Professional Documents
Culture Documents
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Page
SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
.....
SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION .....
19
SECTION 3
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION .....
44
.....
69
REFERENCES
Frida Unsiah
Hasbulah Isnaini
Tantri Refa Indhiarti
Didik Hartono
Henny Indarwaty
Scarletina V. Eka
Aris Siswanti
SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Listening section is divided into three main parts, namely:
a. Part A contains 30 short conversations between two people (a man and a woman)
followed by a question.
b. Part B contains 2 longer conversation followed by some questions.
c. Part C contains 3 talks followed by some questions.
LISTENING PART A
In this part, there will be thirty (30) short conversations between two speakers followed by
a question. The strategies are elaborated as follows.
Lesson 1
Get ready to focus on the second line of the conversation because it possibly presents the
answer of the question.
For example:
On the recording, you hear:
(man)
: Can you tell me if todays matinee is a comedy, romance, or western/
(woman)
: I have no idea.
(narrator)
: What does the woman mean?
In your test book, you read:
(A)
She has strong ideas about movies.
(B)
She prefers comedies over westerns and romances.
(C)
She doesnt like todays matinee.
(D)
She does not know todays matinee.
The second line of the conversation indicates that the woman has no idea which means that
the woman does not know what todays matinee is. Thus, the correct answer is (D).
Exercise (AUDIO 1)
Listen carefully to the short conversation and question in the recording, then choose the
best answer to the question.
1. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
He is leaving now.
He has to go out of his way.
He will not be leaving soon.
He will do it his own way.
2. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Lesson 2
While focusing on the second line of the conversation, it may contain key words. If you
find any synonyms (words with similar meanings but different sounds) for the key words
in that line, you probably find the correct answer.
For example:
On the recording, you hear:
(woman)
: Did you see the manager about the job in the bookstore?
(man)
: Yes, and I also had to fill out an application.
(narrator)
: What does the man mean?
In your test book, you read:
(A)
He got a job as a bookstore manager.
(B)
The bookstore was not accepting application.
(C)
He saw a book about how to apply for jobs.
(D)
It was necessary to complete a form.
The second line of the conversation shows that the man must fill out the application. So,
the best answer is (D).
Exercise (AUDIO 2)
Listen carefully to the short conversation and question in the recording, then choose the
best answer to the question.
1. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Lesson 3
Similar sound of the words in the options to sound of the words in the items usually refers
to the incorrect answers since it has very different meanings. Therefore, you should avoid
these answers.
For example:
On the recording, you hear:
(woman)
: Did they get the new car the wanted?
(man)
: No, they lacked the money.
(narrator)
: What does the man mean?
In your test book, you hear:
(A)
They locked the map in a car.
(B)
The looked many times in the car.
(C)
It cost a lot of money when the car leaked oil.
(D)
They didnt have enough money to buy another car.
The key words in the second line of the conversation are lacked and money. In answers
(A), (B), and (C), the words locked, looked, and leaked sound similar with the word lacked.
Hence, these answers are not correct. The correct one is (D).
Exercise
Listen carefully to the short conversation and question in the recording. Then, choose the
best answer to the question.
1. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Lesson 4
The answers of these kinds of question are usually not clearly stated. Therefore, you must
draw a conclusion based on clues given in the conversation.
For example:
On the recording, you hear:
(man)
: Id like to deposit this check in my account, please.
(woman)
: Would you like any cash back?
(narrator)
: Who is the woman?
In your test book, you hear:
(A)
A store clerk
(B)
A bank teller
(C)
An account
(D)
A waitress
The clues deposit, check, account, cash back in the conversation indicate that the woman is
possibly a bank teller. Thus, the correct answer is (B).
Another example of this type of question is presented below.
On the recording, you hear:
(woman)
: Have you deposit this check in my account, please?
(man)
: No, but thats the next on my list of errands.
(narrator)
: What will the man probably do next?
In your test book, you hear:
(A)
Earn his paycheck
(B)
Write a check for a deposit on an apartment
(C)
Go to a bank
(D)
Make a list of errands to run
Exercise (AUDIO 4)
Listen carefully to the short conversation and question in the recording. Then, choose the
best answer to the question.
1. (A)
In a photography studio.
(B)
In a biology laboratory.
(C)
In an office.
(D)
In the library.
2. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Hes a pilot.
Hes a flight attendance.
Hes a member of the grounds crew.
He works clearing land.
4
3. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
In a bank.
In a restaurant.
At a service station.
In a beauty salon.
5. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Lesson 5
Meaning
Not clean = dirty
- nobody come late =
everybody come on time
- never tells the truth = lie
-
Meaning
- Both would not attend
the class.
He is the smartest.
Everything
is
very
difficult in this case.
For example:
On the recording, you will hear:
(man)
: Paula, you worked so hard setting up the field trip.
(woman)
: I hope no ones unhappy with the arrangement.
(narrator)
: What does Paula mean?
In your test book, you will hear:
(A)
She hopes everyone will be pleased.
(B)
She knows no one is happy with what she has done.
(C)
Shes arranged to take a trip because shes unhappy.
(D)
Everyones happy with the condition of the field.
The best answer is (A) since no ones unhappy means everyone is happy.
Other examples:
On the recording, you will hear:
(woman)
: How much time did Sam spend on his paper for economics class?
(man)
: Sam has seldom taken so much time on a research paper.
(narrator)
: What does the man men?
In your test book, you will hear:
(A)
Sam usually spends this much time on his schoolwork.
(B)
Sam has rarely worked so hard.
(C)
Sam took too much time on this paper.
(D)
Sam should have worked harder on this paper.
The correct answer is (B) as the word seldom refers to rarely.
On the recording, you will hear:
(man)
: Did you see Theresas grade on the math exam? It was unbelievable!
(woman)
: No one else could have done better.
(narrator)
: What does the woman mean?
In your test book, you will hear:
(A)
Theresa could have gotten a higher grade.
(B)
Anyone could get a good grade.
(C)
Theresa got the highest grade.
(D)
A high grade is impossible for anyone.
6
In the conversation, the sentence no one else could have done better means everybody got
lower grade than Theresa or she got the highest grade.
Exercise (AUDIO 5)
Listen carefully to the short conversation and question in the recording. Then, choose the
best answer to the question.
1. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Lesson 6
There are some expressions that should be considered carefully as in the following.
TYPES OF FUNCTIONAL EXPRESSIONS
Agreement
Uncertainty
and Surprise
Suggestion
1. with positive statements 1. uncertainty (as far as I 1. Then, you do love me!
(so do I, you too, isnt it)
know, I dont know for
(I thought you dont
2. with negative statement
sure, etc)
love me)
(neither do I, she doesnt 2. suggestion ( why dont 2. Then, she is there! ( I
either)
, its better .)
thought she is not there)
For examples:
On the recording, you will hear:
(man)
: I think that both candidates for county supervisor are unqualified.
(woman)
: me, too.
(narrator)
: What does the woman mean?
2. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Lesson 7
Contrary meanings in this part refer to ideas which imply the opposite meanings. Some
types of contrary meanings are presented below.
TYPES OF CONTRARY MEANINGS
Point
Example
Meaning
Wish and conditional
- an affirmative wish or - I wish I came to the - Reality:
conditional refers to
party yesterday.
I didnt come
negative reality.
- If she worked hard, she - Reality:
- a negative wish or
would
pass
the
She didnt pass the
conditional refers to
minimum score.
minimum score.
affirmative reality.
- a past tense implies a - Had I had much money, Reality:
present reality
I would have travelled I did not have money.
- a past perfect tense
around the world.
implies a past reality
- had can be used without
if
For examples:
On the recording, you will hear:
(woman)
: Did you enjoy the Thanksgiving dinner?
(man)
: I wish I hadnt eaten so much.
(narrator)
: What does the man mean?
In your test book, you will hear:
(A)
He did not eat very much.
(B)
He plans on eating a lot.
(C)
He thinks he is eating a lot.
(D)
He ate too much.
The best answer of the conversation is (D). It is indicated from the expression of wish I
wish I hadnt eaten so much meaning in fact the man ate too much.
On the recording, you will hear:
(man)
: Are you going to have something to eat?
(woman)
: If the food looked fresh, I would eat some.
(narrator)
: What does the woman mean?
2. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Lesson 8
Two/three part verbs also appear in this section. These kinds of verbs contain a verb and
certain prepositions such as off, for, on, and to, which have particular meanings.
For example:
On the recording, you will hear:
(woman)
: Do we have any more soap?
(man)
: Weve run out of it. Someone will have to go to the store.
(narrative)
: What does the man mean?
10
2. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Lesson 9
Focus on Idioms
Idioms are special expressions in a language that are not taken literally; these describe one
situation but are applied to many different areas of life.
For example:
On the recording, you hear:
(woman)
: Thanks for changing the oil and putting air in the tires.
(man)
: Its all in a days work.
(narrator)
: What does the man mean?
11
2. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Before you hear the conversations or talks in the recording, it will be helpful for you to
examine or skim briefly the overall answers in the test book to make prediction on what the
topics and questions will be in the conversation or talks that you will hear
12
For examples:
On the recording, you hear:
1. (A)
Find work on campus
(B)
Work in the employment office
(C)
Help students find jobs
(D)
Ask the woman questions
2. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
In the library
In a classroom
In a campus office
In an apartment
3. (A)
For three weeks
(B)
For three days
(C)
For three months
(D)
For three hours
Predict the topic of the conversation for questions 1 through 3!
The possible topic is looking for a job on campus
Predict the questions of the conversation for question number 1through 3!
The possible question number 1 is What does (someone) want to do?
The possible question number 2 is Where does the conversation probably take place?
The possible question number 3 is How long does (something) last?
Exercise
What is the topic of the conversation for questions 1 through 5?
1. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Nuclear power.
Electricity.
Burning coal and oil.
Solar power.
3. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
13
Lesson 11
As you listen to each conversation in Listening Part B or talks in Listening Part C, you
should be thinking about the topic or main idea for each conversation. The topic is usually
in the first and second sentences.
For example:
On the recording, you hear:
(man)
: You cant believe what I just got!
(woman)
: I bet you got that new car youve always wanted.
(man)
: Now, how in the world did you figure that out?
You may think the topic of the conversation is the new car that the man just got.
On the recording, you hear:
(man)
: The major earthquake that occurred east of Los Angeles in 1971 is still
affecting the economy of the area today.
You may think the topic of the talk is effect of earthquake in 1971 on Los Angeles.
Exercise (AUDIO 11)
Listen to the first part of each of the conversation and decide on the topic.
1. What is the topic of conversation 1?
2. What is the topic of conversation 2?
3. What is the topic of conversation 3?
4. What is the topic of talk 1?
5. What is the topic of talk 2?
Lesson 12
While listening to each conversation in Listening Part B or talk in Listening Part C, you
should be thinking of the following thought:
On the recording, you hear:
(man)
: Why do you have so many books?
(woman)
: I need them for my paper on George Washington. Do you know how I can
check them out?
(man)
: Yes, you should go downstairs to the circulation desk and fill out a card or
each book.
You may think:
Who is probably talking?
(two students)
Where are they?
(in the library)
What course are they discussing?
(American history)
On the recording, you hear:
(woman)
: The next stop on our tour of Atlanta will be the original home of Coca
Cola, at 107 Marietta Street. Coca Cola was manufactured at this location
until early in September of 1888.
You may think:
Who is probably talking?
(a tour guide)
Where are they?
(in Atlanta)
When does the talk take place?
(in the middle of a tour)
14
Lesson 13
The detailed questions in Listening Part B and Listening Part C are answered in order. It is
possible, therefore, to read along while you listen to the conversations or talks in the
recording. There two possible methods to use while listening to these parts, namely:
1. You can just listen to the conversation (ignore the answers)
2. You can follow along with the answers while listening.
On the recording, you hear:
(man)
: Can I help you?
(woman)
: Im interested in opening an account.
(man)
: Well, we have several different types of accounts: checking account,
savings accounts, money market accounts, time deposit accounts.
(woman)
: Its checking account that I am interested in.
(man)
: I can help you with that. First, you have to fill out a form, and then I need
to see some identification. Thats about all there is to it.
(woman)
: That sounds easy enough. Thanks for your help.
On the recording, you hear:
(narrator)
:
1. What type of account does the woman want?
2. What does the man need for her to show him?
15
Conversation
1. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
In the library.
In a classroom.
In a campus office.
In an apartment.
3. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Every morning.
Afternoons and weekends.
When hes in class.
Weekdays.
5. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Talk
1. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Once a week.
Two times a week.
Three times a week.
For fifteen hours.
3. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Room assignments.
Exam topics.
Reading assignments.
The first lecture.
5. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
18
SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
The second section of TOEFL tests your understanding of English grammar. This section
is divided into two parts: Structure and Written Expression.
PART A. STRUCTURE
This part of the test consists of 15 incomplete sentences. Some portion of each sentence
has been replaced by a blank. Under each sentence, four words or phrases are listed. One
of these completes the sentence grammatically and logically.
Example:
Viruses can be _____ only with a powerful electronic microscope.
A. seeing
B. seen
C. having seen
D. to see
In this example all the answer choices are verb form. The first part of a verb phrase, can
be, appears. Grammatically, either seeing or seen could follow this expression, but only the
passive verb can be seen is logically correct in the context of this sentence. Choice B is the
best answer.
Topsoil is rich in the nutrients ______ necessary for the growth of plants.
A. are
B. that is
C. that they are
D. which are
The choices here represent a variety of forms. Choice D is the best answer. Choice A does
not work because there are two verbs (is and are) in one clause with no connecting word.
Choice B contains a connecting word that is the relative pronoun that, but the verb is does
not agree with the plural noun nutrients. In C they word they is unnecessary. In D the
relative pronoun which functions both as a connecting word and as a subject of the clause.
Lesson 1
All sentences consist of one or more clauses. A simple sentence consists of one clause.
For example:
People need vitamins.
The man took a vitamin pill.
The emphasis in this lesson is on the basic components of simple sentences and main
clauses: subjects, verbs, objects, expletives, and complements.
Subjects, Verbs, and Objects
The verb missing from a sentence may be a single-word verb (need, was, took, had,
walked, and so on) or a verb phrase consisting of one or more auxiliary verbs and a main
verb (will need, has been, should take, would have had, had walked, and so on). The verb
may be active or passive (was needed, is taken, and so on). The missing subject or direct
object may be a noun (people, vitamins, and so on), a noun phrase (some famous people, a
vitamin pill, and so on), or a pronoun (he, she, it, him, her, and so on).
19
In Structure it is common for any one of these three elements or a combination of two or
three of these elements to be missing from the sentence. The most common problem in
Structure involves a missing verb. Missing subject and subject-verb combination are
common as well. The missing element may also be part of the verb or noun phrase.
Example:
Pepsin ____ an enzyme used in digestion.
A. that is
B. is
C. it is
D. being
B is the best answer as it supplies the missing verb.
______ a few of the sounds produced by insects can be heard by humans.
A. Only
B. There are only
C. That Only
D. With only
A is the best choice as it completes the noun phrase that is the subject of the sentence.
_____ from cream by a process called churning.
A. Because butter is made
B. To make butter
C. Butter is made
D. Making butter
The best answer is C, which correctly supplies a subject (Butter) and a verb (is made).
Expletives
Some clauses begin with the introductory words there or it rather than with the subject of
the sentence. These introductory words are called expletives. Expletives, along with the
verb and other sentence elements, may be missing from the sentence.
The expletive there shows that someone or something exists, usually at a particular time or
place.
Example:
There are many skyscrapers in New York City.
There was a good movie on television last night.
The expletive it is used in a number of different situations.
Example:
It is important to be punctual for appointments.
It was in 1959 that Alaska became a state.
It takes a long time to learn a language.
20
Example:
_____ in Glacier National Park.
A. Over fifty glaciers
B. Where over fifty glaciers are
C. Are over fifty glaciers
D. There are over fifty glaciers
Choice D supplies an expletive, verb, and subject and is the best choice.
______ a tomato plant from 75 to 85 days to develop into a mature plant with ripe fruit.
A. It takes
B. To take
C. That takes
D. By taking
Choice A correctly completes the sentence with the expletive It and a verb.
Complements
Some clauses contain nouns or adjectives used as a complement. There are two kinds of
complements, namely subject complement and object complement. Subject complement
comes after the verb to be and other non-action verb. Complements may also be missing
from the sentence. For example:
She is an architecture student.
They seemed happy yesterday.
Object complement is used after certain verbs. After active verb, complements follow the
object. After passive verbs, complements follow the main verb. For example:
The committee elected Bill chairman.
Bill was elected chairman.
Professor Bills colleagues consider him brilliant.
Professor Bill is considered brilliant.
Example:
The Great Dismal Swamp ____ covering about 750 square miles of northeastern North
Carolina and southeastern Virginia.
A. which is a wild marshland
B. is a wild marshland
C. a wild marshland
D. a wild marshland which is
The best answer, B, correctly supplies a verb (is) and a noun phrase used a subject
complement (a wild marshland).
Exercise 1
Direction: Choose the one option A, B, C, or D that correctly completes the sentences.
1. _____ by cosmic rays.
A. The earths is constantly bombarded
B. Bombarded constantly, the earth
C. Bombarding the earth constantly
D. The earths constant bombardment
21
Adverb Clauses
An adverb clause consists of a connecting word, called a subordinator and at least a subject
and a verb. For example:
The demand for economical cars increased when gasoline became more expensive.
In this example the subordinator when joins the subordinate clause to the main clause. The
adverb clause contains a subject (gasoline) and a verb (became).
The following subordinators may be commonly seen on the Structure part.
Common Subordinate Conjunctions
Cause/Effect
Condition
because
if
since
unless
Concession
although
even though
while
Time
when
until
before
after
Contrast
whereas
since
as
22
Example:
John Calhoun resigned as Vice President in 1832 ______ could not get along with
President Andrew Jackson.
A. because of
B. because he
C. it was because
D. because
Option B is best.
_____ to the unaided eye, ultraviolet light can be detected in a number of ways.
A. Although is invisible
B. Despite invisible
C. Even though it invisible
D. Although invisible
The best answer, D, completes a reduced adverb clause.
Exercise 2
Direction: Choose the one option A, B, C, or D that correctly completes the sentences.
1. Heavy industry developed rapidly in Alabama _____ its rich natural resources.
A. because of
B. since
C. in that
D. was a result of
2. _____ born in San Fransisco, poet Robert Frost is invariably associated with New
England.
A. And yet
B. In spite of
C. Although
D. He was
3. _____ pieces of rope are of different thickness, the short bend, or weavers knot, can be
used to join them.
A. Two of
B. What two
C. Two such
D. If two
4. Until _____, the seeds of the Kentucky coffee plant are poisonous.
A. they have been cooked
B. cooked them
C. have been cooking
D. are cooking
5. Natural silk is still highly prized _____ similar artificial fabrics.
A. although is available
B. despite there are available
C. in spite of the availability of
D. even though an availability of
23
Lesson 3
Noun Clauses
Noun clauses are the second type of subordinate clause. Noun clauses that are formed from
statements begin with the word that. Noun clauses formed from yes/no question begin with
the word whether. Those formed from information questions begin with wh- words: what,
where, when, and so on.
Example:
Dr. Hopkins office is in this building. (statement)
Im sure that Dr. Hopkins office is in this building.
Is Dr. Hopkins office on this floor? (yes/no question)
I dont know whether Dr. Hopkins office is on this floor.
Where is Dr. Hopkins office? (wh- information question)
Please tell me where Dr. Hopkins office is.
Example: ______ was caused by breathing impure air was once a common belief.
A. Malaria
B. That malaria
C. Why malaria
D. For malaria
Option B is the best.
One basic question psychologists have tried to answer is ______
A. people learn
B. how do people learn
C. people learn how
D. how people learn
D is the best answer.
Exercise 3
Direction: Choose the one option A, B, C, or D that correctly completes the sentences.
1. It seems likely _____ raindrops begin their existence as ice crystals over most of the
earth.
A. so that
B. if
C. that
D. what
2. Scientists cannot agree on _______ related to other orders of insects.
A. that fleas are
B. how fleas are
C. how are fleas
D. fleas that are
24
3. It was in 1875 _______ joined the staff of the astronomical observatory at Harvard
University.
A. that Anna Winlock
B. Anna Winlock, who
C. as Anna Winlock
D. Anna Winlock then
4. _____ is a narrow strip of woods along a stream in an open grassland.
A. Ecologists use the term gallery forest
B. What do ecologists call a gallery forest
C. Gallery forest is the term ecologists use
D. What ecologists call a gallery forest
5. _____ so incredible is that these insects successfully migrate to places that they have
never ever seen.
A. That makes the monarch butterflies migration
B. The migration of the monarch butterflies is
C. What makes the monarch butterflies migration
D. The migration of the monarch butterflies, which is
Lesson 4
Adjective Clauses
Adjective clause or relative clause is the third type of subordinate clause. It describes
nouns and begins with relative word (who, whom, whose, which, where, when, that). For
example:
A neurologist is a doctor who specializes in the nervous system.
This is the patient whom the doctor treated.
Mr. Collins is the man whose house I rented.
That is the topic which interests me.
Art that is in public places can be enjoyed by everyone.
Example:
A ring nebula is the remnants of a star ______.
A. that exploded
B. where the explosion
C. it exploded
D. exploded
A is the best answer.
The melting point is the temperature _____ a solid changes to a liquid.
A. which
B. at which
C. which at
D. at
Option B best completes the sentence.
25
Exercise 4
Direction: Choose the one option A, B, C, or D that correctly completes the sentences.
1. In addition to being a naturalist, Stewart E. White was a writer _____ the struggle for
survival on the American frontier.
A. whose novels describe
B. he describes in his novels
C. his novels describe
D. who, describing in his novels
2. Diamonds are often found in rock formations called pipes, _____ the throats of extinct
volcanoes.
A. in which they resemble
B. which resemble
C. there is a resemblance to
D. they resemble
3. William Samuel Johnson, _____ helped write the Constitution, became the first
president of Columbia College in 1787.
A. whom he had
B. and he had
C. who had
D. had
4. The instrument panel of a light airplane has at least a dozen instruments ______.
A. the pilot must watch
B. what the pilot must watch
C. which the pilot must watch them
D. such that the pilot must watch them
5. A keystone species is a species of plants or animals ____ absence has a major effect on
an ecological system.
A. that its
B. its
C. whose
D. with its
Lesson 5
Participial Phrase
Participial phrase generally occurs after nouns and are actually reduced relative clause.
Present participle is used to reduce adjective clause that contains active verbs. For
example:
Minnesota, which joined the Union in 1858, became the thirty-second state.
Minnesota, joining the Union in 1858, became the thirty-second state.
Past participle is used to reduce adjective clause with passive verbs. For example:
William and Mary College, which was founded in 1693, is the second-oldest
university in the United States.
William and Mary College, founded in 1693, is the second-oldest university in the
United States.
26
Participial phrases can also come before the subject of a sentence. For example:
Joining the Union in 1858, Minnesota became the thirty-second state.
Founded in 1693, William and Mary College is the second-oldest university in the
United States.
Example:
Natural resources provide the raw materials _____ to produce finished goods.
A. needed
B. are needed
C. need
D. needing
A is the best answer.
Exercise 5
Direction: Choose the one option -A, B, C, or D -that correctly completes the sentences.
1. _____ in front of a camera lens changes the color of the light that reaches the film.
A. Placed a filter
B. A filter is placed
C. A filter placed
D. When a filter placed
2. The solidarity scientist _____ by himself has in many instances been replaced by a
cooperative scientific team.
A. to make important discoveries
B. important discoveries were made
C. has made important discoveries
D. making important discoveries
3. Geometry is the branch of mathematics ____ the properties of lines, curves, shapes,
and surfaces.
A. that concerned with
B. it is concerned with
C. concerned with
D. its concerns are
4. _____ an average of 471 inches of rain a year, Mount Waialeale in Hawaii is the
wettest spot in the world.
A. It receives
B. Receiving
C. To receive
D. Received
5. Amber is a hard, yellowish-brown ____ from the resin of pine trees that lived millions
of years ago.
A. to form
B. substance formed
C. substance has formed
D. forming a substance
27
Lesson 6
Appositives
An appositive is a noun phrase that explains or rephrases another noun phrase. It most
commonly comes after the noun to which it refers. It may also come before the subject of a
sentence. For example:
Buffalo Bill, a famous frontiersman, operated his own Wild West show.
A famous frontiersman, Buffalo Bill operated his own Wild West show.
Appositives function exactly like adjective clauses that contain the verb to be, but unlike
adjective clauses, they do not contain a verb or a connector. For example:
Oak, which is one of the most durable hardwoods, is often used to make furniture.
(adjective clause)
Oak, one of the most durable hardwoods, is often used to make furniture.
(appositive)
Example:
The National Road, ______ of the first highways in North America, connected the East
Coast to the Ohio Valley.
A. which one
C. one
B. it was one
D. was one
Choice C forms an appositive and is the best answer.
Exercise 6
Direction: Choose the one option -A, B, C, or D -that correctly completes the sentences.
1. _____ Ruth St. Dennis turned to Asian dances to find inspiration for her choreography.
A. It was the dancer
B. The dancer
C. That the dancer
D. The dancer was
2. The organs of taste are _____ which are mainly located on the tongue.
A. taste buds, groups of cells
B. groups of cells, are taste buds
C. groups of cells, taste buds are
D. taste buds, these are groups of cells
3. In 1878 Frederick W. Taylor invented a concept called scientific management, _____
of obtaining as much efficiency from workers and machines as possible.
A. it is a method
B. which a method
C. a method
D. a method it is
4. A group of Shakers, _____ settled around Pleasant Hill, Kentucky, in 1805.
A. members of a strict religious sect which
B. whose members of a strict religious sect
C. members of a strict religious sect
D. were members of a strict religious sect
28
5. In physics _____ plasma refers to a gas which has a nearly equal number of positively
and negatively charged particles.
A. is termed
B. by the term
C. the term
D. terming
Lesson 7
Prepositional Phrases
A prepositional phrase consists of a preposition (in, at, with, for, until, and so on) followed
by a noun phrase or pronoun, called the object of the preposition. Prepositional phrases
often describe relationships of time and location, among others. For example:
In the autumn maple leaves turn red.
Beacon Hill is one of the most famous neighborhoods in Boston.
With luck, there will not be any more problems.
The house was built by Johns grandfather.
You may see prepositions in distracters, especially before the subject of a sentence.
Remember that the subject of a sentence cannot be the object of a preposition.
Example:
_____ the unaided eye can see about 6,000 stars.
A. A clear night
B. It is a clear night
C. On a clear night
D. When a clear night
Option C best completes the sentence.
_______ all the field crops grown in the United States are harvested with machines called
combines.
A. Of nearly
B. Nearly
C. That nearly
D. Nearly of
The correct answer is B.
Exercise 7
Direction: Choose the one option -A, B, C, or D -that correctly completes the sentences.
1. Dynamite is ordinarily detonated _____ called a blasting cap.
A. a device is used
B. that a device
C. with a device
D. the use of a device
29
2. ______ there were some 300 bicycle factories in the United States, and they produced
over a million bicycles.
A. In 1900
B. Because in 1900
C. It was in 1900
D. That in 1900
3. A thick layer of fat called blubber keeps whales warm even _______ coldest water.
A. although the
B. in the
C. the
D. of the
4. Sport fishermen use a variety of equipment, ranging ______ sophisticated fly rods.
A. from simple cane poles
B. simple cane poles
C. from simple cane poles to
D. simple cane poles to
5. A substance that is harmless to a person who has no allergies can cause mild to serious
reactions in a person _______ allergies.
A. has
B. which having
C. with
D. can have
Lesson 8
An infinitive is a verbal form that consists of the word to and the simple form of the verb:
to be, to go, to give, to build, and so on. Infinitives are often followed by an object: to give
directions, to build a house, and so on. An infinitive and its object form an infinitive
phrase.
Infinitives can be used in many ways. They may be the subjects or objects of verbs or used
after TO BE + ADJECTIVE. For example:
To read the direction is important.
He forgot to read the directions.
It is important to read the directions.
Infinitives can be used as adjective phrases after nouns. For example:
John Glenn was the first American astronaut to orbit the earth.
A gerund is a verbal form that ends in ing: being, going, giving, and so on. Like
infinitives, gerunds are often followed by objects. Together, a gerund and its object form a
gerund phrase. Gerunds are verbal nouns and are used as other nouns are used. You will
generally see gerunds as subjects or objects of verbs or as objects of prepositions. For
example:
Playing cards is enjoyable.
He enjoys playing cards.
He passes the time by playing cards.
30
Example:
Dorothea Dix led the drive _____ state hospitals for the mentally ill.
A. the building of
B. to build
C. was built
D. which was built
Option B best completes the sentence.
The ear is the organ of hearing, but it also plays a role in _____ balance.
A. maintaining
B. it maintains
C. to maintain
D. maintained
Exercise 8
Direction: Choose the one option -A, B, C, or D -that correctly completes the sentences.
1. The purpose of cost accounting is ____ involved in producing and selling a good or
service.
A. for determination of costs
B. the costs determined
C. that determines costs
D. to determine costs
2. _____ was one of the most difficult tasks pioneers faced on their journeys west.
A. Crossing rivers
B. They crossed rivers
C. Rivers being crossed
D. By crossing rivers
3. Energy can be defined as the ability ________.
A. do working
B. to do work
C. doing work
D. work is done
4. The process of _______ by hand has changed little since the fifteenth century.
A. to bind books
B. binding books
C. books are bound
D. bound books
5. _______ epiphytes, or air plants, perch high in the branches and trunks of trees in rain
forests.
A. To obtain light
B. For obtaining light
C. They obtain light
D. Light obtained
31
32
33
PART B
WRITTEN EXPRESSION
In this part of the test, there are 25 sentences. In each sentence, four expressions which
consist of single words or two- or three-word phrases are underlined. Your job is to
identify which of these phrases must be rewritten in order for the sentence to be correct.
Example:s
Music, dramatic, and art contribute to the culture of any community.
A
B
C
D
This sentence should correctly read Music, drama, and art contribute to the culture of any
community. Choice A would have to be rewritten to correct the sentence, so A is the best
answer.
The Michigan dunes, located on Lake Michigans eastern shore, may to reach a height of
A
B
C
some 200 feet.
D
This sentence should read The Michigan dunes, located on Lake Michigans eastern
shore, may reach a height of some 200 feet. Choice B contains the error, so you should
choose answer B.
Lesson 9
Most errors of this type involve using one part of speech in place of another an adjective
in place of an adverb, a noun in place of a verb, and so on.
Adjective/adverb errors: the most common type of word-form problems involves
the use of an adverb in place of an adjective or an adjective in place of an adverb. A
few points to keep in mind:
- Adjectives modify noun phrases and pronouns. For example:
He was a brilliant doctor.
-
Most adverbs are used to modify verbs, adjectives, and participles. For
example:
She treated her employees honestly.
Example:
The Black Hills of South Dakota are covered with densely pine forests.
A
B
C
D
The best answer is D. An adjective, dense, not an adverb, is required to modify the
noun phrase pine forests.
Incorrect forms of words connected with certain fields: this error involves a
confusion between the name of a field and the name of the person who practices in
that field, or between one of those terms and the adjective that describes the field.
34
Example:
Huey Long and his brother Earl were the two most powerful politics in the history
A
B
C
D
of Louisiana.
The error is in choice C. politics refers to the name of the field. The correct term,
politicians, refers to people who engage in that field.
Exercise 9
Direction: Decide which of the four underlined words or phrases would not be considered
correct then write the correct form.
1. The strong of a rope is directly proportional to its cross-sectional area.
A
B
C
D
2. Black bears can move rapidly when necessary and are skillful tree climbers for their size
A
B
C
and weigh.
D
3. Helen Pankhurst formulated an experimental method of educational called the Dalton
A
B
C
D
Laboratory Plan.
4. In most Western states, the first major industry was mining, which was gradually
A
B
supplemented by ranches.
C
D
5. Peach trees grow good in a variety of soil types, but do best in sandy loam.
A B
C
D
Lesson 10
Whenever the verb is underlined in a Written Expression problem, you should check for
the common verb errors outlined in this lesson:
Errors with agreement: if a subject is singular, the verb must be singular. If the subject
is plural, the verb must be plural. Most problems involving subject-verb agreement in
TOEFL are simple, but a few are tricky.
Example:
Minerals in seawater exists in the same proportions in all the oceans of the world.
A
B
C
D
The best answer is B. The Plural subject minerals requires a plural verb, exist.
Bowling, one of the most popular indoor sports, are popular all over the United States
A
B
C
and in other countries.
D
The best answer is C; the subject of the sentence is bowling, not sports. Therefore, the
singular verb form is should be used.
35
Incorrect tense: Most tense errors involve the simple present tense, the simple past
tense, and the present perfect tense. For Example:
The atmosphere surrounds the earth.
They moved to Phoenix five years ago.
Mr. Graham has worked for this company since 1990.
Example:
The most important period of physical growth in humans occurred during their first two
A
B
C
D
years.
Choice C is the best. The simple present tense, not the past tense, should be used
because the situation described in this sentence always occurs.
Incorrect verb forms: some of the verb errors are errors in form. In this type of problem,
an
ing form may be used in place of a past participle or a simple form. The problem may
involve auxiliary verbs: has may be used in place of is, or is may be used in place of
does, and so on.
Example:
The first bicycle race on record in the United States taken place in 1883.
A
B
C
D
The best choice is C. the correct verb is the past tense form (took), not a past participle.
Exercise 10
Direction: Decide which of the four underlined words or phrases would not be considered
correct then write the correct form.
1. Portable fire extinguishers generally containing liquid carbon dioxide.
A
B
C
D
2. The first experimental telegraph line in the United States run from Baltimore to
A
B
C
Washington, a distance of 40 miles.
D
3. The Haida Indians once occupy the Queen Charlotte Islands of British Columbia.
A
B
C
D
4. In the late nineteenth century, many important theories in both the biological and the
A
B
C
physical sciences have been produced.
D
5. Everyone who go into the woods should recognize common poisonous plants such as
A B
C
D
poison ivy and poison oak.
Lesson 11
The sentence in this type of error generally contains a series of three or more expressions.
One of these expressions is not grammatically parallel to the other items in the series.
36
Example:
As a young man, George Washington liked boating, to hunt, and fishing.
A
B
C
D
The best answer is option C because it is not parallel with the other items in the series: to
hunt is infinitive, while the other items are gerunds.
Exercise 11
Direction: Decide which of the four underlined words or phrases would not be considered
correct then write the correct form.
1. The bellflower is a wildflower that grows in shady fields, in marshes, and mountain
slopes.
A
B
C
D
2. Computers are often used to control, adjustment, and correct complex industrial
A
B
C
D
operations.
3. Many places of history, scientific, cultural, or scenic importance have been designated
A
B
C
national monuments.
D
4. R. Buckminster Fuller was a designer, an architecture, an inventor, and an engineer.
A
B
C
D
5. Many people who live near the ocean depend on it as a source of food, recreation, and
A
B
C
to have economic opportunities.
D
Lesson 12
Underlined nouns in the Written Expression section are sometimes incorrect because they
are plural but should be singular, or because they are singular but should be plural.
Example:
Certain animal, such as earthworms and birds, have organs called gizzards for the grinding
A
B
C
D
of foods.
The error is A. because the verb have is plural, the subject must also be plural. The correct
form is animals.
In some sentences an uncountable noun, such as water, silver, furniture, art, luggage,
bread, and so on is incorrectly given as a plural noun.
Example:
Some encyclopedias deal with specific fields, such as music or philosophy, and provide
A
B
C
informations only on that subject.
D
The answer here is D; information is an uncountable noun and cannot be pluralized.
37
Exercise 12
Direction: Decide which of the four underlined words or phrases would not be considered
correct then write the correct form.
1. Insurance underwriter insure people against many types of risks.
A
B
C
D
2. The electric toaster was one of the earliest appliance to be developed for the kitchen.
A
B
C
D
3. Tornadoes can pick up objects as heavy as automobiles and carry them for hundreds of
A
B
C
foot.
D
4. Many kind of vegetables are grown in Californias Imperial Valley.
A
B
C D
5. Russell Cave in northeastern Alabama was the home of cliff-dwelling Indians thousand
A
B
C
of years ago.
D
Lesson 13
Most adjectives have three forms: the absolute or the basic adjective form, the
comparative, and the superlative. Comparatives are used to show that one item has more or
some quality than another does. For example:
George is taller than his brother.
Superlatives are used to show that one item in a group of three or more has the greatest
amount of some quality. For example:
He was the tallest man in the room.
An opposite relationship can be expressed with the words less and least: less expensive and
the least expensive.
Many adverbs also have comparative and superlative forms. The comparative and
superlative forms of ly adverbs are formed with more and most: importantly, more
importantly, and the most importantly.
Example:
Basketball is played at a much fast pace than baseball.
A
B
C
D
The best answer is C. the comparative form faster is needed because two concepts the
pace of basketball and the pace of baseball are being compared.
The most small vessels in the circulatory system are capillaries.
A
B
C D
The best answer is A; the correct form is smallest, because small is a one-syllable
adjective.
38
Exercise 13
Direction: Decide which of the four underlined words or phrases would not be considered
correct then write the correct form.
1. One of the most basic American contribution to technology was the so-called
A
B
American system of interchangeable machine parts.
C
D
2. Chicagos Field Museum is probably the largest and better known natural history
A
B
C
museum in the United States.
D
3. Baltimore has one of the worlds most finest natural harbors.
A B
C
D
4. The Kennedy-Nixon race of 1960 was the more closest presidential election of this
A
B
C
century.
D
5. The finback whale is the fastest of all whales, and only the blue whale is largest.
A
B
C
D
Lesson 14
Most word-order errors in Written Expression consist of two words in reverse order. Some
of the most common examples of this type of error are given below:
Error
Example
Correction
NOUN + ADJECTIVE
Drivers careful
Careful drivers
NOUN + POSSESSIVE
Clothing womens
Womens clothing
MAIN VERB + AUXILIARY Finished are
Are finished
SUBJECT + VERB
Where it is?
Where is it?
VERB + SUBJECT
Tell me where is it.
Tell me where it is.
ADJECTIVE + ADVERB
A basic extremely idea
An extremely basic idea
PARTICIPLE + ADVERB
Baked freshly bread
Freshly baked bread
Example:
Goods such as flowers fresh and seafood are often shipped by air.
A
B
C
D
You should choose option B. the adjective fresh must come before the noun flowers: fresh
flowers.
Exercise 14
Direction: Decide which of the four underlined words or phrases would not be considered
correct then write the correct form.
1. The development of transistors made possible it to reduce the size of many
A
B
C
electronic devices.
D
39
2. Twelve drawings usually have to be prepared for second each of animated film.
A
B
C
D
3. An umbra is a shadows darkest central part, where is light totally excluded.
A
B
C
D
4. Frank Lloyd Wright is known for his original highly methods of blending buildings with
A
B
C
their surroundings.
D
5. To grow well, a tree must be well suited to the area where is it planted.
A
B
C
D
Lesson 15
Redundancy is the unnecessary repetition of words. It can be caused by using two words
that are very close in meaning when one would be sufficient. For example:
to exit and go out
an important, significant idea
to drive carefully and cautiously
The use of an adjective with a noun that contains the meaning of that adjective is also
redundant. For example:
an incorrect mistake
a true fact
a famous celebrity
Some particles are unnecessarily used after verbs because the verb contains the meaning of
that particle. For example:
connect together
rise upward
advance forward
repeat again
Example:
Most aircraft are equipped with emergency devices that can transmit and send out distress
A
B
C
signals in case of an accident.
D
The best answer is C; the two verbs transmit and send out are so close in meaning that the
use of both is unnecessary.
Exercise 15
Direction: Decide which of the four underlined words or phrases would not be considered
correct then write the correct form.
1. The chief main ingredients in soap are fats and chemicals called alkalis.
A
B C
D
2. Most of the cities of the American West are separated apart from one another by vast,
A
B
C
relatively unpopulated expanses of mountains and deserts.
D
40
3. The Gila monster is the single only poisonous lizard found in the United States.
A
B
C
D
4. A fundamental tendency of the process of industrialization is toward greater and greater
A
B
C
D
specialization.
5. Around approximately ten percent of all solid wastes is glass.
A
B
C
D
Lesson 16
You may encounter errors with either correlative conjunctions or coordinate conjunction:
Errors with correlative conjunction: Correlative conjunctions are two-part conjunctions.
Errors almost always involve an incorrect combination of the two parts such as neither
. or or not only. and. Anytime you see a sentence containing correlative
conjunctions, you should be on the lookout for this type of error.
Correlative Conjunction
either or
neither nor
both and
not only but also
whether or
Example:
X-rays have important applications, not only in medicine and in industry.
A
B
C
D
The best answer is C; the correct pattern is not only but also.
Errors with coordinate conjunctions: The conjunction and is correctly used to show
addition; or is used to show choice; but is used to show contrast.
Example:
Brakes and clutches serve very different functions in an automobile, and their principles
of
A
B
C
operation are nearly the same.
D
The first clause discusses how brakes and clutches are different; the second clause
discusses how they are the same. Therefore, the conjunction joining them must show
contrast. Choice C should read but.
Exercise 16
Direction: Decide which of the four underlined words or phrases would not be considered
correct then write the correct form.
1. Rust not only corrodes the surface of metal nor weakens its structure.
A
B
C
D
41
42
12. When settling the old west in pioneer times, American families building their homes
A
B
C
from split logs.
D
13. A Venus Flytrap is a small plant that have leaves that snap together like traps.
A
B
C
D
14. The Last of Mohicans are a famous book about frontier life by the American author
A B
C
D
James Fenimore Cooper.
15. The Treaty of Ghent, signed in 1814, ends the last war between England and the
A
B C D
United States.
16. A fever, the elevations of body temperature above 98.6 F, is considered to be a
A
B
C
symptom of a disorder rather than a disease in itself.
D
17. Lacrosse is a ballgame played on a field outdoors similar soccer.
A B
C
D
18. The manufactural of ice cream in the United States on a commercial scale began in
A
B
C
D
1851.
19. People with two family members which suffer heart attacks before fifty-five are likely
A
B
C
to have early heart attacks themselves.
D
20. Childrens games, which are amusement involve more than one individual, appear to
A
B
be a cultural universal.
C
D
21. During times of war, political groups will sometimes kidnap foreign diplomats and
keep them as hostages until the government meets certain demanding.
A
B
C
D
22. The first year of a childs life is characterized in rapid physical growth.
A
B
C
D
23. A fair trial is guarantee by the American Constitution.
A B
C
D
24. Since ancient times, water from rivers and smaller streams are used for irrigation.
A
B
C
D
25. The symptom of leukemia include weakness, a general ill feeling, and fever.
A
B
C
D
43
SECTION 3
READING COMPREHENSION
Strategies to raise your TOEFL reading score.
1. As with other sections of the TOEFL, be familiar with the directions and examples
so you can begin work immediately.
2. For each passsage, begin by briefly looking over the questions (but not the answer
choices). Try to keep these questions in mind during your reading.
3. Scan passages to find and highlight the important facts and information.
4. Read each passage at a comfortable speed.
5. Answer the questions, referring to the passage when necessary.
6. Eliminate answers that are clearly wrong or do not answer the question. If more
than one option remains, guess.
7. Mark difficult or time-consuming answers so that you can come back to them later
if you have time.
8. Timing is an important factor. Do not spend more than 10 minutes on any one
passage and the questions about it.
9. Concentration is another important factor. The reading section is one of the longer
sections of the test. Your practice and hard work will help you.
10. Relax the night before exam.
Other than the ten things above, there are also other strategies for Reading in TOEFL test.
You do not have to read all the passage/ text. You are not scored based on whether you
read the text, but you will be scored when you answer the questions correctly. Even though
you do not answer the questions or when you give the wrong answers, your score will not
be decreased. So, doing TOEFL test is actually a win-win action. Therefore, once again,
relax!
The reading section in TOEFL are represented by the 4 major form of questions as
mentioned below:
1. Detail/Fact (3-6 per set)
2. Negative facts (0-2 per set)
3. Inference/ Implication (0-2 per set)
4. Vocabulary (3-5 per set)
5. Author purpose (0-2per set)
6. Reference questions (0-2per set)
Question Types
1. Detail/Fact (3-6 per set)
Questions:
a. According to the passage...
b. According to paragraph 1, why/what/which...
c. The author's description of ...mentions which of the following...
2. Negative Fact (0-2)
Questions:
a. All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT:
b. According to the passage which of the following is NOT...
44
Factual and Negative Factual questions ask about specific details and facts that are often
provided in a single line of text. Sometimes you will be directed to the paragraph that
contains the answer.
3. Inference/Implication (0-2)
Questions:
a. Which of the following can be inferred about ...
b. In paragraph 3, the author implies...
You will have to make connections and assumptions to answer this style of question.
Unlike factual questions, answers will not often be found in a single line of text.
4. Vocabulary (3-5)
Questions:
a. The word...in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to...
b. When the author says ... is....she means...
The meaning of the term is often understood by reading the surrounding text. You will not
be asked to define vocabulary that is uncommon, subject related, or cannot be understood
in context.
5. Author purpose (0-2)
Questions:
a. In paragraph 5, why does the author discuss...
b. The author mentions...as an example of...
These questions ask you to do things such as figure out reasons why certain topics are
discussed or certain examples are provided. Again you will be asked to make assumptions.
6. Reference questions (0-2)
Questions:
a. The word ... in paragraph 3 refers to...
These questions generally ask you to identify a noun or phrase that a pronoun is referring
to.
Example:
Read the following passage. Then answer the questions and check your answers.
Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short
amount of time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the
information get there in the first place? Information that makes its way to the short term
memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain has a filter which only
allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the
working memory.
There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most
accepted theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that
humans can remember approximately seven chunks of information. A chunk is defined as a
meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather than just a letter or number.
Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the short term memory by
chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing information, one can
optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being passed on to long term
storage.
45
When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam,
many people engage in "rote rehearsal". By repeating something over and over again, one
is able to keep a memory alive. Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only
succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a person stops rehearsing the information,
it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen and paper are not handy, people often attempt
to remember a phone number by repeating it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to
come in before a person has the opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely forget the
number instantly. Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from
the short term to long term memory. A better way is to practice "elaborate rehearsal". This
involves assigning semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along
with other pre-existing long term memories.
Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information
can be done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in
the long term memory and used often; however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it may
eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more cues a person is given (such as pictures),
the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is why multiple choice tests are often used
for subjects that require a lot of memorization.
Glossary:
semantic: relating to the meaning of something
1. According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?
A) They revert from the long term memory.
B) They are filtered from the sensory storage area.
C) They get chunked when they enter the brain.
D) They enter via the nervous system.
Explanation:
Choice A is the opposite of what happens.
Choice C is what a person should try to do when memorizing something.
Choice D is not mentioned.
The correct answer is B. This is a factual question.
2. The word elapses in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:
A) passes
B) adds up
C) appears
D) continues
The correct answer is A. This is a vocabulary question.
3. All of the following are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT the:
A) STM
B) long term memory
C) sensory storage area
D) maintenance area
Explanation:
Choice A is mentioned in the first paragraph.
Choice B is mentioned in the second paragraph.
46
47
48
1. The zipper differs from the other three fastening devices mentioned in paragraph 1 in
which way?
(a) it has been used in many more ways
(b) it is more recent
(c) it can be used in place of the other three
(d) it is usually made from different materials
2. The word prototype in line 8 is closest in meaning to
(a) device
(b) design
(c) model
(d) original
3. What is the authors main point in the second paragraph?
(a) despite being a successful inventor, Judson failed with the clasp-locker
(b) Judson lacked marketing skills
(c) Judson was a poor businessman
(d) Although Judson invented a workable product, it did not appeal to the public
4. The word it in line 11 refers to
(a) Judson
(b) Clasp-locker
(c) Worlds Fair
(d) The public
5. The word refinements in line 12 is closest in meaning to
(a) improvements
(b) changes
(c) promotion
(d) additions
6. According to the passage, zippers did not really become a success until
(a) they were used in the apparel industry after 1905
(b) in 1913 after being remodeled
(c) the Army used them in World War I
(d) be the late 1920s
7. The word gear in line 16 is closest in meaning to
(a) boots
(b) luggage
(c) equipment
(d) tents
8. According to the passage, by the late 1920s zippers could be found in all of the
following industries EXCEPT
(a) footwear
(b) luggage
(c) tents
(d) fashion
49
50
51
Ancient people probably assembled the massive sandstone horseshoe at Stonehenge more
than 4,600 years ago, while the smaller bluestones were imported from Wales later, a new
study suggests. The conclusion, detailed in the December issue of the journal Antiquity,
challenges earlier timelines that proposed the smaller stones were raised first. "The
sequence proposed for the site is really the wrong way around," said study co-author
Timothy Darvill, an archaeologist at Bournemouth University in England. "The original
idea that it starts small and gets bigger is wrong. It starts big and stays big. The new
scheme puts the big stones at the center at the site as the first stage."
The new timeline, which relies on statistical methods to tighten the dates when the stones
were put into place, overturns the notion that ancient societies spent hundreds of years
building each area of Stonehenge. Instead, a few generations likely built each of the major
elements of the site, said Robert Ixer, a researcher who discovered the origin of the
bluestones, but who was not involved in the study. "It's a very timely paper and a very
important paper," Ixer said. "A lot of us have got to go back and rethink when the stones
arrived." Mysterious monument The Wiltshire, England, site of Stonehenge is one of the
world's most enduring mysteries. No one knows why prehistoric people built the enigmatic
megaliths, although researchers over the years have argued the site was originally a sun
calendar, a symbol of unity, or a burial monument.
Though only some of the stones remain, at the center of the site once sat an oval of
bluestones, or igneous rocks (those formed from magma) that turn a bluish hue when wet
or freshly cut. Surrounding the bluestones are five giant sandstone megaliths called
trilithons, or two vertical standing slabs capped by a horizontal stone, arranged in the shape
of a horseshoe. Around the horseshoe, ancient builders erected a circular ring of
bluestones. The sandstone boulders, or sarsens, can weigh up to 40 tons (36,287
kilograms), while the much smaller bluestones weigh a mere 4 tons (3,628 kg).
Past researchers believed the bluestone oval and circle were erected earlier than the
massive sandstone horseshoe. But when Darvill and his colleagues began excavations at
the site in 2008, they found the previous chronology didn't add up. The team estimated the
age of new artifacts from the site, such as an antler bone pick stuck within the stones.
Combining the new information with dating from past excavations, the team created a new
timeline for Stonehenge's construction. Like past researchers, the team believes that
ancient people first used the site 5,000 years ago, when they dug a circular ditch and
mound, or henge, about 361 feet (110 meters) in diameter.
But the new analysis suggests around 2600 B.C. the Neolithic people built the giant
sandstone horseshoe, drawing the stone from nearby quarries. Only then did builders
arrange the much smaller bluestones, which were probably imported from Wales. Those
bluestones were then rearranged at various positions throughout the site over the next
millennium, Darvill said. "They sort out the local stuff first, and then they bring in the
stones from Wales to add to the complexity of the structure," Darvill told LiveScience.
The new dating allows the archaeologists to tie the structure to specific people who lived in
the area at the time, Darvill said. The builders of the larger sandstone structures were pig
farmers found only in the British Isles. In contrast, the bluestone builders would've been
the Beaker people, sheep and cow herders who lived throughout Europe and are known for
the distinctive, bell-shape pottery they left behind. The new timeline "connects everything
52
together, it gives us a good sequence of events outside, and it gives us a set of cultural
associations with the different stages of construction," Darvill said.
21. The new study described in this article suggests which sequence of events for the
building of Stonehenge?
a) The bluestones were arranged in the horseshoe configuration and then accented with the
larger stones
b) Ancient peoples first arranged the small bluestone configuration and later ringed it with
large, imported granite slabs
c) The sandstone horseshoe was developed first, thousands of years ago, and the smaller
bluestones were imported later from Wales
d) All the stones were brought in at the same time and slowly arranged over centuries
22. Which type of methodology does the new study rely on to discern Stonehenge's
timeline?
a) Mineralogy
b) Statistical analysis
c) Carbon dating
d) DNA analysis
23. According
a) 38 tons
b) 42 tons
c) 56 tons
d) 41 tons
to
the
article,
sarsen
could
weigh
how
much?
24. Until the study that is discussed in the article, what was the accepted sequence of
Stonehenge's construction?
a) Bluestone horseshoe, then sandstone oval
b) Bluestone diamond, then sandstone square
c) Bluestone square, then sandstone circle
d) Bluestone oval, then sandstone horseshoe
25. None of the following were known artifacts in constructing the new Stonehenge
timeline EXCEPT
a) Arrowheads of the nearby civilizations
b) Skeletons of ancient peoples
c) An antler bone wedged between stones
d) Stone eroded clearly enough to be dated
26. It is agreed between old and new studies that Stonehenge was first used by
civilizations?
a) 5,000 years ago
b) 6,000 years ago
c) 7,000 years ago
d) 8,000 years ago
53
54
The origins of persistent themes regarding the popular antagonisms toward bilingual
education and the prescribed panaceas of "English immersion" and high-stakes testing in
English need to be scrutinized. As background to the contemporary context, we briefly
discuss the history of language politics in the United States and the ideological
underpinnings of the dominant monolingual English ideology. We analyze the recent
attacks on bilingual education for what this attack represents for educational policy within
a multilingual society such as the United States. We emphasize multilingual because most
discussions of language policy are framed as if monolingualism were part of our heritage
from which we are now drifting. Framing the language policy issues in this way masks
both the historical and contemporary reality and positions non-English language diversity
as an abnormality that must be cured. Contrary to the steady flow of disinformation, we
begin with the premise that even as English has historically been the dominant language in
the United States since the colonial era, language diversity has always been a fact of life.
Thus, efforts to deny that reality represent a "malady of mind" (Blaut, 1993) that has
resulted in either restrictionist or repressive language policies for minorities.
As more states ponder imposing restrictions on languages of instruction other than Englishas California, Arizona, and Massachusetts have recently done-it is useful to highlight
several questions related to the history of language politics and language planning in the
United States. Educational language planning is frequently portrayed as an attempt to solve
the language problems of the minority. Nevertheless, the historical record indicates that
schools have generally failed to meet the needs of language-minority students (Deschenes,
Cuban, & Tyack, 2001) and that the endeavor to plan language behavior by forcing a rapid
shift to English has often been a source of language problems that has resulted in the denial
of language rights and hindered linguistic access to educational, social, economic, and
political benefits even as the promoters of English immersion claim the opposite.
The dominance of English was established under the British during the colonial period, not
by official decree but through language status achievement, that is, through "the
legitimization of a government's decisions regarding acceptable language for those who are
to carry out the political, economic, and social affairs of the political process" (Heath,
1976, p.51). English achieved dominance as a result of the political and socioeconomic
trade between England and colonial administrators, colonists, and traders. Other languages
coexisted with English in the colonies with notable exceptions. Enslaved Africans were
prohibited from using their native tongues for fear that it would facilitate resistance or
rebellion. From the 1740s forward, southern colonies simultaneously institutionalized
"compulsory ignorance" laws that prohibited those enslaved from acquiring English
literacy for similar reasons. These restrictive slave codes were carried forward as the
former southern colonies became states of the newly United States and remained in force
until the end of the Civil War in 1865 (Weinberg, 1977/1995). Thus, the very first formal
language policies were restrictive with the explicit purpose of promoting social control.
31. What is the primary purpose of including the statistic from the 1790 census in the
introductory paragraph?
a) To explain how colonizing the US eradicated language diversity
b) To show concrete evidence that language diversity in the US is not a new phenomenon
c) To note that before that time, there was no measure of language diversity in the US
d) To demonstrate that census data can be inaccurate
55
32. The article compares two sets of statistics from the years 1991-2002, increases in K-12
enrollment and increases in LEP students, to highlight.
a) That the two numbers, while often cited in research, are insignificant
b) That while many people with school-age children immigrated to the US during this
time, an equal amount left the country as well
c) That language diversity had no impact on US student enrollment during this time
d) That while the total amount of students enrolled in US schools may have grown slowly,
the amount of those students who were LEP increased dramatically
33. According to the second paragraph, many groups maintained their native languages
without resistance into the 20th century EXCEPT
a) Native Americans and African Americans
b) Irish Americans and African Americans
c) Mexican Americans and Native Americas
d) Native Americans and Dutch Americans
34. Why is the word "undertow" emphasized in the second paragraph?
a) To explain how certain groups continued to carry their native languages with them
despite the opposition from those against language diversity
b) To show the secretive and sneaky nature of those opposed to language diversity
c) To call attention to the ebb and flow of language resistance during the 20th century,
experiencing periods of both rest and extremism
d) To explain that, while many groups tried to maintain their native languages, many
gave in to social and political pressure to use only English
35. What is the best way to describe the function of the third paragraph in this excerpt?.
a) The paragraph provides its primary thesis as well an outline of the article's main points
b) The paragraph is an unnecessary and irrelevant inclusion
c) The paragraph serves to reveal the conclusions of the article before detailing the data
d) The paragraph firmly establishes the article's stance against language diversity
36. What is the best summary of why the phrase "multilingualism" is emphasized in the
third paragraph?
a) Language repression stems from the US's unwillingness to recognize the languages of its
foreign allies
b) Because language is constantly changing and often goes through multiple phases over
time
c) The authors firmly believe that speaking more than one language gives students a
substantial benefit in higher education.
d) Language policy discussions often assumes that the US has a monolinguistic history,
which is untrue and poses language diversity as threatening
37. Phrases such as "prescribed panaceas" and "malady of the mind" are used in the third
paragraph to
a) Defend the point that the US must standardize its language education or there will be
severe results
b) Point out that language is as much a physical process as an intellectual one
c) Illustrate how certain opponents of language diversity equate multilingual education
with a kind of national disease
56
d) Demonstrate how the stress of learning multiple languages can make students ill
38. According to the fourth paragraph, all of the following are potential negatives of rapid
English immersion EXCEPT:
a) It can lead to a denial of language rights for particular groups
b) Students become more familiar with conversational expressions and dialect
c) It can prevent access to certain benefits that are always available to fluent speakers
d) It can promote feelings of alienation among groups that are already in a minority status
39. The best alternate definition of "language status achievement" is
a) When enough scholarly work has been produced in a language, it is officially
recognized
b) Those who are in power socially and economically determine the status of a language
c) Languages fall into a hierarchy depending upon the numbers of populations that speak
them
d) The position of a language in which no others may coexist with it
40. From the context of the final paragraph, what does "compulsory ignorance" mean?
a) Populations at the time were required only to obtain a certain low level of education
b) Slave populations were compelled to only speak in their native languages and not learn
english
c) That slaves were forcibly prevented from developing their native language skills out of
fear that they would gain power
d) Slave owners would not punish slaves who did not wish to learn and speak only English
When people learn to play video games, they are learning a new literacy. Of course, this is
not the way the word "literacy" is normally used. Traditionally, people think of literacy as
the ability to read and write. Why, then, should we think of literacy more broadly, in regard
to video games or anything else, for that matter? There are two reasons.
First, in the modern world, language is not the only important communicational system.
Today images, symbols, graphs, diagrams, artifacts, and many other visual symbols are
particularly significant. Thus, the idea of different types of "visual literacy" would seem to
be an important one. For example, being able to "read" the images in advertising is one
type of visual literacy. And, of course, there are different ways to read such images, ways
that are more or less aligned with the intentions and interests of the advertisers. Knowing
how to read interior designs in homes, modernist art in museums, and videos on MTV are
other forms of visual literacy.
Furthermore, very often today words and images of various sorts are juxtaposed and
integrated in a variety of ways. In newspaper and magazines as well as in textbooks,
images take up more and more of the space alongside words. In fact, in many modern high
school and college textbooks in the sciences images not only take up more space, they now
carry meanings that are independent of the words in the text. If you can't read these images,
you will not be able to recover their meanings from the words in the text as was more usual
in the past. In such multimodal texts (texts that mix words and images), the images often
communicate different things from the words. And the combination of the two modes
communicates things that neither of the modes does separately. Thus, the idea of different
sorts of multimodal literacy seems an important one. Both modes and multimodality go far
57
beyond images and words to include sounds, music, movement, bodily sensations, and
smells.
None of this news today, of course. We very obviously live in a world awash with images.
It is our first answer to the question why we should think of literacy more broadly. The
second answer is this: Even though reading and writing seem so central to what literacy
means traditionally, reading and writing are not such general and obvious matters as they
might at first seem. After all, we never just read or write; rather, we always read or
write something in some way.
There are many different ways of reading and writing. We don't read or write newspapers,
legal tracts, essays in literary criticism, poetry, rap songs, and on through a nearly endless
list in the same way. Each of these domains has its own rules and requirements. Each is a
culturally and historically separate way of reading and writing, and, in that sense, a
different literacy. Furthermore, in each case, if we want to "break the rules" and read
against the grain of the text-for the purposes of critique, for instance-we have to do so in
different ways, usually with some relatively deep knowledge of how to read such texts
"according to the rules."
So there are different ways to read different types of texts. Literacy is multiple, then, in the
sense that the legal literacy needed for reading law books is not the same as the literacy
needed for reading physics texts or superhero comic books. And we should not be too
quick to dismiss the latter form of literacy. Many a superhero comic is replete with postFreudian irony of a sort that would make a modern literary critic's heart beat fast and
confuse any otherwise normal adult. Literacy, then, even as traditionally conceived to
involve only print, is not a unitary thing but a multiple matter. There are, even in regard to
printed texts and even leaving aside images and multimodal texts, different "literacies."
Once we see this multiplicity of literacy (literacies), we realize that when we think about
reading and writing, we have to think beyond print. Reading and writing in any domain,
whether it is law, rap songs, academic essays, superhero comics, or whatever, are not just
ways of decoding print, they are also caught up with and in social practices... Video games
are a new form of art. They will not replace books; they will sit beside them, interact with
them, and change them and their role in society in various ways, as, indeed, they are
already doing strongly with movies. (Today many movies are based on video games and
many more are influenced by them.) We have no idea yet how people "read" video games,
what meanings they make from them. Still less do we know how they will "read" them in
the future.
41. According to the first paragraph, the broadest definition of "literacy" is
A) The ability to analyze literature
B)The ability comprehend basic cultural cues
C)The ability to read and write
D)The ability to compose poetry
42. All are mentioned as being types of "visual literacy" EXCEPT
A) Musical tones
B) Interior Design
C) Diagrams
D)Modern Art
58
43. An example from a science textbook of the phenomenon the author describes in the
third paragraph could be
A) A genetic tree that coincides with the discussion of specific mammal classes in the text
B) A diagram of a specific chemical reaction that is used to explain a broad definition in
the text
C) An illustration of a plant cycle that accompanies a chapter on photosynthesis
D) A cartoon that references the same methods discussed in the text about laboratory safety
44. What is an example of a "multimodal" text?
A) A dictionary
B) A movie script
C) A photo album
D) An art book that describes the art as well as reproduces images of the original prints
45. The idiom in the sixth paragraph, "read against the grain of the text" is closest in
meaning to
A) Reading to understand the underlying meanings and themes of the author's words-not
just a literal interpretation
B) Reading text that defines different types of wheat and grains
C) To read the text from right to left rather than left to right
D) To read books that use recycled paper and other green alternatives
46. In the seventh paragraph, the author suggests that literacy is multiple, meaning that
A) To be "literate" can mean participating in any form of expression
B) One's literacy increases exponentially as greater mastery of reading and writing is
achieved
C) Different genres and modes of expression require different background knowledge and
perspectives to understand them
D) Literacy can only be gained by exploring every type of media and expression
47. Why does the author give the example of superhero comics to explain multiple
literacies?
A) To explain that comic books are written for children and purely for entertainment. They
require only a basic knowledge of the action that occurs in the story
B) To once again refer to his earlier points about "multimodal" texts
C) To insist that even when an author may intend multiple meanings and interpretations,
they are rarely successful in conveying those to readers
D) Things that may seem on the surface to be only meant for a particular group of people
can actually have very profound meanings to those who possess other types of literacy
48. The author suggests that all of the following require different types of literacy and the
ability to decode meaning EXCEPT
A) Rap music
B) Comic books
C) Academic papers
D) Symphonies
59
60
After the equivalent of 32 working days dangling from ropes in The President, Sillett's
team is closer to having a mathematical equation to determine its carbon conversion
potential, as it has done with some less famous coastal redwoods. The team has analyzed a
representative sample that can be used to model the capacity of the state's signature trees.
More immediately, however, the new measurements could lead to a changing of the guard
in the land of giant sequoias. The park would have to update signs and brochures - and
someone is going to have to correct the Wikipedia entry for "List of largest giant
sequoias," which still has The President at No. 3.
Now at 93 feet in circumference and with 45,000 cubic feet of trunk volume and another
9,000 cubic feet in its branches, the tree named for President Warren G. Harding is about
15 percent larger than Grant, also known as America's Christmas Tree. Sliced into one-foot
by one-foot cubes, The President would cover a football field. Giant sequoias grow so big
and for so long because their wood is resistant to the pests and disease that dwarf the
lifespan of other trees, and their thick bark makes them impervious to fast-moving fire. It's
that resiliency that makes sequoias and their taller coastal redwood cousin worthy of
intensive protections - and even candidates for cultivation to pull carbon from an
increasingly warming atmosphere, Sillett said. Unlike white firs, which easily die and
decay to send decomposing carbon back into the air, rot-resistant redwoods stay solid for
hundreds of years after they fall.
Though sequoias are native to California, early settlers traveled with seedlings back to the
British Isles and New Zealand, where a 15-foot diameter sequoia that is the world's biggest
planted tree took root in 1850. Part of Sillett's studies involves modeling the potential
growth rate of cultivated sequoia forests to determine over time how much carbon
sequestering might increase.
All of that led him to a spot 7,000 feet high in the Sierra and to The President, which he
calls "the ultimate example of a giant sequoia." Compared to the other giants whose
silhouettes are bedraggled by lightning strikes, The President's crown is large with burly
branches that are themselves as large as tree trunks. The world's biggest tree is still the
nearby General Sherman with about 2,000 cubic feet more volume than the President, but
to Sillett it's not a contest.
"They're all superlative in their own way," Sillett said.
51. The word "supplanted" in paragraph 1
A) inquisitive
B) Has a double-meaning both as a pun on the topic of plants and a literal meaning of "to
replace"
C) Is a synonym for "to plant again"
D) Has the same meaning as "to plant," with extra emphasis
52. One common myth about trees that The President helps disprove is
A) That giant sequoias are more resilient than other tree species
B) That old trees are as productive at photosynthesis as younger ones
C) That only giant sequoias may be named after historical figures
D) That large trees grow more slowly as they age
61
53. What is the primary benefit that Sillett and other researchers suggest that giant sequoias
may have?
A) Their natural beauty can have health benefits for those who travel to wildlife preserves
to see them
B) They represent centuries of natural history that no other living things do
C) Because of their size, they are able to process more carbon dioxide than other trees,
which can have significant benefits for the atmosphere
D) Their resilient bark may have eventual uses in human medicine.
54. The giant sequoias are compared to white firs to demonstrate that?
A) Even when the sequoias fall, they do not decay and so send less carbon into the air
B) White firs are more plentiful because they grow and decay more quickly than sequoias
C) The giant sequoias are completely resistant to death
D) White firs are essential because when they decompose they emit necessary nutrients
55. The President has grown every year EXCEPT
A) 1850
B) 2012
C) 1580
D) The President has grown every year of its life
56. All of the following contribute to the lifespan of the giant sequoia EXCEPT
A) They are resistant to diseases that can affect other tree species
B) Their size makes them less vulnerable to animal attacks
C) They are resistant to pests that commonly inhabit trees
D) Their thick bark protects them from wildfires.
57. The term "changing of the guard" in Paragraph 10 means
A) The size rankings of various large sequoias is being reevaluated
B) Human security will be employed to protect these valuable trees
C) Wildlife parks will bring in new equipment to ensure the safety of the trees
D) A new schedule of shifts will be made for studying the trees
58. What does the term "cultivated sequoia forests" in Paragraph 14 imply?
A) Current sequoia reserves will be altered to grow in particular patterns
B) That sequoias may be specially grown in the future for the sole purpose of filtering
carbon from the air
C) New forests may be grown globally to promote the beauty of the species
D) Wildlife parks will make more of an effort in the future to direct visitors to the sequoia
forests
59. Giant sequoias are native to California, but can also be found in
A) New Zealand
B) France
C) South America
D) Australia
62
63
64
66. What is the most significant discovery of the Mayo Clinic study described in paragraph
7?
A) Cadence, velocity, and length of stride are all independent variables that impact
cognitive function in different ways.
B) The slower the participant's walk, the greater their memory capacity
C) The pace of participant's walk demonstrated no correlation to brain activity
D) The ways in which the participants walked had a definitive relationship to cognitive
functioning
67. Which of the following is NOT a population or group studied in the experiments the
article discusses?
A) movement impaired
B) mild cognitive impairment (MCI)
C) cognitively health
D) Alzheimer's dementia
68. Throughout the article, "gait" is mostly often used to refer to
A) walking speed
B) the time it takes to transition from a walk to a run
C) a combination of cadence, length of stride, and velocity
D) the posture used while walking
69. What is the primary argument that the article makes AGAINST the link between gait
and cognitive decline?
A) Areas of the brain that control movement are completely separate from those with
cognitive function
B) Walking speed can change significantly depending upon the scenario and conditions
C) Dementia has no relationship to brain size
D) An annual test is too often to show significant changes over time
70. What best summarizes the overarching idea of the article?
A) The speed at which we walk and potential decline in cognitive function as we age is
clearly proven by the studies presented in the article
B) Whatever your current walking speed is, the better shape you are in and the faster you
become can both directly lower your chance of developing Alzheimer's
C) Annual gait tests are an expensive and ineffective test to add to Alzheimer's screenings
D) There is a definite probability that aspects of human gait and cognitive function are
related, but the evidence is far from definitive
The subatomic particle is better known to scientists as the Higgs boson. And after decades
of searches, it seems likely the elusive particle has been successfully detected inside an
underground tunnel experiment run by the European Organization for Nuclear Research
(CERN) outside Geneva. Results "consistent" with the hard-to-detect particle, in the words
of CERN chief Rolf Heuer as he announced the discovery July 4, may be the opening act
in explaining the structure of the sky over our heads.
A source of heartburn to serious science types now, the "God particle" nickname for the
Higgs boson comes from the title of a 1993 book by Nobel-prize winner Leon Lederman,
who was trying to play up the elusive nature of the particle.
65
For a glimpse of one implication of this latest big news in science, climb aboard a time
machine, says physicist Jonathan Feng of the University of California-Irvine, and visit the
birth of the universe 13.7 billion years ago.
"Simply take the universe backwards, to an early time when the cosmos was a hot mass,
brand new, filled with particles that each weighed perhaps 500 times as much as a proton,"
says Feng (protons are positively charged subatomic particles inside atoms). "Now play the
film forward. Just let it go until it expands to fill with today's stars and galaxies, and what
you find is that it contains amounts of that particle that are just right to be 'dark matter'
filling the universe."
Terrific, you might say, but what's so wonderful about dark matter? Dark matter is
basically a bunch of stuff, likely exotic physics particles, that we can't really see (hence its
name) but we know is out there. Astronomers realized a few decades ago that galaxies
should be spinning faster than they are if the stars within them were the only things
providing the gravity that holds them together. So, their theories go, there must be
something - dark matter - slowing them down.
It turns out that stars are just the shiny hubcaps on each galaxy, outweighed by a factor of
nearly 6-to-1 by all the dark matter out there. Dark matter even pulls itself together through
gravity. For example, the journal Nature last week reported that a dark matter cloud
gravitationally connects two clusters of galaxies, called Abell 222 and Abell 223. This
cloudy filament stretches over 11 million light years between the clusters and weighs 98
trillion times as much as our sun.
That's a lot of dark matter. So is the Higgs boson this elusive dark matter particle (or
particles) then?
Nope. But it may be a key to dark matter, physicists say. The Higgs boson is the physics
particle that gives other particles their mass. Essentially it interacts with them to increase
their resistance to being moved faster, which we can measure as mass.
Because the Higgs boson's basic job is to interact with other physics particles to give them
mass, "the Higgs boson can interact with dark matter very easily," Caltech's Sean Carroll
explained on NPR's Science Friday show after the recent "God particle" announcement.
"Dark matter is one of the most exciting implications of this discovery," Carroll said.
How? That brings us back to Feng's rerun of the universe. "Having a particle out there
theoretically just a little heavier than the Higgs boson, which interacts with it, is waving a
red cape in front of the eyes of physicists," Feng says. "There is a lot more data coming
from CERN ahead that may reveal the dark matter particle."
Dark matter particles that theoretically could be detected at CERN's underground Large
Hadron Collider are envisioned by a theory called "focus point supersymmetry."
Supersymmetry theories predict that the already- discovered particles that comprise
everyday matter have much-heavier "super" counterparts awaiting detection (for example,
the already detected "quarks" inside protons would have an undetected super-partner called
"squarks").Focus point supersymmetry predicts both a Higgs boson with a weight similar
to the one reported on July 4, about 130 times as heavy as a proton, and dark matter
particles.
66
"In fact, the simplest focus point models predict that dark matter particles should be seen
not long from now in the underground detectors that are searching for them," if the CERN
lab indeed found a Higgs boson, Feng says. "So there are really two predictions - dark
matter should be seen in underground detectors, and new particles should be seen at the
Large Hadron Collider in the next few years." Some of the new superpartner particles
theoretically weigh in the detectable range for the underground experiment.
Finding these new particles would crack the dark matter mystery and would indicate that
even heavier super- particles are out there, ones that someday could allow physicists to
explain gravity the same way they can explain electromagnetic and nuclear forces, a goal
of cosmologists for nearly a century.
"The simplest outcome is that we'll be totally wrong and it won't find anything," Feng says.
"But we are at a point in physics where we can talk about theories and experiments coming
together very closely thanks to what is now happening, and we couldn't do that for a long
time before ."
When do the next big results come from CERN that might offer more answers? Likely in
December. So, Feng says, physicists celebrated one holiday, July 4, with new particle
results and hopefully Christmas will bring them hints of new presents. "That would be
excellent, we couldn't ask for better gifts," he say
71. The word
A) commotion
B) public outrage
C) propaganda
D) insanity
"hoopla"
in
paragraph
is
closest
in
meaning
to
72. What tone does the author demonstrate in paragraph 3 when he quotes scientists use of
"consistent" as a description for their experiments?
A) skepticism
B) awe
C) fear
D) utter belief
73. Why is the Higgs boson nicknamed the "God Particle"
A) Its potential power is so great it could have universal influence
B) It has been a subject of religious study
C) Proving its existence has been as elusive to scientists as proving the existence of god
D) It is believed that the particle has some mystical powers
74. What is the purpose of the time machine in the article?
A) To suggest that we will likely never know the true history of the particle until a working
time machine is invented
B) To demonstrate that we must understand the origins of the Higgs boson particle to
accurately understand its implications today
C) The particle does not have any viable evidence of existing before the galaxies were
formed
D) The life of the particle can only be explained using a linear timeline
67
75. According to the article, all are true of dark matter EXCEPT
A) Its gravitational force slows the spinning of galaxies
B) The ratio of dark matter to stars is 6 to 1
C) It is comprised most likely of physics particles, though it is invisible
D) Dark matter is named so because of its destructive, sinister force
76. What is the key function of the Higgs boson particle?
A) To increase the appearance of dark matter on scientific screening tools
B) To collide with other particles to produce energy
C) It proves the existence of god
D) It gives other particles measurable mass
77. In paragraph 14 the phrase "waving a red cape" is closest in meaning to
A) giving up
B) raising awareness among scientists
C) provoking conflict
D) encouraging scientists to avoid the topic
78. What is the most accurate definition for "focus point supersymmetry"?
A) The theory that particles all have a point of energy within them that is mirrored in
others of their kind
B) The theory that particles all have equal balance in their basic structures
C) The theory that particles that have already been discovered have heavier "super"
counterparts that are yet to be discovered still
D) The theory that particles can be merged at a particular point in their atomic makeup
79. The phrase "crack the dark matter mystery" in paragraph 17 is closest in meaning to
A) Put a definitive end to all theories involving dark matter
B) Disprove the theories around dark matter while proving other standing theories
C) Separate the theories around dark matter into more specific groupings
D) Solve a problem that has baffled scientists for a very long time
80. What is the most accurate summary for the article?
A) The discovery of Higgs boson is a notable step toward learning about dark matter, but it
is only one aspect of a larger mystery
B) Focus Point Supersymmetry is the most promising theory for understanding dark
matter
C) While dark matter provides an interesting story, it is much more a myth than a
phenomenon rooted in actual scientific evidence
D) Higgs boson, the "God Particle," and dark matter are all significant threats to world
religions.
68
REFERENCES
Arco, Thompton. (2007). Master the TOEFL Reading Skills. California: Petersons
English Club. (n.d.). ETS TOEFL Reading Practice. Retrieved April 8, 2016, from
https://www.englishclub.com/esl-exams/ets-toefl-practice-reading.htm
Graduates Hotline. (n.d.). Reading Comprehension Test. Retrieved April 8, 2016, from
http://www.graduateshotline.com/toefl/reading-comprehension-test1.html#.Vw3cHNJoiOx
Grammar Bank. (n.d.). Reading Comprehension Worksheets. Retrieved April 8, 2016, from
http://www.grammarbank.com/reading-comprehension-worksheets.html
Phillips, Deborah. (2003). Longman Preparation Course for the TOEFL Test. Pearson
Education, Inc.
Rogers, Bruce. (1993). The Complete Guide to TOEFL. Massachusetts: Heinle & Heinle
Publishers.
Sullivan, Patricia N. and Zhong, Grace Y. Q. (1990). Super Course for the TOEFL. New
York:
Prentice Hall Press.
TEOFL Skill. (n.d.). TOEFL Practoce Test 2. Retrieved April 8, 2016, from
http://www.toeflskill.com/2011/03/toefl-practice-test-2-complete-test.html
69