1.

A class A amplifier where the load current flows for less

than 180 is
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class AB
d. Class C
e. Class D
2. The most stable type of biasing transistor is
a. Voltage Divider
b. Fixed Bias
c. Emitter Stabilized
d. Voltage Feedback
e. Current Feedback
3. A substance containing atoms with several bands of
electrons but with only one valence electron is considered
a. An insulator
b. A conductor
c. A semiconductor
d. Dielectric
e. None of the above
4. When the base-collector and base-emitter junction of a
BJT are forward-biased, it is in the
a. Saturation Region
b. Cut-off Region
c. Active Region
d. Breakdown Region
e. National Capital Region
5. Whenever the flux linking a coil or current changes, an
emf is induced in it. This is known as
a. Faradays 2nd Law of Electromagnetic Induction
b. Faradays 1st Law of Electromagnetic Induction
c. Coulombs Law
d. Joules Law
e. Ohms Law
6. The ratio of the collector current to the base current at a
particular quiescent point is
a. DC Beta
b. AC Beta
c. hfc
d. Beta
e. Gamma
7. Pure semiconductor atoms generally contain __ valence
electrons
a. 1
b. 4
c. 8
d. 14
e. 24
8. Electrons at the outer shell are called
a. Valence Electrons
b. Outer Shell electrons
c. Inner Shell electrons
d. Semicon electrons
e. None of these
9. The magnitude of an induced emf in a coil is directly
proportional to the rate of change of flux linkages. This is
known as
a. Faradays 1st Law of EM Induction
b. Faradays 2nd Law of EM Induction
c. Coulombs Law
d. Joules Law
e. Ohms Law
10. Elements that has four valence electrons is a/an
a. Semiconductor
b. Conductor
c. Insulator

d. Semi-insulator
e. None of these
11. As a result of covalent bonding, atoms in pure silicon
crystal contain ___ valence electrons.
a. 1
b. 4
c. 8
d. 14
e. 32
12. If the substance used in doping has more than four
valence electrons, it is known as
a. Donor
b. Acceptor
c. Trivalent
d. Pentavalent
e. Equivalent
13. Flux linkages equals
a. (Flux) x (Number of Turns)
b. (Flux) x (Core Area)
c. (Flux) x (Nr of Turns) x (Core Area)
d. (Flux) x (Nr of Turns) x (Core Length)
e. None of these
14. To simplify circuit analysis and calculation, the diode
is usually assumed as
a. Ideal
b. Real
c. Imaginary
d. Typical
e. Complex
15. When a conductor is stationary and the magnetic field
is moving or changing, the emf induced is called
a. Self-induced emf
b. Statically induced emf
c. Mutually induced emf
d. Dynamically induced emf
e. Crosstalk
16. If the full-load and no-load voltages of a generator are
110 and 220 volts respectively, what is its voltage
regulation?
a. 10 %
b. 9.09 %
c. 15.5 %
d. 5 %
e. 20 %
17. Minority current carriers are produced by
a. Doping
b. Covalent Bonding
c. Thermal Energy
d. Ionic Bonding
e. All of these
18. In a direct FM transmitter, if the frequency of the
modulating signal is increased, the
a. Rate of frequency deviation will increase
b. Amount of frequency deviation will increase
c. Rate of frequency deviation will decrease
d. Amount of frequency deviation will decrease
e. None of these
19. The emf induced in a coil due to the change of its own
flux linked with it is called
a. Mutually induced emf
b. Self induced emf
c. Statically-induced emf
d. Dynamically induced emf
e. None of these
20. What is the portion of the weld interval during which
welding current is flowing?

a. Cool subinterval
b. Heat subinterval
c. Squeeze subinterval
d. Release subinterval
e. None of these
21. P-type silicon is produced by doping pure silicon with
materials containing ___ atoms
a. Arsenic
b. N-type
c. Donor
d. Acceptor
e. None of these
22. Why do manufacturers of speed control systems install
thyristors across the incoming power lines?
a. Allows the field winding current to continue flowing
b. The only way to counter emf can be increased
c. Causes motor to slow down
d. To protect the drive circuits from high voltage
transient surges
e. All of these
23. A coil has an inductance of __ henry/ies if an emf of 1
volt is induced in it when the current is changing at the rate
of 1 ampere per second.
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
e. 5
24. What user program has the ability to move a robot axis
to any position within its range?
a. Point-to-point
b. Positive stop
c. Continuous path
d. Pick and place
e. Pick and pick
25. In N-type silicon, ___ are the majority current carriers.
a. Donor Atom
b. Holes
c. Free Electrons
d. Bound Electrons
e. None of these
26. What type of actuator of industrial robots that has great
force capability and great holding strength when stopped?
a. Electric
b. Pneumatic
c. Steam
d. Hydraulic
e. Hydro-spring
27. The emf induced in a coil due to the changing current
of another neighboring coil is called
a. Dynamically induced emf
b. Statically induced emf
c. Self-induced emf
d. Mutually induced emf
e. None of these
28. Why do pneumatic robot actuators have lesser
capabilities than electric or hydraulic robot actuators?
a. All or Nothing Motion
b. High Installation Cost
c. Oil Leaks
d. Quick Response
e. None of these
29. When more impurity atoms are introduced into a
silicon crystal, the silicon will have less ___
a. Conductivity
b. Holes

c. Free Electrons
d. Resistance
e. Inductance
30. Retrieving data from a memory is called
a. Getting
b. Reading
c. Fetching
d. Accessing
e. Writing
31. ___ may be defined as a closed path in which magnetic
induction or flux flows.
a. Electric circuit
b. Magnetic circuit
c. Electromagnetic circuit
d. Electronic circuit
e. Channel
32. The interval required to address and read out a memory
word is called
a. Access Time
b. Pulse Duration
c. Setting Time
d. Propagation Delay
e. Transit Time
33. When P and N materials are united
a. Positive and negative ions combine
b. Free electrons and holes combine
c. Positive ions and holes combine
d. Free electrons and negative ions combine
34. What is the resistance of a 4 Henry choke whose
impedance at 25 Hz has a magnitude of 750 Ohms?
a. 409.53 Ohms
b. 490.53 Ohms
c. 495.03 Ohms
d. 493.05 Ohms
e. 459.35 Ohms
35. __ is that force which sets up or tends to set-up
magnetic flux in a magnetic circuit
a. Electromotive Force
b. Magnetomotive Force
c. Potential Difference
d. Dynamic Force
e. Centrifugal Force
36. In sending messages through e-mail, the first recipient
of the mail is the
a. User
b. Mailbox
c. Host
d. Disk
e. Printer
37. The barrier voltage in a PN junction
a. Increases ionization
b. Limits ionization
c. Expands the depletion region
d. Enhances current conduction across the junction
e. All of the above
38. A functional digital IC containing 50 gates is classified
as
a. SSI
b. MSI
c. LSI
d. VLSI
e. ULSI

39. The name given to that property of a material which

opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it
a. Resistance
b. Conductance
c. Reluctance
d. Permeance
e. Elastance
40. The input applied to ROM is called
a. Input Code
b. Address
c. Data
d. Micro Instruction
e. Op Codes
41. The band marked on one end of a diode identifies the
a. Anode
b. Electrode
c. Cathode
d. P-type material
e. X-band
42. External devices which transmit information to, or
receive information from, a microcomputer are known as:
a. Keyboard
b. Printer
c. Mouse
d. Peripheral
e. Scanner
43. It is the specific reluctance of a material
a. Resistivity
b. Reluctivity
c. Retentivity
d. Permeability
e. Permittivity
44. The reciprocal of capacitance is
a. Elastance
b. Permeance
c. Reluctance
d. Impedance
e. Reactance
45. Referring to a forward-biased diode, a positive side of
the voltage source connects to the:
a. Anode
b. Electrode
c. Cathode
d. N-type material
e. Gate
46. Silicon ingots are sliced into:
a. Chips
b. Substrates
c. Dice
d. Wafers
e. Discs
47. It is the reciprocal of reluctance and implies the case or
readiness with which magnetic flux is developed.
a. Resistance
b. Conductance
c. Remanence
d. Permeance
e. Reactance
48. When connected to a 12 volt battery, a certain choke
draws a current of 0.25 amperes. When connected to a 120
volt, 60 Hz source, it draws a current of 1 ampere.
Determine the resistance and inductance of the choke.
a. 291.7 mH and 48 KOhms
b. 291.7 mH and 48 Ohms
c. 291.7 mH and 480 KOhms
d. 291.7 mH and 48 mH

e. None of these
49. When a diode is forward-biased, it will:
a. Increase the depletion region
b. Increase ions in the depletion region
c. Act as open switch
d. Conduct current
e. None of these
50. Hundreds of ICs are simultaneously formed on each:
a. Ingot
b. Wafer
c. Die
d. Chip
e. Substrate
51. The flux that does not follow the intended path in a
magnetic circuit is called:
a. Leakage current
b. Leakage flux
c. Lost flux
d. Linked flux
e. Mutual flux
52. A 100 watt audio amplifier is specified at 3 dB at 20
Hz. What power output can be expected at 20 Hz?
a. 50 watts
b. 250 watts
c. 25 watts
d. 500 watts
e. 1 KW
53. In a forward-biased silicon diode, the barrier potential
is overcome at approximately:
a. 0.2 volt
b. 0.4 volt
c. 0.7 volt
d. 1.0 volt
e. 1.8 volts
54. What is the abbreviation SSI, MSI, LSI, VLSI
indicate?
a. Circuit complexity
b. Package types
c. Fabrication types
d. IC manufacturers
e. IC physical size
55. The ratio of the total flux(in an iron path) to the useful
flux(in air gap) is called:
a. Leakage coefficient
b. Leakage factor
c. Leakage constant
d. Leakage flux
e. Leakage variable
56. What value of capacitance must be connected in series
with a 560 ohms resistor to limit its dissipation to 5 watts
when connected to a 120 volt, 60 Hz source?
a. 2.327 picoFarad
b. 3.227 microFarad
c. 2.327 microFarad
d. 2.732 microFarad
e. 3.227 nanoFarad
57. When current flow increases rapidly in a forwardbiased diode, the voltage drop across the diode:
a. increases rapidly
b. decreases rapidly
c. remains relatively constant
d. increases constantly
e. decreases constantly
58. By definition, digital ICs:
a. Amplify voltage
b. Switch between 2 fixed logic states

c. Have parallel leads

d. Are called mini-DIPs
e. none of these
59. Comparing electric and magnetic circuits, the current
of electric circuits is analogous to which parameter of
magnetic circuit?
a. mmf
b. flux
c. flux density
d. reluctivity
e. permeance
60. A class of amplifiers where the load current flows for
more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees is:
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class AB
d. Class C
e. Class D
61. When the reverse bias voltage applied to a diode is
increased:
a. more majority current flows across the junction
b. the barrier potential decrease
c. additional free electrons from N-side combine
d. junction ionization increases and depletion with
holes from P-side region expands
e. none of these
62. On the op-amp schematic symbol, V+ and V- indicate:
a. inverting and non-inverting inputs
b. dual inputs
c. dual voltage supply terminals
d. ground terminals
e. none of these
63. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
a. Relative permeability
b. Magnetic potential
c. Magnetic field identity
d. Magnetic field intensity
64. The process by which an emf, and hence current is
generated or induced in a conductor, when there is a
change in the magnetic flux linking the conductor is
called:
a. Faradays Law
b. Mutual Induction
c. Electromagnetic Interference
d. Electromagnetic Induction
e. Conductor Law
65. In a reverse-biased diode, thermally-produced electronhole pairs:
a. are majority current carriers
b. make the device a perfect open circuit
c. are not present in the depletion region
d. produce leakage current
e. acts as current carriers
66. The plus symbol on the op-amp schematic symbol
indicates the:
a. Non-inverting input
b. Output
c. Positive power source connection
d. Inverting input
e. Positive ground
67. It is difficult to magnetize steel because of its
a. high retentivity
b. low permeability
c. high permeability
d. magnetic potential
e. hardness

68. An op-amp circuit which has unity voltage gain is a

a. logarithmic amplifier
b. voltage follower
c. summing amplifier
d. difference amplifier
e. differentiator
69. When breakdown occurs in a reverse-biased diode:
a. reverse current increases sharply
b. ions are completely neutralized
c. high resistance blocks reverse current
d. current is in the nanoampere range
e. forward current increases rapidly
70. In op-amp circuits, closed loop means:
a. the output is fed back to the non-inverting input
b. the output is fed back to either input
c. the output is fed back to the inverting input
d. there is no feedback
e. the input equals the output
71. A substance that attracts pieces of iron is called
a. conductor
b. superconductor
c. magnet
d. semiconductor
e. dielectric
72. A transistor operating region when both collector-base
and base-emitter junction are forward-biased
a. Saturation Region
b. Active Region
c. Cut-off Region
d. Breakdown Region
e. Autonomous Region
73. To estimate the minimum reverse resistance of a
reverse-biased diode, divide:
a. reverse current by reverse voltage
b. reverse voltage by reverse current
c. forward voltage by reverse current
d. reverse current by forward voltage
e. none of these
74. If an arrow next to an optoelectronic devices
schematic symbol points away from the symbol, the device
is considered to be:
a. Photoemissive
b. A p-type semiconductor
c. Photosensitive
d. An n-type semiconductor
e. Photocoupler
75. The phenomenon by which a substance attracts pieces
of iron is called:
a. Electromagnetism
b. Naturalism
c. Materialism
d. Magnetism
e. Masochism
76. The voltage impressed across the input of an op-amp to
ensure that the output is zero when the input signal is also
zero.
a. Input Offset Voltage Drift
b. Input Voltage Range
c. Input Offset Voltage
d. Input Voltage
e. Output Voltage
77. The force of attraction or repulsion between two
magnetic poles is directly proportional to their strength is
called:
a. Coulumbs First Law
b. Newtons First Law

c. Coulumbs Second Law

d. Newtons Second Law
e. Keplers Law
78. Light acts as if it consists of many tiny energy packets
called:
a. Electrons
b. Photons
c. Neutrons
d. Blackholes
e. Protons
79. To calculate the internal resistance of a forward-biased
diode, first subtract the ____ from the maximum forward
voltage, then divide the remainder by the forward current.
a. breakdown voltage
b. voltage drop across diodes internal resistance
c. barrier voltage
d. total voltage across the diode
e. voltage supply
80. The DC h-parameters of a common-emitter transistor
are given as: hie = 100 ohms, hfe = 49, hoe = 1 x 10-5 mhos,
hre = 1 x 10-4 . The hfb parameter for the transistor in
common base is:
a. -0.98
b. -50
c. 4.9
d. 1
e. 48
81. The force of attraction or repulsion between two poles
is inversely proportional to the square of the distance
between them. This is known as:
a. Coulumbs First Law
b. Newtons First Law
c. Coulumbs Second Law
d. Newtons Second Law
e. Keplers Law
82. The mathematical equation for wavelength is:
a. Frequency divided by speed of light
b. Speed of light time frequency
c. Frequency time speed of light squared
d. Speed of light divided by frequency
e. none of these
83. Zener diodes normally require ____ biasing.
a. Forward
b. Reverse
c. Maximum
d. Impedance
e. Fixed
84. The maximum number of gates that may be connected
to the output terminal of a single gate is
a. Fan-in
b. Propagation Delay
c. Fan-out
d. Speed
e. Jitter
85. _____ may be defined as that pole which when placed
in air from a similar and equal pole repels it with a force of
Newtons.
a. Unit pole
b. Magnetic pole
c. North pole
d. South pole
e. Flag pole
86. A commonly used unit for wavelength of light is the
a. Centimeter
b. Hertz
c. Micron

d. Millimeter
e. Femtometer
87. In which region of the current-voltage characteristics
curve do zener diode normally operate?
a. Forward
b. Saturation
c. Negative Resistance
d. Breakdown
e. Active
88. A filter circuit which passes all frequencies above the
cut-off frequency is called:
a. Low pass filter
b. Band pass filter
c. High pass filter
d. Band stop filter
e. Band elimination filter
89. The phenomenon by which a magnetic substance
becomes a magnet when it is placed near a magnet is
called:
a. Electromagnetic induction
b. Magnetic induction
c. Magnetic phenomenon
d. Magnetic Effect
e. Electromagnetic absorption
90. Under constant illumination, a photoconductive cell
exhibits ___ resistance regardless of voltage-source
polarity
a. zero
b. varying dc
c. ac
d. the same
e. none of these
91. During normal operation of a zener diode, the diodes:
a. current does not change when its voltage varies
b. voltage drop does not change when its current
varies
c. voltage drop and current vary inversely
d. voltage drop and current vary by the same
percentage
92. A pure seminconductor material is
a. Intrinsic Material
b. Extrinsic Material
c. P-type Material
d. N-type Material
e. Magnetic
93. The space outside the magnet where its poles have a
force of attraction or repulsion on a magnetic pole is called
a. Electric Field
b. Electromagnetic Field
c. Magnetic Field
d. Free Space Field
e. Holyfield
94. The main purpose of photovoltaic cell is to:
a. convert electrical energy into light
b. convert light into electrical energy
c. change resistance according to changes in light
d. amplify converted light energy
e. none of these
95. Negative resistance is indicated when current:
a. decreases as voltage increases
b. increases as voltage increases
c. decreases as voltage decreases
d. remains steady as voltage increase
e. none of these

96. A fix-biased common emitter amplifier configuration

has Vcc = 12 volts; Rc = 2.2 KiloOhms; Rb = 240
KiloOhms; and = 50, the base current Ib is equal to:
a. 47.08 Microampere
b. 50.48 Microampere
c. 50.5 Microampere
d. 10.5 Microampere
e. 0.135 Ampere
97. The total number of magnetic lines of force in a
magnetic field is called
a. Magnetic Flux Density
b. Magnetic Flux Intensity
c. Magnetic Flux
d. Magnetic Potential
e. Magnetic Gradient
98. A characteristic of a photodiode is that its change in
_________ is proportional to the intensity of illumination
striking it.
a. Brilliance
b. Luminance
c. Resistance
d. Radiation
e. Irradiance
99. A field effect transistor (FET) where there is no direct
electrical connector between the gate terminal and the
channel is:
a. JFET
b. CMOS
c. Depletion MOSFET
d. VMOS
e. IGFET
100. A circuit which provides a means of isolating an input
from a load using a stage having unity voltage gain and
with no phase in polarity inversion
a. Voltage Buffer
b. Inverting O-amp
c. Voltage Summing
d. Non-inverting Op-amp
e. none of these
101. Another name for emitter-follower configuration is
_______ amplifier
a. Common-emitter
b. Common-collector
c. Common-base
d. Fixed bias
e. none of these
102. The negative resistance characteristics make devices
especially useful for:
a. Variable Resistance
b. Rectification
c. Oscillation
d. Voltage Variable Capacitance
e. Inversion
103. A type of filter which is also called a maximally flat
filter
a. Chebeychev Filter
b. Butterworth Filter
c. Gorvachev Filter
d. Crystal Filter
e. Ceramic Filter
104. The ratio of the amplitude of harmonic components to
the amplitude of the fundamental frequency is
a. Harmonic Distortion
b. Intermodulation Distortion
c. Cross-over Distortion
d. Attenuation

e. Wander
105. The maximum extraneous voltage that causes a gate
to change its state is
a. Speed
b. Noise Margin
c. Speed Power Product
d. Gate Dissipation
e. None of these
106. The ratio of input offset voltage to the change in
temperature is
a. Offset Correction
b. Input Offset Current
c. Input Offset Voltage Drift
d. Input Offset Current Drift
e. None of these
107. The flux density of a 200 microweber flux over an
area of 5 x 10-4 square meter is
a. 5 x 10-5 weber sq meter
b. 5 x 105 weber/ sq meter
c. 5 x 103 weber/ sq meter
d. 5 x 10-3 weber/ sq meter
108. The branch of engineering which deals with the
magnetic effects of electric current is called:
a. Magnetism
b. Electrical Engineering
c. Electronics Engineering
d. Electromagnetics
e. Cybernetics
109. A zero voltage source has
a. Zero internal resistance
b. Infinite internal resistanc
c. A small internal resistance
d. A large internal resistance
e. none of these
110. If a load resistance is 1 KOhm, a stiff voltage has a
resistance of
a. At least 10 Ohms
b. Less than 10 Ohms
c. More than 100 KOhms
d. Less than 100 KOhms
e. At least 10 KOhms
111. Materials that have permeabilities slightly less than
that of free space are:
a. Paramagnetic
b. Ferromagnetic
c. Diamagnetic
d. Non-magnetic
e. Pragmatic
112. In an amplification circuit, the VOLTAGE GAIN is
calculated by:
a. dividing the input voltage by output voltage
b. multiplying input voltage by output voltage
c. multiplying output current by load resistance
d. dividing output voltage by input voltage
e. none of these
113. Which transistor circuit arrangement produces the
highest Power Gain?
a. Common-base
b. Common-collector
c. Common-emitter
d. Common-drain
e. Common-gate
114. For an amplifying transistor, if the input signal
current is 10 microamps peak to peak, and the output
signal current is one milliampere peak-to-peak, and the
voltage gain is 75, what is the current gain?

a. 10
b. 75
c. 100
d. 200
e. 250
115. If the line voltage is 115 Vrms, a turns ratio of 5:1
means the RMS secondary voltage of a transformer is
closes to
a. 15 V
b. 23 V
c. 30 V
d. 35 V
e. 40 V
116. What is the peak voltage in a full-wave rectifier if the
secondary voltage is 20 V rms.
a. 0 volt
b. 0.7 volt
c. 14.1 volt
d. 28.3 volt
e. 0.3 volt
117. A JFETs PN junction is between the:
a. Source and Drain
b. Source and Channel
c. Drain and Channel
d. Gate and Channel
e. Plate and Grid
118. We want a peak load voltage of 40 V out of a bridge
rectifier. What is approximate RMS value of secondary
voltage?
a. 0 volt
b. 14.4 volts
c. 28.3 volts
d. 56.6 volts
e. 64.8 volts
119. The lagging effect between flux density of the
material and the magnetizing force applied is called:
a. Reluctance
b. Permeance
c. Hysterisis
d. Eddy current
e. Skin effect
120. If the line frequency is 60 Hz, the output frequency of
a bridge rectifier is
a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz
c. 120 Hz
d. 240 Hz
e. 360 Hz
121. What is the PIV across each diode of a bridge rectifier
with a secondary voltage of 20 V RMS?
a. 14.1 volts
b. 20 volts
c. 28.3 volts
d. 24 volts
e. 36 volts
122. In a bridge rectifier with a capacitor input filter, if the
filter capacitance is increased, the ripple will
a. decrease
b. stay the same
c. increase
d. both b and c
e. none of these
123. Which of these if the best description of a zener
diode?
a. It is a diode
b. It is a constant-voltage device

c. It is a constant current device

d. It works in the forward region
e. none of these
124. When the gate channel junction is reverse-biased by
low gate supply voltage and drain supply voltage values,
current flows around the ________ circuit.
a. Gate-Drain
b. Gate-Source
c. Drain-Source
d. No current flows
e. any of these
125. Which leads are interchangeable in a symmetrical
JFET?
a. Gate and Drain
b. Drain and Source
c. Gate and Source
d. Gate, Drain and Source
e. Emitter, Base and Collector
126. In FETs, when the gate supply voltage is shorted and
the drain supply voltage is increased from zero to about
0.5 volt, drain current
a. decreases sharply
b. increases sharply
c. remains constant
d. cannot flow
e. none of these
127. An absorption wave meter is useful to measure
a. Transmitter frequency to ensure operation
within tolerance
b. Resonant frequency of tank circuit
c. Crystal oscillator frequency
d. Final amplifier tank circuit
e. All of these
128. The power factor of an RC circuit is
a. Zero
b. Between 0 and 1
c. 1.0
d. Between 0 and -1
e. Infinite
129. Electrons at the outer shell are called
a. Valence electrons
b. Outer shell electrons
c. Inner shell electrons
d. Semiconductor electrons
e. Ions
130. In a series RLC circuit, R = 100 Ohms, XL = 300
Ohms. The phase angle of the circuit is ____ degrees.
a. 0
b. 90
c. 30
d. 45
e. -45
131. The process by which EMF and hence current is
generated or induced in a conductor when there is a change
in the magnetic flux linking the conductor is called:
a. Electromagnetic interference
b. Mutual induction
c. Faradays law
d. Electromagnetic induction
e. Seduction
e. Equivalent
132. If the power factor of a circuit is unity, its reactive
power is
a. A maximum
b. Equal to PR
c. Zero

d. Negative Quantity
e. Infinite
133. A milliammeter with full-scale deflection of 1 mA
and a resistance of 25 Ohms was used to measure an
unknown current by shunting the meter with a 1 Ohm
resistor. The meter then read half-scale. What is the
unknown current value?
a. 125 mA
b. 12.5 mA
c. 130 mA
d. 13 mA
e. 130 A
134. If two ammeters are connected in parallel, how can
you determine the current in a circuit measured by the
combination?
a. Use the average of the two indications
b. Use difference of the two readings
c. Short the voltmeter
d. Decrease the voltage range of the instrument
e. Increase the voltage range of the instrument
135. The user program that has the ability to move a robot
axis to any position within its range.
a. Point-to-point
b. Positive stop
c. Continuous path
d. Pick and Place
e. All of these
136. What type of actuator of industrial robots that has the
great force capability and great holding strength when
stopped?
a. Electric
b. Pneumatic
c. Steam
d. Hydraulic
e. Hydro-Spring
137. Series resistors are used with voltmeter to _____.
a. Increase the speed of the meter movement
b. Decrease the speed of the meter movement
c. Decrease the voltage range of the instrument
d. Increase the voltage range of the meter
movement
e. none of these
138. EPROMS can be erased by _________.
a. Blowing a fuse
b. Applying a 21 Volt Pulse
c. Turning off the Power Source
d. Applying Ultraviolet Rays
e. Both a and c
139. The RF of a VTVM contains two silicon diodes. The
purpose of these diodes is to _____________.
a. Act as Rectifiers to Protect the Meter
b. Measure the Average Voltage
c. Measure High Frequency Voltage
d. Measure Resistance with Accuracy
e. All of these
140. An 8 bit binary up-down counter is initially preset to
10000001. Twenty seven input pulses increment the
counter, eight pulses decrements the counter. The binary
counter then is ___________.
a. 10011100
b. 01101001
c. 10010110
d. 01000100
e. 11110000
141. What system has no feedback and is not selfcorrecting?

a. Closed-Loop System
b. Feedforward Control System
c. Open-Loop System
d. Coal Slurry System
e. All of these
142. The input applied to ROM is called ________.
a. Input Code
b. Address
c. Data
d. Microinstruction
e. Op-codes
143. External devices which transmit information to, or
receive information from, an microcomputer is known as
a. Keyboard
b. Printer
c. Mouse
d. Peripheral
e. Modem
144. Which segment register normally access variables in
your program?
a. Data
b. Code
c. Extra
d. Stack
e. All of these
145. A translated program in machine language is called:
a. Source Program
b. Object Program
c. Machine Program
d. Users Program
e. All of these
146. A law that states that the polarity of the induced
voltage will oppose the change in magnetic flux causing
the induction is
a. Lenzs Law
b. Joules Law
c. Faradays Law
d. Coulombs Law
e. Childs Law
147. Computers have long been used to make
measurements in laboratories and to monitor and control
manufacturing processes. The advent of microprocessor is
moving the level of control down of consumer items. This
general idea is called:
a. Sampling Process
b. Computer Process
c. Data Acquisition Process
d. Manufacturing Process
e. Process Control
148. The smallest part of a computer language is called a
a. Binary
b. Byte
c. Bit
d. Word
e. Nibble
149. Information received from I/O devices is referred to
as
a. Data
b. Binary
c. Program
d. Input
e. Output
150. Candela is the unit of
a. Flux
b. Luminous Intensity
c. Illumination

d. Luminance
e. Irradiance
151. Small voltage generated by a conductor with current
in an external magnetic field.
a. Hall Effect
b. Flywheel Effect
c. Magnetic Effect
d. Skin Effect
e. Ettinghausen Effect
152. An electronic circuit with a lagging current means the
circuit is
a. Reactive
b. Inductive
c. Capacitive
d. Procreative
e. Inactive
153. Which of the following connections is best suited for
3-phase, 4-wire service.
a. Delta-delta
b. Wye-wye
c. Delta-wye
d. Wye-delta
e. Vee-vee
154. According to ________ law, whenever a conductor
cuts a magnetic flux, an emf is induced in it.
a. Coulombs
b. Joules
c. Ohms
d. Faradays
e. Gauss
155. Thyristor chopper circuits are employed for
a. Lowering the level of a DC
b. Rectifying the AC voltage
c. Frequency conversion
d. Providing commutating circuitry
e. All of these
156. An inverter circuit is employed to convert
a. AC voltage to DC voltage
b. DC voltage to AC voltage
c. High frequency to low frequency
d. Low frequency to high frequency
e. none of these
157. One of the main advantages of Swinburnes test is
that it
a. Is applicable both to shunt and compound
motors
b. Needs one running test
c. Economical and convenient
d. Ignores any change in iron loss
e. all of these
158. The circuit that provides the stabilization of operating
point is
a. Base resistor bias
b. Potential divider bias
c. Collector feedback bias
d. Emitter-follower
e. none of these
159. The operating point of a transistor is determined
graphically by
a. Intersection of AC load line and the given base
current curve
b. Intersection of AC and DC load lines
c. Intersection of X and Y axes
d. Intersection of Lissa jous curves
e. none of these

160. The main disadvantage of Hopkinsons test for

finding efficiency of shunt DC motor is that it
a. Requires full-load power
b. Ignores any changes in iron loss
c. Needs one motor and one generator
d. Requires two identical shunt machines
e. All of these
161. The ideal value of transistor stability factor is
a. Zero
b. One
c. 200
d. 100
e. More than 200
162. The most economical method of finding no-load
losses of a large DC shunt motor is ____ test.
a. Swinburnes
b. Hopkinsons
c. Retardation
d. Fields
e. Takayamas
163. It is generally desire that a transistor should have ___
input impedance.
a. Low
b. High
c. Very high
d. Negative
e. Positive
164. If the collector supply is 10 volts, then collector cutoff voltage under DC conditions is
a. 20 V
b. 2 V
c. 5 V
d. 10 V
e. 40 V
165. A FET is similar in operation to ____ vacuum tube.
a. Triode
b. Pentode
c. Tetrode
d. Thyratron
e. Diode
166. ________ discovered one of the most important
electrical effects which is the magnetic effect.
a. Hans Christian Oersted
b. Christie
c. DArsonval
d. Sir Charles Wheatone
e. Thomas Edison
167. A FET is a _____ driven device.
a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Both voltage and current
d. Pulse
e. None of these
168. One electron-volt (1 eV) is equivalent to
a. 1.6 x 10-29 Joules
b. 1.5 x 10-29 Joules
c. 1.4 x 10-29 Joules
d. 1.3 x 10-29 Joules
e. All of these
169. An SCR behaves like a _____ switch.
a. Bidirectional
b. Mechanical
c. Unidirectional
d. Omnidirectional
e. None of these
170. A TRIAC has three terminals, namely:

a. Drain, Source, Gate

b. Two main terminals and a gate
c. Cathode, Anode, Gate
d. Drain, Grid, Cathode
e. None of these
171. A TRIAC is a ______ switch.
a. Unidirectional
b. Mechanical
c. Bidirectional
d. Omnidirectional
e. None of these
172. The decibel gain of a cascaded amplifier equals the
a. Product of individual gains
b. Ratio of stage gains
c. Sum of individual gains
d. Product of the voltage and current gains
e. None of these
173. The tiniest element of matter is the _______.
a. Atom
b. Proton
c. Electron
d. Neutron
e. Molecule
174. A TRIAC can pass a portion of ______ half cycle
through the load.
a. Only positive
b. Only negative
c. Both negative and positive
d. None of these
175. RC coupling is popular in low-level audio amplifiers
because it
a. Has better low frequency response
b. Is inexpensive and needs no adjustments
c. Provides an output signal in phase with input
signal
d. Needs voltage battery for collector supply
e. None of these
176. The simplest known type of atom to exist is _______.
a. Ozone
b. Deuterium
c. Oxygen
d. Hydrogen
e. Helium
177. ________ revolves about the positive nucleus in a
definite orbit.
a. Electron
b. Neutron
c. Proton
d. Atom
e. Molecule
178. Which of the following are typical resistance and
power dissipation values of a carbon-composition resistor?
a. 6800 Ohms, 1 Watt
b. 5 Ohms, 5 Watts
c. 10 KiloOhms, 10 Watts
d. 1 KiloOhm, 100 Watts
e. 50 Ohms, 50 Watts
179. If a 220 volt heater is used on a 110 volt supply, heat
produced by it will be _____ as much.
a. One-Half
b. Twice
c. One-Fourth
d. Four Times
e. One Eight
180. The Q-factor of a 2-branched parallel circuit is given
by the ratio _______.

a. II/IL
b. I/IC
c. I/IL
d. L/C
e.C/L
181. Uncharged particles that have no effect upon the
atomic charge ______.
a. Neutron
b. Proton
c. Nucleon
d. Positron
e. Electron
182. One kWh of energy equals nearly _______.
a. 1000 Watts
b. 860 Kcal
c. 4186 Joules
d. 735.5 Watts
e. 1400 BTU
183. Like a resonant R-L-C circuit, a parallel resonant
circuit also ________.
a. has a power factor of 1
b. 0.5 Ohm, +/- 10 %
c. 5 Ohms, +/- 10 %
d. 50 Ohms, +/- 10 %
e. 500 Ohms, +/- 10 %
184. The permissible number of orbiting electrons in the
first or K-shell is _____.
a. 2
b. 1
c. 3
d. 4
e. 8
185. When two resistances are connected in series,
_______
a. They must both have the same resistance value
b. The voltage across each much be the same
c. They must have different resistance value
d. There is only one path for the current through
both resistors
e. None of these
186. The voltage induced in the three windings of a threephase alternator are ____ degrees apart in time phase.
a. 120
b. 90
c. 60
d. 30
e. 180
187. With two 45 KiloOhms resistance across a 90 volt
battery, the voltage across each resistor equals _____.
a. 30 volts
b. 45 volts
c. 90 volts
d. 180 volts
e. 220 volts
188. The sum of series IR voltage drops _____.
a. Is less than the smallest voltage drop
b. Equals the average value of all voltage drops
c. Equals the applied voltage
d. Is usually more than the applied voltage
e. None of these
189. The physical size of a resistor that determines the
ability of a resistor to absorb heat is in _____.
a. Ohms
b. Watts
c. Volts
d. Farads

e. Henries
190. Three equal impedances are first connected if _____.
a. Phase current will be tripled
b. Phase current will be doubled
c. Line current will become one third
d. Power consumed will increase three-fold
e. None of these
191. A source of 100 volts is applied across a 200 Ohms
R1 and 300 Ohm R2 in series and V1 is 40 volts. The
current in R2 is:
a. 5 Amperes
b. 3.333 Amperes
c. 1.3333 Amperes
d. 0.20 Ampere
e. 20 Amperes
192. To connect a current meter in series,
a. Open circuit at one point and use the meter to
complete the circuit.
b. Open the circuit at the positive and negative
terminals of the voltage source
c. Short-circuit the resistance to be checked and
connect the meter across it
d. Open the circuit at one point and connect the
meter to one end.
e. None of these
193. The current in a chemical cell is a movement of
a. Positive hole charges
b. Positive and negative ions
c. Positive ions only
d. Negative ions only
e. Any of these
194. An open coil has
a. Zero resistance and high inductance
b. Infinite resistance and zero inductance
c. Infinite resistance and normal inductance
d. Any of these
195. Cells are connected in series to
a. Increase the voltage output
b. Decrease the voltage output
c. Decrease the internal resistance
d. Increase the current capacity
e. All of these
196. The rate at which the electrons pass a given point in
the circuit determines the magnitude of
a. Electric current
b. Potential energy
c. Power
d. Electric field
e. None of these
197. A voltage multiplier can be used to produce higher
voltages and eliminate the need for a
a. Transformer
b. Rectifier
c. Regulator
d. Detector
e. None of these
198. The purpose of capacitors in a transistor amplifier is
to _______.
a. Protect the transistor
b. Cool the transistor
c. Couple or bypass AC component
d. Provide biasing
e. None of these
199. A transistor has an emitter current of 8 mA and an
alpha of 0.99. The base current is
a. 8.1 mA

b. 7.72 mA
c. 90 A
d. 81 A
e. 81 mA
200. If the reverse bias on the gate of a FET is increased,
then width of conducting channel _______.
a. Remains the same
b. Is increased
c. Is decreased
d. Is proportionally increase
e. None of these
201. In the DC equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier,
the capacitors are considered ____________.
a. Short
b. Open
c. Partially Short
d. Either a or b
e. None of these
202. At an operating point of VCE = 10 volts, IC = 3 mA and
IB = 25 A. The value of alpha corresponding to this
operating point is
a. 120
b. 0.992
c. 1.008
d. 121
e. 8.1
203. A MOSFET can be operated with _______.
a. Negative gate voltage only
b. Positive gate voltage only
c. With both positive and negative gate voltage
d. Ether a or b
e. None of these
204. In a common emitter amplifier, voltage gain is equal
to (RAC /Rin ) x ______.
a. Beta
b. Beta + 1
c. Alpha
d. Alpha + 1
e. None of these
205. A generator has an output of 10 volts on an open
circuit, which drops to 5 volts with a load current of 50
mA and RL of 1000 Ohms. The internal resistance, ri equals
a. 25
b. 50
c. 100
d. 1000
e. 5000
206. The output stage in an amplifier is also called ___
a. Mixer stage
b. Power stage
c. Detector stage
d. RF stage
e. None of these
207. A heat sink increases the amount of surface area from
which heat can be dissipated from a transistor in a power
amplifying circuit. To improve the heat sink capability
additionally, you can use
a. Silicon gel
b. Bevel
c. Solder lead
d. Ferric chloride
e. Dry ice
208. Which of the following is the best conductor?
a. Carbon
b. Silicon
c. Rubber

d. Copper
e. Mylar
209. _____ coupling is generally employed in power
amplifiers.
a. Transformer
b. Direct
c. RC
d. Impedance
e. Thermal
210. The purpose of the coupling capacitor in RC coupled
amplifiers is to
a. Pass a DC signal and reject a DC voltage
b. Pass an AC signal and reject a DC voltage
c. Pass both AC and DC voltage
d. Pass both AC and DC signal
e. None of these
211. In the normal operation of an SCR, gate is _____ with
respect to the cathode.
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. At zero potential
d. Either a or b
e. None of these
212. The major reason for using Class AB instead of Class
B in a push-pull amplifier is to eliminate ____ distortion.
a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase
d. Cross-over
e. Harmonic
213. Thermal runway occurs when ______.
a. Collector is reverse biased
b. Transistor is not biased
c. Emitter is forward biased
d. Junction capacitance is high
e. None of these
214. A low pass filter has a nominal characteristic
impedance of 600 Ohms and cut-off frequency of 20
Kilohertz. Its impedance at 10 Kilohertz is
a. 500 Ohms
b. 800 Ohms
c. 700 Ohms
d. 650 Ohms
e. 150 Ohms
215. In an LC circuit, when the capacitor energy is
maximum, the inductor energy is _____
a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Half-way between maximum and minimum
d. None of these
216. The purpose of the resistor in the emitter terminal is
a. Limit the maximum emitter current
b. Provide base-emitter bias
c. Limit the changes in emitter current
d. None of these
217. In an LC oscillator, the frequency of oscillation is
_____ L or C.
a. Inversely proportional to
b. Directly proportional to
c. Independent of the values of
d. Proportional to the square of
e. Inversely proportional to the cube of
218. If the operating voltage at the collector of the
transistor was much lower than normal, one could suspect
a. A shorted transistor
b. An open transistor

c. An open resistor
d. A defective filter
e. All of these
219. With a 4 resistance and a 2 resistance in series
across a 6 volt battery, the current
a. in the larger resistance is 1.3333 Amp
b. in the smaller resistance is 3 Amp
c. in both resistance is 1 Amp
d. in both resistances is 2 Amp
e. None of these
220. The gate in the Field Effect Transistor (FET)
transistor is generally
a. Forward-biased
b. Reverse-biased
c. Zero biased
d. Saturated
e. Open circuited
221. The stability factor of a collector feedback bias circuit
is ______ that of base-resistor bias.
a. the same as
b. less than
c. more than
d. slightly greater than
e. none of these
222. An LC oscillator cannot be used to produce ___
frequencies.
a. High
b. Very High
c. Audio
d. Very Low
e. Moderate
223. Which of the following statements if false?
a. An oscillator converts DC to AC
b. An oscillator amplifier supplies its own input
c. All oscillators generate sine waves
d. In-phase feedback is called positive feedback
e. Oscillators require a frequency determining
device
224. In the design of biasing circuits, the value of collector
load RC is determined by_______.
a. VCE considerations
b. VBE considerations
c. IB considerations
d. ILEAK considerations
e. None of these
225. RC coupling is used for ______ amplification.
a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Power
d. Impedance
e. Inductive
226. The value of the multiplier resistance on the 50-volt
range of a DC voltmeter that used a 50 microampere meter
movement with an internal resistance of 1 KiloOhm.
a. 888 KiloOhms
b. 850 KiloOhms
c. 95 KiloOhms
d. 999 KiloOhms
e. 750 KiloOhms
227. If the value of the collector current IC increases, then
the value of VCE ___________
a. remains the same
b. decreases
c. increases
d. both a and b
e. no change

228. In a series circuit with unequal resistances

a. The lowest R has the highest V
b. The highest R has the highest V
c. The lowest R has the most I
d. The highest R has the most I
e. All of these
229. In an RC coupled amplifier, the voltage gain over
mid-frequency range _______.
a. changes abruptly with frequency
b. is constant
c. is inversely proportional to the wavelength
d. is directly proportional to biasing level
e. becomes redundant
230. _______ is a resistor made of semiconductor material
which is extremely sensitive to temperature.
a. Varistor
b. Varactor
c. Thermistor
d. Thermocouple
e. Compandor
231. If the temperature increases, the value of VBE
__________.
a. remains the same
b. is increased
c. is decreased
d. either a or b
e. None of these
232. In a parallel bank with an unequal branch resistances
a. The current is highest in the highest R
b. The current is equal in all the branches
c. The voltage is highest across the lowest R
d. The current is highest in the lowest R
e. None of these
233. The stabilization of operating point in potential
divider method is provided by ________.
a. RE considerations
b. VCC considerations
c. RC considerations
d. The bypass capacitor
e. None of these
234. The bandwidth of a Class C amplifier equals the
a. resonant frequency divided by Q
b. Resonant frequency
c. Difference frequency
d. Sum frequency
e. Dissonant frequency
235. In obtaining the frequency response curve of an
amplifier, the ________
a. generator output level is kept constant
b. amplifier output is kept constant
c. generator frequency is held constant
d. amplifier frequency is held constant
e. None of these
236. The value VBE ______________
a. depends upon IC to moderate extent
b. is almost independent of IC
c. is strongly dependent on IC
d. None of these
237. In a bipolar transistor amplifier, the base current,
IB=0.100 mA and the collector current, IC = 3.6 mA, what
is the emitter current, IE in mA?
a. 36
b. 0.36
c. 3.70
d. 370
e. 37

238. An advantage of RC coupling scheme is ______

a. good impedance matching
b. economy
c. high efficiency
d. low attenuation
e. None of these
239. When temperature changes, the operating point of a
transistor is shifted due to _________.
a. change in ICBO
b. change in VCC
c. change in values of circuit resistance
d. either b or c
e. None of these
240. The most desirable feature of transformer coupling is
its
a. Higher voltage gain
b. Wide frequency range
c. Ability to eliminate hum from the output
d. Ability to provide impedance matching between
stages
e. All of these
241. A parallel AC circuit in resonance will
a. Act like a resistor of low value
b. Have a high impedance
c. Have a high voltage developed across each
inductive and capacitive section
d. Have high current in each section equal to the
line current
e. None of these
242. A biasing circuit has a stability factor of 50. If due to
temperature change ICBO changes by 1 A then IC will
change by __________.
a. 100 A
b. 25 A
c. 200 A
d. 50 A
e. 250 A
243. In multi-stage amplifiers, direct coupling is especially
suited for amplifying
a. High level voltages
b. Sinusoidal signals
c. Changes in DC voltages
d. High frequency AC signals
e. None of these
244. Like a series resonant RLC circuit, a parallel resonant
circuit also
a. Has a power factor of unity
b. Offers minimum impedance
c. Draws maximum current
d. Magnifies current
e. None of these
245. The outstanding characteristic of a direct-couple
amplifier is its
a. Utmost economy
b. Temperature stability
c. Avoidance of frequency sensitive components
d. Ability to amplify DC and low frequency signal
e. None of these
246. The chief disadvantage of a low power factor is that
a. More power is consumed by the load
b. Current required for a given load power is
higher
c. Active power developed by a generator exceeds
its rated output capacity
d. Heat generated is more than the desired amount
e. None of these

247. When using an ohmmeter, disconnect the applied

voltage from the circuit being checked because
a. The voltage source will increase the resistance
b. The current will decrease the resistance
c. The ohmmeter has its own internal battery
d. No current is needed for the meter movement
e. All of these
248. Darlington pairs are frequently used in linear ICs
because they
a. Do not require any capacitors or inductor
b. Have enormous impedance transformation
capability
c. Can be readily formed from two adjacent
transistors
d. Resemble emitter followers
e. All of these
249. The disadvantage of voltage divider bias is that it has
_________.
a. High stability factor
b. Many resistors
c. Low base current
d. Few resistors
e. None of these
250. To double the current range of a 50 microAmp, 2000
Ohms meter movement, the shunt resistance is
a. 40 Ohms
b. 50 Ohms
c. 2000 Ohms
d. 18 KiloOhms
e. 36 KiloOhms
251. Which of the following circuit can be used to reject a
100 KHz signal and accept a 150 KHz signal?
a. Series RLC
b. Parallel RLC
c. Parallel LC in series with another L
d. Parallel RL in series with C
e. Delta-wye RL circuit
252. Feedback in an amplifier always helps to
a. Control its output
b. Increase its gain
c. Decrease its input impedance
d. Stabilize its gain
e. Decrease its gain
253. If the quality factor of a series RLC circuit is 20, what
is the bandwidth if the resonant frequency is 100 KHz?
a. 2000 KHz
b. 5 KHz
c. 10 KHz
d. 20 KHz
e. 30 KHz
254. Closed-loop of a feedback amplifier is the gain
obtained when
a. Its output terminals are closed
b. Negative feedback is applied
c. Feedback loop is closed
d. Feedback factor exceeds unity
e. None of these
255. The slope of the AC load line is _____ that of DC
load line.
a. The same as
b. Less than
c. More than
d. None of these
256. A large sacrifice factor in a negative feedback
amplifier leads to
a. Inferior performance

b. Increased output impedance

c. Precise control over output
d. Characteristics impossible to achieve without
feedback.
e. None of these
257. When a transistor amplifier is operating, current in
any branch is _______.
a. AC only
b. Sum of AC and DC
c. Difference of AC and DC
d. DC only
e. None of these
258. If a wire conductor of 0.1 Ohm resistance is doubled
in length, its resistance becomes
a. 0.01 Ohm
b. 0.02 Ohm
c. 0.05 Ohm
d. 0.20 Ohm
e. 20 KiloOhms
259. Negative feedback reduces distortion in an amplifier
only when it
a. Comes as part of input signal
b. Is part of its output
c. Is generated within it
d. Exceeds a certain safe level
e. None of these
260. The main purpose of performing the open-circuit test
on a transformer is to measure its
a. Copper loss
b. Core loss
c. Total loss
d. Radiation loss
e. None of these
261. If two similar wire conductors are connected in
parallel, their total resistance is
a. Double the resistance of one wire
b. the resistance of one wire
c. 2/3 the resistance of one wire
d. The same as the resistance of one wire
e. the resistance of one wire
262. An amplifier with no feedback has a gain-bandwidth
product of 4 MHz. Its closed-loop gain is 40. The new
bandwidth now is
a. 100 KHz
b. 160 MHz
c. 10 MHz
d. 20 MHz
e. None of these
263. The value of negative feedback fraction is always __
a. Less than 1
b. More than 1
c. Equal to 1
d. Zero
e. None of these
264. The hot resistance of the tungsten filament in a bulb is
higher than its cold resistance because the filaments
temperature coefficient is
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. Zero
d. 10 Ohms per degree
e. Infinite
265. A battery has an emf of 10 volts and 0.5 internal
resistance. What is the maximum current that can be drawn
from the battery?
a. 0.5 Ampere

b. 5 Amperes
c. 20 Amperes
d. 50 Amperes
e. 0.05 Ampere
266. Evaporation of electrons from a body of a solid at
high temperature is known as:
a. Photoelectric emission
b. Photoionic emission
c. Thermionic emission
d. High filed emission
e. None of these
267. In electronic measurements, an error that results from
the friction in the bearings of the meter movement,
incorrect spring tension or improper calibration is
categorized as _______ error.
a. Environmental
b. Observational
c. Instrument
d. Random
e. None of these
268. The most important performance feature that
distinguishes a PNP transistor from an NPN type is
a. The PNP is turned on by conventional current
being withdrawn from the base, while the NPN is turned
on
b. Nothing. The two perform identically in every
respect
c. The PNP works better than NPN
d. The NPN switches electricity and the PNP
regulates electricity
e. PNP is under DILG while NPN is not
269. A Schmitt trigger circuit is used to provide:
a. Long Pulse Duration
b. Short Pulse Duration
c. Analog Pulse
d. Saw Tooth
e. None of these
270. The person who inserted a third element, on grid
between the plate and the filament of the Fleming valve
and laid the foundation for some of the most notable
achievements of the age in 1907.
a. Thomas Edison
b. Alexander Fleming
c. Albert Einstein
d. Lee de Forest
e. Walter Brattain
271. In general, electronic measuring instruments are
composed of:
a. Transducer, signal modifier, indicating device
b. Transducer, oscillator, LED display
c. Sensor, igniter, booster
d. Pick-up device, primer, CRT
e. None of these
272. The computer programming cycle is comprised of:
a. Defining the problem
b. Planning and coding the solution
c. Checking out the problem and documentation
d. All of these
e. Only a and b
273. The reciprocal of full scale deflection current in a DC
voltmeter is
a. Ayrton Shunt
b. Multiplier Resistance
c. Sensitivity
d. Fidelity
e. Selectivity

274. A list of instructions for carrying out some process in

a step-by-step manner is called:
a. Programming
b. Algorithm
c. Flowcharting
d. Diagramming
e. Op Codes
275. In the PNP transistor, the working current consists of:
a. Free electrons emitted by the collector and
collected by the emitter
b. Holes emitted by the emitter and collected by
the collector
c. Holes pumped into the base terminal by the
control circuit
d. A combination of holes and free electrons
travelling in the same direction.
e. Plasma and photons.
276. A program for controlling the execution of other
computer programs is identified as:
a. Data Program
b. Operating System
c. Computer Programmer
d. Permanent Program
e. Remote Control
277. The hfe or beta of a transistor is:
a. The noise figure
b. The current gain
c. The ratio of output signal current to the input
signal current
d. The degree of current amplification of the
transistor.
e. All of these
278. A resistor placed in series with a basic meter
movement to extend its voltage range is called
a. Ayrton shunt
b. Multiplier
c. Voltage divider
d. Internal resistance
e. Rectifier
279. Which one of the five universal semiconductor
specifications describes how easily a device passes
current?
a. Absolute maximum power dissipation
b. Conductivity
c. Breakdown voltage
d. Leakage current
e. Operating speed
280. The distinguishing feature and principal advantage of
thyristors is that:
a. They are the only high-power semiconductor
switching devices available
b. Their switching speed is faster than that of most
transistors
c. They are typically less expensive than
transistors
d. They are very easy to turn off by means of
control current at the gate
e. Only a quick, momentary pulse of gate current
is required to turn then on all the way, less power is
wasted in the control circuit that with a transistor.
281. What is the main difference between the function of
the SCR and that of the TRIAC?
a. The SCR performs better than the TRIAC
b. The SCR is a switching device, while the
TRIAC is an amplifying device

c. The SCR is made of silicon but the TRIAC is

not
d. Inside every TRIAC package are two little SCR
packages.
e. The SCR can be triggered into conduction in
only one direction, while the TRIAC can be switched on
for current in both directions.
282. A logic gate which gives a high stake (logic 1) output
only when all of its input are on high-state is:
a. OR gate
b. AND gate
c. NAND gate
d. NOR gate
e. NOT gate
283. A modified version of the Wheatstone bridge
designed to eliminate the effects of contact and lead
resistance when measuring unknown low resistances.
a. Kelvin bridge
b. Schering bridge
c. Murray bridge
d. Varley loop
e. Wien bridge
284. A 64 kilobyte magnetic disk can actually store a
maximum number of characters not greater than:
a. 65,536 characters
b. 64,000 characters
c. 64,536 characters
d. 64,000 nibbles
e. None of these
285. _____ is a grid of lines that serves as a scale when
making time and amplitude measurements with an
oscilloscope.
a. Parallax
b. Graticule
c. Granules
d. Sweep generator
e. Screen grid
286. A single integrated circuit capable of processing
information is classified as a:
a. Microelectronic
b. Microprocessor
c. VLSI chip
d. CMOS
e. None of these
287. The value of an alternating current which produce
heat at the same average rate as that of a steady DC is
a. Given value
b. Average value
c. Peak-to-peak value
d. Null value
e. None of these
288. Conditions that must be satisfied if a circuit is to
sustain oscillation
a. Flyback effect
b. Barkhausen criterion
c. Nyquist criterion
d. Resonance
e. None of these
289. Which process is used to produce IC semiconductor
elements?
a. Grown junction
b. Alloy junction
c. Mesa diffusion
d. Planar diffusion
e. None of these

290. Discharge of electrons from a body as the result of

being bombarded by electron emitted from a primary
source is called _____ emission.
a. Thermionic
b. Primary
c. Photoelectric
d. Secondary
e. Corona discharge
291. A two-stage amplifier with positive feedback, one
active device or the other is at saturation, thereby
generating a square wave output.
a. Multivibrator
b. Generator
c. Oscillator
d. Incinerator
e. None of these
292. If 22 inverters are cascaded and the input of the first
inverter is high, the output of the 18th inverter is
a. High
b. Low
c. Intermediate
d. None of these
293. A semiconductor made by sintering mixtures of
metallic oxide such as oxides of manganese, nickel, cobalt,
copper, uranium
a. Varistor
b. Varactor
c. Thermistor
d. Transistor
e. Thermocouple
294. The effect of the electrons crowding around the
cathode after being liberated by the cathode but lack
sufficient energy to traverse to the place in a vacuum tube
is known as:
a. Space charge
b. PN junction
c. Stray electrons
d. Saturation
e. None of these
295. _____ pertains to the science which deals with the
effects of temperatures that are very low, within a few
degrees of absolute zero, much below those prevailing in
the industry, scientific research and medical
instrumentation.
a. Cybernetics
b. Cryogenics
c. Microelectronics
d. Astrionics
e. Thermodynamics
296. Noise carried into a circuit through a metallic
conductor such as AC power leads or instrument wiring.
a. Johnson Noise
b. Generated Noise
c. Shot Noise
d. Conducted Noise
e. Gaussian Noise
297. The name diode came from the fact that:
a. They can operate within two distinct voltage
ranges
b. They are both a regulator and a switch
c. They have only two electrodes or electrical
connections
d. They can control 2 different circuits at the same
time.
e. Both a and d

298. The process which is used to produce IC

semiconductor elements is called:
a. Mesa diffusion
b. Grown junction
c. Planar diffusion
d. Alloy junction
e. None of these
299. An undesired change in waveform caused either by
variations in frequency, phase angle, transients,
intermodulation or harmonics.
a. Distortion
b. Noise
c. Noise Figure
d. Delay
e. Jitter
300. One basic material commonly used in the
manufacture of most semiconductor product is:
a. Monocrystalline Silicon
b. Gaseous Boron
c. N and P type Aluminum Hydroxide
d. Gaseous Metal
e. N type Lead Oxide