys can do the
same project in 6 days. How long will it take for 3 boys and 6
girls to do the job?
a. 4 days
b. 5 days
c. 6
days
d. 8 days
19. The sum of two numbers is 14. The sum of the squares of the
numbers is 100. Find the product of the two numbers.
a. 42
b. 48
c. 54
d. 56
20. The amount of 135 is to be divided among three brothers in the
ratio 3: 5: 7. What is the biggest amount received by a
brother?
a. 54
b. 63
c. 72
d. 75
21. A high concentrated solution having a volume of 100 liters is 25%
gasoline. How much gasoline should be added to the
solution to produce a 50-50% mixture?
a. 50 L
b. 75 L
c. 40 L
d.
60 L
22. The gasoline tank of a car contains 50 liters gasoline and alcohol,
the alcohol comprising 25%. How much of the mixture
should be drawn off and replaced by alcohol so that the tank
contains a mixture of 50-50% solution?
a. 14.5 L
b. 15 L
c. 16 L
d.
16.67 L
23. The number 142 is divided into two parts such that when the
greater part is divided by the smaller part, the quotient is 3 and
remainder is 14. What is the greater part?
a. 110
b. 112
c. 114
d.
116
24. Two jet planes traveling toward each other took off at the same
time from two airports located 4800 km apart. If they passed
each other after 2 hours, determine the speed (kph) of the faster
plane if one plane is flying at 160 kph faster than the other.
a. 1280
b. 1300
c. 1320
d. 1350
25. A man driving his car at a certain speed will reach his destination
6 hours. If he increased his speed by 24kph, he would
have reached his destination in 5 hours. Find the distance of his
destination.
a. 750 km
b. 720 km
c. 650 km
d.
600 km
26. Find the value of x if : (a + b) x = (a2 + 2ab + b2 ) x-3
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
27. Find the value of x2 + 1/x2 if :
a. 45
b. 47
d. 51
x + 1/x = 7
c. 49
c. 7a
d.
d. 7a
c. undefined
d. infinity
b. 24 = 4( 6 )
d. 55+ 55 + 55 + 55 + 55 = 56
32. Find k so that 4x2 + kx +1 = 0, will only have one real solution.
a. 1
b. 4
c. 3
22113
d. 2
22113
c.
d. 2
66339
256a11
b.
128a 11
d.
66339
128a 11
256a 11
42. What is the sum of the coefficients of the expansion of (2x 1)20?
a. 1
b. 0
c. 215
d. 225
1
43. Find the middle term in the expansion of 2 x
4
y
5 x6
a. 3
2 y
5 x6
c.
4 y3
b. 5
d.
a. 1 + I
x ... 3
c. 3
c. 216
d. 3
d. 729
x6
y3
5 x6
8 y 3
b. I
c. 1 I
46. Evaluate :
. imaginary
b.
70
5.
33. If the sum of the first 50 positive odd integers is subtracted from the
sum of the first 50 positive even integers, then the
difference is
a. 100
b. 50
c. 150
d. 250
34. Find the 347th digit in the decimal expansion of 825/999.
a. 6
b. 5
c. 8
10
d. 5.7
d. 0
c.
10
d.
70
47. A series of numbers which are perfect square numbers (i.e. 1, 4, 9, 16,
25) is called
a. Fourier series
c. Eulers number
b. Fermats number
d. Fibonacci number
TRIGONOMETRY
48. If the roots of an equation are zero, then they are classified as
a. trivial solutions
b. extraneous solutions
c. conditional solutions
d. hypergolic solutions
1.
a. 60010 b. 595970
c. 60100
d. 5910
c. 35.705
d. 30.705
a. Infinity
b. 0
c. Indeterminate
d. 1
2.
a. 15.705
a. 0
b. 1
c. data insufficient
d.
3.
a. 10
b. 14
c. 5
d. 7
4.
a. 1
b. 2
1 -2 3
-1 2 2
0
a. 0
b. 2
c. -3
d.
5.
c. -1
d. 5
6.
7.
x + y 2z = 1
a. - 2
b. 4
c. 1
d. 0
8.
b. 0.92
c. 0.40
d. 0.61
b. 118
c. 152
d. 35
b. /4
c. 3/2
d. /2
a. 1/3
xyz=4
d. 1.33
a.
c. 1.25
a. 28
b. 1.20
a. 0.08
b. 20.705
a. 1.50
b. 1/9
c. 8/9
d. 4/9
c. 90
d. 30
a. 45
b. 60
9.
a. 5/8
b.
5 3 sin A
3 5 cos B
c. 1
19. What is the value of (log 5 to the base 2) + (log 5 to the base 3)?
d. 5/3
a. sin
b. cos
b. sin2A
c. tan
d. 1
c. cos4A
d. sin4A
a. 1
13. Simplify:
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
2 tan 2
1 tan2 2
a. cos
b. sec
c. sin
d. tan
14. Given: sin A = 3/5; cos A < 0 and cos B = -12/13; tan B < 0, determine cos
(A-B)
a. 123/845
b. 123/845
c. 33/65
d. 63/65
a. cos
b. sec
c. tan
d. sin
a. cos 35
b. sin 35
c. cos 55
d. cos -55
c. 30
d. 40
a. 10
b. 20
a. sin B
b. cos B
b. 3.79
c. 3.97
d. 9.37
c. 17/9
d. 8/17
a. cos2A
a. 7.39
c. sin A
d. cos A
a. 8/9
b. 8/21
21. A pole cast a shadow 15-m long when the angle of elevation of
the sun is 61o. If the pole has lean 15o from the vertical
directly toward the sun, what is the length of the pole?
a. 54.23
b. 48.64
c. 36.84
d.
64.84
22. The area of the isosceles triangle is 36-sq. m with the included
angle of 30o between the two equal sides. Find the perimeter
of the triangle.
a. 30.21
b. 32.12
c. 28.43
d. 29.65
23. If an equilateral triangle is circumscribed about a circle of radius
10-cm, determine the side of the triangle.
a. 34.64
b. 64.12
c. 36.44
d. 32.1
24. Find the length of the side of a regular octagon that is inscribed
in a circle of radius 243 inches.
a.143
b.154
c.165
d.
186
25. Find the area of a parallelogram whose sides are 67 cm and 43
cm, the acute angle between them being 65.
a. 1305
b. 1611
c. 1805
d.
2611
26. Express in radian the angle between the hands of a clock at 3:25
PM.
a. 0.73
b. 0.83
c. 0.93
d.
1.0
27. The three dimensions of a rectangular parallelepiped are in the
ratio 2:3:5. If the volume is 810 cu cm, what is the length of
the longest side?
a. 6
b. 9
c. 15
d.
18
28. Three spheres of radii 1, 2 and 3 inches, respectively, are
melted and formed into a new sphere. Find the radius of this new
sphere.
a. 3.3
b. 4.3
c. 5
d. 6
29. The two bases of a trapezoid are 12 inches and 18 inches
respectively. If the angles at the extremities of one base are 65
and 40 respectively, find the longer leg.
a. 5.63
b. 6.23
c. 7.21
d.
7.81
30. Find the radius of circle circumscribed about the triangle for
which A = 50, B = 20, and a = 35 inches.
a. 22.84
b. 25.64
c. 31.25
d. 36.55
31. At one side of a road is a pole 25 ft. high fixed on the top of a wall, 15
ft high. On the other side of the road, at a point on the
ground directly opposite, the flagstaff and the wall subtend equal
angles. Find the width of the road.
a. 25 ft
b. 40 ft
c. 60 ft
d. 30 ft
32. The angle of elevation of the top of the tower B from the top of tower A
is 28 and the angle of elevation of the top of tower A
from the base of the tower B is 46. The two towers lie in the same
horizontal plane. If the height of tower B is 120 m, find
the height of tower A.
a. 87 m
b. 91 m
c. 79 m
d. 66 m
b. 320 mils
c. 330 mils
d. 400 mils
a. 220 mils
34.
a. 372.5
b. 363.6
c. 368.4
d. 53.7
35. Given a triangle whose sides are 24 cm, 30 cm, and 36 cm. Find the
radius of a circle which is tangent to the shortest and
longest side of a triangle, and whose center lies on the third side.
a. 9 cm
b. 12 cm
c. 11 cm
d. 18 cm
a. 6 cm
b. 3 cm
c. 2 cm
d. 4 cm
a. 140
b. 144
c. 135
6.
The slope of the line joining ( 2,-3) and the midpoint of the line
segment joining (0,4) and (5,-2) is
d. 150
a. 8
38. A polygon has 350 diagonals. How many sides are there?
a. 28
b. 25
c. 32
d. 30
39. One angle is 20 less than thrice its supplement. What are the angles?
a. 20, 160
b. 45, 135
c. 55, 125
d. 50, 130
40. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 30 cm. The perimeter is 72 cm.
Find the length of its shortest side.
a. 16
b. 24
c. 18
d. 27
ANALYTIC GEOMETRY
1. Find the area of the triangle with vertices (2,-1), (-3, 4) and (0,-3).
a. 10
2.
b. 20%
c. 18%
d. 40%
b. 30%
c. 31.5%
d. 31.45%
a. (6,-5)
5.
d. 9
a. 20%
4.
c. 10.5
A copying machine reduces the side of a triangle by 20%. The area of the
triangle is reduced by
a. 36%
3.
b. 9.5
b. (5,-6)
c. (6,-6)
d. (-6,6)
If the distance between the points (8,7) and (3,y) is 13, what is the
value of y?
a. 5
b. 19
c. 19 or 5
d. 5 or 19
7.
b. 8
c. 3
d. 3
Find the distance from the point (2,3) to the line 3x+4y+9=0
a. 5
b. 5.4
c. 5.8
d. 6.2
12
a. 3x + 2y = 12
d. 2x 3y = 12
b. 2x + 3y = 12
c. 3x 2y =
b. 1.80
18. Find the angle between two vectors whose direction numbers
are (2, 1, 1) and (1, -1, 2).
a. 300
b. 400
c. 450
0
d. 60
19. Find the polar equation of a circle with center at the (3, 0) and
the radius 3.
a. r = 3cos b. r = 3sin
c. r = 6cos d. r
= 6sin
20.
a. 74.8
21.
17. Find the coordinates of the midpoint of the line segment joining
the points A (4, 1, 8) and B (6, -3, 4).
a. (5, -1, 6)
b. (10, -2, 12)
c. (-2, 4, 4) d.
(0, 0, 0)
b. 4.5
c. 47.8
d. 77.5
Find the length of the chord common to the circles x 2+y2=64 and
x +y2-16x=0
2
a. 14
c. 1.86
16. The moons orbit is an ellipse with the earth at one focus. The
length of the major axis is 478,000 miles and the
eccentricity e = 0.055. Find the least distance from the earth to
the moon in miles.
a. 239,000
b. 225,855
c. 210,755 d.
190,255
Find the angle that the line 2y-9x-18=0 makes with the x-axis.
22.
b. 9
c. 3
d. 12
b. 3
c. 12
d. 3
a. 4x+7=0
25.
d. 11
What is the length of the latus rectum of the curve x2= - 12y
a. 12
24.
c. 12
Find the area of the circle whose center is at (2,-5) and tangent to the
line 4x+3y-8=0
a. 6
23.
b. 13
b. x-2=0
c. 4x-7=0
d. 7x+4=0
a. 3.4
b. 3.2
c. 3.6
d. 3.0
26.
a. 0.725
b. 0.256
c. 0.689
d. 0.866
1.
Find
lim
x2
a. 0
27.
b. 0.8
c. 1.25
d. 5/3
2.
a. 5
29.
b. 10
c. 20
x
y
1?
9
4
a. 2x-3y=0
31.
lim
x3 2x 9
x 2x3 8
a. 0
3.
Find
lim
x 1
a. e2
b. 3x-2y=0
c. 2x-y=0
d. 2x+y=0
An arch 18 m high has the form of parabola with a vertical axis. The
length of a horizontal beam placed across the arch 8m
from the top is 64m. Find the width at the bottom.
a. 86m
Find
d. 15
30.
b. 1
c.
d.
infinite
a. 0.6
28.
3 x 1
x2
b. 96m
c. 106m
d. 76m
The collection of all points in the plane equidistant from two fixed
points is
a. ellipse
b. parabola
c. line
d. circle
32. Find the value of k for which the equation x 2 4y2 + (k+1)x + k2
= 0 represents two intersecting lines.
a. k =1
b. k = 0
c. k = 1, -1/3 d. k = -1,
1/3
DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS
b. 2
c.
d.
c. 0
d.
2 x tan 2
b. e2/
Find Limx ( 7 x3 ) / (4 x3 - 2x + 10 )
a. 0
b. 1.75
c. indeterminate
d. infinity
4.
5. Find Limx 0 ( 1 ex ) / x
a. -1
b. 1
d. 2
c. -2
c. 1
c. y-3
c. y / (x + 2y)
c. ex cos x2
14. Find the point on the graph of y = x 2 at which the tangent line is
parallel to the line y = 6x-1.
a. (0,0)
b. (1,1)
c. (2,4)
d. (3,9)
15. At a point (1,2) of the curve x2 xy + y2 = 3, find the slope of the
tangent line.
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
16. If x + y = 6, find the maximum value of xy2
a. 32
c. 36
b. 30
sin x
, then f (x) = ?
1 cos x
1
a.
1 cos x
d. 40
17. If f(x) =
b.
c. 1 + cos x
1
1 cos x
a. 12
b. 10
c. 9
d. 15
a. xx
b. xx (lnx)
c. xx( l + lnx )
d. non
above
21. Find the largest area of a rectangle that could be inscribed in the ellipse,
4x2 + 9y2 = 36
a. 12
b. 24
c. 6
d. 48
a. 0.12 rad/s
b. 0.08 rad/s
c. 0.03 rad/s
a. 1
b. 0
c. 1
d. 2
c. 1/x3
d. 1
c. 4 times
d. 5 tim
b. 1/x2
a. 1/x
a. 600
b. 593
c. 580
24. Water is flowing into a conical vessel 15 cm deep and having a radius
of 3.75 cm across the top. If the rate at which the
water rises in 2 cm/sec, how fast is the water flowing (m 3/sec) into the
conical vessel when the water is 4 cm deep?
a. 6.28
b. 2.37
b. negative
c. positive
26. Given a function, y = f(x) whose f (x) = - f(x). Determine the function
a. logarithmic
b. exponential1
c. transcendental
d. sinusoidal
a. negative
28. The function, f ( x )
a. x = -1, 3
b. positive
c. zero
x 2
is discontinuous at
x 2x 3
b. x = 1, -3
c. x = 1, -2
2
b. thrice
a. y = x4
b. y = x3
c. y = x2
d. y = x
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 7
INTEGRAL CALCULUS
c. 4.57
25. At the minimum point, the slope of the tangent line to a curve is
a. zero
a. twice
1. Find the (x + 1) (x 1) dx
a. x2 + x + C
b. x2 x + C
0.33 x3 + x + C
d. 0.33 x3 x + C
2. Find the x x dx
a. 2/5 x5/2 + C
2 x1/2 + C
b. 5/2 x5/2 + C
d. x1/2 + C
c.
c.
3. Find the (5 x2 + 1) dx / x
a. 2 x5/2 + 2 x1/2 + C
b. 2 x5/2 2 x1/2 + C
5/2
1/2
c. 5 x + 2 x + C
d. 5 x5/2 2 x1/2 +
C
4. Find the 5sin 4 x cos x dx
a. sin 4 x cos2 x + C
x+C
b. 5 sin 4 x cos2 x + C
d. sin 5 x + C
b. tan x sec x +C
d. 2 (1 + sin x )1/2 + C
b. tan x sec x +C
d. 2 (1 + sin x )1/2 + C
b. ln sin x + C
d. ln cos x + C
9. Find the ln x dx / x
a. ln x + C
x + C
10. Find the ln x dx
a. ln x + C
x ln x x + C
c. 5 sin
b. 2 ln x + C
d. ln 2 x + C
b. 2 ln x + C
d. ln 2 x + C
c.
c. x
c. x ln x
c.
a. 2x 2ln( x + 2 ) +C
2x ln( x + 2 ) +C
b. 2x + 2ln( x + 2 ) +C
d. 2x + ln( x + 2 ) +C
c.
c. 2
c. 2
14. What is the integral of x (x+1)8 dx if the lower limit is zero and the
upper limit is 1.
a. 22.76
b. 34.76
c. 45.52
d. 54.52
15. What is the integral of x3 dx / (x + 1) if the lower limit is zero and
the upper limit is 1.
a. 0.14
b. 0.28
c. 0.34
d. 0.38
16. What is the integral of x e 3x dx if the lower limit is zero and the
upper limit is 1.
a. 1.57
b. 2.57
c.
3.57
d. 4.57
17. What is the integral of dx / (x2 -9) if the lower limit is 4 and the
upper limit is 5.
a. 0.093
b. 0.193
c. 0.293
d. 0.393
18. What is the area bounded by the curve y = x 3 , the x-axis , and
the line x = -2 and x= 1.
a. 2.45
b. 4.25
c.
5.24
d. 5.42
19. Find the area bounded by y = ex , x = 0 and y = 0.
a. 1
b. 2
d. infinity
c. e
b. /6
xdx
1+ x , by the u-substitution method, let u
a. 1+x2
b. x2
22. T o integrate
23. Evaluate
a.
27.
c. 1+x4
xe x dx ?
0
35
28.
/768
b. 45/786
c. 125/768
b. 2
c. 3
a. 16/3
b. 4/3
c. 2/3
29.
Find the volume generated by rotating the region bounded by x=y and
y2=4x, about the x-axis from x=1 and x=4.
c. 3
a.
b. 2
30.
The area bounded by the curve y 2=12x and the line x=3 is revolved
about the line x=3. What is the volume generated?
a. 186
b. 2
c.
d. 3
b. 179
c. 181
STATISTICS
1.
a. 0
c. e1
4 x 2 dx
a. 4
24. Evaluate
b. e
cos8 3 A dA
a. 1
c. /3
a. 1
26. Evaluate
20. Find the length of arc in one branch of the curve y 2 = x3 from x =
0 to x = 1.
a. 1.2
b. 1.44
c. 1.64
d. 1.84
a. /2
25. Evaluate
3x
2
4 x 5 dx
b. 2
a. 12
c. 1
c. 20
b. 10
d. 210
2.
a. 5/18
3.
b. 20/51
c. 5/9
a. 720
b. 5040
c. 1440
c.
13. How many 4 digits number can be formed from the number 0, 1,
2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 if repetition is allowed?
a. 4,536
b. 10,000
c. 5040
d. 9,000
21. From a bag containing 4 black balls and 5 white balls, two balls
are drawn. Find the probability that one is white and the
other is black.
a. 4/9
b. 5/9
c.
2/3
d. 1/3
22. Two cards are drawn at random on an ordinary deck of cards.
What is the probability that both cards are either a king or a
diamond?
a. 16/169
b. 20/221
c. 4/13
d. 17/52
23. Two red books and 4 blue books are placed at random on a shelf.
What is the probability that the blue books will be
together?
a. 0.1
b. 0.143
c. 0.2
d. 0.341
24. A number from 1 to 10,000 inclusive is selected at random. What
is the probability that it is a perfect square?
a. 0.01
c. 0.02
b. 0.015
d. 0.025
a. 7/15
b. 1/300
c. 7/100
29. An urn contains 4 black balls and 6 white balls. What is the probability
of getting one black ball and one white ball in two
consecutive draws from the urn?
a. 0.24
b. 0.27
c. 0.53
30. There is 1 defectives per 100 items of a product in a long run. What is
the probability that there is one and only one detective
in a random lot of 100.
a. 0.3697
b. 0.3967
c. 0.3796
b. Histogram
d. Mass Diagram
32. A shoe store sells 10 different sizes of shoes; each in both high cut &
low cut variety, each either rubber or leather, and
each with white or black color. How many different kinds of shoes
does he sell?
a. 64
33.
b. 80
c. 72
a. 5!/52!
33
/54145
b. 5/52
d. 1264/45685
c.
34. In how many ways can PICHE Chapter with 15 directors choose a
president. a vice president, a secretary, a treasurer and
an auditor, if no member can hold more than one position.
a. 630630
c. 360360
b. 3300
d. 3003
a. 7/50
c. 1/7
b.13/90
d. 5/7
36. In raw data, the term that occurs most frequently is known as:
a. mean
b. median
c. mode
d. quartile
d. 92
a. sample space
b. set of random counts