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Page 1

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Reasoning
Directions (Q. 1-5): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered, I and
II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both statements and choose the most appropriate option.
1. How many persons are standing between Land K in a straight line of 19 persons? (Note: All are
standing in a straight line, facing north).
I. Y stands on the extreme left end of the line. Only five persons stand between Y and K. Only six persons
stand between K and R. Only four persons stand between Rand L.
II. J stands exactly in the middle of the line. Only two persons stand between I and J. Only five persons
stand between I and L. I stands to the left of L. K stands third to the left of J.
(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(3) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
2. Among six persons A, B, C, D, E and F standing around a circle, some ofthem are facing the centre
while others are facing outside (ie opposite to the centre.). What is the position of A with respect to E?
(Note: Facing the same direction means, if one is facing the centre then the other is also facing the centre
and vice versa. Facing the opposite directions means, if one is facing the centre then the other is facing
outside and vice versa).
I. C stands second to the right of E. E faces outside. C is an immediate neighbour of both D and B. F stands
second to the left ofD. D faces the same direction as E.
II. Only two persons stand between B and E. Both B and E face outside. E is an immediate neighbour of
both D and F. B is an immediate neighbour of both C and A. A is not an immediate neighbour of D.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are
(5) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
3. How is X related to N?
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I. X is mother of J. T is married to Z. N is daughter of T. Z is brother of J.
II. X is married to Y. Y is father of J. J is married to L. J is uncle of N.
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer tlie question, while the data in statement I alone
4. Among mobiles R, S, T, U, V and W, which is the costliest?
I. T is costlier than only two mobiles. S is costlier than R but not the costliest. V is costlier than only W.
II. R is cheaper than only two mobiles.V is costlier than W but cheaper than T. T is cheaper than R. S is
cheaper than U.
(1) Thedata:insatanentiI alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are
5. In a six-storey building (consisting of floors number I to 6, wherein the topmost floor is number 6
and the ground floor is number I) each of the six friends, namely M, N, O, P, Q and R, lives on a
different floor (not necessarily in the same order). Who amongst them lives on the lowermost floor?
I. M lives on floor number five. Only two persons live between M and N. Q lives immediately above P.
II. P lives on floor number three. Only two persons live between P and O. N lives immediately above R. N
lives on an even-numbered floor.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are
Directions (Q. 6-10): In this question are given four statements followed by five conclusions, one ofwhich
definitely does not logically follow (or is not a possibility of occurrence) from the given statements. That
concusion is your answer.
(Note: You have to take the four given statements to be true even it they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts and then decide which ofthe given conclusions logically does not follow from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.)
6. Statements:
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No toy is a doll.
All guns are toys.
All houses are dolls.
All dolls are baskets.
Conclusions:
(1) All baskets are toys.
(2) No gun is a house.
(3) All guns being baskets is a possibility.
(4) All houses are baskets.
(5) No doll is a gun.
7. Statements:
Some logics are reasons.
All reasons are arguments.
All arguments are fights.
No fight is a discussion.
Conclusions:
(1) All discussions being logic is a possibility.
(2) No discussion is an argument.
(3) All logics being discussion is a possibility.
(4) All reasons are fights.
(5) No reason is a discussion.
8. Statements:
All references are mails.
All mentions are references.
All comments are mentions.
No mail is a declaration.
Conclusions:
(1) No reference is a declaration.
(2) All comments are mails.
(3) No mention is a declaration.
(4) All declarations being comments is a possibility.
(5) At least some mails are mentions.
9. Statements:
Some moments are flashes.
All moments are seconds.
All flashes are instances.
No instance is an hour.
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Conclusions:
(1) All hours being seconds is a possibility.
(2) No second isa flash.
(3) No hour is a flash.
(4) At least some moments are instances.
(5) At least some seconds are jnstances.
10. Statements:
All circles are spheres.
All spheres are rectangles.
No rectangle is a pyramid.
No pyramid is a triangle.
(1) At least some circles are pyramids.
(2) All triangles being circles is a possibility.
(3) All rectangles being triangles is a possibility.
(4) At least some rectangles are circles.
(5) No pyramid is a sphere.
11. Statements:
No hotel is a motel.
All motels are apartments.
All apartments are inns.
No inn is a guesthouse.
(1) All hotels being inns is a possibillity.
(2) No motel is a guesthouse.
(3) All hotels being apartments is a possibility.
(4) No motel is an inn.
(5) No guesthouse is an apartment.
Directions (Q. 12): Read the following statements carefully and answer the given question.
Cocoa and chocolate products have been used as medicine in many cultures for centuries. Chocolate is made
from plants, which means it contains many of the health benefits of leafy vegetables.
Which of the following statements weakens the above argument?
(A) Dark chocolate contains a large number of antioxidants which slow down the ageing process.
(B) A small study revealed that regular intake of chocolate increases insulin sensivity, thus lowering the
chances of diabetes.
(C) Green leafy vegetables have substances which protectskin from UV rays.
(D) Chocolates have three types of fats, one of which increases the cholesterol level.
(E) Cocoa increases blood flow to the retina, thus giving a boost to vision.
(1) Only D
(2) Only A and E
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(3) Only C
(4) None of the given statements
(5) Both C and D
Directions (Q. 13-18): Study the following information and answer the questions.
Seven friends, namely L, M, N, O, P, Q and R, like different animated movies, namely Finding Nemo, Rio,
Frozen, Up, Lion King, Shrek and Cars, but not necessarily in the same order. Each friend also has a
presentation on topics of different subjects, namely Civics, History, English, Geography, Chemistry, Physics
and Biology but not necessarily in the same order.
Q has a presentation on Civics and likes neither Frozen nor Up. The one who likes Finding Nemo has a
presentation on History. L likes Rio and has a presentation neither on Geography nor on Chemistry. The one
who likes Cars has a presentation on Biology. M has a presentation on Physics and does not like Up. The
one who likes Up does not have a presentation on Chemistry. O likes Lion King. R does not have a
presentation on History and does not like Up. P does not like Up.
13. On which of the following subjects does P have a presentation?
(1) Chemistry
(2) English
(3) Biology
(4) Other than those given as options
(5) Geography
14. Four of the following five form a group as per the given arrangement. Which of the following does
not belong to that group?
(1) R - Cars
(2) Q - Shrek
(3) N - Up
(4) M - Frozen
(5) P - Rio
15. Which of the following combinations is definitely correct?
(1) N - Chemistry
(2) R - History
(3) L - English
(4) All the given combinations are definitely correct
(5) P - Geography
16. Which orthe following combinations of movie and subject is definitely correct with respect to N?
(1) Up-Chemistry
(3) Shrek - Geography
(4) Up - Geography
(5) Finding Nemo - History
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17. Four of the following five form a group as per the given arrangement, Which of the following does
(1) Biology - Cars
(2) Chemistry - Lion King
(3) Civics - Shrek
(4) English - Frozen
(4) Geography - Up
18. Which of the following movies does Q like?
(1) Shrek
(3) Finding Nemo
(4) Lion King
(5) Cars
Directions (Q. 19): The given information is followed by two statements, Read them carefully and answer
the given questions.
Many parents have written a plea to the administration department of school X discontinue the rule of
wearing ties to school.
(A) The school has kept different coloured ties for different academic scorers as part of their uniform. Thus
the low-scoring children of school feel discriminated.
(B) Thesports uniform of the school does not have a tie; it is to be worn only on Wednesdays.
(1) Statement A weakens but Statement B strengthens the argument
(2) Both Statement A and Statement B weaken the argument
(3) Statement B weakens but Statement A strengthens theargument
(4) Both Statement A and Statement B strengthen the argument
(5) Statement A strengthens the argument and Statement B is a neutral.statement.
Directions (Q. 20-25): In the given questions, assuming the given statementsto be true. Find which of the
given four conclusions mimbered I, II, III and IV is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
20. Staterilent:
Conclusions:
I. S > H
II. W > H
III. R < W
IV. M > T
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(1) Only I, II and III are true.
(2) Only II is true.
(3) Only I and II are true.
(4) Only I and either II or IV are true.
(5) All I, II, III and IV are true.
21. Statements:
Conclusions:
I. Y < N
II. M > N
III. N = Y
IV. M > A
(1) Only either II or III is true.
(2) Only IV and either I or III are true.
(3) Only IV is true. (4) Only II is true.
(5) Only III is true.
22. Statements:
Conclusions:
I. M < J
II. J > L
III. D > L
IV. E < M
(2) Only I and III are true.
(3) None is true
(4) Only II and IV are true.
23. Statements:
Conclusions:
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I. Y > P
II. T < F
III. O > T
IV. P < U
(1) Only I is true.
(3) Only III is true .
(4) None is true.
(5) Only I and IV are true.
24.

(2) Only IV is true.
(3) None is true.
(4) Only II and IV are true.
(5) Only II and III are true.
25.
(1) None is true

(2) Only IV is true
(3) Only either I or III is true
(4) Only II and I are true
(5) Only I is true
Page 9

Directions (Q. 26-32): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four comers
of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four comers face
the centre of the table while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. Each ofthem likes a
different subject, viz Mathematics, Hindi, English, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, History and Geography.
(None of the information given is necessarily in the same order.)
C sits third to the left of the one who likes Geography. The one who likes Geography faces outside. Only
two persons sit between C and H.
The one who likes Mathematics sits on the immediate right ofH. The one who likes Chemistry sits second
to the right of G. G is neither an immediate neighbour of H nor ofC. G does not like Geography.
Only one person sits between A and the one who likes Chemistry.
D sits on the immediate left ofthe one who likes Physics. G does not like Physics.
E likes History. E is not an immediate neighbour of A. The one who likes Hindi is an immediate neighbour
of E.
The one who likes Biology is an immediate neighbour of F.
26. Who amongst the following sits diagonally opposite the one who likes Mathematics?
(1) The one who likes Hindi
(2) D (3) A
(4) The one who likes English
(5) The one who likes Biology
27. Who among the following represent the immediate neighbours of the one who likes Chemistry?
(1) B, F
(2) C, E
(3) B, E
(4) D, F
(5) F, H
28. Who among the following sits exactly between H and B?
(1) C
(2) The one who likes Hindi
(3) The one who likes English
(4) G
(5) A
29. Which of the following is true regarding B?
(1) B is one of the immediate neighbours of D.
(2) The one who likes Geography is an immediate neighbour of B.
(3) B sits second to the left of H.
(4) B likes History.
(5) B is an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Mathematics.
30. What is the position of the one who likes Physics with respect to G?
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(1) Second to the left
(2) Third to the right
(3) Fourth to the left
(4) Second to the right
(5) Third to the left
31. Which of the following subjects does D like?
(1) Biology
(2) Mathematics
(3) Hindi
(4) Chemistry
(5) English
32. Who among the following likes Geography?
(1) B
(2) F
(3) H
(4) A
(5) D
Direction (Q. 33-35): Read the following information and the sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) given
below it carefully and answer the questions.
Scientists are worried that using very high concentration ofrepeIlents, a fogging agent is rendering
mosquitoes more and more resistant. This is making the repeIIent ineffective overtime.
(A) Resistance development among mosquitoes is higher than all other insects. This shows that mosquitoes
are more adaptive than other insects.
(B) If the increase in concentration of repellent does not stop, it would end up becoming so toxic that it
would endanger the health of humans as well as the ecosystem as a whole.
(C) In places where increased concentration of mosquito repellents are used, mosquito control is more
effective than in other areas.
(D) While regular-concentration mosquito repellent must be sold at a subsidised price on government orders,
the one with high concentration only helps make good profits.
(E) The government should make a policy regarding the limits to concentration of mosquito repellents and
ensure its strict implementation.
(F) Development of resistance against repellent drugs is naturaIly present in mosquitoes and does not
depend on the amount of repellent used.
33. Which of the given statements weakens the given information?
(1) A
(2) D
(3) E
(4) B
(5) F
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34. The development of resistance amongst mosquitoes may be purposefully done by the mosquitorepellent-producing companies. - An industry expert Which of the given statements substantiates the
experts comment?
(1) Both C and D
(2) Only C
(3) Only B
(4) Only D
(5) Only A
35. Which ofthe foIlowing represents a consequence of the increased concentration of repellents?
(1) F
(2) D
(3) A
(4) B
(5) C
Directions (Q. 36): Read the given information and answer the question.
Recently a youth was shifted to another hospital from hospital ABC due to food poisoning. The patient had
been admitted in hospital ABC for Malaria. Because no outside food is aIlowed in the hospital premises,
we are very sure that it was the food provided by the hospital staff that led to the food poisoning. - A
statement by the parents of the youth.
Which of the following can be a course of action to avoid such a mishap?
(1) The parent of the patients should be given a compensation to ensure that the hospital is not criticised in
any way.
(2) The reason for the food poisoning should be identified and the food provided in the hospital should be
inspected regularly.
(3) Local vendors which provide fruits, vegetables and other eatables to the hospital must be questioned.
(4) CCTV cameras should be installed in the hospital cafeteria to ensure that spoilt food is not provided to
the patients.
(5) Patients should be asked to bring food from their houses rather than provide it at the hospital so that if
such a case occurs again the hospital will not be responsible.
Directions (Q. 37-42): Read the given information and answer the questions.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers it arranges
them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the
numbers are two-digit numbers)
Input: left 46 burn 82 95 part 72 vibe bold 49 mint 59
Step I. 95 left 46 bum 82 part 72 vi be 49 mint 59 bold
Step II. 82 95 left 46 part 72 vi be 49 mint 59 bold burn
Step III. 72 82 95 46 part vibe 49 mint 59 bold burn left
Step IV. 59 72 82 95 46 part vibe 49 bold bum left mint
Step V. 49 59 72 82 95 46 vibe bold burn left mint part
Step VI. 46 49 59 72 82 95 bold bum left mint part vibe
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Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended output of arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input: 29 cone 42 pale fear 39 67 fame 32 weld 77 turn.
37. Which step number is the following output?
77 29 42 pale fear 39 67 fame 32 weld turn cone
(1) I
(2) III
(3) VI
(4) IV
(5) There is no such step
38. What is the position of fame from the right of 67 in the second-last step?
(1) Eighth
(2) Third
(3) Fifth
(4) Ninth
(5) Seventh
39. Which of the following is the fifth element to the right of 29 in Step II?
(1) cone
(2) turn
(3) fame
(4) 39
(5) 32
40. How many elements are there between 77 and weld in the last step?
(1) Five
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four
(5) Two
41. In step II, which element(s) appear(s) exactly be een pale and 32?
(1) Only weld
(2) Both weld and 42
(3) Both fear and 39
(4) Only fear
(5) Only 39
42. Which of the following represents the first two and the last two elements in the third-last step?
Page 13

(1) 32, 39, pale, weld
(2) 39, 42, fear, pale
(3) 29, 32, pale, turn
(4) 29,32, pale, weld
(5) 32, 39, fear, pale
Directions (Q. 43-44): Read the given information arefully and answer the given question.
Point N is 8m to the west of Point O. Point P is 4m to the south of Point O. Point Q is 4m to the east of Point
P. Point R is 6m to the north of Point Q. Point S is 8m to the west of Point. If Point T is 2m to the south of
Point S.
43. How far and in which direction is Point T from Point N?
(1) 4m to the east
(2) 8m to the west
(3) 4m to the west
(4) 8m to the east
(5) 6m to the south
44. If point Tis 4m to the north of point E, then what is the distance between E and Q?
(1) 11m
(2) 8m
(3) 15m
(4) 5m
(5) 9m
45. Read the given information carefully and answer the question:
People do not prefer working in private organisations today as private organisations do not provide
any kind of job security.-Statement by a citizen of Country A. Which of the following negates the
statement made by the citizen?
(1) Some private companies in country A are very good paymasters and pay their employees well as long as
their employees have good performance.
(2) Many private organisations expect employees to work for them in order to ensure that the work-is
compared with others.
(3) Private companies can take the liberty of firing employees based on their performance.
(4) It has been noticed recently that private organisations take a lot of effort to retain their employees to get
benefit from their experience.
(5) Some private organisations prefer recruiting fresh graduates to extract more work in comparatively lesser
pay.
46. Read the given information and answer the question:During peak hours the local trains of city M
are chaotic. Generally, peak hours are a specific time period in the morning when every one goes to
work and in the evening when people return. Some people feel that the state government has not taken
any measures in the past two years to deal with the situation.
Which of the following weakens the perceptions of the people?
Page 14

(1) In the past one year the state government has increased the frequency of trains in peak hours and has also
increased the number of passengers per train.
(2) In the past two years the state government has received many petitions signed by the locals of city M
travelling by trains, suggesting that much improvement is required in the current condition of the trains.
(3) The first-class passengers of the local trains feel that their plight is worse than that of the second-class
passengers in the trains.
(4) As the population of the city is ever increasing due to high rate of migration and better job opportunity,
there is a surge in the number of people travelling by trains.
(5) A passenger has given a statement that 20 years ago it was possible to get inside the train.
Directions (Q. 47-50): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line equidistant from each other (but not necessarily in the
same order). Some of them are facing south while some are facing north.
(Note: Facing the same direction means, if one is facing north then the other is also facing north and vice
versa. Facing the .opposite directions means if one is facing north then the other is facing south and vice
versa.)
H faces north. C sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. A sits third to the left of C. D is not an immediate
neighbour of C. G sits third to the right of A. B sits on the immediate right of G. B does not sit at any of the
extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between F and D. G sits second to the left of F. E sits second
to the right of B. Both the immediate neighbours of G face the same direction. Both the immediate
neighbours of A face the opposite directions. E faces the same direction as B.
47. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of F?
(1) H
(2) D
(3) C
(4) G
(5) A
48. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?
(1) G sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
(2) B sits exactly between A and F.
(3) B sits third to the right of E.
(4) A faces north.
(5) A sits second to the left of B.
49. How many persons in the given arrangement are facing North?
(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) Two
(5) More than four
50. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which of the following
does not belong to the group?
Page 15

(1) B, A
(2) D, C
(3) E, B
(4) A, E
(5) G, F
Page 16
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Subject: English Language

Directions (Q. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given. Certain words
have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Today, emerging markets account for more than half of world GDP on the basis of purchasing power,
according to the International Monetary Fund (IMF). In the 1990s, it was about a third. In the late 1990s, 30%
of countries in the developing world managed to increase their output per person faster than America did, thus
achieving what is calIed catch-up growth. That catching up was somewhat lackadaisical: the gap closed at
just 1.5% a year. Some ofthis was due to slower growth in America; most was not. The most impressive
growth was in four ofthe biggest emerging economies: Brazil, Russia, India and China (BRICs). These
economies have grown in different ways and for different reasons. The remarkable growth of emerging
markets in general and BRICs in particular transformed the global economy in many ways, some wrenching.
Commodity prices particularly soared and the cost of manufacture and labour sank. A growing and vastly
more accessible pool of labour in emerging economies played a part in both wage stagnation and rising income
inequality in rich ones. Global poverty rates tumbled. Gaping economic imbalances fuelled an era of financial
vulnerability and laid the groundwork for global crisis. The shift towards the emerging economies will
continue. But its most tumultuous phase seems to have more or less reached its end. Growth rates have
dropped. The nature of their growth is in the process of changing, too and its new mode will have fewer direct
effects on the rest of the world. The likelihood of growth in other emerging economies having an effect in the
near future comparable to that of BRICs in the recent past is low. The emerging giants will grow larger, and
their ranks will swell but their tread will no longer shake the Earth as once it did.
After the 1990s there followed convergence with a vengeance. Chinas pivot towards liberalisationand global
markets came at a propitious time in terms of politics, business and technology. Rich economies were feeling
relaxed about globalisation and current account deficits. America, booming and confident, was not troubled
by the growth of Chinese industry or by off-shoring jobs to India. And the technology etc necessary to
assemble and maintain complex supply chains were coming into their own, allowing firms to spread their
operations between countries and across oceans. The tumbling costs of shipping and communication sparked
globalisations second unbundling (the first was the simple ability to provide consumers in one place with
goods from another). As longer supply chains infiltrated and connected places with large and fast-growing
working-age populations, enormous quantities of cheap new labourbecame accessible. Advanced economies
added about 160m non-farm jobs between 1980 and 2010. In 2007 Chinas economy expanded by an eyepopping 14.2%. India managed 10.1 % growth, Russia 8.5% and Brazil 6.1 %. The IMF now reckons there
will be slowdown in growth. China will grow by just 7.8% in 2013, India by 5.6% and Russia and Brazil by
2.5%.
Other countries have impressive growth potential. The Next 11 (N11) includes Bangladesh, Indonesia,
Mexico, Nigeria and Turkey. But there are various reasons to think that this N11 cannot have an impact on
the same scale as that of the BRICs. The first is that these economies are smaller. The N11 has a population
of just over 1.3 billion -less than half that of the BRICs. The second is that the Nil is richer now than the
BRICs were back in the day. The third reason that the performance of the BRICs cannot be repeated is the
very success of that performance. The world economy is much larger than it used to be - twice as big in real
terms as it was in 1992, according to IMF figures. But whether or not the world can build on a remarkable era
of growth will depend in large part on whether the new giants tread a path towards greater global co-operation
- or stumble, fall and, in times of tumult and in the worst case, fight.
Page 17

1. According to the passage, which of the following is a reason for the authors prediction regarding
N11 countries?
(1) N11 countries are poorer, have less resources than BRIC countries and do not have much scope to grow.
(2) The size of these countries is too great to fuel a high rate of growth as expected by BRICs countries.
(3) The world economy is so large that the magnitude of growth from these countries will have to be huge to
equal the growth of BRICs.
(4) These economies are agricultural and have not opened up their economies yet so their scope of growth is
greater than that of BRlCs.
2. What is the authors view of globalisations second unbundling?
(1) It-proved beneficial since it created a large number of jobs and tremendous growth in cross-border trade.
(2) It disturbed the fragile balance of power among BRIC nations and caused internal strife.
(3) It caused untold damage to Americas economy since it restricted the spread of American farms offshore.
(4) It proved most beneficial for the agricultural sector, creating huge employment opportunities.
(5) Citizens in advanced countries became much better off than those in emerging economies.
3. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word TUMBLING given in
bold as used in the passage.
(1) jumbling
(2) confusing
(3) reducing
(4) dilapidated
(5) hurrying
4. What do the comparative statistics of 2007 and 2013 for BRICs countries published by, the IMF as
cited in the passage indicate?
(1) BRIC economies will contribute less to global growth.
(2) As the population of these countries grows, its growth rate is filling.
(3) The financial practices followed by these countries will continue to pay rich dividends.
(4) These countries are creating global financial imbalances to the detriment of smaller developing
economies like Africa.
(5) IMF forecasts of growth rate for these countries have not been fulfilled.
5. What effect did rising economies of BRICs have on the global economy?
(1) It helped stabilise the global economy and insulate it from the fallout of the global fmancial crisis.
(2) Labour became more highly skilled and wages were alarmingly increased, reducing the off-shoring of
jobs to developing countries.
(3) Though worldwide poverty rates tumbled, the gap between the rich and the poor in rich economies
increased.
(4) The cost of living and level of inflation in these countries were mantained at low levels.
(5) All the given options are effects of the rise in BRIC economies.
Page 18

6. What does the phrase Their ranks will swell but their tread will no longer shake the Earth as it
once did convey in the context of the passage?
(1) While many countries will try and achieve the same rate of growth as BRICs they will not succeed.
(2) The growth of BRIC countries has changed the worlds economy in ways that any further growth will
not have such a disruptive effect on the world economy.
(3) Developing countries have strengthened their fiscal systems in such a way that they will not be shaken to
such a great extent again
(4) Poverty may increase as the gap between the rich and the poor increase but it will never reach the same
leves as prior to the crisis.
(5) Citizens in advanced countries became much better off than those in emerging economies.
7. Which of the following best describes catch-up growth?
(1) Emerging economies tried but failed to catch up with America, which always grew at a higher growth
rate.
(2) The size of emerging economies and their purchasing power has caught up with and now exceeds the
rich countries together.
(3) The growth of the American economy determines the growth of emerging economies.
(4) From the later half of 1990s onwards emerging economies outdid America in terms of output per person.
(5) None of the given statements describes catch up growth.
8. Which of the following can be said about convergence with a vengeance?
(A) After the 1990s advanced economies like America were open to the idea of free trade and globalisation.
(B) There were huge technology advances which were conducive to allowing businesses to spread their area
of operations.
(C) Rich economies felt threatened by the competition from China.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only(C)
(4) Only (A) and (B)
(5) Only (B) and (C)
9. Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word EXPANDED given in bold as used in
the passage.
(1) widened
(2) pressured
(3) delayed
(4) shrunk
(5) frightened
10. What is the authors main objective in writing the passage?
(A) To urge emerging economies to deal with growth, which can be disruptive, maturely and without
conflict
(B) To point out that while the period of growth of BRICs was disruptive this disruption has almost come to
Page 19

a close.
(C) To criticise advanced economies for their handling of growth and promoting competition and conflict in
certain regions
(1) Only (A) and (B)
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only(C)
(4) All (A), (B) and (C)
Directions (Q. 11-15): Which of the phrases given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase
given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no
correction is required, markeS), ie (No correction required), as the answer.
111. Top managers are often stymied by the difficult of managing conflict.
(1) difficulties of managing
(2) difficulty for managing
(3) difficulty for management
(4) difficult of management
(5) No correction required
12. Reaching collective decisions based on individual preferences is an imperfect science.
(1) based for
(2) based
(3) in (4) based in
13. Hollywood bare escaped being totally sidelined by the rise of television.
(1) bare escapism
(2) barely escapism
(3) bare escapes
(4) barely escaped
14. Taking good decisions and implement those quickly are the hallmarks of high-performing
organisations.
(1) implementation quickly
(2) implementing quick
(3) implementing these quickly
(4) quick implementing those
15. Innovation have always been the top corporat agenda.
Page 20

(1) has always
(2) had being
(3) has always been
(4) always been
(5) No correctin required
Directions (Q. 16-20): Rearrange the six sentences denoted by A, B, C, D, E and F to make ~ meaningful
seven- sentence paragraph together with the first senftmce marked as no. 1 and then answer the given
questions,
(1) So how is global competition changing companies?
(A) For example, a group with a Europe-wide pay freeze may have to be flexible enough to authorise salary
increases to specialists and managers in developing countries, who are still able to jump ship for a better
offer.
(B) Second, the emerging-market companies as well as established multinationals are rivals, - there is no
way these can be Ignored.
(C) First, businesses are having to respond faster than before to pay changes.
(D) A case in point today is Africa, where rapid growth in key countries, notably Nigeria, has persuaded
many business people that the continents time may finally have arrived.
(E) The sight of well-paid expatriate foreign managers inspires the local Indian executives to ask for more
and employers have to respond.
(F) So such countries where people move easily - like India - are seeing executive pay rising rapidly.
16. Which of the following should be the LAST (SEVENTH) sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
17. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F
18. Which of the following should he the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) F
19. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
Page 21

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) F
20. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Directions (Q. 21-30): Read the folloWir;tg passage carefully and answer the given questions, Certain words
have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The new economy has ushered in great business opportunities-and great turmoil. Most traditional
organisations have accepted, in theory at least, that they must either change or die. Even giants such as eBay,
Amazon.com, and America Online recognise that they need to manage the changes associated with rapid
entrepreneurial growth. Despite some individual successes, however, change remains difficult to pull off, and
few companies manage the process as well as they would like. Most of their initiatives-installing new
technology, downsizing, restructuring, or trying to change corporate culturehave had low success rates. The
brutal fact is that about 70% of all change initiatives fail.
In our experience, the reason for most of those failures is that in their rush to change their organisations,
managers end up immersing themselves in an alphabet soup of initiatives. They lose focus and become
mesmerised by all the advice available in print and online about why companies should change, what they
should try to accomplish, and how they should do it. This proliferation ofrecomrnendations often leads to
muddle when change is attempted. The result is that most change efforts exert a heavy toll, both human and
economic. To improve the odds of success, and to reduce the human carnage, it is imperative that executives
understand the nature and process of corporate change much better. But even that is not enough. Leaders need
to
crack
the
code
of
change.
For more than 40 years now, we have been studying the nature of corporate change. And although every
businesss change initiative is unique, our research suggests there are two archetypes, or theories, of change.
These archetypes are based on very different and often unconscious assumptions by senior executives-and the
consultants and academics who advise them-about why and how changes should be made. Theory E is change
based on economic value. Theory O is change based on organisational capability. Both are valid models; each
theory of change acliieves some of managements goals, either explicitly or implicitly. But each theory also
has its costs often unexpected ones.
Theory E change strategies are the ones that make all the headlines. In this hard approach to change,
shareholder value is the only legitimate measure of corporate success. Change usually involves heavy use of
economic incentives, drastic layoffs, downsizing, and restructuring. E change strategies are more common
than O change strategies among companies in the United States, where financial markets push corporate
boards for rapid turnarounds. For instance, when WilliamAAnders was brought in as CEO of General
Dynamics in 1991, his goal was to maxirnise economic value-however painful the remedies might be. Over
the next three years, Anders reduced the workforce by 71,000 people 44,000 through the divestiture of seven
businesses and 27,000 through layoffs and attrition. Anders employed common E strategies.
Page 22

Managers who subscribe to Theory O believe that if they were to focus exclusively on the price of their stock,
they might harm their organisations. In this soft approach to change, the goal is to develop corporate culture
and human capability through individual and organisational learning-the process of changing, obtaining
feedback, reflecting, and making further changes. US companies that adopt O strategies, as Hewlett-Packard
did when its performance flagged in the 1980s, typically have strong, long-held, commitment-based
psychological
contracts
with
their
employees.
Managers at these companies are likely to see the risks in breaking those contracts. Because they place a high
value on employee commitment, Asian and European businesses are also more likely to adopt an O strategy
to change.
Few companies subscribe to just one theory. Most companies we have studied have used a mix of both. But
all too often, managers try to apply theories E and O in tandem without resolving the inherent tensions between
them. This impulse to combine the strategies is directionally correct, but theories E and O are so different that
its hard to manage them sirnultaneously-employees distrust leaders who alternate between nurturing and
cutthroat corporate behavior. Our research suggests, however, that there is a way to resolve the tension so that
businesses can satisfy their shareholders while building viable institutions. Companies that effectively
combine hard and soft approaches to change can reap big payoffs in profitability and productivity.
21. Which ofthe following is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word LEGITIMATE as
used in the passage?
(1) legal
(2) criminal
(3) sensitive
(4) invalid
(5) regular
22. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(1) Theory E strategies are more likely to be popular among orgnaisations of Asian countries.
(2) Quite often, organisations opt for either of the two theories of organisational change suggested by the
author.
(3) Theory E change strategies focus more on maximising economic worth of an organisation.
(4) The theories of change mentioned by the author are based on tested methods.
(5) None of the given statements is true.
23. The author in the given passage focuses on the following EXCEPT
(1) change not as easy as it appears
(2) how to increase protability through organisational change
(3) bringing about successful organisational change
(4) hindrances in the process of organisational change
(5) theories explaining the dynamics of organisational change
24. In the context of the passage, which of the following could possibly be an effect(s) of adopting
Theory E, on employees for bringing about organisational change?
(1) Employees become more attached with the organisation
(2) Insecurity among employees
Page 23

(3) Improved morale of employees
(4) Employees resorting to malicious methods to get faster promotions
(5) All those given as options
25. According to the author, for organisational change to be successful
(1) executives must focus on understanding the process of change.
(2) organisations must be willing to excuse those involved in the change process, in case it is unsuccessful.
(3) organisations must be willing to spend generously during the process.
(4) those involved in the change process must be given specialised training.
(5) None of the given options
26. As mentioned in the passage, despite best effects, many organisations fail to bring about a change
because
(A) they lose track of important information between the huge amount of information available to them.
(B) they rarely change the roles assigned to employees throughout the change process.
(C) they tend to depend on a consultant, an outsider, who barely knows the culture of the organisation.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Both (A) and (B)
(5) Both (B) and (C)
27. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word IMMERSING as used
in the passage?
(1) engrossing
(2) fascinating
(3) ignoring
(4) saving
(5) holding
28. Which of the following is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word IMPERATIVE as
used in the passage?
(1) optional
(2) mandatory
(3) significant
(4) slight
(5) binding
29. In the authors view the best way to bring about organisational change is a blend of Theory E and
O and this can be achieved through
(1) educating employees on the benefits of employing these theories.
(2) creating a specialised team of employees, thorough with these theories, for bringing about change
(3) motivating employees
Page 24

(4) modelling successful change process of organisations that employed one of these theories.
30. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word UNCONSCIOUS as used
in the passage?
(1) comatose
(2) automatic
(3) distracted
(4) false
(5) international
Directions (Q. 31-40): In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been numbered. For each
blank five words have been suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word
in each case.
WHO estimates that, within the next few years, non-communicable diseases will become the principal global
(31) of morbidity and mortality. The role of diet in the diagnosis of most non-communicable diseases is well
(32). The shift torwards highly refined foods and towards meat and dairy products containing high levels of
saturated fats, now increasingly (33) in middle-income and lower- income countries, have, together with
reduced energy (34), contributed to rises in the (35) of obesity and non-communicable diseases. Because of
the global extent of the epidemic, the advantages of promoting healthy diets and preventing overnutrition
should be explored.
The prohibitive costs of treating the consequences of overnutrition require that increased attention be given to
preventive measures. Parallels exist between these requirements and the initiatives taken to control tobacco
consumption, from which important (36) can be learnt, especially with respect to the use of international legal
instruments. However, because some of the largest multinational companies are heavily involved in the
creation and marketing of unhealthy foods, the control ofthese activites presents a (37) challenge. There is a
growing (38) that prevention demands public health actions at both the national and global levels, ranging
from more health education to improved food labelling and controls on the marketing of certain foods and soft
drinks. This will require innovative and committed (39) by all (40).
31. (1) session (2) effect (3) result (4) causes (5) trouble
32. (1) document (2) established (3) aware (4) timed (5) proportioned
33. (1) appeared (2) presenting (3) evident (4) prevalence (5) existed
34. (1) cost (2) expenditure (3) intake (4) savings (5) expansion
35. (1) incidence (2) happening (3) commonality (4) occasion (5) expulsion
36. (1) tutorials (2) lessons (3) practice (4) point (5) habits
37. (1) formidable (2) pretentious (3) alarming (4) enormous (5) solution
38. (1) need (2) demand (3) association (4) credit (5) recognition
Page 25

39. (1) amalgamation (2) joining (3) knowledge (4) collaboration (5) information
40. (1) party (2) population (3) politicians (4) segmentations (5) concerned
Page 26

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude

1. A bakery bakes cake with the expectation that it will earn a profit of 40% by selling each cake at
marked price. But during the delivery to showroom 16% of the cakes were completely damaged and
hence could not be sold. 24% of the cakes were slightly damaged and hence could be sold at 80% of the
cost price. The remaining 60% of the cakes were sold at marked price. What is the percentage profit in
the whole consignment?
(1) 3.2
(2) 2.4
(3) 2.8
(4) 4.2
(5) 3.6
2. A professional institutes total expenditure on students for a particular course is partly fixed and
partly varies linearly with the number of students. The average expense per student is Rs. 615 when
there are 24 students and Rs. 465 when there are 40 students. What is the average expense when there
are 60 students?
(1) Rs. 370
(2) Rs. 450
(3) Rs. 350
(4) Rs. 420
(5) Rs. 390
3.
(1) 4 : 5
(2) 14 : 15
(3) 6 : 7
(4) 18 : 25
(5) 22 : 25
Page 27

4. A, B and C have to type 506 pages to finish an assignment. A can type a page in 12 minutes, B in 15
minutes and C in 24 minutes. If they divide the task into three parts so that all three of them spend
equal amount of time in typing what is the number of pages that B should type?
(1) 172
(2) 176
(3) 154
(4) 168
(5) 164
Directions (Q. 5-9): The question consists of a question and two statements I and II given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both
the statements and choose the appropiate option.
5. What is the base of a triangle PQR with PQ as base?
(2) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient toanswer the question.
(4) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
6. What is the speed of the train?
I. A train crosses another train coming from opposite direction at the speed of 45 kmph in 20 seconds.
II. The train crosses another train running in the same direction at the speed of 42 kmph in 1 minute 18
seconds.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the quesiton.
(4) The data in both statements I and II togethere are necessary to answer the question
Page 28

7. What is the rate of interest pcpa?
I. An amount invested on simple interest becomes four times in 24 years.
II. The difference between compound interest and simple interest for two years on an amount of Rs. 10000
at that rate is Rs. 156.25.
(3) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
8. What is the total strength of institute X?
I. Out of the total strength of Institute X, 35% are females and rest are males. The number of females in
Institute X is equal to the number of males in Institute Y.
II. Out of the total strength of Institute Y, the no. of males is 560, which is 28% of the total strength.
9. What is the cost of fencing a rectangular plot along all four sides @ Rs. 450 per metre?
I. The area of the plot is 1458 m2, which is 54 times the numerical value of its breadth.
II. The length of the plot is 200% of its breadth and the breadth is 50% of its length.
10. In the figure given below, the perimeter of the circle is 220 cm. What is the area of the shaded
portion in cm2?
Page 29

Directions (Q. 11-1(5): Study the table to answer the given questions.
11. What is the difference between the total number of people living in City R, Q and T together who
do not watch Arrow and the total number of people living in these three cities together who watch
Arrow?
(1) 47200
(2) 45300
(3) 47400
Page 30

(4) 47600
(5) 45600
12. What is the average number of males who watch Big Bang Theory in all the cities together?
(1) 6320
(2) 6380
(3) 6340
(4) 6350
(5) 6360
13. The ratio of the total number of males to the total number of females in City P is 5 : 3. What
percent of the female population watches Breaking Bad in City P?
14. The total population (males and females) of City R watching Mentalist is what percent more than
the total population (male and female) of City T watching the same TV Series?
15. What is the ratio of the number of females who watch Breaking Bad in City Q and City S together
to the number of females who watch Mentalist in the same cities together?
(1) 59 : 47
(2) 55 : 48
(3) 59 : 42
(4) 55 : 43
(5) 59 : 45
16. Raghu invested a certain sum in Scheme X for 4 years. Scheme X offers simple interest @ 12 pcpa
for the first two years and compound intreset (compounded annually) @ 20 pcpa for the next two years.
The total intreset earned by him after 4 years is Rs. 11016. What was the sum invested by Raghu in
Scheme X?
Page 31

(1) Rs. 17400
(2) Rs. 18400
(3) Rs. 16200
(4) Rs. 11400
(5) Rs. 9400
Directions (Q. 17): This question is based on the graph below:
17. What is the difference between the average number of male and female teachers in the given
schools?
(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 5
(4) 25
(5) 15
Directions (Q. 18-22): In this question two equations numbered I & II are given. You have to solve both the
equations and find out the correct option.
18. I. 6x2 + 41x + 63 = 0
II. 4y2 + 8y + 3 = 0
Page 32

19. I. x2 + 10x + 24 = 0
II. 4y2 17y + 18 = 0
20. I. 24x2 + 38x + 15 = 0

II. 12y2 + 28y + 15 = 0
21. I. 3x2 20x 32 = 0

II. 2y2 3y 20 = 0
22. I. x2 20x + 91 = 0
II. y2 32y + 247 = 0
Directions (Q. 23): In the figure given below:

GHI is an equitateral triangle with side 14 cm. G is the midpoint of JL. What is the area of the shaded
portion (in cm(2)?
Page 33

23.
Directions (Q. 24-28): Refer to the pie-chart and answer the given questions:
Page 34

24. What is the ratio of the number of novels (Romantic and Horror) sold by store E to the total
number of Horror novels sold by stores C and F together?
(1) 35 : 32
(2) 45 : 32
(3) 35 : 24
(4) 35 : 26
(5) 45 : 34
25. What is the average number of Horror novels sold by stores B, C, E and F together?
(1) 2960
(2) 3060
(3) 2680
(4) 3240
(5) 3180
26. What is the central angle corresponding to the number of novels (Romantic and Horror) sold by
store B?
(1) 68.2
(2) 72.6
(3) 62.4
(4) 64.8
(5) 70.8
27. The number of novels (Romantic and Horror) sold by store F is what percent less than the total
number of Romantic novels sold by stores B and G together?
Page 35

28. What is the difference between the total number of Romantic novels sold by stores A, D and G
together and the total number of Horror novels sold by the same stores together?
(1) 2000
(2) 1600
(3) 2400
(4) 1800
(5) 2200
29. A, B and C started a business investing Rs. 42000, Rs. 30000 and Rs. 28000 respectively. After 4
months A withdrew Rs. 12000, B withdrew Rs. 6000 and C withdrew Rs. 8000. If after 10 months a total
profit of Rs. 46420 is earned, what is the share of C?
(1) Rs. 12580
(2) Rs. 13160
(3) Rs. 13020
(4) Rs. 12540
(5) Rs. 12760
Directions (Q. 30-34):Study the following information to answer the questions.
In an organisation there are 1700 employees. The orgainsation has five departments - HR, Finance, Marketing,
Administration and Manufacturing. Out of the total number of female employees in the organisation, 34%
work in HR department, 20% work in Marketing department, 18% work in Fianance department and the
remaining 224 female employees work in Administration department. Manufacturing department has no
female employees. Out of the total number of male employees in the organisation, 12% work in HR
department, 35% work in Marketing department, 30% work in Finance department, 10% work in
Administration department and the remaining employees work in Manufacturing department.
30. If the male employees in Finance department increase by 10%, the male employees in
Administration department increase by 20%, 23 male employees join Manufacturing department and
the number of male employees in HR and Marketing department remains the same, what is the
percentage increase in the number of male employees in the organisation?
Page 36

31. The total number of male employees working in Marketing and Finance department together is
what percent of the total number of employees (male and female) working in these two departments
together? (Round off to numerical integers).
(1) 66
(2) 63
(3) 62
(4) 60
(5) 70
32. If 26 male employees from HR department are transferred to Administration department and 28
female employees from Administration department are transferred to HR department, what is the ratio
of the number of male employees to the number of female employees in Administration department
after the transfer of employees?
(1) 23 : 49
(2) 29 : 49
(3) 25 : 49
(4) 23 : 47
(5) 25 : 47
33. What is the average number of employees (male and female) who work in Manufacturing,
Marketing and Administration departments together?
(1) 360
(2) 392
(3) 302
(4) 368
(5) 386
34. If equal number of female employees and male employees working in Finance department leave the
job, the ratio of the number of male employees working in Finance department to the number of female
employees working in the same department reduces to 40 : 19. What is the total number of employees
working in Finance department who left the job?
(1) 20
(2) 60
(3) 30
(4) 50
(5) 40
35. A boat takes 35 minutes less to travel 28 km downstream than it takes to travel the same distance
upstream. If the speed of the boat in still water is 14 kmph, what is the speed of the stream? (in kmph)
(1) 2.5
(2) 6.5
(3) 2
(4) 9.5
(5) 10.5
Page 37

Directions (Q. 36-40): In the following number series, only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong
number.
36. 41 45 61 97 181 261 405
(1) 181
(2) 97
(3) 261
(4) 61
(5) 45
37. 16 30 58 114 226 496 898
(1) 58
(2) 226
(3) 30
(4) 114
(5) 496
38. 15 21.5 46.5 145 585.5 2933 17603.5
(1) 585.5
(2) 2933
(3) 46.5
(4) 145
(5) 21.5
39. 5 6 16 57 246 1245 7506
(1) 16
(2) 6
(3) 1245
(4) 246
(5) 57
40. 2 13 46 145 452 1333 4006
(1) 1333
(2) 452
(3) 46
(4) 145
(5) 13
41. There are two vessels A and B. Vessel A is containing 40 litres of pure milk and vessel B is containing
22 litres of pure water. From vessel A, 8 litres of milk is taken out and poured into vessel B. Then 6
litres of mixture (milk and water) is taken out and from vessel B poured into vessel A. What is the ratio
of the quantity of pure milk in vessel A to the quantity of pure water in vessel B?
Page 38

(1) 14 : 9
(2) 21 : 11
(3) 24 : 13
(4) 14 : 5
(5) 21 : 13
42. It takes 24 seconds for a train travelling at 93 kmph to cross entirely another train half its length
travelling in opposite direction at 51 kmph. It passes a bridge in 66 seconds. What is the length of the
bridge? (in m)
(1) 1065
(2) 1600
(3) 1705
(4) 1580
(5) None of these
43. A rectangular plot, 36m long and 28m broad, has two concrete roads 5m wide running in the middle
of the park, one parallel to the length and the other parallel to the breadth. What would be the total
cost of gravelling the plot, excluding the area coveredby the roads, @ Rs. 3.60 per sq m?
(1) Rs. 2772.20
(2) Rs. 2466.60
(3) Rs. 2654.40
(4) Rs. 2332.60
(5) Rs. 2566.80
Directions (Q. 44-45): Study the following table the answer the given questions.
Number of girls studying IT and Electronics
Engineering from from Five colleges College IT Electronics
A 240 315
B 350 285
C 260 225
D 325 255
E 275 220
Page 39

44. The total number of girls studying IT Engineering from college B, C and D together is by what
percent more than the total number of girls studing Electronics Engineering from these three
colleges?
45. What percent of the girls in college C study Electronics Engineering out of the girls studying IT
and Electronics Engineering? (rounded off to the nearest integer)
(1) 46
(2) 52
(3) 51
(4) 42
(5) 49
Directions (Q. 46-50): Study the following graph carefully to answer the given questions.
46. If for Aurangabad the number of HIG flats booked in 2005 was more than that in 2004 by 15%, the
number of MIG flats booked in 2005 was more than that in 2004 by 10% and the number of LIG flats
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booked in 2005 was more than that in 2004 by 20% then what was the total number of flats booked in
Aurangabad in 2005?
(1) 1565
(2) 1521
(3) 1625
(4) 1642
(5) 1544
47. Out of the LIG flats booked from Chandigarh, 35% were by employees of a Financial Institution
and out of the remaining flats, those booked by officers from a software company and HRM department
of Government of India were in the ratio of 6 : 7. What was the total no. of LIG flats booked by officers
from the software company?
(1) 130
(2) 120
(3) 160
(4) 140
(5) 150
48. The total number of MIG flats booked in Manglore, Baroda and Nagpur is by what percent more
than the total number of LIG flats booked from these three cities together? (rounded off to the nearest
integer)
(1) 37
(2) 35
(3) 39
(4) 32
(5) 34
49. What is the difference between the total number of MIG flats booked in Allahabad, Mangalore,
Nagpur and Aurangabad together and the total number of LIG flats booked in these four cities
together?
(1) 420
(2) 480
(3) 460
(4) 360
(5) 260
50. What is the rato of the total number of flats (all three types) booked in Allahabad to that in
Baroda?
(1) 54 : 49
(2) 51 : 46
(3) 54 : 47
(4) 58 : 49
(5) 55 : 48
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Page 42

Subject: General Awareness

1. Which of the following is the boundary line between India and Pakistan?
(1) 17th Parallel
(2) Radcliffeline
(4) Hindenburg Line
(5) McMahon Line
2. Banks generally insist account holders to nominate persons to whom the money lying in their
accounts should go in the event of
(1) death of account holder
(2) illness of account holder
(3) account holder migrates
(4) account holder turns bankrupt
3. Credit Risk refers to the risk that
(1) borrower may opt to get necessary permit/licences
(2) wrong strategy is adopted
(3) a borrower will default on any type of debt
(4) loan processing may be faulty
(5) interest rate in the markets may increase
4. Which of the following is the currency of Cambodia?
(1) Cambodian Dollar
(2) Ringgit
(3) Peso
(4) Riel
5. Which of the following is a source of collecting money from the public for a company for the first
time?
(1) Rights issue
(2) Bonus shares
(3) Follow on offering
(4) Initial public offer
(5) Secondary offering
6. Which of the following concepts of banking involves booking of web-enabled touch point for basic
banking services?
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(1) Extension Conters
(2) Retail Banking
(3) Kiosk Banking
(4) Satellite Banking
(5) Mobile Banking
7. Face value of a Government security is the amount that is to be paid to an investor at the maturity
date of the security. The face value is not the same as the
(1) Par value
(2) Market Price
(3) Redemption value
(4) Repayment amount
(5) Principal value
8. As per the 2011 Census report, Indias population below the age of 35 years is
(1) between 30 & 35%
(2) between 40 & 50%
(3) between 35 & 40%
(4) more than 65%
(5) between 50 & 65%
9. The facility to help insurance policy holders buy and keep policies in electronic form rather than as
a paper document is called
(1) Insurance Warehousing
(2) Insurance Cache
(3) Insurance Stockpile
(4) Insurance Depository
(5) Insurance Repository
10. Based on the recovery of the dues, banks are required to classify non-performing assets (NPAs) in
the books of the bank under the categories
(1) Substandard, Doubtful and Bad Debts
(2) Standard, Doubtful and Written-Off Assets
(3) Standard, Substandard and Doubtful Assets
(4) Standard, Doubtful and Loss Assets
(5) Substandard, Doubtful and Loss Assets
11. A mutual fund scheme in which the investors commit their money for a particular period is known
as
(1) Long-End Scheme
(2) Closed-End Scheme
(3) Long-Term Fund
(4) Open-End Scheme
(5) Back-End Scheme
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12. In the Asian Games who among the following won the silver Medal for India in Squash?
(1) Geetika Jakhar
(2) Yogeshwar Dutt
(3) Vinesh Phogat
(4) Saurav Ghosal
13. Plant Genome Saviour Community Awards are given by Protection of Plant Varieties and
Farmers Right Authority (PPV & FRA) for
(1) getting the highest yield of crops
(3) engagement in the conservation of genetic resources of economic plants and their wild relatives
(4) ensuring soil conservation and preventing use of chemicals
(5) using traditional seeds and fertilizers to protect the soil
14. CP is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note. In the
abbreviation CP, letter P stands for
(1) Paper
(2) Portfolio
(3) Payment
(4) Promissory
(5) Position
15. Vishal Sikka is the CEO of
(1) Tata Group of Companies
(2) Cognizant
(3) Oracle
(4) Infosys
16. The process that has to be undertaken by banks and other financial institutions to prevent them
from being used by criminal elements for money laundering is
(1) Credit Monitoring Process
(2) Credit Rating Process
(3) KYC Process
(4) Due diligence Process
(5) Credit Appraisal Process
17. CVV is an anti-fraud security feature that helps verify that the customer is in posession of her
card. The abbreviation of CVV stands for
(1) Card Virtual Valuation
(2) Confidential Virtual Verification
(3) Card Verification Value
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(4) Core Virtual Value
(5) Coded Vulnerability Value
18. Which of the foIIowing is the capital of Argentina?
(1) Addis Ababa
(3) Buenos Aires
(4) Seoul
(5) Phnom Penh
19. With introduction of ATMs, telebanking and internet banking, banking hours is not a constraint
for transacting banking business, which is known as
(1) Universal Banking
(2) Worldwide Banking
(3) Anywhere Banking
(4) Global Banking
(5) Other than those given as option
20. Which of the following institutions is a Credit Information Company?
(1) ARCIL
(2) CRISIL
(3) CIBIL
(4) ICRA
(5) CARE
21. The slogan Yogakshemam Vahamyaham, which translates in English as your welfare is our
responsibility, is associated with
(1) SBI General Insurance
(2) LIC of India
(3) National Insurance Company
(4) United India Insurance
22. The Reserve Bank ofIndia has recently issued draft policy guidelines for differentiated banks
licences which are
(1) exclusively for foreign banks
(2) aimed at the cooperative sector
(3) aimed at Non Banking Financial Companies
(5) aimed at furthering financial inclusion
23. The Fair Practice Code for Credit Card Operations in the banking industry has been evolved by
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(1) Indian Banks Association (IBA)
(2) Reserve Bank ofIndia (RB I)
(3) Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI)
(4) Banking Ombudsman (BO)
(5) National Institute of Bank Management (NIBM)
24. The recently launched Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram in Kaushal Yojana (DDUGKY) is a central
government scheme aimed at
(1) family welfare in rural area
(2) improving irrigation potential
(3) employment generation in urban area
(4) skill improvement in rural area
(5) improving financial literacy
25. When an account does not have suffrcient balance to honour the cheque issued by the account
holder, the cheque is returned by the bank, which is known as
(1) cheque discounting
(2) cheque truncation
(3) cheque kiting
(4) bouncing of cheque
(5) cheque validation
26. The alphabet P in the abbreviation EFTPOS stands for
(1) Point
(2) Private
(3) Public
(4) Primary
(5) Permanent
27. ATM is an electronic tele-communication device that helps bank customers perform frnancial
transactions. The letter A in the abbreviation ATM stands for
(1) Anytime
(2) Anywhere
(3) Automated
(4) Advance
(5) Account
28. Which of the following countries has assured India to provide lifetime fuel to the Kudankulam
Nuclear Power Plant?
(1) Russia
(2) Germany
(3) France
(4) Spain
(5) USA
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29. Who among the following Bollywood stars was a state-level badminton player?
(1) Madhuri Dixit
(2) Deepika Padukone
(3) Priyanka Chopra
(4) Kareena Kapoor
(5) Anushka Sharma
30. Dr Najma Heptulla is the Union Cabinet Minister for
(1) Communication, IT, Law & Justice
(2) TribaLAffairs
(3) Minority Affairs
(4) Agriculture
(5) Chemicals and Fertilizer
31. Dynamite was invented by
(1) Marie Curie
(2) Alexander Flemming
(3) Charles Darwin
(5) Alfred Nobel
32. Who among the following is the author of the book Hard Choices?
(1) Barack Obama
(2) Hillary Clinton
(4) Abraham Lincoln
(5) Bill Clinton
33. The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) is an international organisation of central banks
headquartered in
(1) Zurich, Switzerland
(2) New York, USA
(3) Basel, Switzerland
(4) Paris, France
(5) Geneva, Switzerland
34. The Reserve Bank has recently issued the guidelines allowing minors to operate bankaccounts,
which is aimed at
(1) mobilising high level of savings
(2) furthering financial inclusion
(3) developing consumption culture amongst the children
(4) developing borrowing habits at an early age
(5) boosting governments anti-poverty programmes
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35. Star Union Daichi Life Insurance Company Limited is a joint venture between Daichi Life, a
leading life insurance company of Japan, Union Bank of India and
(1) Bank of India
(2) State Bank of India
(3) AxisBank
(4) ICICI Bank
(5) Indian Bank
36. Zend-Avesta is the primary collection of sacred text of
(1) Sufism
(2) Buddhism
(3) Bahai faith
(4) Jews
(5) Parsis
37. The abbreviation GDP stands for
(1) Gross Domestic Product
(2) Globally Dominant Person
(3) General Domestic Position
(4) Global Depository Product
(5) Gross Depository Position
38. Who among the following was the founder of Anandwan?
(1) BabaAmte
(2) Sindhutai Sapkal
(3) Abhay Bang
(4) Medha Patkar
39. With the success of Mars Orbiter Mission, India became the fourth Space-power to send craft to
Mars. The other three are
(1) Former Soviet Union, US and China
(2) US, Former Soviet Union and Japan
(3) US, Europe and Former Soviet Union
(4) US, China and Japan
40. Banks today are focusing more on Retail Banking, which offers opportunities to banks to
(1) invest in capital markets
(2) consider large-ticket term loans
(3) set up joint ventures
(4) cross-set other retail loan products
(5) lend to corporates
Page 49
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Subject: Computer Knowledge

1. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest?
(1) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database
(2) Database, file, record, field, character
(3) Character, record, field, database, file
(4) Character, file, record, field, database
(5) Character, field, record, file, database
2. Specialised programs that assist users in locating information on the web are called
(1) Web browsers
(2) Information engines
(3) Data engines
(4) Search engines
(5) None of these
3. What is the term for unsolicited e-mail?
(1) Flamming
(2) Usenet
(3) Spam
(4) Backbone
(5) News Group
4. Processor speed is measured in
(1) bytes
(2) gigabytes
(3) gigahertz
(4) megabytes
(5) kilobytes
5. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?
(1) Ctrl + H
(2) Alt + S
(3) Shift + E
(4) Ctrl+A
(5) Ctrl + K
6. The buying or selling of goods over the internet is termed as
(1) e-selling
(2) e-buying
(3) e-business
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(4) e-commerce
(5) e-transaction
7. What are the programs that block access to selected websites known as?
(1) Channels
(2) Filters
(3) Browsers
(4) Telnet
(5) Drivers
8. Which of the following is not a valid version of MS-Office?
(1) Office 2000
(2) Office XP
(3) Office 2003
(4) Office 2007
(5) Office Vista
9. Which of the following is used to write Web pages?
(1) URL
(2) HTML
(3) Telnet
(4) HTTP
(5) FTP
10. A computer chip is also called a
(1) register
(2) switch
(3) server
(4) modem
(5) microprocessor
11. VIRUS stands for __________
(1) Vital Information Region Under Siege
(2) Vital Information Recourse Under System
(3) Vital Information Resource Under Secure
(4) Vital Information Resource Under Siege
(5) Virus Information Recourse Under Siege
12. Verification of a login name and password is known as
(1) Configuration
(2) Accessibility
(3) Logging in
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(4) Authentication
(5) Subscription
13. Microsoft Word is an example of alan
(1) system software
(2) application software
(3) operating system
(4) processing device
(5) input device
14. What does the acronym PDF stand for?
(1) Portable Documentation File
(2) Portable Document Format
(3) Portable Document File
(4) Portable Documenting Format
(5) Portable Documentation Format
15. Which of the following refers to programs stored in ROM?
(1) Hardware
(2) Software
(3) Peripheral
(4) Firmware
(5) Freeware
16. In processing cheques, which of the following PO techniques have Indian banks traditionally
followed?
(1) VRT
(2) OMR
(3) OCR
(4) Barcode
(5) MICR
17. Windows Explorer is the name of
(1) a drive
(2) a file manager
(3) a web browser
(4) an internet server
(5) a network
18. GUI stands for
(1) Graphical Universal Interference
(2) Graphic Universal Interface
(3) Graphical User Interface
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(4) Graphical Unity Interference
(5) Graph Utility Interference
19. ________ is the process of finding errors in software code.
(1) Exchanging
(2) Debugging
(3) Running
(4) Compressing
(5) None of these
20. DOS stands for
(1) Disk Operating Session
(2) Disk Operating System
(3) Digital Operating System
(4) Disk Opening Source
(5) Digital Open System
Page 54


IBPS (PO) Previous
Exam Paper - 2014
Subject:Year
Reasoning
Directions (Q.No. 1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
An organization wants to recruit system analysts. The following conditions apply.
The candidate must
(i) be an engineering graduate in computer/IT. with at least 60% marks.
(ii) have working experience in the field of computer at least for 2 yr after acquiring the requisite
qualification,
(iii) have completed minimum 25 yr and maximum 30 yr of age As on 1.12.2013.
(iv) be willing to sign a bond for Rs 50000.
(v) have secured minimum 55% marks in selection test.
However, if a candidate fulfils all other conditions Except
(a) at (i) above, but is an Electronics Engineer with 65% or more marks the case is to be referred to the
General Manager (GM)-IT.
(b) at (iv) above, but has an experience of atleast 5 yr as a Software Manager, the case is to be referred to the
VP.
In each question below, detailed information of candidate is given. You have to carefully study the
information provided in each case and take one of the following courses of actions based on the information
and the conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each
question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.12.2013. You have to indicate your decision by marking
answers to each question as follows
Give Answer
(1) If the case is to be referred to VP
(2) If the case is to be referred to GM
(3) If the data provided is not sufficient to take a decision
(4) If the candidate is to be selected
(5) If the candidate is not to be selected
1. Ms. Suneeta is an IT Engineer with 60% marks at graduation as well as in selection test. She is
working as a Software Engineer for last 3 yr after completing engineering degree and has completed
27 yr of age. She is willing to sign the bond of Rs 50000.
2. Rakesh Rao is a Computer Engineer Graduate and thereafter is working as a Software Manager
for last 6 yr. He has secured 72% marks at graduation and 67% marks in selection test. His date of
birth is 5th December, 1984. He is not willing to sign the bond for Rs50000.
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3. Ramkumar is an Engineering graduate in computers with 78% marks passed out in 2007 at the age
of 23 yr. Since, then he is working as a Software Manager in an engineering firm. He doesnt want to
sign the bond for Rs 50000. He has cleared the selection test with 72% marks.
4. Nishant is an Electronics Engineer passed out in June, 2010 at the age of 22 yr. Since, then he is
working as a Programmer in a software company. He has passed the selection test with 66% marks
and is willing to sign the bond.
5. Kalyani is an Engineer with 72% marks in Telecommunication. She has just completed 27 yr of age.
She has cleared the selection test with 59% marks. She is willing to sign the bond.
Direction (Q.No. 6) Analyse the following passage and answer the question.
Some words are highly inflammable. Fusion is one of them. You can get two sets of people into a war mode
by just uttering the words fusion music. One set will breathe fire and say it violates the purity of music the
other set will tell you earnestly that it opens up the borders of music.
6. From the purists perspective, the war between the two set of
people can best be
(1) categorized as an ideological conflict between two ideas
(2) termed as a conflict between generations the younger versus the older generation
(3) an attempt to preserve the core principles
(4) seen as an attempt of people at the margin to occupy centre stage
(5) seen as preserving the social identity of purists
7. Unlike other retail outlets, where items are purchased in any

number of units the customer wants, in super-markets items are
grouped in bulk packages. This bulk buying offers saving to the
customer. The option to buy at wholesale prices by buying in bulk
makes super-market a practical choice for budget-conscious
consumers.
Which of the following assumption may be drived from the above
information.
(1) Super-markets often have greater buying power and lower overhead costs, so they can offer a greater
variety of products than regular retail outlets
(2) Super-markets are often more conveniently located and have better parking facilities
(3) The emergence of super-markets has caused many small retail stores to close down and thus eliminate
Page 56

competitions
(4) It is economically wise to buy single items since bulk packages seldom offer significant savings
(5) The financial savings from purchasing bulk packages may outweigh the inconvenience of being unable
to purchase in any number of units that suits the customers need
8. Nations do not complete with each other in the way corporations

do.
Which of the following most favours the weakness of the argument
?
(1) Trade deficit is a sign of national strength, profits are a sign of corporate strength
(2) Increase in human development index improves national standing, increase in market share improves
corporate standing
(3) Climate change negotiations lead to global improvement; CSR initiatives lead to image improvement
(4) Nations go to war to capture territory, corporates contend against each other to capture market share
(5) None of the above
9. Civilization has taught us to be friendlier towards one another

Which of the following most favours the strengthens of the
argument?
(1) Cats are loyal to their children, whereas men are loyal to their communities
(2) Elephants move in a herd, whereas men live in nuclear families
(3) Lions protect their own territories, whereas men capture other mens territories
(4) Nilgai and Cheetal stay together, whereas men of one race dominate another
10. The mushrooming of business schools in the country is a cause

for shortage of faculty with Ph.D qualification. In addition, the
higher pay and generous fringe benefits given by industry has
encouraged qualified people to not seek academic positions.
Which of the following statements, if true, would tend to
STRENGTHEN the argument?
(1) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is more than the average salary for faculty positions
in some business schools in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(2) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is less than the average salary for faculty positions in
a top business school in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(3) The average salary for recent Ph.D graduates in the industry is 20% higher than that in academics
(4) The rate of growth of salaries for the industry positions has been higher than the rate of growth of
Page 57

salaries for academic positions for the past three years
Directions (Q. Nos 11 -13) Study the information given below carefully to answer the following
questions.
In a certain code language the following lines written as
lop eop aop fop means Traders are above laws
fop cop bop gop means Developers were above profitable
aop bop uop qop means Developers stopped following traders
cop jop eop uop means Following maps were laws
11. Developers are following laws would be correctly written as

(1) bop cop uop eop
(2) lop bop eop uop
(3) oup cop lop aop
(4) gop cop uop qop
(5) None of these
12. qop gop cop eop would correctly mean

(1) profitable laws were stopped
(2) developers stopped following laws
(3) traders were above profitable
(4) were laws profitable traders
13. aop qop bop would correctly mean

(1) following were above
(2) traders stopped developers
(3) developers are laws
(4) traders above stopped
(5) laws are stopped
Directions (Q.Nos. 14-18) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three
conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements- to be true even if they seem
to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
14. Statements All petals are flowers. Some flowers are buds. Some
buds are leaves. All leaves are plants.
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Conclusions
I. Some petals are not buds.
II. Some flowers are plants.
III. No flower is plant.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Either II or III follows
(3) I and II follow
(4) Only III follows
15. Statements Some pens are keys. Some keys are locks. All locks
are cards. No card is paper.
Conclusions
I. No lock is paper.
II. Some cards are keys.
III. Some keys are not paper.
(1) I and II follow
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) All follow
(5) None follows
16. Statements Some pearls are gems. All gems are diamonds. No
diamond is stone. Some stones are corals.
Conclusions
I. Some stones are pearls.
II. Some corals being diamond is a possibility.
III. No stone is pearl.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Either I or III follows
(4) I and II follow
(5) None of these
17. Statements Some apartments are flats. Some flats are buildings.
All buildings are bungalows. All bungalows are gardens.
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Conclusions
I. All apartments being building is a possibility
II. All bungalows are not buildings.
III. No flat is garden.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Either I or III follows
(4) II and III follow
(5) Only II follows
18. Statements All chairs are tables. All tables are bottles. Some
bottles are jars. No jar is bucket.
Conclusions
I. Some tables being jar is a possibility.
II. Some bottles are chairs.
III. Some bottles are not bucket.
(1) Only I follows (2) I and II follow
(3) All follow (4) Only II follows
(5) None of these
19. A person starts from point P in East and moves 12 m to point Q.

Then, he moves right 8 m to point R. Again he moves right for 6m
to point S. Then, he moves 6 m in the North to point T. Finally from
there he goes to left for 6 m to point U. Which of three point he
would form a triangle whose all the angles are less than 90.
(1) PTQ
(2) QTR
(3) UTS
(4) TSR
(5) SQR
Directions (Q.Nos. 20-25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing either the centre or
outside. Each one of them belongs to a different department viz. Finance, Marketing Sales, HR,
Corporate Finance, Investment Banking and Operations but not necessarily in the same order.
C sits third to the right of G.C faces the centre. Only one person sits between C and the person
working in the HR department immediate neighbours of C face outside. Only one person sits between
Page 60

F and D. Both F and D face the centre. D does not work in the HR department. A works in Investment
Banking Department. A faces the centre. Two people sit between the persons who work in Investment
Banking and Marketing Departments. The person who works in Corporate Finance sits to the
immediate left of E. C faces same direction as E. The person who works in corporate finance sits to
the immediate left of the person who works for Operations department.
20. For which of the following departments does B work?

(1) Finance
(2) Marketing
(3) HR
(4) Corporate Finance
(5) Operations
21. What is position of B with respect to the person who works for
Sales department ?
(1) Immediate right
(5) Fourth to the right
22. Who sits to the immediate right of E ?

(1) The person who works for Marketing department
(2) C
(3) B
(4) The person who works for HR department
(5) A
23. Who amongst the following sits exactly between C and the
person who works for HR department?
(1) B
(2) The person who works for Marketing department
(3) The person who works for Operations department
(4) D
(5) G
24. Who amongst the following sit between the persons who work
for Marketing and Investment banking departments when counted
Page 61

for the left hand side of the person working for Marketing
department?
(1) F and G
(2) E and C
(3) C and B
(4) F and D
(5) B and D
25. How many people sit between the person who works for
Operations department and A, when counted from the right hand
side of A?
(l) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four
Directions (Q.Nos. 26-30) In these questions the symbols @, #, $, % and are used with different
meanings as follow
A @ B means A is not smaller then B.
A # B means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B. A $ B means A is neither greater than nor
smaller than B.
A % B means A is not greater than B.
A B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B.
In each questions, four statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by three
conclusions 1,11 and III. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion (s)
is/are definitely true?
26. Statements V $ Y, Y @ Z, Z % X, X # T
Conclusions
I. T#Z
II. X#Y
III. zy
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
Page 62

(4) I and III follow
27. Statements
R @ J, J % F, F E, E % M
Conclusions I. M # J
II. F % M
III. M R
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(4) I and II follow
(5) All follow
28. Statements
H # R R @ L, L W, W % F
Conclusions I. H # J
II. F # L
III. H $ F
(1) Only I follows
(2) I and II follow
(4) Either I or II follows
(5) All follow
29. Statements
M # K, M $ F, F % Q, Q H
Conclusions
I. H # K
II. Q # K
III. Q @ M
(1) I and II follow
(2) Either I or II follows
(3) All follow
30. Statements
D Q, Q $ L, L # T, T % H
Page 63

Conclusions
I. D L
II. L @ H
III. H # L
(1) Only I follows
(2) I and II follow
(3) Either II or III follows
(4) All follow
(5) None of these
31. In a code language PROVIDE is written as MULYFGB, then

what will be code for BECAUSE in same languages
(1) YZHDRVB
(2) ZHYDRVB
(3) YHZDRVB
(4) ZYDHVBR
(5) None of these
Directions (Q.Nos. 32-36) Each of the questions below consists of a

question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it.
You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer
(1) If the data is Statements I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone
are not sufficient to answer the question
(2) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone
are not sufficient to answer the question
(3) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
(4) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
(5) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
32. How many children are there in the group if no two children
have same weight?
Statements
I. Sahil is fifth from the top in order of weight if all the children in the group were arranged in descending
order.
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II. Ramesh, who in heavier than 14 children in the group is immediately next to Sahil in weight.
33. What is the code for healthy in the code language?

Statements
I. In the code language eat healthy food is written as ka ma re.
II. In code language food for healthy people is written as ta ma jo re.
34.
How many brothers does H have ?
Statements
I. H is sister of K who is son of T
II. T is mother of K who is brother of H.
35.
Who among J,T,W,R and Q reached the office first ?
Statements
I. J reached before Q, R and T but after W.
II. Q reached before R but after W.
36.
Village f is in which direction with respect to village K ?
Statements
I. Village J is to the East of village F and to the North of village K.
II. Village R, which is to the South of village F is to the West of village K.
37. The increase in the number of newspaper articles exposed as fabrications serves to bolster the contention
that publishers are more interested in boosting circulation than in printing the truth, Even minor
publications have staff to check such obvious fraud.
Which of the following may be the assumption of the given argument?
Page 65

(1) Newspaper stories exposed as fabrication are a recent phenomenon
(2) Everything a newspaper print must be factually verifiable
(3) Fact checking is more comprehensive for minor publications that for major ones
(4) The publishers of newspapers are the people who decide what to print in their newspapers
38. The rate of violent crime in this state is upto 30% from last year.
The fault lies entirely in our system of justice. Recently our judges
sentences have been so lenient that criminals can now do almost
anything without fear of a long prison term.
The argument above would be weakened if it were true that
(1) 85% of the other States in the nation have lower crime rates than does this state
(2) white-collar crime in this state has also increased by over 25% in the last year
(3) 35% of the police in this state have been laid off in the last year due to budget cuts
(4) polls show that 65% of the population in this state opposes capital punishment
39.
All German philosophers, except for Marx, are idealists. From which of the following can the statement
above be most properly inferred?
(1) Except for Marx, if someone is an idealist, then he or she is a philosopher, as long as he German
(2) Marx is the only non-German philosopher who is an idealist
(3) If a German is an idealist, then he or she is a philosopher, as long as he or she is not Marx
(4) Aside from the philosopher Marx, If someone is a German, then he or she is an idealist
40.
During the SARS days, about 23,500 doctors who had treated SARS sufferers died and about 23,670 doctors
who had not engaged in treatment for SARS sufferers died. On the basis of those figures, it can be
concluded that it was not much more dangerous to participate in SARS treatment during the SARS day than
it was not to participate in SARS treatment.
Which of the following would reveal most clearly the absurdity of

the conclusion drawn above?
(1) Counting deaths among doctors who had participated in SARS treatment in addition to deaths among
doctors who had not participated is SARS treatment
(2) Expressing the difference between the numbers of deaths among doctors who had treated SARS sufferers
and doctors who had not treated SARS suffers as a percentage of the total number of deaths
(3) Separating deaths caused by accidents during the treatment to SARS suffers from deaths caused by infect
Page 66

of SARS suffers
(4) Comparing death rates per thousand members of each group rather than comparing total numbers of
deaths
Directions (Q.Nos. 41-44) Read the following passage carefully and

answer the Question given below it.
Six friends Abhishek, Deepak, Mridul, Pritam, Ranjan and Salil married within a year in the months of
February, April, July, September, November and December and in the cities of Ahmedabad, Bengaluru,
Chennai, Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata, but not necessarily following the above order. The brides names were
Geetika, Jasmine, Hema, Brinda, Ipsita and Veena, once again not following any order. The following are
some facts about their weddings.
(i) Mriduls wedding took place in Chennai, however he was not married to Geetika or Veena
(ii) Abhisheks wedding took place in Ahmedabad and Ranjans in Delhi; however neither of them was
married to Jasmine or Brinda
(iii) The wedding in Kolkata took place in February
(iv) Hemas wedding took place in April, but not in Ahmedabad
(v) Geetika and Ipsita got married in February and November and in Chennai and Kolkata but not following
the above order
(vi) Pritam visited Bengaluru and Kolkata only after his marriage in December
(vii) Salil was married to Jasmine to September
41. Hemas husband is

(1) Abhishek
(2) Deepak
(3) Ranjan
(4) Pritam
(5) Mridul
42.
Deepaks wedding took place in
(1) Bengaluru
(2) Mumbai
(3) Kolkata
(4) Delhi
(5) Chennai
43.
In Mumbai, the wedding of one of the friends took place in the month of
(1) April
(2) September
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(3) November
(4) December
(5) July
44.
Salils wedding was held in
(1) Bengaluru
(2) Chennai
(3) Kolkata
(4) Delhi
(5) Mumbai
Directions (Q.Nos. 45-50) Given an input line the machine arranges the words and numbers in steps in
a systematic manner as illustrated below.
Input 59 dress fine shine 32 66 72 offer

Step I 72 56 dress fine shine 32 66 offer
Step II 72 shine 56 dress fine 32 66 offer
Step III 72 shine 66 56 dress fine 32 offer
Step IV 72 shine 66 offer 56 dress fine 32
Step V 72 shine 66 offer 56 fine dress 32
Step VI 72 shine 66 offer 56 fine 32 dress
STEP VI is the last step and the output in Step VI is the final output.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step
for the given input.
45. Step IV of an input is 62 sound 56 sleep roam present 33 49'.

What will be the input definitely ?
(1) Sound 62 sleep 56 roam present 33 49
(2) Sleep sound 62 56 roam present 33 49
(3) 62 Sound sleep 56 roam present 33 49
(4) Cannot be determined
46. Which of the following will be the third step for input jockey
firm 36 43 growth chart 22 45 ?
(1) 45 jockey 43 growth firm 36 chart 22
(2) 45 jockey 43 firm growth 36 chart 22
(3) 45 jockey 43 growth 36 firm chart 22
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(4) 45 jockey 43 firm 36 growth chart 22
47. Step n of an input is 53 window 42 50 door lock key 36'. How

many more steps will be required to complete the arrangement?
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six
(5) None of these
48. What will be the fifth step of an input whose first step is 85
journey train 36 54 daily 28 mansion ?
(1) 85 train 54 mansion 28 journey daily 36
(2) 85 train 54 mansion journey 36 daily 28
(3) 85 train 54 mansion 36 journey daily 28
(4) There is no such step
49. Which step will be the last step for an input whose second step is
63 Sour 18 56 grapes healthy 32 rise ?
(1) IV
(2) V
(3) VIII
(4) VII
(5) None of these
50.
Which word/number will be sixth from right in step fifth whose second step is 63 Sour 18 56 grapes
healthy 32 rise?
(1) Rise
(2) 56
(3) Sour
(4) 32
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Directions (Q. Nos. 51-58) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below
it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the
questions.
The great fear in Asia a short while ago was that the region would suffer through the wealth
destruction already taking place in the U.S as a result of the financial crisis. Stock markets tumbled as
exports plunged and economic growth deteriorated. Lofty property prices in China and elsewhere
looked set to bust as credit tightened and buyers evaporated. But with surprising speed, fear in Asia
swung back to greed as the region shows signs of recovery and property and stock prices are soaring
in many parts of Asia. Why should this sharp Asian turnaround be greeted with skepticism? Higher
asset prices mean households feel wealthier and better able to spend, which could further fuel the
regions nascent rebound. But just as easily, Asia could soon find itself saddled with overheated
markets similar to the U.S. housing market.
In short, the world has not changed, it has just moved placed. The incipient bubble is being created by
government policy. In response to the global credit crunch of 2008. Policy makers in Asia I slashed
interest rates and flooded financial sectors with cash in frantic attempts to keep loans flowing and
economies growing. These steps were logical for central bankers striving to reverse a deepening
economic crisis. But there is evidence that there is too much easy money around. Its winding up in
stocks and real estate, pushing prices up too far and too fast for the undenying economic
fundamentals. Much of the concern is focused on China where government stimulus efforts have been
large and effective, Money in China has been especially easy to find. Aggregate new bank lending
surged 201% in first half of 2009 from the same period a year earlier, to nearly 51.1 turn on.
Exuberance over a quick recovery which was given a boost by Chinas surprisingly strong 7.9% GDP
growth in the second quarter has buoyed investor sentiment not just for stocks but also for real estate.
Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that bubbles could only be
recognised in hand sight. But investors who have been well schooled in the dangers of bubbles over the
past decade are increasingly wary that prices have risen too far and that the slightest bit of negative,
economic news could knock markets for a loop. These fears are compounded by the possibility that
Asias central bankers will begin taking stops to shut off the money. Rumours that Beijing was on the
verge of tightening credit led to Shanghai stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that,
there is close to a zero possibility that the Chinese \ government will do anything this year that
constitutes tightening. And without a major shift in thinking, the easy-money conditions will stay in
place. In a global economy that has produced more dramatic ups and downs than anyone thought
possible over the past two years. Asia may be neading for another disheartening plunge.
51. To which of the following has the author attributed the 2008
Asian financial crisis?
(A) Reluctance or Asian governments to taper off the economic stimulus.
(B) Greed of Asian investors causing them to trade 1 stocks of American companies at high prices.
(C) Inflated real estate prices in Asian countries.
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(1) None
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only (C)
(4) (A) and (B)
(5) Only (B)
52. What does the author want to convey through the phrase The
world has not changed it has just moved places?
(1) At present countries are more dependent on Asian economies than on the US economy
(2) Economies have become interlinked on account of globalisation
(3) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed countries
(4) All economies are susceptible to recession because of the state of the US economy
53. Which of the following can be said about the Chinese

governments efforts to revive the economy?
(1) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market improved
(2) The governments only concern was to boost investor confidence in stocks
(3) These efforts were ineffectual as-the economy recovered owing to the US market stabilising
(4) These were appropriate and accomplished the goal of economic revival
(5) They blindly imitated the economic reforms adopted by the US
54. Why do experts predict that Asian policymakers will not

withdraw fiscal stimulus?
(A) The US economy is not likely to recover for a long time.
(B) Stock markets are yet to regain their former levels.
(C) Fear of revolt by greedy citizens.
(1) None of these
(2) Only (C)
(3) (A) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) (B) and (C)
55. What do the statistics about loans given by Chinese banks in

2009 indicate?
(1) There was hardly any demand for loans in 2008
(2) The Chinese government has borrowed funds from the US
(3) China will take longer than the US to recover from the economic crisis
(4) The GDP of China was below expectations
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56. Why has investor confidence in the Chinese stock market been
restored?
(A) Existing property prices which are stable and affordable.
(B) The government has decided to tighten credit.
(C) Healthy growth of the economy indicated by GDP figures.
(1) Only (C)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) All (A), (B) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) None of these
57. What is the authors main objective in writing the passage?

(1) Illustrating that Asian economies are financially more sound than those of developed countries
(2) Disputing financial theories about how recessions can be predicted and avoided
(3) Warning Asian countries about the dangers of favouring fast growth and profits over sound economicprinciples
(4) Extolling Chinas incredible growth and urging other countries to emulate it
(5) Advising governments about the changes in policy to strengthen economic fundamentals
58. Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian
economics?
(1) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to recover
(2) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock markets to crash
(3) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis
(4) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year
Directions (Q.Nos. 59-65) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below
it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the
questions.
Delays of several months in National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) wage payments
and work sites where labourers have lost all hope of being paid at all have become the norm in many
states. How are workers who exist on the margins of subsistence supposed to feed their families?
Under the scheme, workers must be paid within 15 days, failing which they are entitled, to
compensation under the Payment of Wages Act upto 3000 per aggrieved worker. In reality,
compensation is received in only a few isolated instances. It is often argued by officials that the main
reason for the delay is the inability of banks and post offices to handle mass payments of NREGS
wages. Though there is a grain of truth in this, as a diagnosis it is misleading. The jam in the
banking system has been the result of the hasty switch to bank payments imposed by the Central
Government against the recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council which
Page 72

advocated a gradual transition starting with villages relatively close to the nearest bank. However,
delays are not confined solely to the banking system. Operational hurdles include implementing
agencies taking more than fifteen days to issue payment orders, viewing of work measurement as a
cumbersome process resulting in procrastination by the engineering staff and non maintenance of
muster rolls and job card etc. But behind these delays lies a deeper and deliberate backlash against
the NREGS. With bank payments making it much harder to embezzle NREGS funds, the programme
is seen as a headache by many government functionaries the workload has remained without the
inducements. Slowing down wage payments is a convenient way of sabotaging the scheme because
workers will desert NREGS worksites.
The common sense solution advocated by the government is to adopt the business correspondent
model. Where in bank agents will go to villages to make cash payments and duly record them on
handheld, electronic devices. This solution is based on the wrong diagnosis that distance separating
villages from banks is the main issue. In order to accelerate payments, clear timelines for every step of
the payment process should be incorporated into the system as Programme Officers often have no
data on delays and cannot exert due pressure to remedy the situation. Workers are both clueless and
powerless with no provision for them to air their grievances and seek redress. In drought affected
areas the system of piece rate work can be dispensed with where work measurement is not completed
within a week and wages may be paid on the basis of attendance. Buffer funds can be provided to
gram panchayats and post offices to avoid bottlenecks in the flow of funds. Partial advances could also
be considered provided wage payments are meticulously tracked. But failure to recognise problems
and unwillingness to remedy them will remain major threats to the NREGS.
59. What impact have late wage payments had on NREGS workers?
(1) They cannot obtain employment till their dues are cleared
(2) They have benefited from the compensation awarded to them
(3) They have been unable to provide for their families
(4) They have been ostracised by their families who depend on them for sustenance
60. Which of the following factors has not been responsible for
untimely payment of NREGS wages?
(1) Communication delays between agencies implementing the scheme
(2) Improper record keeping
(3) Behind schedule release of payments by banks
(4) Drought conditions prevalent in the country
(5) Delays in work measurement
61. What has the outcome of disbursing NREGS wages through

banks been?
(1) Theft of funds by administration officials responsible for the scheme has reduced
(2) Increased work load for local government officials
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(3) Protests by workers who have to travel long distances to the nearest bank to claim their wages
(4) Time consuming formalities have to be completed by workers
62. According to the passage, which of the following has/have been

the consequence (s) of delayed wage payments?
(A) Compensation to victimised workers has amounted to crores.
(B) Banks will no longer be entrusted with remitting wages.
(C) Regulations to ensure punctual wage payments have come into force.
(1) None of these
(2) Only (A)
(3) (A) and (C)
(4) (A) and (B)
(5) (B) and (C)
63. To which of the following has the author attributed the delay in
wage payments?
(1) Embezzlement of funds by corrupt bank staff
(2) Lack of monitoring by the Central Employment Guarantee Council
(3) An attempt to derail the NREGS by vested interests
(4) Overworked bank staff deliberately delay payments to protest against extra work
(5) Engineers efforts to wreck the NREGS because of low wages
64. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the

passage?
(A) Workers are reluctant to open bank accounts as branches are not conveniently located.
(B) Local officials often delay wage payments in drought prone areas to benefit workers.
(C) The Government has not implemented every recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee
Council.
(1) Only(B)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B) and (C) (4) (A) and (C)
(5) All of these
65. Which of the following can be considered a deficiency in the

NREGS?
(1) Lack of co-ordination among Programme Officers
(2) Local officials are unaware of correct operational procedures
(3) Workers have no means of obtaining redressal for untimely wage payments
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(4) Disbursing wages through banks instead of readily accessible post offices
(5) The Central Employment Guarantee Council is reluctant to award compensation to workers
Directions (Q. No. 66-70) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) (E) and (F) into a meaningful
paragraph and then answer the questions given below it.
(A) Moreover salaries in public sector enterprises are not as competitive as those offered by private or
foreign corporates.
(B) This trend should be a wake up call for stakeholders to examine why employees are seeking better
opportunities with private companies in India and abroad.
(C) Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) have been experiencing severe challenges in attracting motivating and
retaining their key staff.
(D) Having identified these as the reasons employees leave PSEs it is important empower stakeholders to
find ways to remedy the situation.
(E) One reason is that young employees lured away to private firms are more willing to undertake
professional risks.
(F) Employees in specialist roles especially have become increasingly difficult to retain.
66. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after

rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
67. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after

rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F
68. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after

rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
69. Which of the following should be FIFTH sentence after

rearrangement?
Page 75

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
70. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence

after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Directions (Q. Nos. 71 -80) In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against
each five words have been suggested, one of which fills the blanks appropriately. Find out the
appropriate word in each case.
Traditional bank architecture is based on bank branches. These branches ensure the physical (71) of a
customers savings. A customer may go there to deposit and withdraw money, (72) loans and (73) in
other financial transactions. In the past two decades banking architecture has changed the Automated
Teller Machine (ATM) has been a big (74) and credit and debit cards have created new financial
spaces. (75) the bank branch has remained the bedrock of the banking system after all a person needs
a bank account in a branch before he can operate a debit or ATM card. This may be about to change
as technocrats now (76) cell phones as the new architecture of virtual banks. This has the potential to
make branches (77). Cell phone banking looks especially relevant for India, since it can penetrate the
countryside cheaply and (78). The world over cell phones are spreaing at a (79) rate and in India alone
new cell phone connection are growing at the rate of six million a month a rate of customer (80) that
no bank can dream of.
71.
(1) knowledge
(2) security
(3) presence
(4) confidentiality
(5) guarantee
72.
(1) negotiate
(2) advance
(3) credit
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(4) disburse
(5) sanction
73.
(1) pursue
(2) interact
(3) operate
(4) enable
(5) engage
74.
(1) drawback
(2) hurdle
(3) consequence
(4) luxury
(5) innovation
75.
(1) Despite
(2) Although
(3) Even (4) Yet
(5) Until
76.
(1) view
(2) realise
(3) display
(4) engineer
(5) assess
77.
(1) essential (2) obsolete
(3) extant (4) retreat
(5) expired
78.
(1) moderately
(2) occasionally
(3) compulsorily
Page 77

(4) indiscriminately
(5) effectively
79.
(1) phenomenal
(2) gradual
(3) proportionate
(4) competitive
(5) projected
80.
(1) discount
(2) base
(3) expansion
(4) satisfaction
(5) relationship
Directions (Q. Nos. 81-85) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something
has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as
a whole.
81. In an effort to provide for higher education to all, most of the

universities have been providing education without adequate
infrastructure, thus churning out graduates every year.
(1) chances, fresh
(2) platform, capable
(3) opportunities, unemployable
(4) prospects, eligible
(5) policy, incompetent
82. The move to allow dumping of mercury an outcry from

residents of the area who that high levels of mercury will affect
their health and destroy ecologically sensitive forest area.
(1) resulted, insist
(2) provoked, fear
(3) incited, determined
(4) activated, accept
(5) angered, believe
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83. Even as the elsewhere in the world are struggling to come out of
recession, Indian consumers are splurging on consumer goods and
to this growth, companies are investing heavily in various sectors.
(1) economies, meet
(2) countries, inhibit
(3) governments, measure
(4) nations, inflict
(5) companies, counter
84. Drawing attention to the pitfalls of solely on Uranium as a fuel

for nuclear reactors, Indian scientists warned that Uranium will not
last for long and thus research on Thorium as its must be revived.
(1) using, substitute
(2) believing, replacement
(3) depending, reserve
(4) reckoning, option
(5) relying, alternative
85. ............... has been taken against some wholesale drug dealers for
dealing in surgical items without a valid license and maintaining a
stock of drugs.
(1) Note, overwhelming
(2) Step, impressive
(3) Execution, outdated
(4) Action, expired
(5) Lawsuit, invalid
Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4)
given below each statement should be placed in the blank space
provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct
sentence? If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark (5) i.e./None
of the above as the answer.
86. Overlooking the fact that water scarcity intensifies during
summer, ...............
(1) the government issued guidelines to all builders to limit their consumption to acceptable limits
(2) provision for rainwater harvesting has been made to aid irrigation in drought prone area
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(3) the water table did not improve even after receiving normal monsoon in the current year
(4) many residential areas continue to use swimming pools, wasting large quantities water
87. Refuting the rationale behind frequent agitations for formation

of separate states, a recent report ..................
(1) proved that such agitations result in loss of governmental property
(2) indicated that the formation of small states does not necessarily improve the economy
(3) suggested that only large scale agitations have been effective in bringing out desired change in the past
(4) recommended dividing large states into smaller ones to improve governance
88. Achieving equality for women is not only a laudable goal,

..................
(1) political reforms are also neglected preventing women from entering legislatures and positions of power
(2) the problem is also deep rooted in the society and supported by it
(3) their empowerment is purposefully hampered by people with vested interests in all sections of the society
(4) it is also equally difficult to achieve and maintain for a long term
89. He has lost most of his lifes earning in the stock market but
...................
(1) he still seems to be leading his life luxuriously and extravagantly
(2) ha could not save enough to repay his enormous debts
(3) stock market is not a safe option to invest money unless done with caution
(4) experts have been suggesting to avoid investments in stock market because of its unpredictable nature
90. ............... or else they would not keep electing him year after
year.
(1) The party leader gave a strong message to the mayor for improving his political style
(2) Owing to numerous scandals against the mayor, he was told to resign from the post immediately
(3) The mayor threatened the residents against filing a complaint against him
(4) The residents must really be impressed with the political style of their mayor
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Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) In each of the following questions, a question is followed by information
given in three Statements I, II and III. You have to study the question along with the statements and
decide the information given in which of the statement(s) is necessary to answer the question.
91. In how many days 10 women can finish the work?

I. 10 men finish the work in 6 days.
II. 10 women and 10 men finish the work in days.
III. If 10 men work 3 days and after that 10 women are deployed to work for men, the rest work is finished
in 4 days.
(1) I and II
(2) Any two of three
(3) I and III
(4) II and III
(5) None of these
92. What is the present age of Sabir?

I. The present age of Sabir is half of his fathers age.
II. After five years the ratio of ages of Sabir and his father is 6:11.
III. Sabir is younger to his brother by five years.
(1) 1 and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) All of these
93. What is two digit number?

I. The difference between the number and the number formed by interchanging the digit is 27.
II. The difference between two digits is 3.
III. The digit at units place is less than that at tens place by 3.
(1) 1 and II
(2) I and either II or III
(3) I and III
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
94. What is the rate of interest Percent per annum?

I. An amount doubles itself in 5 yr on simple interest.
II. Difference between the compound interest and the simple interest earned on a certain amount in two
Page 81

years is Rs400.
III. Simple interest earned per annum is Rs2000.
(1) Only I
(2) II and III
(3) Any two of three
(4) I or II and III
(5) Only I or II and III
95. What is the cost of flooring the rectangular hall?

I. Length and the breadth of the hall are in the ratio of 3:2.
II. Length of the hall is 48 m and cost of flooring is Rs850 per sq m.
III. Perimeter of the hall is 160 m and cost of flooring is Rs850 per sq m.
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) Only III
(4) I and either II or III
(5) Any two of the three
96. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and the

denominator is increased by 25%, the fraction obtained is . What
was the original fraction?
(1) 5/7
(2) 4/7
(3) 3/8
(5) None of the three
97. If the positions of the digits of a two-digit number are

interchanged, the number obtained is smaller than the original
number by 27. If the digits of the number are in the ratio of 1 : 2,
what is the original number?
(1) 36 (2) 63
(3) 48
(5) None of these
98. One of the angles of a quadrilateral is thrice the smaller angle of

a parallelogram. The respective ratio between the adjacent angles of
the parallelogram is 4:5. Remaining three angles of the
Page 82

quadrilateral are in ratio 4:11:9 respectively. What is the sum of the

largest and the smallest angles of the quadrilateral?
(1) 255
(2) 260
(3) 265
(4) 270
(5) None of these
99. An aeroplane flies with an average speed of 756 km/h. A

helicopter takes 48 h to cover twice the distance covered by
aeroplane in 9 h. How much distance will the helicopter cover in 18
h? (Assuming that flights are non-stop and moving with uniform
speed.)
(1) 5010 km
(2) 4875 km
(3) 5760 km
(4) 5103 km
(5) None of these
Page 83

Directions (Q. Nos. 105-109) In the following number series, a

wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.
105. 29, 37, 21,43 ,13, 53, 5
(1) 37
(2) 53
(3) 13
(4) 21
(5) 43
106. 600, 125, 30, 13, 7.2, 6.44, 6.288

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 12
(5) None of these
107. 80, 42, 24, 13.5, 8.75, 6.375, 5.1875

(1) 8.75
(2) 13.5
(3) 24
(4) 6.375
(5) 42
108. 10, 8, 13, 35, 135, 671, 4007

(1) 8
(2) 671
(3) 135
(4) 13
(5) 35
109. 150, 290, 560, 1120, 2140, 4230, 8400

(1) 2140
(2) 560
(3) 1120
(4) 4230
(5) 290
Page 84

Directions (Q.Nos. 110-114) These questions are based on the following data. The distribution of
appeared and qualified aspirants in competitive examination from different States.
Total appeared aspirants = 45000
110. What is the ratio of the number of appeared aspirants from

States C and E together to that of the appeared aspirants from
States A and F together?
Page 85

(1) 17:33
(2) 11:13
(3) 13:27
(4) 17:27
(5) None of these
111. In which state the percentage of qualified aspirants to

appeared aspirants is the least?
(1) C
(2) F
(3) D
(4) E
(5) G
112. What is the difference in the number of qualified aspirants in

states D and G?
(1) 690
(2) 670
(3) 780
(4) 720
(5) None of these
113. What is the percentage of qualified aspirants with respect to

appeared aspirants from states B and C taken together? (Rounded
off to two decimal places.)
(1) 23.11
(2) 24.21
(3) 21.24
(4) 23
(5) None of these
114. What is the ratio between number of candidates qualified from

States B and D together and the number of candidates appeared
from States C respectively?
(1) 8:37
(2) 11:12
(3) 37 : 40
(4) 7 : 37
Page 86

Directions (Q. Nos. 115-119) In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given.
You have to solve both the equations and give
Page 87

sector expenditure there was a continuous decrease in which sector?
(1) In no sector (2) Health
(3) Education (4) Social services
(5) Social welfare and related areas
123. For plan VI out of public sector expenditure, what per cent of
expenditure is on Housing and Urban services?
(1) 0.35
(2) 25
(3) 25.5
(4) 2.5
(5) 20.5
124. For all the given plans, what was the difference in expenditure
on education and health?
(1) Rs 220400000
(2) Rs 224000000
(3) Rs 22040000000
(4) Rs 220400000000
(5) None of these
125. The respective ratio between the present ages of son, mother,
father and grandfather is 2:7:8:12 The average age of son and
mother is 27 yr. What will be mothers age after 7 yr?
(1) 40yr
(2) 41 yr
(3) 48 yr
(4) 49 yr
(5) None of these
126. In an examination, Raman scored 25 marks less than Rohit.

Rohit scored 45 more marks than Sonia. Rohan scored 75 marks
which is 10 more than Sonia. Ravis score is 50 less than, maximum
marks of the test. What approximate percentage of marks did Ravi
score in the examination, if he gets 34 marks more than Raman?
(1) 90
(2) 70
(3) 80
Page 88

(4) 60
(5) 85
127. 8 men and 4 women together can complete a piece, of work in 6

days. The work done by a man in one day is double the work done
by a woman in one day. If 8 men and 4 women started working and
after 2 days 4 men left and 4 new women joined, in how many more
days will the work be completed?
(1) 5 days
(2) 8 days
(3) 6 days
(4) 4 days
(5) 9 days
128. Mr Giridhar spends 50% of his monthly income on household

items and out of the remaining he spends 50% on transport, 25%
on entertainment, 10% on sports and the remaining amount of Rs
900 is saved. What is Mr Giridhars monthly income?
(1) Rs 6000
(2) Rs 12000
(3) Rs 9000
(5) None of these
129. The cost of fencing a circular plot at the rate of Rs15 per m is
Rs 3300. What will be the cost of flooring the plot at the rate of Rs
100 per sq m?
(1) Rs 385000
(2) Rs 220000
(3) Rs 350000
(5) None of these
130. The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal in 8

yr at the rate of 13% per year is Rs 6500. What would be the
compound interest accrued on that principal at the rate of 8% per
year in 2 yr?
Page 89

(1) Rs 1040
(2) Rs 1020
(3) Rs 1060
(4) Rs 1200
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 131-135) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that
follow.
There are two trains . A and B. Both trains have four different types of coaches viz. General coaches,
sleeper coaches, first class coaches and AC coaches. In train A, there are total 700 passengers. Train B
has 30% more passengers than train A. 20% of the passengers of train A are in general coaches. Onefourth of the total number of passengers of train A are in AC coaches. 23% of the passengers of train
A are in sleeper class coaches. Remaining passengers of train A are in first class coaches. Total
number of passengers in AC coaches in both the trains together is 480. 30% of the number of
passengers of train B is in sleeper class coaches, 10% of the total passengers .of train B are in first
class coaches. Remaining passengers of train B are in general class coaches.
131. What is the ratio of the number of passengers in first class

coaches of train A to the number of passengers in sleeper class
coaches of train B?
(1) 13:7
(2) 7:13
(3) 32 : 39
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
132. What is the total number of passengers in the general coaches

of train A and the AC coaches of train B together?
(1) 449
(2) 459
(3) 435
(4) 445
(5) None of these
133. What is the difference between the number of passengers in the

AC coaches of train A and total number of passengers in sleeper
class coaches and first class coaches together of train B?
(1) 199
(2) 178
(3) 187
Page 90

(4) 179
(5) None of these
134. Total number of passengers in general class coaches in both the

trains together is approximately. What percentage of total number
of passengers in train B?
(1) 35
(2) 42
(3) 45
(4) 38
(5) 31
135. If cost of per ticket of first class coach ticket is Rs 450, what
total amount will be generated from first class coaches of train A?
(1) Rs 100080
(2) Rs 108000
(3) Rs 100800
(4) Rs 10800
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 136-140) Study the following pie chart carefully
to answer the questions.
Degree Wise Break-up of Employees Working in Various
Departments of an Organization and the ratio of Men to Women
Page 91

136. What is the number of men working in the Marketing

department?
(1) 462
(2) 454
(3) 418
(4) 424
(5) None of these
137. What is the respective ratio of the number of women working

in the HR department to the number of men working in the IT
department?
(1) 11:12
(2) 17:29
(3) 13:28
(4) 12:35
(5) None of these
138. The number of men working in the production department of

the organisation forms what per cent of the total number of
employees working in that department?
(1) 88%
(2) 90%
(3) 75%
Page 92

(4) 65%
(5) None of these
139. The number of women working in the IT department of the

organization forms what per cent of the total number of employees
in the organization from all departments together?
(1) 3.2%
(2) 4.8%
(3) 6.3%
(4) 5.6%
(5) None of these
140. What is the total number of men working in the organization?

(1) 2198
(2) 2147
(3) 2073
(4) 2236
(5) None of these
Page 93


141. Which of the following is a receipt listed in India and traded in
rupees declaring ownership of shares of a foreign company?
(1) Indian Depository Receipt (IDR)
(2) European Depository Receipt (EDR)
(3) Global Depository Receipt (GDR)
(4) American Depository Receipt (ADR)
(5) Luxemburg Depository Receipt (LDR)
142. A bank without any branch network that offers its services
remotely through online banking, telephone/mobile banking and
interbank ATM network alliances is known as
(1) Universal Banking
(2) Indirect Bank
(3) Door Step Bank
(4) A Direct Bank
(5) Unit Banking
143. Which of the following Indian Universities is Asias largest

residential university?
(1) Allahabad University
(2) Utkal University
(3) Banaras Hindu University
(4) Anna University
(5) Jawaharlal Nehru University
144. In October, 2013, which country has confirmed plans to create

a secure mail service to protect its citizens and businesses against
foreign espionage?
(1) Mexico
(2) Brazil
(3) Sweden
(4) Germany
(5) None of these
145. The campaign name Heal India aims to create awareness

about which of the following diseases?
Page 94

(1) Mental illness
(2) AIDS
(3) Leprosy
(4) Alzheimer
(5) None of these
146. The target set by the UIDAI for issuance of Aadhaar cards
upto 2014 is
(1) 50 crore cards
(2) 55 crore cards
(3) 45 crore cards
(4) 40 crore cards
(5) 60 crore cards
147. Which of the following nations has signed a comprehensive free

trade agreement with European Union?
(1) Japan
(2) China
(3) Russia
(4) Canada
(5) None of these
148. According to the provisions of the income Tax Act, 1961 a

resident individual is categorised as a very senior citizen when he
is
(1) 80 yr of age or older
(4) 85-yr of age or older
149. Who among the following has recently been conferred with the
first Yash Chopra Memorial Award?
(2) Madhuri Dixit Nene
(3) Ramesh Sippy
(4) Lata Mangeshkar
(5) AR Rahman
150. Which of the following is an investment advisory discipline?

Page 95

(1) Corporate Industrial Finance
(2) Offshare Banking
(3) Wholesale Banking
(4) Wealth Management
(5) Trade Finance
151. The Aadhar-enabled Payment System (AEPS) is a bank-led

model that facihtates banking facilities through banking
correspondents across banks. However, Aadhaar- enabled basic
types of banking transactions do not include
(1) Aadhaar to Aadhaar funds transfer
(2) Small overdraft facility
(3) Cash withdrawal
(4) Balance enquiry
(5) Cash deposit
152. A type of fraud wherein criminals use an innocent persons

details to open or use an account to carry out financial transactions
is known as
(1) identity theft
(2) hacking
(3) money laundering
(4) espionage
(5) phishing
153. Deepak Lathore is related to which of the following sports?

(1) Hockey
(2) Cricket
(3) Badminton
(4) Football
(5) Weightlifting
154. Who among the following is the author of the book The
Lowland?
(1) Jhumpa Lahiri
(2) Amitav Ghosh
(3) Salman Rushdie
Page 96

(4) Hamid Ansari
(5) Chetan Bhagat
155. Which of the following Indian actresses- has recently (October,

2013 been honoured at the British House of Commons for her
contribution to the global entertainment industry?
(1) Shabana Azmi
(2) Kareena Kapoor
(3) Nandita Das
(4) Aishwarya Rai Bachchan
(5) Vidya Balan
156. Who among the following is the current Chief Election

Commissioner (CEC) of India?
(1) KG Balakrishnan
(2) Ranjit Sinha
(3) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(4) VS Sampath
(5) SY Quraishi
157. The part of a companys earnings or profits which are paid out
to shareholders is known as
(1) capital gains
(2) taxes
(3) interest on borrowings
(4) dividends
(5) penal interest
158. NABARD is responsible for regulating and Supervising the

functions of
(1) Investment and Industrial Finance Banks
(2) Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks
(3) Corporate Finance and Overseas Banking Units
(4) Private Sector and Multinational Banks
(5) Reserve Bank of India
159. The government of India has announced a funding for

lending scheme. Who are. the beneficiaries for this scheme?
Page 97

(1) Commercial Banks
(2) Regional Rural Banks
(3) Micro-finance Institutions
(4) Finance Departments of the State Governments
160. The arrangement under which banks sell insurance products

acting as the agents of the respective companies is called the
(1) Insurance joint venture
(2) Bancassurance Model
(3) Hybrid Insurance Model
(4) Insurance Broking
(5) Integrated Model
161. The concept of Micro Credit essentially concentrates on

(1) consumption smoothening as and when needed
(2) providing safe place to hold savings
(3) accepting deposits
(4) provision of credit to the poor
(5) facility to transfer money
162. With effect from July 1, 2012, for calculation of lending, rates,
the Reserve Bank of India has advised banks to switch over to the
(1) MSF Rate System
(2) Reverse Repo Rate System
(3) Bank Rate System
(4) Repo Rate System
(5) Base Rate System
163. An Equity share is also commonly referred to as

(1) ordinary share
(2) debenture
(3) convertible share
(4) security receipt
(5) preferred stock
164. Which among the following Companies in India has a tie-up

with the Japanese Financial Nomura for insurance market?
(1) ICICI Bank
(2) UCO Bank
Page 98

(3) Kotak Finance
(4) Life Insurance Corporation of India
165. The seed capital of Bhartiya Mahila Bank is

(1) Rs 2000 crore
(2) Rs 1000 crore
(3) Rs 4000 crore
(4) Rs 3000 crore
(5) None of these
166. The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialised agency

of the United Nations (UN) that is concerned with international
Public Health. It is headquartered at
(1) Sweden
(2) Switzerland
(3) United Kingdom
(4) France
(5) Germany
167. The process by which a life insurance policyholder can transfer

all rights, title and interest under a policy contract to a third person
is known as
(1) Assignment of the policy
(2) Hypothecation of the policy
(3) Reinvestment of the policy
(4) Negotiation of the policy
(5) Nomination of the policy
168. Which of the following communities is not notified as a

minority community by the ministry of Welfare, Government of
India?
(1) Sikhs
(2) Zoroastrians
(3) Buddhists
(4) Jains
(5) Christians
Page 99

169. In October, 2013, which of the following countries has decided

to scrap its two currency system?
(1) Mongolia
(2) Sweden
(3) Cuba
(4) Jamaica
(5) None of these
170. Cheraw, the Bamboo Dance, is of which Indian states?

(1) Mizoram
(2) Sikkim
(3) Arunachal Pradesh
(4) Manipur
(5) Asom
171. 8th National Conference of Krishi Vigyan Kendra-2013 was

held at
(1) Chennai
(2) Mumbai
(3) Lucknow
(4) Kolkata
(5) Bangalore
172. Which of the following institutions is regarded as the Lender

of the Last Resort by Banks in India?
(1) State Bank of India (SBI)
(2) The State Treasury
(3) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(4) World Bank
(5) Department of Financial Services (DFS)
173. A banks fixed deposit is also referred to as a

(1) term deposit
(2) savings bank deposit
(3) current deposit
(4) demand deposit
(5) home savings deposit
Page 100

174. To improve access of the poor to banking, RBI has advised

banks to open branches with minimum infrastructure supporting
up to 8 to 10 Business Correspondents (BC) at a reasonable distance
of 3-4 km. Such branches are known as
(1) Nodal branches
(2) Micro branches
(3) Mini branches
(4) Ultra small branches
(5) Satellite branches
175. Which of the following services relate to execution of

transactions directly with consumers, rather than corporations or
other banks?
(1) Wholesale Banking Services
(2) Industrial Banking Services
(3) Investment Banking Services
(4) Corporate Banking Services
(5) Retail Banking Services
176. World Food Day is celebrated every year around the world on
(1) July 4
(2) October 16
(4) August 12
(5) May 18
177. As per Census 2011, which of the following Indian states has
the lowest population density?
(1) Nagaland
(2) Manipur
(3) Arunachal Pradesh
(4) Himachal Pradesh
(5) Meghalaya
178. The minimum age for becoming a member of Rajya Sabha is

(1) 28yr
(2) 40yr
(3) 30yr
Page 101

(4) 35yr
(5) 25yr
179. Banks mandatory lending to farmers for agriculture, micro

and small enterprises and other weaker sections where in banks are
required to lend up to 40% of the loans is generally described as
(1) Para banking
(2) Sub-prime lending
(3) Retail lending
(4) Non-priority sector lending
(5) Priority sector lending
180. Which of the following statements regarding the Direct

Benefits Transfer Scheme (DBT) of the government of India is
not true?
(1) The scheme covers LPQ subsidies, pension payments and scholarships
(2) Indirect transfers of benefits are more prone to leakage than direct transfers
(3) Under DBT, money is directly transferred into bank accounts of beneficiaries
(4) The scheme was launched on January 1, 2013 to cover 20 districts initially
(5) The scheme is likely to increase the subsidy bill of the government
Page 102


181. Macros stored in the global macro sheet can be used
(1) in the current document only
(2) in any document
(3) can be used only with other macros of the global macro sheet
(4) not consistent behaviour
182. About pasting from the clip board

(1) a part of the clip board contents can be pasted
(2) whole of the contents of clip board can be pasted
(3) sometimes (1) and sometimes (2)
(4) (1) and (2)
183. One of the following statements is not true for BUFFERS

command
(1) Increasing numbers of BUFFERS can speed program execution, but only to a certain extent
(2) The more buffers that exist the more sectors can be stored in memory; hence fewer accesses of disk are
necessary
(3) The BUFFERS command is used to establish the number of disk buffers set up by MS-DOS during
booting
(4) All of the above
184. EPROM can be used for

(1) erasing the contents of ROM
(2) reconstructing the contents of ROM
(3) erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM
(4) duplicating the ROM
185. Attributes can be defined for

(1) entity
(2) switch board
(3) macro
(4) pages
Page 103

186. Where will we find the referential integrity command ?

(1) Tools
(2) View
(3) Format
(4) Table
(5) None of these
187. Anything that is typed in a worksheet appears

(1) in the formula bar only
(2) in the active cell only
(3) in both active cell and formula bar
(4) in the formula bar first and when we press ENTER it appears in active cell
188. Which bar is usually located below the Title Bar that provides
categorised options ?
(1) Menu Bar (2) Status Bar
(3) Toolbar (4) Scroll Bar
189. A pixel is
(1) a computer program that draws picture
(2) a picture stored in the secondary memory
(3) the smallest resolvable part of a picture
(4) a virus
190. How many types of cell references are available in Excel ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 10
(5) None of these
191. VIRUS stands for

(1) Very Important Record User Searched
(2) Verify Interchanged Result Until Source
(3) Virtual Information Resource Under Seize
Page 104

(4) Very Important Resource Under Search
192. Unlike filters queries can be saved as in a database.

(1) objects
(2) filters
(3) database
(4) Any of the above
(5) None of these
193. Table of contents can be prepared by using

(1) macros
(2) headings as HI, H2, H3 and more in the document
(3) by table of contents in tools menu
(4) (2) and (3)
194. Table in Word is a grid of rows and columns, with each cell can
have
(1) text or graphics
(2) only text
(3) only graphics
(4) both
(5) None of these
195. What is a database ?

(1) It is a collection of data arranged in rows
(2) It is a collection of data arranged in columns
(3) It is a collection of data arranged in rows and columns
196. Which switch should be used in the DIR command to view files
in a directories ?
(1) /P
(2) /W
(3) /S
(4) /L
(5) None of these
Page 105

197. When a key is pressed on the keyboard, which standard is used

for converting the keystroke into the corresponding bits ?
(1) ANSI
(2) ASCII
(3) EBCDIC
(4) ISO
198. External database is

(1) Database created in EXCEL
(2) Database created using DBMS package.
(3) Database created in MS-Word
199. Which command we will give if we want to show the database

objects with its description ?
(1) Details
(2) Show
(3) List
(4) Any of the above
200. Word allows user to import graphics from

(1) the library which comes bundled with Word
(2) any where in the computer
(3) various graphics format like gif, bmp, png, etc
(4) only gif format
Page 106


Subject: Reasoning
Directions (Q. 1-4) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the
numbers are two-digit numbers.)
Input : tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn
Step I : 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt
StepII : 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn
Step III : 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high
Step IV : 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar
Step V : 56 48 32 28 13 ta99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise
Step VI : 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall
Step VII : 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise
And Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtainied.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step
for the given input.
Input: 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)
1. Which step number is the following output?

32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink
(1) StepV (2) Step VI
(3) Step IV (4) Step III
(5) There is no such step.
2. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in

Step V?
(1) 14 (2) 92
(3) feet (4) best
(5) why
3. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between feet

and 32 as they appear in the last step of the output?
(1) One (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five
(5) Seven
Page 107

4. Which of the following represents the position of why in the

fourth step?
(1) Eighth from the left
(2) Fifth from the right
(3) Sixth from the left
(4) Fifth from the left
(5) Seventh from the left
Directions (Q. 5-11) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions A, B,
C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
B sits second to the left of Hs husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.

Ds daughter sits second to the right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of Hs
husband.
Only one person sits between A and F. A is father of G. Hs brother D sits on the immediate left of Hs
mother. Only one person sits between Hs mother and E.
Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.
5. What is the position of A with respect to his mother-in- law?

(1) Immediate left (2) Third to the right
6. Who amongst the following is Ds daughter?

(1) B
(2) C
(3) E
(4) G
(5) H
7. What is the position of A with respect to his grand child?

(1) Immediate right
(2) Third to the right
8. How many people sit between G and her uncle?
Page 108

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the
given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does
(1) F
(2) C
(3) E
(4) H
(5) G
10. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating
arrangement?
(1) C is cousin of E.
(2) H and Hs husband are immediate neighbours of each other.
(3) No female is an immediate neighbour of C.
(4) H sits third to the left of her daughter.
(5) Bis mother of H.
11. Who sits on the immediate left of C?

(1) Fs grandmother
(2) G s son
(3) Ds mother-in-law
(4) A
(5) G
Directions (Q. 12-18): In each group of questions below are given two/three statements followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem
to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two/three statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
(1) if only conclusion I follows.
(2) if only conclusion II follows.
(3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
(5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.
Page 109

12.
Statements:
Some exams are tests.
No exam is a question.
Conclusions:
I. No question is a test.
II. Some tests are definitely not exams.
(13-14):
Statements:
All forces are energies.
All energies are powers.
No power is heat.
13.
Conclusions:
I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.
14.
Conclusions:
I. No energy is heat.
II. Some forces being heat is a possibility.
(15-16):
Statements: No note is a coin.
Some coins are metals.
All plastics are notes.
15.
Conclusions:
I. No coin is plastic.
II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.
Page 110

16.
Conclusions:
I. No metal is plastic.
II. All notes are plastics.
17.
Statements:
Some symbols are figures.
All symbols are graphics.
No graphic is a picture.
Conclusions:
I. Some graphics are figures.
II. No symbol is a picture.
18.
Statements:
All vacancies are jobs.
Some jobs are occupations.
Conclusions:
I. All vacancies are occupations.
II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.
Directions (Q. 19-21):

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Each of the six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F - scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than
only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest
marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.
19. Which of the following could possibly be Cs score?

(1) 70
(2) 94
(3) 86
Page 111

(4) 61
(5) 81
20. Which of the following is true with respect to the given

information?
(1) Ds score was definitely less than 60.
(2) F scored the maximum marks.
(3) Only two people scored more than C.
(4) There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks.
(5) None is true
21. The person who scored the maximum, scored 13 marks more
than Fs marks. Which of the following can be Ds score?
(1) 94
(2) 60
(3) 89
(4) 78
(5) 81
Directions (Q. 22-29): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight persons from different banks, viz UCO Bank. Syndicate Bank. Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank,
Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra, are sitting in two parallel rows
containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1
A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them
are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another
member of the other row. (All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of
seating as in the final arrangement.)
C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbour of the person
who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
Only one person sits between R and the person from PNB. The immediate neighbour of the person from PNB
faces the person from Canara Bank.
The person from UCO bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of
Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face
the person from Syndicate Bank.
22. Which of the following is true regarding A?

(1) The person from UCO Bank faces A.
(2) The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of A.
(3) A faces the person who sits second to the right of R.
Page 112

(4) A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce.
(5) A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
23. Who is seated between R and the person from PNB?

(1) The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(2) P
(3) Q
(4) The person from Syndicate Bank
(5) S
24. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?
(1) D and the person from PNB
(2) The persons from Indian Bank and UCO Bank
(3) The persons from Dena Bank and P
(4) The persons from Syndicate Bank and D
(5) C,Q
25. Who amongst the following faces the person from Bank of
Maharashtra?
(1) The person from Indian Bank
(2) P
(3) R
(4) The person from Syndicate Bank
(5) The person from Canara Bank
26. P is related to Dena Bank in the same way as B is related to PNB

based on the given arrangement. Who amongst the following is D
related to, following the same pattern?
(1) Syndicate Bank
(2) Canara Bank
(3) Bank of Maharashtra
(4) Indian Bank
(5) Oriental Bank of Commerce
27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the
given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group?
(1) Canara Bank
(2) R
Page 113

(3) Syndicate Bank
(4) Q
28. Who amongst the following is from Syndicate Bank?

(1) C
(2) R
(3) P
(4) D
(5) A
29. C is from which of the following banks?

(1) Dena Bank
(3) UCO Bank
(4) Syndicate Bank
(5) Canara Bank
Directions (Q. 30-34) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements
numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give answer
(1) if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement III are
not required to answer the question.
(2) if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II are
(3) if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I are
(4) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone or in Statement III alone are sufficient to answer
the question.
(5) if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question.
30. Among six people P, Q, R, S, T and V, each lives on a different

floor of a six-storey building having its six floors numbered one to
six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2,
and so on, and the topmost floor is numbered 6).
Who lives on the topmost floor?
I. There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q live. P lives on an even-numbered floor.
II. T does not live on an even-numbered floor. Q lives on an even-numbered floor. Q does not live on the
topmost floor.
Page 114

III. S lives on an odd-numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which S and P live. T lives
on a floor immediately above Rs floor.
31. There are six letters W, A, R, S, N and E. Is ANSWER the

word formed after performing the following operations using these
six letters only?
I. E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to either A or E.
II. R is placed immediately next (either left or right) to E. W is placed immediately next (either left or right)
to S.
III. Both N and W are placed immediately next to S. The word does not begin with R. A is not placed
immediately next to W.
32. Point D is in whieh direction with respect to Point B?

I. Point A is to the west of Point B. Point C is to the north of Point B. Point D is to the south of Point C.
II. Point G is to the south of Point D. Point G is 4m from Point B. Point D is 9m from Point B.
III. Point A is to the west of Point B. Point B is exactly midway between Point A and E. Point F is to the
south of Point E. Point D is to the west of Point F
33. How is one coded in a code language?

I. one of its kind, is coded as zo pi ko fe and in kind and cash is coded as ga to ru ko.
II. its point for origin is coded as ba le fe mi and make a point clear is coded as yu si mi de.
III. make money and cash is coded as to mi ru hy and money of various kind is coded as qu ko zo hy.
34. Are all the four friends, viz A, B, C and D, who are sitting
around a circular table, facing the centre?
I. B sits second to the right of D. D faces the centre. C sits on the immediate right of both B and D.
II. A sits on the immediate left of B. C is not an immediate neighbour of A. C sits on the immediate right of
D.
III. D is an immediate neighbour of both A and C. B sits on the immediate left of A. C sits on the immediate
right of B.
Directions (Q. 35): Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows:
Farmers found using chemical fertilizers in the organic-farming area of their farms would be heavily fined.
35. Which of the following statements is an assumption implicit in

the given statement? (An assumption is something supposed or
taken for granted.)
(1) Chemical fertilisers harm the crop.
(2) A farms area for organic and chemical farming is different.
(3) Farmers who do not use chemical fertilizers in the chemical farming area would be penalized as well.
Page 115

(4) All farmers undertake both these kinds of fanning (chemical as well as organic) in their farms.
(5) Organic fertilizers are banned in the area for chemical farming.
Directions (Q. 36-40): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow
Small brands are now looking beyond local grocery stores and are tying up with supermarkets such as
Big Bazaar to pull their business out of troubled waters.
36. Which of the following can be inferred from the given

information? (An inference is something that is not directly stated
but can be inferred from the given information)
(1) Merchandise of smaller brands would not be available at local grocery stores in the near future.
(2) Smaller brands cannot compete with bigger ones in a supermarket set-up.
(3) There is a perception among small brands that sale in a supermarket is higher than that of small grocery
stores.
(4) Supermarkets generate more revenue by selling products of bigger brands as compared to the smaller
ones.
(5) Smaller brands have always had more tie-ups with supermarkets as compared to small grocery stores.
Directions (Q. 37-40): These questions are based on the information given above and the sentences labelled (A),
(B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) as given below.
(A) A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand,
makes much more profit from the local grocery stores than from the supermarkets.
(B) As the supermarkets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, this step would fail to deliver
results in the smaller cities.
(C) Supermarkets help the smaller brands break into newer markets without investing substantially in
distribution.
(D) Supermarkets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands.
(E) Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local grocery stores is much
lower as compared to the supermarkets.
(F) Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses.
37. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F)
can be assumed from the facts/ information given in the statement?
(An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(4) Both (D) and (E)
(5) Only (F)
Page 116

38. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (E) and (F)
represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the
supermarkets from the perspective of a smaller brand?
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (C)
(3) Only (E)
(4) Only (F)
39. Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned
above represents a reason for the shift from local grocery stores to
Supermarkets by the smaller brands?
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (D)
(4) Both (A) and (D)
(5) Both (C) and (E)
40. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (E) and (F)
mentioned above would prove that the step taken by the smaller
brands (of moving to supermarkets) may not necessarily be correct?
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (C)
(3) Only (E)
(4) Only (F)
(5) Both (B) and (E)
Directions (Q. 41-45): In each of the questions given below which of the five Answer Figures on the
right should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Page 117

Directions (Q. 46-50): In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series/sequence (like Q. 41-45)
. One and only one out of the five figures does not fit in the series/sequence. The number of that figure is you
answer.
46
(1)
Page 118

(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
Page 119

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
Page 120
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Directions (Q. 51 -55) : What will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the following questions?
51. 4003 77 21015 = ? 116
(1) 2477
(2) 2478
(3) 2467
(4) 2476
(5) None of these
52. [(57 + 7) (47 + 87)] (19)2 = ?

(1) 143
(2) 727
(3) 134
(4) 707
(5) None of these
53. (4444 40) + (645 25) + (3991 26) = ?

(1) 280.4
(2) 290.4
(3) 295.4
(4) 285.4
(5) None of these
54.
(1) 37
(2) 33
(3) 34
(4) 28
(5) None of these
55.
(1) 303.75
(2) 305.75
(3) 303
(4) 305
(5) None of these
Page 121

Directions (Q. 56-60): What approximate value should come in

place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note:
You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
56.
8787 343 50=?
(1) 250
(2) 140
(3) 180
(4) 100
(5) 280
57.
(1) 48
(2) 38
(3) 28
(4) 18
(5) 58
58.
of 4011.33 + of 3411.22 = ?
(1) 4810
(2) 4980
(3) 4890
(4) 4930
(5) 4850
59.
23% of 6783 + 57% of 8431 = ?
(1) 6460
(2) 6420
(3) 6320
(4) 6630
(5) 6360
60.
335.01 244.99 55 = ?
Page 122

(1) 1490
(2) 1550
(3) 1420
(4) 1590
(5) 1400
Directions (Q. 61-65) : In each of these questions a number series is

given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong
number.
61.
5531 5506 5425 5304 5135 4910 4621
(1) 5531
(2) 5425
(3) 4621
(4) 5135
(5) 5506
62.
6 7 9 13 26 37 69
(1) 7
(2) 26
(3) 69
(4) 37
(5) 9
63.
1 3 10 36 152 760 4632
(1) 3
(2) 36
(3) 4632
(4) 760 (5) 152
64.
4 3 9 34 96 219 435
(1) 4
(2) 9
(3) 34
Page 123

(4) 435
(5) 219
65.
157.5 45 15 6 3 2 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 157.5
(5) 45
Directions (Q. 66-70): Study the following graph and table carefully
and answer the questions given below:
Time taken to travel (in hours) by six
vehicles on two different days
Page 124

66. Which of the following vehicles travelled at the same speed on

both the days?
(1) Vehicle A
(2) Vehicle C
(3) Vehicle F
(4) Vehicle B
(5) None of these
67. What was the difference between the speed of Vehicle A on Day
1 and the speed of Vehicle C on the same day?
(1) 7 km/hr
(2) 12 km/hr
(3) 11 km/hr
(4) 8 km/hr
(5) None of these
68. What was the speed of Vehicle C on Day 2 in terms of metres

per second?
(1) 15.3
(2) 12.8
(3) 11.5
(4) 13.8
(5) None of these
Page 125

69. The distance travelled by Vehicle F on Day 2 was approximately

what per cent of the distance travelled by it on Day 1?
(1) 80
(2) 65
(3) 85
(4) 95
(5) 90
70. What is the ratio of the speeds of Vehicle D and Vehicle E on

Day 2?
(1) 15:13
(2) 17:13
(3) 13:11
(4) 17:14
(5) None of these
71. An article was purchased for ?78,350. Its price was marked up
by 30%. It was sold at a discount of 20% on the marked-up price.
What was the profit per cent on the cost price?
(1) 4%
(2) 7%
(3) 5%
(4) 3%
(5) 6%
72. When X is subtracted from the numbers 9, 15 and 27, the

remainders are in continued proportion. What is the value of X?
(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 5
(5) None of these
73. What is the difference between the simple and the compound
interest on ` 7,300 at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. in 2 years?
(1) Rs 29.37
(2) Rs 26.28
(3) Rs 31.41
Page 126

(4) Rs 23.22
(5) Rs 21.34
74. The sum of three consecutive numbers is 2262. What is 41% of

the highest number?
(1) 301.51
(2) 303.14
(3) 308.73
(4) 306.35
(5) 309.55
75. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
THERAPY be arranged so that the vowels never come together?
(1) 720
(2) 1440
(3) 5040
(4) 3600
(5) 4800
Page 127

76. What is the ratio of the number of mobile phones sold of

Company B during July to those sold during December of the same
company?
(1) 119 : 145
(2) 116 : 135
(3) 119 : 135
(4) 119 : 130
(5) None of these
Page 128

77. If 35% of the mobile phones sold by Company A during

November were sold at a discount, how many mobile phones of
Company A during that month were sold without a discount?
(1) 882
(2) 1635
(3) 1638
(4) 885
(5) None of these
78. If the shopkeeper earned a profit of Rs 433 on each mobile

phone sold of Company B during October, what was his total profit
earned on the mobile phones of that company during the same
month?
(1) Rs 6,49,900
(2) Rs 6,45,900
(3) Rs 6,49,400
(4) Rs6,49,500
(5) None of these
79. The number of mobile phones sold of Company A during July is

approximately what per cent of the number of mobile phones sold
of Company A during December?
(1) 110
(2) 140
(3) 150
(4) 105
(5) 130
80. What is the total number of mobile phones sold of Company B

during August and September together?
(1) 10000
(2) 15000
(3) 10500
(4) 9500
(5) None of these
Page 129

Directions (Q. 81-85): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow:
The premises of a bank are to be renovated. The renovation is in terms of flooring. Certain areas are
to be floored either with marble or wood. All rooms/halls and pantry are rectangular. The area to be
renovated comprises a hall for customer transaction measuring 23m by 29m, the branch managers
room measuring 13m by 17m, a pantry measuring 14m by 13m, a record keeping-cum-server room
measuring 21 m by 13 m and locker area measuring 29m by 21 m. The total area of the bank is 2000
square metres. The cost of wooden flooring is ` 170 per square metre and the cost of marble flooring is
` 190 per square metre. The locker area, record keeping-cum-server room and pantry are to be
floored with marble. The branch managers room and the hall for customer transaction are to be
floored with wood. No other area is to be renovated in terms of flooring.
81. What is the ratio of the total cost of wooden flooring to the total
cost of marble flooring?
(1) 1879:2527
(2) 1887:2386
(3) 1887:2527
(4) 1829:2527
(5) 1887:2351
82. If the four walls and ceiling of the branch managers room (the
height of the room is 12 metres) are to be painted at the cost of ` 190
per square metre, how much will be the total cost of renovation of
the branch managers room, including the cost of flooring?
(1) Rs 1,36,800
(2) Rs 2,16,660
(3) Rs 1,78,790
(4) Rs 2,11,940
(5) None of these
83. If the remaining area of the bank is to be carpeted at the rate of

` 110 per square metre, how much will be the increment in the total
cost of renovation of bank premises?
(1) Rs 5,820
(2) Rs 4,848
(3) Rs 3,689
(4) Rs 6,690
(5) None of these
Page 130

84. What is the percentage area of the bank that is not to be

renovated?
(1) 2.2%
(2) 2.4%
(3) 4.2%
(4) 4.4%
(5) None of these
85. What is the total cost of renovation of the hall for customer
transaction and the locker area?
(1) Rs 23,100
(2) Rs 2,3036
(3) Rs 2,16,920
(4) Rs 2,42,440
(5) None of these
86. A certain amount was to be distributed among A, B and C in the

ratio 2 : 3 : 4, but was erroneously distributed in the ratio 7 : 2 : 5.
As a result of this, B got 740 less. What is the amount?
(1) Rs 210
(2) Rs 270
(3) Rs 230
(4) Rs 280
(5) None of these
87. Racliita enters a shop to buy ice-creams, cookies and pastries.

She has to buy at least 9 units of each. She buys more cookies than
ice-creams and more pastries than cookies. She picks up a total of
32 items. How many cookies does she buy?
(1) Either 12 or 13
(2) Either 11 or 12
(3) Either 10 or 11
(4) Either 9 or 11
(5) Either 9 or 10
Page 131

88. The fare of a bus is Rs X for the first five kilometres and Rs 13
per kilometre thereafter, if a passenger pays Rs 2402 for a journey
of 187 kilometres, what is the value of X?
(1) Rs 29
(2) Rs 39
(3) Rs 36
(4) Rs 3I
(5) None of these
89. The product of three consecutive even numbers is 4032. The

product of the first and the third number is 252. What is five times
the second number?
(1) 80
(2) 100
(3) 60
(4) 70
(5) 90
90. The sum of the ages of 4 members of a family 5 years ago was 94
years. Today, when the daughter has been married off and replaced
by a daughter-in-law, the sum of their ages is 92. Assuming that
there has been no other change in the family structure and all the
people are alive, what is the difference between the age of the
daughter and that of the daughter-in-law?
(1) 22 years
(2) 11 years
(3) 25 years
(4) 19 years
(5) 15 years
91. A bag contains 13 white and 7 black balls. Two balls are drawn
at random. What is the probability that they are of the same
colour?
(1) 41/ 190
Page 132

(2) 21/190
(3) 59/190
(4) 99/190
(5) 77/190
92. Akash scored 73 marks in subject A. He scored 56% marks in

subject B and X marks in subject C. Maximum marks in each
subject were 150. The overall percentage marks obtained by Akash
in all the three subjects together was 54%. How many marks did he
score in subject C?
(1) 84
(2) 86
(3) 79
(4) 73
(5) None of these
93. The area of a square is 1444 square metres. The breadth of a

rectangle is 1/4 the side of the square and the length of the rectangle
is thrice its breadth. What is the difference between the area of the
square and the area of the rectangle?
(1) 1152.38 sq mtr
(2) 1169.33 sq mtr
(3) 1181.21 sq mtr
(4) 1173.25sq mtr
(5) None of these
94. Rs 73,689 are divided between A and B in the ratio 4 : 7. What is

the difference between thrice the share of A and twice the share of
B?
(1) Rs 36,699
(2) Rs 46,893
(3) Rs 20,097
Page 133

(4) Rs 26,796
(5) Rs 13,398
95. A and B together can complete a task in 20 days. B and C

together can complete the same task in 30 days. A and C together
can complete the same task in 40 days. What is the ratio of the
number of days taken by A when completing the same task alone to
the number of days taken by C when completing the same task
alone ?
(1) 2 : 5
(2) 2 : 7
(3) 3 : 7
(4) 1 : 5
(5) 3 : 5
Directions (Q. 96-100): Study the following information and answer

the questions that follow:
The graph given below represents the production (in tonnes) and
sales (in tonnes) of company a from
Page 134

96. What is the approximate percentage increase in the production

of Company A (in tonnes) from the year 2009 to the production of
Company A (in tonnes) in the year 2010?
(1) 18%
(2) 38%
(3) 23%
(4) 27%
(5) 32%
97. The sales of Company A in the year 2009 was approximately

what per cent of the production of Company A in the same year?
(1) 65%
(2) 73%
(3) 79%
Page 135

(4) 83%
(5) 69%
98. What is the average production of Company B (in tonnes) from

the year 2006 to the year 2011 ?
(1) 574
(2) 649
(3) 675
(4) 593
(5) 618
99. What is the ratio of the total production (in tonnes) of Company
A to the total sales (in tonnes) of Company A?
(1) 81 : 64
(2) 64 : 55
(3) 71 : 81
(4) 71 : 55
(5) 81 : 55
100. What is the ratio of production of Company B (in tonnes) in

the year 2006 to production of Company B (in tonnes) in the year
2008?
(1) 2 : 5
(2) 4 : 5
(3) 3 : 4
(4) 3 : 5
(5) 1 : 4

101. A money deposited in a bank that cannot be withdrawn for a
preset fixed period of time is known as a
(1) Term deposit
(2) Checking Account
(3) Savings Bank Deposit
(4) No Frills Account
(5) Current Deposit
Page 136

102. A worldwide financial messaging network which exchanges

messages between banks and financial institutions is known as
(1) CHAPS
(2) SWIFT
(3) NEFT
(4) SFMS
(5) CHIPS
103. Which of the following ministries alongwith the Planning

Commission of India has decided to set up a Corpus Fund of Rs 500
crore, so that tribals in Naxal-hit areas can be provided proper
means of livelihood?
(1) Ministry of Rural Development
(2) Ministry of Home Affairs
(3) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(4) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(5) Ministry of Finance
104. Which of the following was the issue over which India decided
to vote against Sri Lanka in the meeting of one of the UN-governed
bodies/agencies?
(1) Violations of human rights in Sri Lanka
(2) Allowing China to establish a military base in the Indian Ocean
(3) Issue of subsidy on agricultural products in the meeting of the WTO
(4) Allowing part of Sri Lanka to become an independent country governed by LTTE
(5) Sri Lankas claim to become a permanent member of UN Security Council
105. The term Smart Money refers to

(1) Foreign Currency
(2) Internet Banking
(3) US Dollars
(4) Travellers Cheques
(5) Credit Cards
106. Which of the following is not a Money Market Instrument?

(1) Treasury Bills
(2) Commercial Paper
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(3) Certificate of Deposit
(4) Equity Shares
(5) None of these
107. Which of the following is a retail banking product?

(1) Home Loans
(2) Working capital finance
(3) Corporate term loans
(4) Infrastructure financing
(5) Export Credit
108. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the political

situation in Mali, where a military coup burst out recently?
(1) General elections were due there in March/April 2012 but did not take place.
(2) The country has been under the control of the US army for the last 18 months.
(3) The army of the country was not happy as Amadou Toure was made President without elections for the
next five years.
(4) A coup broke out in Mali when Amadou Toure, the military chief, got seriously injured in a bomb blast.
(5) NATO and its associates had planned a coup there.
109. In the summit of which of the following organizations/ group of

nations it was decided that all members should enforce Budget
Discipline?
(1) G-8 (2) OPEC
(3) European Union (4) SAARC
(5) G-20
110. As per newspaper reports, India is planning to use SEU as

fuel in its 700MW nuclear reactors being developed in new planets.
What is the full form of 'SEU as used here?
(1) Safe Electrical Units
(2) Small Electrical Units
(3) Slightly Enriched Uranium
(4) Sufficiently Enriched Units
(5) Safely Enriched Uranium
111. Technological advancement in recent times has given a new

dimension to banks, mainly to which of the following aspects?
Page 138

(1) New Age Financial Derivatives
(2) Service Delivery Mechanism
(3) Any Banking
(4) Any Type Banking
(5) Multilevel Marketing
112. When there is a difference between all receipts and expenditure

of the Govt of India, both capital and revenue, it is called
(1) Revenue Deficit
(2) Budgetary Deficit
(3) Zero Budgeting
(4) Trade Gap
(5) Balance of payments problem
113. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Reserve Bank

of India?
(1) Fiscal Policy Functions
(2) Exchange Control Functions
(3) Issuance, Exchange and Destruction of currency notes
(4) Monetary Authority Functions
(5) Supervisory and Control Functions
114. Which of the following is NOT required for opening a bank

account?
(1) Identity Proof
(2) Address Proof
(3) Recent Photographs
(4) Domicile Certificate
(5) None of these
115. The Golden Jubilee of Afro-Asian Rural Development

Organisation was organized in which of the following places in
March 2012?
(1) Dhaka (2) Tokyo
(3) Cairo (4) Kuala Lampur
(5) New Delhi
116. What is the maximum deposit amount insured by DICGC?
Page 139

(1) Rs 2,00,000 per depositor per bank
(2) Rs 2,00,000 per depositor across all banks
(3) Rs 1,00,000 per depositor per bank
(4) Rs 1,00,000 per depositor across all banks
(5) None of these
117. The present Foreign Trade policy of India will continue till
(1) December 2012
(2) March 2013
(3) March 2014
(4) June 2013
(5) December 2014
118. With reference to a cheque, which of the following is the

drawee bank?
(1) The bank that collects the cheque
(2) The payees bank
(3) The endorsees bank
(4) The endorsers bank
(5) The bank upon which the cheque is drawn
119. In which of the following fund transfer mechanisms, can funds

be moved from one bank to another and where the transaction is
settled instantly without being bunched with any other transaction?
(1) RTGS
(2) NEFT
(3) TT
(4) EFT
(5) MT
120. What was the reason owing to which Enrica Lexie, an Italian
ship, was detained by the Port Authorities in Kerala and was
brought to Cochin port for inspection and search?
(1) It was carrying objectionable material.
(2) It was involved in sea piracy.
(3) It was detained as the crew killed two Indian fishermen.
(4) The ship started sailing without making payments of iron ore it loaded.
(5) It was detained as it was dumping nuclear waste in deep sea.
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121. Which of the following agencies/organiz-ations recently gave a

go-ahead verdict to Indias one of the most controversial project
of interlinking rivers? (Some of the rivers are international.)
(1) UN Food and Agriculture Organisation
(2) World Meteorological Organisation
(3) International Court of Justice
(4) Central Water Commission
(5) Supreme Court of India
122. Who among the following was the Captain of the Australian
Team which played four Test matches against India in January
2012 and won all of them?
(1) Ricky Ponting
(2) Michael Clarke
(3) Nathan Lyon
(4) Stuart Clark
(5) Andrew Symonds
123. The committee on review of National Small Savings Fund

(NSSF) was headed by
(1) Dr C Rangarajan
(2) UK Sinha
(3) Dr YV Reddy
(4) Shyamala Gopinath
(5) Dr Usha Thorat
124. Banking Ombudsman Scheme is applicable to the business of

(1) All scheduled commercial banks exclu-ding RRBs
(2) All scheduled commercial banks inclu-ding RRBs
(3) Only public sector banks
(4) All banking companies
(5) All scheduled banks except private banks
125. The 5th Asian Indoor Athletics Champio-nship was organised

in February 2012 in
(1) Bangladesh
(2) India
(3) Qatar
Page 141

(4) China
(5) South Korea
126. Nationalisations of banks aimed at all of the following except

(1) Provision of adequate credit for agriculture, SME & exports
(2) Removal of control by a few capitalists
(3) Provision of credit to big industries only
(4) Access of banking to masses
(5) Encouragement of a new class of entrepreneurs
127. Who among the following was the Chief Guest at the three-day
Pravasi Bharatiya Divas function held in January 2012?
(1) Kamla Persad Bissessar
(2) Ram Baran Yadav
(3) Lakshmi Mittal
(4) Salman Rushdie
(5) Benjamin Netanyahu
128. Which of the following banks is headed by a woman CEO?

(1) Bank of Baroda
(2) HDFC Bank
(3) Central Bank of India
(4) Punjab National Bank
(5) lCICI Bank
129. As per revised RBI guidelines, Provision on secured portion of

loan accounts classified as Doubtful Assets for more than one year
and upto 3 (three) years is to be made at the rate of
(1) 15%
(2) 20%
(3) 40%
(4) 25%
(5) 30%
130. As per the provisions in the Food Security Bill 2011, how much
food grain should be given per month to each person of the target
group?
(1) 5 kg
(2) 7 kg
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(3) 9 kg
(4) 10 kg
(5) 20 kg
131. Which of the following acts is in vogue in India is against the

thinking of raising school fee as per demand of the market forces?
(1) Prevention of Corruption Act
(2) Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act
(3) Sharda Act
(4) Right to Education Act
(5) MG National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
132. Which of the following states has launched Panch

Parmeshwar Yojana,under which panchayats are allowed to use
the fund for developing infrastructure and basic amenities in
villages?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Gujarat
(4) Madhya Pradesh
(5) Tamil Nadu
133. Base Rate is the rate below which no Bank can allow their
lending to anyone. Who sets up this Base Rate for Banks?
(1) Individual Banks Board
(2) Ministry of Commerce
(3) Ministry of Finance
(4) RBI
(5) Interest Rate Commission of India
134. National Table Tennis Championship was organised in

January 2012 in
(1) Mumbai
(2) Delhi
(3) Hyderabad
(4) Lucknow
(5) Jaipur
135. Who among the following is the author of the book Nirbasan
Page 143

(1) Mahashweta Devi
(2) Taslima Nasreen
(3) Sunil Gangopadhyay
(4) Vikram Seth
(5) Kiran Desai
136. What is aDebit Card?

(1) It is a card issued by a Rating Agency.
(2) It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or making payment even in the absence of any
balance in the account.
(3) It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or making payment if there is balance in the account.
(4) It is a card which carries prepaid balance.
(5) It is a card which can be used for making STD calls.
137. Who among the following Indian Lawn Tennis players won a
Doubles of Australian Open 2012?
(1) Mahesh Bhupathi
(2) Kamlesh Mehta
(3) Leander Paes (4) Sania Mirza
(5) Achanta Sarath Kamal
138. Akula-11 Class K.-152 Nerpa was inducted in Indian Navy

recently. These are
(1) Aircraft
(2) Radar Systems
(3) Submarines Missile
(4) Warships
(5) Submarines
139. Which of the following awards was conferred upon late Mario
de Miranda (posthumously) in January 2012?
(1) Padma Vibhushan
(2) Bharat Ratna
(3) Kalidas Samman
(4) Saraswati Samman
(5) Padmashri
140. Bad advances of a Bank are called

(1) Bad debt
(2) Book debt
Page 144

(3) Non-Performing Asset
(4) Out-of-order accounts
(5) Overdrawn accounts
141. Axis Bank is a

(1) Public Sector Bank
(2) Private Sector Bank
(3) Co-operative Bank
(4) Foreign Bank (5) Gramin Bank
142. By increasing repo rate, the economy may observe the

following effect(s):
(1) Rate of interest on loans and advances will be costlier.
(2) Industrial output would be affected to an extent.
(3) Banks will increase rate of interest on deposits.
(4) Industry houses may borrow money from foreign countries.
(5) All of these
143. Increased interest rates, as is existing in the economy at

present, will
(1) Lead to higher GDP growth
(2) Lead to lower GDP growth
(3) Mean higher cost of raw materials
(4) Mean lower cost of raw materials
(5) Mean higher wage bill
144. Which of the following schemes has been launched to provide

pension to people in unorganised sectors in India?
(1) Swabhiman
(2) Jeevan Dhara
(3) Jeevan Kalyan
(4) ASHA
(5) Swavalamban
145. The 10th Basic Ministerial Meeting on Climate Change was

organised in February 2012 in
(1) Tokyo
(2) Beijing
(3) Manila
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(4) Moscow
(5) New Delhi
146. Finance Ministry has asked the Reserve Bank of India to allow
common ATMs that will be owned and managed by non-banking
entities, hoping to cut transaction costs for banks. Such ATMs are
known as
(1) Black Label ATMs
(2) Offsite ATMs
(3) On-site ATMs or Red ATMs
(4) Third Party ATMs
(5) White Label ATMs
147. Which of the following schemes of the Govt of India has

provided electricity to 99000 villages and total 1.7 crore households
uptil now?
(1) Kutir Jyoti
(2) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
(3) Bharat Nirman
(4) PURA (5) SEWA
148. Ranbir Kapoor was awarded Best Actor Award in 57th

Filmfare Award Function for his performance in
(1) No One Killed Jessica
(2) Stanley Ka Dabba
(3) 7 Khoon Maaf (4) Rockstar
(5) Zindagi Na Milegi Dobara
149. An ECS transaction gets bounced and you are unable to

recover your money from your customer. Under which Act can
criminal action be initiated?
(1) Indian Penal Code
(2) Negotiable Instruments Act
(3) Criminal Procedure Code
(4) Payment and Settlements Act
(4) Indian Contract Act
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150. Rajendra had filed a complaint with Banking Ombudsman but

is not satisfied with the decision. What is the next option before him
for getting his matter resolved?
(1) Write to the CMD of the Bank
(2) File an appeal before the Finance Minister
(3) File an appeal before the Banking Ombudsman again
(4) File an appeal before the Dy Governor of RBI
(5) Simply close the matter as going to court involves time and money
Page 147
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151. _________ allows users to upload files to an online site so they
can be viewed and edited from another location.
(1) General-purpose applications
(2) Microsoft outlook
(3) Web-hosted technology
(4) Office Live
(5) None of these
152. What feature adjusts the top and bottom margins so that the
text is centered vertically on the printed page?
(1) Vertical justifying
(2) Vertical adjusting
(3) Dual centering
(4) Horizontal centering
(5) Vertical centering
153. Which of these is not a means of personal communication on

the Internet?
(1) chat
(2) instant messaging
(3) instanotes
(4) electronic mail
(5) None of these
154. What is the overall term for creating, editing, formatting,

storing, retrieving, and printing a text document?
(1) Word processing
(2) Spreadsheet design
(3) Web design
(4) Database management
(5) Presentation generation
155. Fourth-generation mobile technology provides enhanced

capabilities allowing the transfer of both data, including full-motion
video, high-speed Internet access, and videoconferencing.
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(1) video data and information
(2) voice and non-voice
(3) music and video
(4) video and audio
(5) None of these
156. _________ is a form of denial of service attack in which a

hostile client repeatedly attack in which a hostile client repeatedly
sends SYN packets to every port on the server, using fake IP
addresses.
(1) Cybergaming crime
(2) Memory shaving
(3) Syn flooding
(4) Software piracy
(5) None of these
157. Which of these is a point-and-draw device?

(1) mouse
(2) scanner
(3) printer
(4) CD-ROM
(5) keyboard
158. The letter and number of the intersecting column and row is
the
(1) cell location
(2) cell position
(3) cell address
(4) cell coordinates
(5) cell contents
159. A set of rules for telling the computer what operations to

perform is called a
(1) procedural language
(2) structures
(3) natural language
(4) command language
(5) programming language
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160. A detailed written description of the programming cycle and

the program, along with the test results and a printout of the
program is called
(1) documentation
(2) output
(3) reporting
(4) spec sheets
(5) directory
161. Forms that are used to organise business data into rows and
columns are called
(1) transaction sheets
(2) registers
(3) business forms
(4) sheet-spreads
(5) spreadsheets
162. In PowerPoint, the Header & Footer button can be found on

the Insert tab in what group?
(1) Illustrations group
(2) Object group
(3) Text group
(4) Tables group (5) None of these
163. A(n)_____ is a set of programs designed to manage the

resources of a computer, including starting the computer, managing
programs, managing memory, and coordin-ating tasks between
input and output devices.
(1) application suite
(2) compiler
(3) input/output system
(4) interface
(5) operating system (OS)
164. A typical slide in a slide presentation would not include

(1) photo images, charts and graphs
(2) graphs and clip art
(3) clip art and audio clips
Page 150

(4) full-motion video
(5) content templates
165. The PC productivity tool that manipulates data organised in

rows and columns is called a(n)
(1) spreadsheet
(2) word processing document
(3) presentation mechanism
(4) database record manager
(5) EDI creator
166. In the absence of parentheses, the order of operation is

(1) exponentiation, addition or subtraction, multiplication or division
(2) addition or subtraction, multiplication or division, exponentiation
(3) multiplication or division, exponen-tiation, addition or subtraction
(4) exponentiation, multiplication or divi-sion, addition or subtraction
(5) addition or subtraction, exponentiation, multiplication or division
167. To find the Paste Special option, you use the Clipboard group
on the _______ tab of PowerPoint.
(1) design
(2) slide Show
(3) page layout
(4) insert
(5) home
168. A(n) program is one that is ready to run and does not need to
be altered in any way.
(1) interpreter
(2) high-level
(3) compiler
(4) COBOL
(5) executable
169. Usually downloaded into folders that hold temporary Internet

files,_________ are written to your computers hard disk by some of
the Web sites you visit.
(1) anonymous files
(2) behaviour files
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(3) banner ads
(4) large files
(5) cookies
170. What is the easiest way to change the phrase revenues, profits,
gross margin, to read revenues, profits, and gross margin?
(1) Use the insert mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a
space
(2) Use the insert mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(3) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a
space
(4) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a
space
(5) None of these
171. A program, either talk or music, that is made available in

digital format for automatic download over the Internet is called a
(1) wiki
(2) broadcast
(3) vodcast
(4) bIog
(5) podcast
172. Which PowerPoint view displays each slide of the presentation

as a thumbnail and is useful for rearranging slides?
(1) Slide sorter
(2) Slide show
(3) Slide master
(4) Notes page
(5) Slide design
173. Different components on the motherboard of a PC unit are

linked together by sets of parallel electrical conducting lines. What
are these lines called?
(1) Conductors
(2) Buses
(3) Connectors
(4) Consecutives
(5) None of these
Page 152

174. What is the name given to those applications that combine text,
sound, graphics, motion video, and/or animation?
(1) motionware
(2) anigraphics
(3) videoscapes
(4) multimedia
(5) maxomedia
175. A USB communication device that supports data encryption

for secure wireless commu-nication for notebook users is called a
(1) USB wireless network adapter
(2) wireless switch
(3) wireless hub
(4) router
(5) None of these
176. A(n) language reflects the way people think mathematically.

(1) cross-platform programming
(2) 3GL business programming
(3) event-driven programming
(4) functional
(5) None of these
177. When entering text within a document, the Enter key is

normally pressed at the end of every
(1) line
(2) sentence
(3) paragraph
(4) word
(5) file
178. When a real-time telephone call between people is made over

the Internet using computers, it is called
(1) a chat session
(2) an e-mail
(3) an instant message
(4) internet telephony
(5) None of these
Page 153

179. Which of the following is the first step in sizing a window?

(1) Point to the title bar
(2) Pull down the View menu to display the toolbar
(3) Point to any corner or border
(4) Pull down the View menu and change to large icons
(5) None of these
180. Which of the following software could assist someone who

cannot use their hands for computer input?
(1) Videoconferencing
(2) Speech recognition
(3) Audio digitizer
(4) Synthesizer
(5) None of these
181. ......... a document means the file is transferred from another

computer to your computer.
(1) Uploading
(2) Really Simple Syndication (RSS)
(3) Accessing
(4) Downloading
(5) Upgrading
182. Which computer memory is used for storing programs and

data currently being processed by the CPU?
(1) Mass memory
(2) Internal memory
(3) Non-volatile memory
(4) PROM
(5) None of these
183. Computers that control processes accept data in a continuous

(1) data traffic pattern
(2) data highway
(3) infinite loop
(4) feedback loop
(5) slot
184. What refers to a set of characters of a particular design?

Page 154

(1) Keyface
(2) Formation
(3) Calligraph
(4) Stencil
(5) Typeface
185. ........ is used by public and private enterprises to publish and

share financial information with each other and industry analysts
across all computer platforms and the Internet.
(1) Extensible Markup Language (XML)
(2) Extensible Business Reporting Language (XBRL)
(3) Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
(4) Sales Force Automation (SKA) software
(5) None of these
186. Which part of the computer is used for calculating and

comparing?
(1) ALU
(2) Control unit
(3) Disk unit
(4) Modem
(5) None of these
187. The method of Internet access that requires a phone line, but
offers faster access speeds than dial-up is the connection.
(1) cable access
(2) satellite access
(3) fibre-optic service
(4) digital subscriber line (DSL)
(5) modem
188. ............. software creates a minor image of the entire hard disk,
including the operating system, applications, files, and data.
(1) Operating system
(2) Backup software
(3) Utility programs
(4) Driver imaging
(5) None of these
189. What is a URL?

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(1) A computer software program
(2) A type of programming object
(3) The address of a document or page on the World Wide Web
(4) An acronym for Unlimited Resources for Learning
(5) A piece of hard ware
190. What is the significance of a faded (dimmed) command in a

pull-down menu?
(1) The command is not currently accessible.
(2) A dialog box appears if the command is selected.
(3) A Help window appears if the command is selected.
(4) There are no equivalent keystrokes for the particular command.
(5) None of these
191. Your business has contracted with another company to have

thorn host and run an application for your company over the
Internet. The company providing this service to your business is
called an
(1) internet service provider
(2) internet access provider
(3) application service provider
(4) application access provider
(5) outsource agency
192. A(n) ............. allows you to access your e-mail from anywhere.
(1) forum
(2) webmail interface
(3) message board
(4) weblog
(5) None of these
193. Which of the following would you find on Linkedln?

(1) Games
(2) Connections
(3) Chat
(4) Applications
(5) None of these
194. ............. is a technique that is used to send more than one call
over a single line.
Page 156

(1) Digital transmission
(2) Infrared transmission
(3) Digitizing
(4) Streaming
(5) Multiplexing
195. The Search Companion can

(1) locate all files containing a specified phrase
(2) restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(3) locate all files containing a specified phrase and restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(4) cannot locate all files containing a specified phrase or restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(5) None of these
196. Which of the following cannot be part of an email address?

(1) Period (.)
(2) At sign (@)
(3) Space ()
(4) Underscore (_)
(5) None of these
197. Which of the following must be contained in a URL?

(1) A protocol identifier
(2) The letters www
(3) The unique registered domain name
(4) www. and the unique registered domain name
(5) A protocol identifier, www. and the unique registered domain name
198. Which of the following information systems focuses on making

manufacturing processes more efficient and of higher quality?
(1) Computer-aided manufacturing
(2) Computer-integrated manufacturing
(3) Computer-aided software engineering
(4) Computer-aided system engineering
(5) None of these
199. A mistake in an algorithm that causes incorrect results is called

a
(1) logical error
(2) syntax error
(3) procedural error
Page 157

(4) compiler error
(5) machine error
200. A device for changing the connection on a connector to a

different configuration is
(1) a converter
(2) a component
(3) an attachment
(4) an adapter
(5) voltmeter
Page 158


Directions (Q. 201-215): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
When times are hard, doomsayers are plenty. The problem is that if you listen to them too carefully,
you tend to overlook the most obvious signs of change. 2011 was a bad year. Can 2012 be any worse?
Doomsday forecasts are the easiest to make these days. So lets try a contrarians forecast instead.
Lets start with the global economy. We have seen a steady flow of good news from the US. The
employment situation seems to be improving rapidly and consumer sentiment, reflected in retail
expenditures on discretionary items like electronics and clothes, has picked up. If these trends sustain,
the US might post better growth numbers for 2012 than the 1.5-1.8 per cent being forecast currently.
Japan is likely to pull out of a recession in 2012 as post-earthquake reconstruction efforts gather
momentum and the fiscal stimulus announced in 2011 begins to pay off. The consensus estimate for
growth in Japan is a respectable 2 per cent for 2012.
The hard-landing* scenario for China remains and will remain a myth. Growth might decelerate
further from the 9 per cent that it expected to clock in 2011 but is unlikely to drop below-8-8.5 percent
in 2012.
Europe is certainly in a spot of trouble. It is perhaps already in recession and for 2012 it is likely to
post mildly negative growth. The risk of implosion has dwindled over the last few months - peripheral
economies like Greece, Italy and Spain have new governments in place and have made progress
towards genuine economic reform.
Even with some of these positive factors in place, we have to accept the fact that global growth in 2012
will be tepid. But there is a flipside to this. Softer growth means lower demand for commodities and
this is likely to drive a correction in commodity prices. Lower commodity inflation will enable
emerging-market central banks to reverse their monetary stance. China, for instance, has already
reversed its stance and has pared its reserve ratio twice. The RBI also seems poised for a reversal in
its rate cycle as headline inflation seems well on its way to its target of 7 per cent for March 2012.
That said, oil might be an exception to the general trend in commodities. Rising geopolitical tensions,
particularly the continuing face-off between Iran and the US, might lead to a spurt in prices. It might
make sense for our oil companies to hedge this risk instead of buying oil in the spot market.
As inflation fears abate and emerging market central banks begin to cut rates, two things could
happen. Lower commodity inflation would mean lower interest rates and better credit availability.
This could set a floor to growth and slowly reverse the business cycle within these economies. Second,
as the fear of untamed, runaway inflation in these economies abates, the global investors comfort
levels with their markets will increase.
Which of the emerging markets will outperform and who will get left behind? In an environment in
which global growth is likely to be weak, economies like India that have a powerful domestic
consumption dynamic should lead: those dependent on exports should, prima facie, fall behind.
Specifically for India, a fall in the exchange rate could not have come at a better time. It will help
Indian exporters gain market share even if global trade remains depressed. More importantly, it
Page 159

could lead to massive import substitution that favours domestic producers.
Lets now focus on India and start with a caveat. It is important not to confuse a short-run cyclical dip
with a permanent de-rating of its long-term structural potential. The arithmetic is simple. Our growth
rate can be in the range of 7-10 per cent depending on policy action. Ten per cent if we get everything
right, 7 per cent if we get it all wrong. Which policies and reforms are critical to taking us to our 10
per cent potential? In judging this, lets again be careful. Lets not go by the laundry list of reforms
that Flls like to wave: increase in foreign equity limits in foreign shareholding, greater voting rights
for institutional shareholders in banks, FDI in retail, etc. These can have an impact only at the
margin. We need not bend over backwards to appease the Flls through these reforms - they will invest
in our markets when momentum picks up and will be the first to exit when the momentum flags,
reforms or not.
The reforms that we need are the ones that can actually raise our. sustainable long-term growth rate.
These have to come in areas like better targeting of subsidies, making projects in infrastructure viable
so that they draw capital. raising the productivity of agriculture, improving healthcare and education,
bringing the parallel economy under the tax net. implementing fundamental reforms in taxation like
GST and the direct tax code and finally easing the myriad rules and regulations that make doing
business in India such a nightmare. A number of these things do not require new legislation and can
be done through executive order.
201. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the

passage?
(1) Chinas economic growth may decline in the year 2012 as compared to the year 2011.
(2) The European economy is not doing very well.
(3) Greece is on the verge of bringing about economic reforms.
(4) In the year 2012, Japan may post a positive growth and thus pull out of recession.
(5) All are true
202. Which of the following will possibly be a result of softer growth

estimated for the year 2012?
(A) Prices ofoil will not increase.
(B) Credit availability would be lesser.
(C) Commodity inflation would be lesser.
(1) Only (B) (2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) Only (A) and (C)
(4) Only (C)
(5) All (A),(B) and (C)
203. Which of the following can be said about the present status of
the US economy?
Page 160

(1) There is not much improvement in the economic scenario of the country from the year 2011.
(2) The growth in the economy of the country, in the year 2012, would definitely be lesser than 1.8 percent.
(3) The expenditure on clothes and electronic commodities, by consumers, is lesser than that in the year
2011.
(4) There is a chance that in 2012 the economy would do better than what has been forecast.
(5) The pace of change in the employment scenario of the country is very slow.
204. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for
the passage?
(1) The Economic Disorder
(2) Indian Economy Versus The European Economy
(3) Global Trade
(4) The Current Economic Scenario
(5) Characteristics of The Indian Economy
205. According to the author, which of the following would

characterise Indian growth scenario in 2012?
(A) Domestic producers will take a hit because of depressed global trade scenario.
(B) On account of its high domestic consumption, India will lead.
(C) Indian exporters will have a hard time in gaining market share.
(1) Only (B) (2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) Only (B) and(C) (4) Only (A)
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)
206. Why does the author not recommend taking up the reforms
suggested by Flls?
(1) These will bring about only minor growth.
(2) The reforms suggested will have no effect on the economy of our country, but will benefit the Flls
significantly.
(3) The previous such recommendations had backfired.
(4) These reforms will be the sole reason for our countrys economic downfall.
(5) The reforms suggested by them are not to be trusted as they will not bring about any positive growth in
India.
207. Which of the following is TRUE as per the scenario presented

in the passage?
(1) The highest growth rate that India can expect is 7 per cent.
(2) The fall in the exchange rate will prove beneficial to India.
(3) Increased FDI in retail as suggested by Flls would benefit India tremendously.
(4) The reforms suggested by the author require new legislations in India.
(5) None is true
Page 161

208. According to the author, which of the following reform/s is/are

needed to ensure long-term growth in India?
(A) Improving healthcare and educational facilities
(B) Bringing about reforms in taxation
(C) Improving agricultural productivity
(1) Only (B)
(2) Only (A) and(B)
(4) Only (A)
(5) All (A), (B)and(C)
Directions (Q. 209-212): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the
word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
209. DRAW
(1) entice
(2) push
(3) decoy
(4) attract
(5) persuade
210. CLOCK
(1) watch
(2) achieve
(3) time
(4) second
(5) regulate
211. ABATE
(1) rise
(2) gear
(3) hurl
(4) lessen
(5) retreat
212. EMERGING
(1) raising
(2) developing
(3) noticeable
(4) conspicuous
(5) uproaring
Page 162

Directions (Q. 213-215): Choose the word/group of words which is

most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in
bold as used in the passage.
213. MYRIAD
(1) trivial
(2) difficult
(3) few
(4) effortless
(5) countless
214. TEPID
(1) moderate
(2) high
(3) warm
(4) irregular
(5) little
215. MYTH
(1) reality
(2) belief
(3) contrast
(4) idealism
(5) falsehood
Directions (Q. 216-220): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) If China is the worlds factory. India has become the worlds outsourcing centre - keeping in line with
this image.
(B) But Indias future depends crucially on its ability to compete fully in the Creative Economy - not just in
tech and software, but across design and entrepreneurship; arts, culture and entertainment; and the
knowledge-based professions of medicine, finance and law.
(C) While its creative assets outstrip those of other emerging competitors, India must address several
challenges to increase its international competitiveness as the world is in the midst of a sweeping
transformation.
Page 163

(D) This transformation is evident in the fact that the world is moving from an industrial economy to a
Creative Economy that generates wealth by harnessing intellectual labour, intangible goods and human
creative capabilities.
(E) Its software industry is the worlds second-largest, its tech outsourcing accounts for more than half of the
$300 billion global industry, according to a technology expert.
(F) If the meeting of world leaders at Davos is any indication, India is rapidly becoming an economic rock
star.
216. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence

after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
217. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the
rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
218. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the
rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) F
(5) E
219. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the
rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) B
(3) C
(4) A
(5) E
Page 164

220. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after

the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F
Directions (Q. 221-225): The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You
are given six words denoted by A, B, C, D. E & F as answer choices and from the six choices you have
to pick two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.
221. _______ before the clock struck 8 on Saturday night, India

Gate was swamped with people wearing black T- shirts and holding
candles.
(A) Minutes (B) Time
(C) Later (D) Quickly
(E) Since (F) Seconds
(1) (B) and (E)
(2) (A) and (C)
(3) (A) and (F)
(4) (B) and (D)
(5) (C) and (E)
222. The state should take steps to_______the process of teachers

appointments as the Centre has already sanctioned six lakh posts.
(A) fasten (B) move
(C) hasten (D) spced
(E) early (F) quicken
(1) (D) and (F)

(2) (A) and (C)
(3) (F) and (B)
(4) (D) and (E)
(5) (B) and (D)
223. A senior citizens son_______threatened her every day and

physically harmed her, forcing her to transfer her property to him.
Page 165

(A) superficially (B) mistakenly
(C) allegedly (D) miserably
(E) doubtfully (F) purportedly
(1) (C) and (F)

(2) (A) and (E)
(3) (C) and (E)
(4) (D) and (F)
(5) (A) and (D)
224. Medical teachers said that the management had continued to

remain ............. to their cause leading to the stretching of their
strike.
(A) unmoved
(B) lethargic
(C) unconcerned
(D) apathetic
(E) indifferent
(F) bored
(1) (B) and (C)
(2) (C) and (F)
(3) (A) and (E)
(4) (A) and (D)
(5) (D) and (E)
225. The parents had approached the high court to _______ the
government order after their children, who passed UKG, were
denied admission by a school.
(A) void (B) quash
(C) annul (D) stay
(E) lift (F) post
(1) (A) and (D)
(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (E)
(4) (E) and (F)
(5) (C) and (D)
Directions (Q. 226-235): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or
idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is
Page 166

the answer. If there is No error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
226.
(1) The Government has asked individuals /
(2) with income of over ` 10 lakhs to /
(3) electronic file tax returns for the year 2011 -12,/
(4) something which was optional till last year. /
(5) No error
227.
(1) The power tariff had already /
(2) been increased twice in /
(3) the last 15 months and the Electricity Board had also /
(4)levied add itionafmonthly charges to consumers./
(5) No error
228.
(1) Despite of curfew /
(2) in some areas, minor /
(3) communal incidents were reported /
(4) from different areas of the walled city. /
(5) No error
229.
(1) This comes /
(2) at a rime /
(3) when fund allocation /
(4) is been doubled. /
(5) No error
230.
(1) As the prison will get /
(2)an official telephone facility soon the prisoners /
(3) wont have to make calls in discreet manner /
(4)through smuggled mobile phones. /
(5) No error
231.
Page 167

(1) The area was plunged into /
(2) darkness mid a wave of/
(3) cheering and shouting /
(4) slogans like Save The Earth. /
(5) No error.
232.
(1) The poll contestants approached / the commission/
(2) complaining that the hoardings /
(3) violated the code of conduct /
(4) and influenced public perception. /
(5) No error
233.
(1) The country has /
(2) adequate laws but problems / arise /
(3)when these are not /
(4) implemented in letter and spirit. /
(5) No error
234.
(1) The Management feels that /
(2) the employees of the organisation are /
(3) non-productive, and do not want /
(4) to work hard. /
(5) No error
235.
(1) As far the issue of land encroachment /
(2) in villages is concerned, people will /
(3) have to make a start from their villages by /
(4) sensitising and educating the villagers about this issue. /
(5) No error
Directions (Q. 236-240): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should
replace the word/ phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the
sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
236. US secretary of state made it clear that time running out for
diplomacy over Irans nuclear programme and said that talks
Page 168

aimed at preventing Tehran from acquiring a nuclear weapon

would resume in April.
(1) runs out
(2) was running out
(3) ran out
(4) run
237. While the war of the generals rage on, somewhere in smalltown India, wonderful things are happening, quietly and minus
fanfare.
(1) rage
(2) raging
(3) rages on
(4) raged on
238. According to WWF, the small island nation of Samoa was the
first in switch off its lights for Earth Hour.
(1) first to switch of
(2) the first to switch off
(3) the first of switch off
(4) first in switch of
239. The campaign is significant because not just the youths are
directly appealing to the world but because their efforts challenge
the chimera of normalcy in the area.
(1) not just because
(2) just not because
(3) not just
(4) because just
240. The doctors association has threatened to go on indefinite

strike support of their teachers.
(1) on supporting to
(2) to supporting
Page 169

(3) for support
(4) in support of
Directions (Q. 241-250): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one
of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.
Greenhouse gases are only (241) of the story when it comes to global warming. Changesto one part of
the climate system can (242) additional changes to the way the planet absorbs or reflects energy.
These secondary changes are (243) climate feedbacks, and they could more than double the amount of
warming caused by carbon dioxide alone. The primary feedbacks are (244) to snow and ice, water
vapour, clouds, and the carbon cycle.
Perhaps the most well (245) feedback comes from melting snow and ice in the Northern Hemisphere.
Warming temperatures are already (246) a growing percentage of Arctic-sea ice, exposing dark ocean
water during the (247) sunlight of summer. Snow cover on land is also (248) in many areas. In the
(249) of snow and ice, these areas go from having bright, sunlight-reflecting surfaces that cool the
planet to having dark, sunlight-absorbing surfaces that (250) more energy into the Earth system and
cause more warming.
241.
(1) whole
(2) part
(3) material
(4) issue
(5) most
242.
(1) raise
(2) brings
(3) refer
(4) stop
(5) cause
243.
(1) sensed
(2) called
(3) nothing
(4) but
(5) term
244.
Page 170

(1) due
(2) results
(3) reason
(4) those
(5) because
245.
(1) done
(2) known
(3) ruled
(4) bestowed
(5) said
246.
(1) mastering
(2) sending
(3) melting
(4) calming
(5) increasing
247.
(1) make-shift
(2) ceasing
(3) troubled
(4) perpetual
(5) absent
248.
(1) dwindling
(2) manufactured
(3) descending
(4) generating
(5) supplied
249.
(1) progress
(2) reduced
(3) existence
(4) midst
(5) absence
Page 171

250.
(1) repel
(2) waft
(3) monitor
(4) bring
(5) access
Page 172
Study Kit for Preliminary Examinations:

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. . . () 2014 -1
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(1) Only I and II are true.

(1) None is true

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20. I. 24x2 + 38x + 15 = 0

21. I. 3x2 20x 32 = 0

Directions (Q. 23): In the figure given below:

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