Assignment 1

1. (2.1) (a) A refrigerator has working temperatures in the evaporator and condenser coils of
-300C and 350C respectively. What is the maximum possible COP of the refrigerator?
(b) If the actual refrigerator has a refrigerating efficiency of 0.75, calculate the
refrigerating effect in kW and TR per kW of power input.
2. (2.2) A reversed Carnot cycle has a COP of 4. Determine the ratio of condenser and evaporator
temperature.
If the power consumption of the cycle is 7.5 kW, determine the refrigerating capacity of
the machine in TR.
If the cycle is used as a heat pump with same ratio of temperatures, determine its COP
for heating and the quantity of heat pumped.
3. (2.4) The overall volume compression ratio of a reversed Carnot cycle working with air as a
refrigerant is 10. The temperature limits of the cycle are 400C and 00C.
Determine:
I.
II.
III.
IV.

The pressure, volume and temperature at each point of the cycle,

The work done in the cycle.
The refrigerating effect, and
The COP of the cycle

Assignment 2
1. (11.1) An air cooling system for a jet plane cockpit operates on the simple
cycle. The cockpit is to be maintained at 25 0C. The ambient air pressure
and temperature are 0.35 bar and -150C respectively. The pressure ratio
of the jet compressor is 3. The plane speed is 1000 kilometer per hour.
The pressure drop through the cooler coil is 0.1 bar. The Pressure of the
air leaving the cooling turbine is 1.06 bar and that in the cockpit is
1.01325 bar. The cockpit cooling load is 58.05 kW. Calculate.
(a) Stagnation temperature and pressure of the air entering the
compressor
(b) Mass flow rate of the air circulated.
(c) Volume handled by the compressor and expander.
(d) Net power delivered by the engine to the refrigeration unit.
(e) Cop of the system.
2. (11.2.) (a) An aircraft flying at an altitude of 8000 m. Where the ambient
air is at 0.341 bar pressure and 263 K temperature has a speed of
900km/h. The pressure ratio of the air compressor is 5. The cabin
pressure is 1.01325 bar and the temperature is 27 0C. Determine the
power requirement of the aircraft for pressurization (excluding the ram
work), additional power require for refrigeration and refrigerating
capacity on the basis of 1 kg/s flow of air.
(b) Determine the same if the following are to be accounted
Compressor efficiency,
c = 0.82
Expander/turbine efficiency
r = 0.77
Heat exchanger effectiveness.
= 0.8
Ram efficiency
R = 0.84
3. (11.3) The following performance is expected in a certain Bootstrap
system:

Turbine efficiency
r = 85%
Secondary compressor efficiency
c = 77%
Secondary heat exchanger effectiveness. = 0.9
The cabin pressure is maintained at 1 bar. The cooling air temperature
entering the secondary heat exchanger is 32 0C. The compressed air
leaves the primary heat exchanger at 64 0C. The refrigerated air is
required to enter the cabin at 4.50C. Calculate.
(i)
The temperature of air entering the cooling turbine.
(ii)
The pressure of air at discharge from primary and secondary
compressors
4. (11.4) The air conditioning unit of a pressurized jet aircraft receives its air
form the compressor driven by the engine at a pressure of 1.22 bar. The
pressure and temperature of the surrounding air at the height of the
aircraft are 0.227 bar and 217 K respectively.
The air conditioning unit consists of a secondary compressor and a
turbine mounted on the same shaft. The pressure and temperature of air
leaving the turbine is 1 bar and 280 K. Calculate the pressure after the
secondary compressor and temperature of air at exit from the cooler.
Assume that all processes are reversible.
5. (11.1) An open air refrigeration system operating between pressures of 16
bar and 1 bar is required to produce 33.5 kW refrigeration. The
temperature of air leaving the refrigerated room is -5 0C and that leaving
the air cooler is 300C. Assume no losses and clearance. Calculate for the
theoretical cycle.
(i) Weight rate of air circulated per minute.
(ii) Piston displacement of compressor and expander
(iii)
Net work
(iv)
COP
6. (11.2) A dense air machine operates between 17 bar and 3.4 bar. The
temperature of the air after the cooler is 15 0C and after the
refrigerating coils is 60C. Determine:
(i) Temperature after expansion and compression.
(ii) Air circulated per minute/TR.
(iii) Work of the compressor and expander/TR
(Iv) Theoretical COP and hp/TR
7. (11.4) An air-cycle unit operating on the simple system is designed for the
following conditions: 7.5kg/min of conditioned air, air entering the
turbine at 4.4 bar, cabin pressure 1 bar, dry air rated discharge
temperature of -60C and a turbine efficiency of 80 percent.
(a) At what temperature does the air enter the turbine?
(b) How much power does the turbine supply to the fan?
8. (11.5.) (a) For an air cycle refrigeration system, the highest refrigeration
temperature is 150C and the exit temperature of the air from the
cooling coils is 400C. Find the minimum pressure ratio necessary for
producing refrigeration at 1 bar pressure.
(b) If the capacity of the plant is 33.3 kW and the pressure ration is 4,
calculate:
(i) The weight rate of air circulated
(ii) Theoretical displacements of the compressor and expander.
(iii) The theoretical horsepower of the plant and its COP.

Assignment 3

1. (3.1) A 15 TR Freon 22 vapour compression system operates between a condenser temperature

of 400C and an evaporator temperature of 50C.
(a) Determine the compressor discharge temperature.
(i) Using the p-h diagram for Freon 22.
(ii) Using saturation properties of Freon 22 and assuming the specific heat of its vapour
as 0.8 kJ/kg.K.
(iii) Using superheat tables for Freon 22.
(b) Calculate the theoretical piston displacement and power consumption of the compressor
per ton of refrigeration.
2. (3.2.) A simple saturation ammonia compression system has a high pressure of 1.35 MN/m 2
and a low pressure of 0.19 MN/m2. Find per 400,000 kJ/h of refrigerating capacity, the
power consumption of the compressor and COP of the cycle.
3. (3.3.) (a) A Freon 22 refrigerating machine operates between a condenser temperature of
400C and an evaporator temperature of 50C. Calculate the increase (per cent) in the
theoretical piston displacement and the power consumption of the cycle:
(i) If the evaporator temperature is reduced to 00C.
(ii) If the condenser temperature is increased to 450C.
(b) Why is the performance of a vapour compression machine more sensitive to change in
evaporator temperature than to an equal change in the condenser temperature?
4. (3.4) In a vapour compression cycle saturated liquid Refrigerant 22 leaving the condenser at
400C is required to expand to the evaporator temperature of 00C in a cold storage plant.
(a)

Determine the percentage saving in net work of the cycle per kg of the refrigerant if an
isentropic expander could be used to expand the refrigerant in place of the throttling
device.

(b) Also determine the percentage increase in refrigerating effect per kg of refrigerant as a
result of use of the expander. Assume that compression is isentropic from saturated
vapour state at 00C to the condenser pressure.
5. (3.5) An ammonia refrigeration system operates between saturated suction temperature of
-200C, and saturated discharge temperature of + 400C. Compare the COP of the cycle using
wet compression with that of the cycle using dry compression.
Assume that the vapour leaving the compressor is saturated in the case of wet compression,
and the vapour entering the compressor is saturated in the case of dry compression. The
refrigerant leaves the condenser as saturated liquid.
6. (3.6.) A standard vapour compression cycle using Freon 22 operates on simple saturation
cycle at the following conditions:
Refrigerating capacity

15 TR

Condensing temperature

400C

Evaporating temperature

50C

Calculate:
(a) Refrigerant circulation rate in kg/s.
(b) Power required by the compressor in kW.
(c) Coefficient of performance.

(d) Volume flow rate of the refrigerant at compressor suction

(e) Compressor discharge temperature
(f) Suction vapour volume and power consumption per ton of refrigeration.
Refrigeration engineers assume that if this Freon 22 compressor is used with R 134a, its
capacity would fall by about 40%. Examine this assumption by doing cycle analysis for R
134a with the same compressor.
7. (3.10).A Simple saturation cycle using Freon 22 is designed for a load of 100TR. The
saturated suction and discharge temperatures are 50C and 400C respectively, Calculate:
(a) The mass flow rate of refrigerant
(b) The COP and isentropic horsepower
(c) The heat rejected in the condenser
Specify heat of vapor is 0.65 kJ/(kg,K)

Assignment 4
1. (5.1) An R 22 refrigerating plant with back pressure control has a capacity of 30,000 kJ/h at
-300C and 45,000 kJ/h at -250C. The refrigerant flow is controlled by thermostatic expansion
valves with 80C superheat. The condensing temperature is 350C. There is no heat exchanger.
The vapours are superheated by 150C in the suction line. The compressor is single-acting
and has four cylinders. It runs at 930 rpm and its bore/stroke ratio is 1.25. Volumetric
efficiency may be assumed as 70 percent. Calculate the dimensions of the cylinders. Also
calculate the power consumption and COP.
2. (5.2) An ammonia refrigerating plant is working at an evaporating temperature of -30 0C and

condensing temperature of 370C. There is no sub cooling of the liquid refrigerant, and the
vapour is in the dry-saturated condition at the inlets to the compressors. The capacity is
150kW refrigeration. Estimate the power consumption.
(i) When one-stage is used
(ii) When two-stage compression with flash intercooling is used, and
(iii) When two-stage compression with flash chamber and liquid sub cooler is used. Assume
suitable intermediate pressure.
Explain why it is not advisable to use multistage compression to produce refrigeration
temperatures of the order of, say, -900C.
3. (5.3) A two-stage 10 tons. NH 3 refrigeration plant with shell and coil type flash intercooler as
shown in Fig. 5.14 is operating at the following conditions.
Condensation temperature
350C
Evaporator temperature
-400C
Interstage pressure
2.91 bar
Sub cooling of liquid in flash intercooler by
300C
Thermostatic expansion valve setting
50C superheat
Assuming that the vapours leaving the LP compressor are intercooled to 40 0C by water before
entering the flash chamber, determine.
a) Refrigerant mass flow rate in evaporator.
b) Refrigerant mass flow rate through HP compressor.
c) Total power consumption.
d) Total power consumed in a single-stage NH3 plant for the same duty.
State what are the advantages of using flash intercooler in comparison to single stage system.

Assignment 5

1. (12.1) In a vapour-absorption refrigeration system, the refrigeration

temperature is -150C. The generator is operated by solar heat where the
temperature reached is 1100C. The temperature of the head sink is 55 0C.
What is the maximum possible COP of the system?
2. (12.5) Calculations for Double-Effect H2O-LiBr2 System
The high pressure generator of a double-effect H 2O-LiBr2 vapour
absorption system, shown in Fig 12.5 operates on steam supplied at 8
bar pressure. The following conditions are specified.
Pressure in high-pressure generator
100kPa
0
Temperature in high pressure generator
150 C
Condenser temperature
400 C
Absorber temperature
350C
Evaporator temperature
100C
The water vapour from the high pressure generator I is condensed in the
low pressure generator II. The temperature of solution leaving generator
II is 950C.
i. Show all the thermodynamic states on in p-I/T
ii.
Find enthalpies at all state points
iii.
Determine the heat added in generator I per kg of water in
refrigerant circuit.
iv.
Determine COP
v.
What would have happened if a single effect system were to be
used?
Assignment 6
1. (14.1) For a dry bulb temperature of 25 0C and a relative humidity and a
wet of 50 percent. Calculate the following for air, when the biometric
pressure is 740 mm Hg.
(a) Partial pressures of water vapour and dry air.
(b) Dew point humidity.
(C) Specific humidity.
(d) Specific volume.
(e) Enthalpy
2. (14.2) A sample of moist air has a dry bulb temperature of 43 0C and a wet
bulb temperature of 290C. Calculate the following without making use of
the psychometric char:
(a) Partial pressure of water vapour
(b) Specific humidity
(c) Relative humidity
(d) Dew point temperature
(e) Humid specific heat
(f) Enthalpy
(g) Degree of saturation
(h) Sigma heat function
3. (14.3) A sample of air has dry and wet bulb temperatures of 35 0C and 250C
respectively. The barometric pressure is 760 mm Hg. Calculate:
(a) Humidity ratio, relative humidity and enthalpy of the sample
(b) Humidity ratio, relative humidity and enthalpy, if the air were
adiabatically saturated. The use of steam tables only is permitted.
4. (14.4) Investigate the effect of humidity on the density of moist air by
computing the vapour density for an air water vapour mixture at 26 0C and
relative humidities of 0, 50 and 100 percent. Also, for each case, compare
the values of the degree of saturation to the values of relative humidity.
5. (14.5) Air at a condition of 300C dry bulb, 170C wet bulb and barometric
pressure of 105 bar enter an equipment where it undergoes a process of

adiabatic saturation, the air leaving with a moisture content of 5g/kg

higher than what it was while entering, Calculate:
Assignment 7
1. (15.1) 250 kg/h of air saturated at 2 0C is mixed with 50 kg/h of air at 35 0C
and 80 percent RH. Determine the final state of air.
2. (15.2) Air at 200C DBT and 190C DPT enter a heating and humidifying
apparatus, from which it leaves at 35 0C DBT and 280C DPT. Moisture is
supplied as liquid water at 25 0C to humidify the air. Find the quantity of
heat that must be added per kg of dry air through the apparatus.
3. (15.3) 500kg of air is supplied per minute to an auditorium maintained at
210C and 40 per cent RH. The outside air at 50C DBT and 60 percent RH is
first passed over heating coils and is heated until its WBT is equal to the
room WBT. It is then passed through an adiabatic saturator and is finally
heated to 450C before being supplied to the room. Determine.
(i) The heat added in both the heating coils
(ii) The mass of water evaporated in the air washer.
4. (15.4) Given
Room Condition: 260C DBT, 190C WBT
Outside Conditions: 350C DBT, 270C WBT
Room het gains
Sensible heat= 11.1 kW
Latent heat = 3.9 kW
The conditioned air supplied to the room is 50 cmm and contains 25
percent fresh air and 75 percent recirculated room air. Determine:
(a) The DBT and WBT of supply air
(b)The DBT and WBT of mixed fresh and recirculatd air before the cooling
coil
(c) The apparatus dew point and bypass factor of the coil
(d)The refrigeration load on the cooling coil and the moisture removed by
the coil
5. (15.5) In an auditorium which is to be maintained at temperature not
exceeding 240C and a relative humidity not exceeding 60%, a sensible
heat load of 132 kW and 84 kg/h of moisture has to be removed. Air is
supplied to the auditorium at 150C.
(a) How many kg of air per hour must be supplied?
(b) What is the dew point temperature of supply air and what is its relative
humidity?
(c) How much latent heat is picked up in the auditorium?
(d) What is the sensible heat factor?
(e) What is the ADP of the coil, and what is its BPF?
6. (15.6) An air conditioned space is maintained at 25 0C DBT and 50% RH.
The outside conditions are 400C DB and 250C WB. The space has a
sensible heat gain of 24.5 kW. Conditioned air is supplied to the space as
saturated air at 100C. The equipment consists of an air washer. The air
entering the air washer comprises 25% outside air, the remainder being
recircrulated room air.
(i) Volume flow rate of air supplied to space.
(ii) Latent heat gain of space.

(iii) Cooling load of air washer.

7. (15.7). Given for the air conditioning of a room
Room conditions: 26.50C DBT and 50 percent RH
Room sensible heat gain = 26.3 kW
Room sensible heat factor= 0.82
Find:
(i)
The room latent heat again
(ii)
The apparatus dew point.
(iii) The cmm of air if it is supplied to the room at the apparatus dew
point.
(iv) The cmm and specific humidity of air if it is supplied to the room at
170C.
8. (15.8.) (a) 28.5 cmm of room air at 25.50 DEBT and 50 percent RH is mixed with 28.5 cmm of
outside air at 380C DBT and 270C WBT. Find the ventilation load and the condition of
air after mixing.
(b) The above mixture of air is passed through an air conditioning equipment. If the
wet bulb temperature of air after the equipment is 14.5 0C, determine the heat removal
rate by the equipment.
9. (15.9.) An air washer cools and dehumidifies 18.200 kg of dry air per hour from 41 0C DBT
and 240C WBT. Chilled water enters the washer at 70C with a flow of 18,500 kg per hour.
The washer is 88 percent effective. What is the heat removed from the air in kW?
10. (15.10.) Saturated steam at standard atmospheric pressure is injected into passing air stream
in an amount sufficient to raise the absolute humidity from 0.0057 to 0.0143 kg d.a. if the
air enters the humidifier at 210C DBT, determine its leaving state.
11. (15.11) 300 cmm outside air at 5 0C and 60 percent RH are heated and humidified to maintain
room conditions at 210C and 40 percent RH. Devise a suitable system for the air
conditioning and find the kW of various heaters and the moisture added. The supply air
temperature is 450C and the room sensible heat factor is 0.75.
12.(15.12) Moist air at 310C dry bulb, 220C we bulb and 1.013bar barometric pressure flows over
a cooler coil and leaves it at state of 100C dry bulb and 7.95 g w. v. /kg d.a.
(a) If the air is required to offset a sensible heat gain of 2.5 kW and a latent heat gain of
0.35 kW in a room being air-conditioned, calculate mass of dry air which must be supplied
to the room in order to maintain a dry-bulb temperature of 23.50C inside.
(b) What will be the relative humidity in the room?
(c) If the sensible heat gain is diminished by 1.75 kW but the latent heat gain remains
unchanged, at what temperature and moisture content must the air be supplied to the room?