Criminalistics 1 PDF

CLARITO G.
LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB
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PART I
PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION
(FINGERPRINT)
1 What is fingerprint impression?
Answer: Fingerprint impression is refers to a
pattern or designed formed by the ridges on the
end joint of the fingers or thumb.
2 When fingerprint is formed in the human being?
Answer: Fingerprint is formed three to four
months (3-4) in the mothers womb.
3 What are the composite of the end joint of the
fingers or thumb which form the impression?
Answer: End joint of the fingers or thumb is made
up of papillary ridges, and furrows.
Papillary ridges or sometimes referred to as
friction ridges or epidermal ridges are
raised
strips
of
the
skin
by
which
fingerprint are made; while,
Furrows are the depressions or canals between
the ridges.
4 What are the kinds of fingerprint impression?
Answer: There are two kinds of fingerprint
impression:
Real impression, it is intentionally made
impression with the use of any printing
materials.
Chance
impression,
these
are
imprinted
impression
by
mere
chance
or
without
intention to produce the print.
5 What are the ways of taking real
impressions?
Answer: Fingerprints are made by:
fingerprint
CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB
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Rolled impression, this is printed by rolling

the fingers or thumb away from the center of
the subjects body.
Plain impressions, this is printed without
rolling the fingers or thumb.
6 What are the classifications of chance impression?
Answer: Chance impression is either visible or
latent print.
It is visible impression when the print is
apparent even without chemical treatment;
It is latent print impression, however, if
the print is invisible but made visible if
some substances are applied.
7 What makes different between DACTYLOGRAPHY and
DACTYLOSCOPY?
Answer: Both are art of studying fingerprint as a
means
of
personal
identification
but
in
Dactylography, it refers to the recording of
fingerprint; while, in DACTYLOSCOPY it refers to
the comparison of fingerprint.
8 What are the characteristics of fingerprint?
Answer: Fingerprints have the character of:
Individuality, no two people have fingerprint
that are exactly alike.
Permanency, configuration and details of
individual ridges remain constant (never
change).
Infallibility,
fingerprint
evidence
is
reliable.
9 What are the layers of the skin and their effects
in the character of fingerprint?
Answer: Skin has:
an outer scarf or epidermis; &
an inner scarf or dermis.
In case of temporary impairment, the outer
scarf revert to their natural alignment and
fingerprint will not changed or destroy, but if
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the inner scarf will impaired, the fingerprint

will be destroyed and will not be restored.
10When fingerprint evidence warrant conviction?
Answer: To warrant a conviction, the fingerprints
corresponding to those of the accused must have
been found in the crime scene which they could
have been impressed at the time when the crime is
committed.
11How latent impressions are made?
Answer: They are made by the perspiration on top
of the ridges of the fingers.
12What was the first Appellate Court to pass upon the
admissibility of fingerprint as evidence?
Answer: In 1911, an Illinois Court, in the case
of People vs. Jennings, was the first Appellate
Court
to
pass
upon
the
admissibility
of
fingerprint as evidence.
13Is fingerprints photograph sufficient in court to
support conviction?
Answer: Yes. In the case of State vs. Conners,
the court was held competent to show by a
photograph the fingerprint upon the post without
producing the post in court.
14What is the first judicial decision in
Philippine
jurisprudence
on
the
science
fingerprinting?
Answer: People vs. Medina, 59 Phil. 330.
the
of
15What are the different fingerprint patterns?

Answer: All fingerprints are divided into three
classes on the basis of their general patterns,
namely:
A. Arch (5%)
B. Loops (65%)
C. Whorl (30%)
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16What is arch pattern?

Answer: Arch is the least common of the three
general patterns and is subdivided into two
distinct groups, Plain and Tented.
The Plain Arch is the simplest of all
fingerprint patterns and is formed by ridges
entering from one side of the print and
exiting on the opposite side. These ridges
tend to rise in the center of the pattern,
forming a wave-like pattern.
The Tented Arch is similar to the Plain Arch
except that instead of rising smoothly at the
center, there is sharp upthrust or spike, or
the ridges meet at an angle less than 90
degrees.
17What is loop pattern?
Answer: A Loop is a type of pattern in which one
or more ridges enter either side, recurve, touch
or pass an imaginary line between Delta and Core,
and tend to exit the same side as the ridge
entry. It is the most common of the three general
patterns and subdivided into two distinct groups,
ulnar and radial. It is ulnar when the Ridges are
flow in the direction of the little finger. It is
radial when the ridges are flow in the direction
of the thumb.
18What is whorl pattern?
Answer: Whorl pattern is the second most common
of
the
three
general
patterns.
They
are
subdivided into 4 distinct groups: Accidental,
Double Loop, Central Pocket Loop and Plain.
19What is plain whorl pattern?
Answer: Plain Whorls are the most common and
simplest of the Whorl subtypes. It is important
to remember that Plain Whorls have two Deltas and
at least one recurving ridge in front of each. In
a Whorl pattern, the ridges are usually circular.
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20What are the characteristics of plain whorl?

Answer: They are:
A Plain Whorl pattern must have Type Lines
and a minimum of two Deltas.
A Plain Whorl has at least one ridge that
makes a complete circuit and touch the
imaginary line drawn between the two deltas.
This ridge may be in the form of a spiral,
oval, circle or variant of a circle.
21What is central pocket loop whorl?
Answer: Central Pocket patterns have type lines,
a minimum of two Deltas and at least one ridge
tends to make a complete circle. An imaginary
line drawn between two deltas must not touch or
cross any of the recurving ridges within the
pattern area.
22What is double loop whorl?
Answer: A Double Loop pattern, as the name
implies, is made up of two Loops combined into
one fingerprint. A Double Loop pattern consists
of two separate Loop formations with two separate
and distinct sets of Shoulders and two Deltas.
23What is accidental whorl?
Answer:
A.
Accidental
Whorls
consist
of
a
combination of two different types of pattern
(with the exception of Plain Arches).
B.
Accidental Whorls have two or more Deltas
and fall into their own category.
C.
Accidental Whorls may occur in some of
the combinations listed below:
Loop and a Whorl
Loop and a Tented Arch
Loop and Central Pocket Loop
Double Loop and Central Pocket Loop
24In summary, how many fingerprint patterns? What are
they and give their corresponding symbols?
Answer: There are eight fingerprint

namely:
Plain arch (A)
Tented arch(T)
Ulnar loop(U)
Radial loop(R)
Plain whorl(W)
Central pocket loop whorl(C)
Double loop whorl(D)
Accidental whorl(X)
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patterns,
25What is pattern area?

Answer: The pattern area is that part of the loop
or whorl in which appear the cores, deltas, and
ridges which are enclosed by type lines.
26What is a type line?
Answer: Type lines may be defined as the two
innermost ridges which start parallel, diverge,
and surround or tend to surround the pattern
area.
27What is the distinction between a divergence and a
bifurcation?
Answer: A divergence is the spreading apart of
two lines which have been running parallel or
nearly parallel; while a bifurcation is the
forking or dividing of one line into two or more
branches.
28Can we use as a type lines the fork of the
bifurcation?
Answer: No, except when the forks run parallel
after bifurcating and then diverge.
29What are the focal points in the fingerprint
examination?
Answer: The focal points in the fingerprint
examination are the delta and the core.
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30What is delta?
Answer: Delta is that point on a ridge at or in
front of and nearest the center of the divergence
of the type lines.
31What are
delta?
Answer:
the
different
ridges
that
may
use
as
They are:
A bifurcation
Abrupt ending ridge
Dot
Short ridge
Meeting of two ridge
32When a dot or other type of delta and the

bifurcation are equally closed to the divergence of
the type lines, which one will be selected as
delta?
Answer: Select the bifurcation.
33When there are two or more possible deltas which
conform to the definition, which one will be
selected?
Answer: The one nearest to the core.
34What is core?
Answer: The core, is the approximate center of
the finger impression?
35What are the rules that govern the selection of the
core?
Answer: They are:
The core is placed upon or within the
innermost sufficient recurve;
When
the
innermost
sufficient
recurve
contains no ending ridge or rod rising as
high as the shoulders of the loop, the core
is placed on the shoulder of the loop farther
from the delta.
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When
the
innermost
sufficient
recurved
contains an uneven number of rods raising as
high as the shoulders, the core is placed
upon the end of the center rod whether it
touches the looping ridge or not.
When
the
innermost
sufficient
recurve
contains an even number of rods rising as
high as the shoulders, the core is placed
upon the end of he farther one of the two
center rods.
36What is meant by a shoulder of the loop?
Answer: The shoulders of the loop are the points
which the recurving ridge definitely turns inward
or curves.
37What are the different kinds of ridges that are
valuable for comparison purposes?
Answer: They are:
Bifurcation. The point where a ridge divides
or forks to become two and run either
parallel or diverge;
Island Ridge. A short ridge located within
the temporary divergence of parallel ridges,
running parallel to the ridge on either side.
Enclosure. Refers to a ridge forks and then
turns to a single parallel ridge within a
relatively short distance.
Dot. A very short section of a ridge, usually
round in contour, with probably only one pore
showing.
Short ridge. Refers to a Ridge that has an
open area at either end.
Ending ridge. Ridge that has abrupt ending
and has previously continued for a quite
distance.
Broken ridge. Refers to a ridge that is
broken up into segment.
Crossover/bridge. This is Short ridges that
interconnect two another parallel ridges.
Spur. This is a very short ridge jutting out
from a free-flowing ridge.
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Divergence. These are ridges running together

in parallel fashion, tend to separate and
continue on another course.
38What is the standard number of similarity of ridges
to arrive at the conclusion that two fingerprint
are the same from the other?
Answer: Most experts require from 10 to 12
matching points.
39What are the divisions of the
formula?
Answer: They are:
Primary classification
Secondary classification
Capital letter group
Small letter group
Sub secondary classification
Major division
Final classification
Key classification
classifications
40What is primary classification?

Answer: This is the result of the summation of
all the numerical values assigned to whorls which
are expressed as numerator (for even number in
the chart position) and denominator (add number
in the chart position) plus the pre-established
fraction of one over one 1/1.
41In case there is no whorl in the chart what is the
primary classification of the set of fingerprint?
Answer: 1/1
42What
are
the
subdivisions
of
secondary
classification?
Answer: They are:
Capital letter group, This is symbolized by a
capital letters of the pattern represented by
two
index
fingers
after
the
primary
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classification. Right finger is the numerator

and the left finger is the denominator. There
are five basic types of patterns which can
appear:
Arch
A
tented Arch T
Radial loop R
Ulnar loop
U
Whorl
W
Small letter group, This refers to three
types of patterns only, namely;
plain arch
(a)
tented arch (t)
radial loop (r)
43What is subsecondary classification?
Answer:
This
is
accomplished
by
grouping
according to the ridge counts of loops and the
ridge tracing of whorls. Only index, middle and
ring fingers of left and right hand are involved
44What is ridge count?
Answer: Knowing the number of ridges intervening
between the delta and the core is referred to as
ridge counting.
45What are the rules of ridge counting?
Answer: They are:
Neither delta nor core is counted
In the event there is a ridge exactly at the
point where the imaginary line would be
drawn, two ridges are counted.
Where the line crosses an island, both sides
are counted.
Fagments and dots are counted as ridges only
if they appear to be as a thick and heavy as
the other ridges in the immediate pattern.
A ridge count of 1 to 9 in the index fingers
is brought up into the subsecondary formula
as I; while a count of 10 or more is O.
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A ridge count of 1 to 10 in the middle

fingers is brought up into the subsecondary
formula as I; while a count of 11 or more
is O.
A ridge count of 1 to 13 in the ring fingers
is brought up into the subsecondary formula
as I; while a count of 14 or more is O.
46What is whorl tracing
Answer: Refers to the tracing of the ridges from
the
left
delta
to
the
right
delta.
The
intervening ridges between the tracing ridge and
the right delta are then counted.
47What are the rules of ridge tracing?
Answer: They are:
If the ridge traced passes inside of (above)
the right delta, and there are 3 or more
ridges intervene between the tracing ridge
and the delta, the tracing is designated as
inner or with a symbol of I.
If the ridge traced passes outside of
(below), the right delta, and there are 3 or
more ridges intervene between the tracing
ridge
and
the
delta,
the
tracing
is
designated as Outer or with a symbol of
O.
All other tracing are designated as Meeting
or with a symbol of M.
When the ridge traced ends abruptly and it is
determined that the ridge definitely ends,
the tracing drops down to the next lower
ridge
48What is major division?
Answer: This is done by ridge counting the loops
and ridge tracing the whorl appearing on the
thumb. This is placed just to the left of the
primary in the classification formula. Where
whorl appears in the thumb reflects the whorl
tracing; where a loop appears, translate the
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ridge count into Small (S) Medium (M) and Large

(L).
49What is a final classification?
Answer: This is based upon the ridge count of the
loop in the right little finger. It is indicated
at the extreme right of the numerator in the
classification. If loops does not appears in the
right little finger a loop in the left little
finger may be used. It is then indicated at the
extreme right of the denominator. If no loops
appear in the little fingers, a whorl may be used
to obtain a
final counting from left delta to
core if in the right hand and from right delta to
core if in the left hand. If there are two or
more cores, the ridge count is made from left
delta to the core which is the least number of
ridges distant from the delta.
Double loop is
counted from the delta to the core at the upright
loop.
Where
loops
of
a
double
loop
are
horizontal, the nearest core is used. Should both
little finger are arches no final classification
is used. The use of a whorl in a little finger
for a final is required only in connection with a
large group or collection of print.
50What is a key classification?
Answer: This is obtained by counting the ridges
of the first loop
appearing on the fingerprint
card(beginning from the right thumb), exclusive
of the little fingers which are never considered
for the key as they are reserved for the final.
The key, no matter where found is always placed
to the extreme left of the numerator of the
classification formula.
51When an impression is so scarred that neither ridge
tracing nor counting can be determined, what
impression should be given?
Answer: Give both the general type value and the
sub-classification value of the corresponding
finger of the other hand.
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52When an impression is so scarred that neither of

the general type of pattern nor the ridge tracing
or count can be determined and it so happens that
corresponding finger of the other hand is similarly
scarred, what impression should be given?
Answer: Given the probable value of whorls with
meeting tracing.
53What is the classification if one finger is
amputated?
Answer: It is the classification identical with
that of the opposite finger, including pattern
and ridge count, or tracing, and referenced to
every other possible classification.
54What is the classification if two or more fingers
are amputated?
Answer: They are given classification identical
with the fingers opposite, with no additional
references.
55What is the classification if two amputated fingers
are opposite each other?
Answer: Both are given the classification of
whorls with meeting tracing.
56What is the classification if the fingerprint card
bearing a notation of fingers missing at birth or
missing from pre-natal cause?
Answer: The missing fingers should be treated as
amputations in that they are given the identical
classifications of the opposite fingers and are
filed in the amputation group.
57If all 10 fingers are amputated or missing at
birth, what will be the classification?
Answer: It should be: M 32 W MMM
M 32 W MMM
In those cases where all of the fingers are
amputated, the inked footprints should be
obtained.
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XXXX
PART II
POLYGRAPHY-LIE DETECTION-DECEPTOGRAPHY
1 What is Polygraphy?
Answer: (Lie detection test or Deceptography) is
defined as the scientific detection of deception
through the use or aid of a polygraph.
2 What is Polygraph?
Answer: derived from two Greek words Poly which
means Many or more; and Graphos which means
Writings. A device or instrument capable of
recording changes in blood pressure/pulse beats,
respiration, and galvano-skin-reflex (GSR) as
indicative of emotional excitement especially of
lying when questioned.
3 What is Deception?
Answer: is an act of deceiving or misleading
which is usually accomplished by lying.
4 What is meant by Lying?
Answer: the uttering or conveying falsehood or
creating a false or, misleading impression with
intention of wrongfully affecting the act, option
or affection of others.
5 What is meant by Detection?
Answer: is the act of discovering the existence
or presence of something hidden of obscured.
6 What is Emotion?
Answer: is a complex state of feeling involving
conscious
experience,
internal
and
external
physical responses, and power to motivate the
organism to action.
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7 What is Stimulus?
Answer: is the force or motion reaching
organism and excites the preceptors.
the
8 What is Reaction?
Answer: is any activity aroused in an organism by
a stimulus, which is of mental process.
9 What is Response?
Answer: is any reaction, usually of muscular or
glandular
processes
that
depends
upon
stimulation.
10
What is meant by Specific Response?

Answer: is one that is exhibited by a subject to
a particular question, which is a deviation from
his norm.
11 What is meant by the term Subject in polygraph

examination?
Answer: refers to any person undergoing polygraph
examination.
12
Who are Polygraph Examiner/Polygraphist?

Answer: one conducting the polygraph examination
or test.
13
What is Polygraph Test/Examination?

Answer: is the whole process of questioning or
taking of one chart from a series of questions or
all of the charts and questions sheet used in the
test.
14
What is Polygraph Chart/ Polygram?

Answer: refers to the recorded tracing of all the
emotional patterns permanently on the charts or
graphs from series of questions.
15
Why a person tells a lie?

Answer: Every person tells a lie because of fears
of detection.
16 What
are
the
Characteristics?
Answer: they are:
different
Subjects
Age
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a 7 to 12 years - Fantastic subjects.

b 13 to 19 years - Distinction of fantasy and
reality; at this age level, the subject is at
the age of imitation and idolatry; his/her
ego may start to develop.
c 20 to 25 years - His ego begins to lessen
because he thinks that he is not important
person. Subjects like him are idealistic and
be principle.
d 26 to 60 years They serve as best
witnesses. Intellect is fully developed and
intelligence is well coordinated with memory.
e 61 to death Their memories are fading for
their senses are defective. They are no
longer good witnesses.
17
What are the types of emotion?

Answer: they are:
a Emotion as Conscious Experience
b Emotion as Motive:
- Facilitating behavior - Ex. Destruction,
attack or fight, and assault or offend.
- Interfering
behavior
Ex.
Retreat
fighting, surrenders, and hides or offends.
c Emotion as Response - This concerns bodily
reactions, usually a muscular or glandular
process that depends upon stimulation. Said
process may be either be external and
internal ones. It is in this third type that
the polygraph has to keep his eyes wide open
to
all
information
regarding
emotional
responses. The theory of polygraph is based
primarily upon this third aspect.
18
What are the different emotional responses?

Answer: they are:
External responses - These responses are very
much observable even without the aid of any
emotion-stress
recording
machine.
Good
examples of these responses as indicative of
guilt or deceptions are those, which were
enumerated
on
the
Observable
methods
especially
both
facial
and
postural
reactions.
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Internal responses - Scientifically known as

visceral response, these pertain to the
responses of the internal of the systems and
properties of the human body as applied in
the study of lie-detection with the used or
aid of polygraph, thus:
19
What are the different systems of human body?

Answer: they are:
The Nervous System - Controls the glands,
muscular tissues, and the rest of the nerveconnecting organs to and from the brain.
The Respiratory System - Takes care of the
inhalation and exhalation process or the
breathing cycles.
The Circulatory System - Regulates heart
actions, blood pressure, blood volume, and
pulse rates.
The Excretory System (Electrical Properties
of the Skin) - Facilitates the changes in the
electrical phenomena of the galvanic-skinreflex (GSR), its resistance, and the brain
potentials.
20
Who are behind the development of Cardiograph?

Answer: they are:
Angelo Mosso (1895) - Studied fear and its
influence on the heart and his observations
subsequently
formed
the
basis
for
the
technique; developed the Sphygmomanometer and
the Scientific Cradle, which he used in
studying fear and its influence on the heart.
Cesar Lombroso (1895) - Employed the first
scientific instrument to detect deceptionHydrosphygmograph that measured changes in
pulse and blood pressure when suspects were
questioned about their involvement in or
knowledge of a specific response.
William Marston (1915) - He dealt with the
sphygmomanometer, which was used to obtain
periodic
discontinuous
blood
pressure
readings during the course of an examination;
He also experienced with and helped to
develop
the
Pneumograph,
which
records
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breathing patterns, and the Galvanograph,

which registers changes in skin resistance.
John Larson (1921) - Developed polygraph, an
instrument capable of continuously records
blood pressure, pulse and respiration; The
polygraph instrument that he developed was
described as polygraphic apparatus in a
portable form.
Leonarde Keeler (1926) - Continued research
and development of polygraph; In 1949, he
invented
the
Keelers
polygraph
with
components
that
simultaneously
records
changes
in
blood
pressure,
pulse
and
respiration, as well as the newly developed
galvanic skin reflex; He devised the chart
roll paper, a better method of questioning
and the incorporated the kymograph.
21
Who are behind the development of Pneumograph?

Answer: they are:
Vittorio Benussi (1914) Successfully
detected deception with a Pneumograph-an
instrument
that
graphically
measures
an
examinees inhalation and exhalation; He
demonstrated
that
changes
in
breathing
patterns accompany deception.
Harold
Burtt
(1918)
Determined
that
respiratory
changes
were
indicative
of
deception; Found out that changes in systolic
blood pressure were of greater value in
determining
deception
than
changes
in
respiration.
22
Who are behind the development of Galvanograph?

Answer: they are:
Sticker (1897) - First to suggest the use of
the Galvanograph for detecting deception
based on the work of several predecessors;
Theorized that the galvanic skin phenomena
was influenced by exciting mental impressions
and that they will have no effect upon it.
Veraguth (1907) - First to used the term
psychogalvanic reflex; Believed that the
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electrical phenomenon was due to the activity

of the sweat glands.
23
Who is behind the development of Polygraph?

Answer: Leonarde Keeler (1926)He devised the
metal recording bellows; Devised the kymograph
and the rolled chart paper; Incorporated the
cardiograph
and
Pneumograph
components
that
measure
blood
pressure
and
respiration
respectively.
24
What are the different Questioning Techniques?

Answer: they are:
Relevant-Irrelevant
Test
Developed
by
Larson and Keeler in 1942.
Relevant-Irrelevant
with
Embarrassing
personal question test - Developed by various
examiners around 1946.
Relevant-Irrelevant
with
Surprise
control
question - Developed by Inbau and Reid about
1948.
Relevant-Irrelevant with Reviewed (known lie)
and guilt complex question - Developed by
Inbau and Reid about 1950-53.
Backster Zone Comparison Test - Developed by
Cleve Backster in 1960.
25 What are the theories of Relevant-Irrelevant

Test?
Answer: (A) Guilt reacts only to relevant
questions;
(B)
Innocent
subject
shows
no
reactions.
26 What are the Theories of Relevant-Irrelevant with
Embarrassing personal question test?
Answer: (A) To determine reactivity of subject;
(B) To stimulate innocent subject.
27 What are the theories of Relevant-Irrelevant with
Surprise control question?
Answer: (A) To stimulate the innocent subject;
(B) To provide contract for the guilty.
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28 What are the theories of Relevant-Irrelevant with

Reviewed (known lie) and guilt complex question?
Answer: (A) To stimulate the innocent subject;
(B) To identify the general nervous tension and
guilt complex reactor; (C) To improve contract
between innocent and guilty subject.
29 What are the theories of Backster Zone Comparison
Test?
Answer:
(A)
Based
on
the
principle
of
psychological
set;
(B)
Provide
constant
monitoring of subject reactivity; (B) Designed to
disclose outside issues
30
What is the theory of polygraph examination?

Answer: A conscious mentally effort on the part
of normal person to deceive, causes involuntary
physiological changes which are in effect a
bodys reaction to an imminent danger to his
well-being.
31
What are the CONCEPTS OF POLYGRAPH EXAMINATION?

Answer: they are:
Used to test an individual for the purpose of
detecting deception or verify the truth of
statement;
Records identifiable physiological reactions
of the subject, such as high blood pressure,
pulse rate, respiration and skin resistance;
and
32
The
effectiveness
of
the
polygraph
in
recording symptoms of deception is based on the
theory. What are the OBJECTIVES OF POLYGRAPH
EXAMINATION? Answer: they are:
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Obtain additional investigative leads to the

facts of the case/offenses;
Ascertain if the person is telling the truth;
Locate the fruits or the tools of the crime
of the whereabouts of a wanted person;
Identify other persons involved;
Obtain valuable information from reluctant
witnesses; and
Eliminates innocent suspects.
33
What are the PRINCIPAL USES OF POLYGRAPH?

Answer: they are:
Aids in investigation;
Speeds up processing of investigation;
Eliminates innocent suspects;
Pre-employment screening; and
Honesty test.
34
What are the LIMITATIONS OF POLYGRAPH?

Answer: they are:
It is an invaluable investigative aid; but
never a substitute for investigation.
It is not a lie detector; it is a scientific
diagnostic instrument.
It does not determine facts; it records only
responses of the subject.
It is only as accurate as the examiner is
competent.
35 What is the ACCURACY AND RELIABILITY OF THE

POLYGRAPH?
Answer:
The
Us
Justice
Department
funded
experiments conducted by psychologists from 1975
to 1976 at the University of Utah showed the
polygraph to be 90% accurate. Only 10% of the
results were declared inconclusive. However, in
more recent research, the confirmed average
validity was shown to be 96%. Polygraphists
produce very high rates of agreement (96% - 100%)
based on numerical scoring.
36 What are the instances where the test be admitted
in court?
P a g e | 22
Answer: they are:

There must be a court order
There
must
be
stipulation
between
the
parties;
When it is used to impeach or corroborate the
testimony of a trial witness.
The court further cited the, significant
process in the field of polygraph testing
administrator are better trained and have
better equipment.
37 What are the BASIC FACTORS THAT WILL CONTRIBUTE
GREATLY TO THE SUCCESFUL USE OF THE POLYGRAPH?
Answer: they are:
Highly trained and experienced examiner;
A reliable instrument;
A well planned interrogation room; and
Good teamwork by the investigator, examiner
and their superiors.
38 What are the MORAL QUALITIES OF POLYGRAPH
EXAMINER?
Answer: they are:
a He must be free from prejudice;
b Sincere desire to be a good examiner;
c Devote
himself
to
the
profession
by
maintaining a high personal integrity and by
increasing
his
professional
proficiency
through constant study and research;
d Constantly bear in mind his obligation to
his subjects to afford them all possible
safeguards against error;
e Never accept any subject for examination if
they are unfit to the test;
f Always conduct the test in a professional
and ethical manner;
g He must be an impartial seeker of truth; and
h Never
let
his
personal
feelings
or
sympathies, or the feelings or sympathies or
prejudice of others influence the result of
the test
39 What
are
the
TECHNICAL
POLYGRAPH EXAMINER?
QUALIFICATIONS
OF
P a g e | 23
Answer: they are:

Have a complete knowledge of the instrument
and its capabilities and limitations;
Complete
knowledge
of
the
most
modern
polygraph technique;
Proficient in the conduct of the examination,
such as test construction, chart marking,
chart probing, chart interpretation, pre-test
interview and interrogation
40 What are the RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE INVESTIGATOR
TO THE SUBJECT?
Answer: they are:
Learn enough about the polygraph;
Not to reveal the details of an offense,
which may be utilized in the application of
the, Peak of Tension Test.
Assure the subject that if he is truthful,
the
test
is
a
means
to
indicate
his
innocence;
Stress the polygraph capability to record
responses accurately;
Assure the subject that the examiner is
qualified and impartial to all subject; and
Avoid any claim for the instrument or
examiner that is not being supported by
facts.
41 What are the RESPONSIBILITIES OF A POLYGRAPH
EXAMINER TO HIS SUBJECT?
Answer: they are:
Recognized
the
fact
that
his
primary
responsibility must be to the person who
voluntarily submitted himself to a polygraph
test
He should never conduct a polygraph test
without first advising the subject of his
constitutional
rights
against
selfincrimination;
He should never conduct an examination unless
the instrument is in good working condition;
P a g e | 24
He should not render a conclusive verbal

opinion unless there are at least two or more
test charts; and
He must be thoroughly familiar with the
techniques and procedures in polygraph test.
42 What are the CONDITIONS THAT WOULD INVALIDATE A
POLYGRAPH EXAMINATION?
Answer: they are:
a Extreme nervousness or emotional tension;
The
possible
effects
of
a
truthful
persons extreme emotional tension or
nervousness
must
be
given
serious
consideration
in
making
a
polygraph
diagnosis.
The
psychological
changes
and
disturbances
induced
by
nervousness
usually appear on the polygraph record
without
relationship
to
particular
question or questions.
b Physiological abnormalities;
Excessive high or low blood pressure;
Heart disease or disorders;
Respiratory disorder, (even common olds);
and
Toothache, severe headache or practically
any painful ailment.
c Mental abnormalities;
Pronounced
neurosis,
psychosis,
abnormally
low
intelligence
or
retardation;
State
of
self-hypnosis
or
temporary
amnesia; and
Pathological liars.
d Unresponsiveness.
Lack
of
emotional
response
hampers
accurate testing;
Extreme fatigue or mental exhaustion;
Under the influence of alcohol or drugs;
and
P a g e | 25
Unnecessary bodily movement can lead to

misleading BP readings/tracings.
43
44
What are the PRINCIPLES OF POLYGRAPH?

Answer: they are:
The polygraph is based on theory that when
telling
a
lie,
subject
will
respond
physiologically because of Fear of Detection;
In endeavoring to conceal the truth, one
might feel a thudding increase of the heart
beat, the rush of blood to the face, an
uncomfortable impulse to swallow, or other
symptoms resulting from Fear over possibility
that the lie be detected; and
These physiological changesbreathing, blood
pressure, pulse rate and the galvanic skin
reflex,
are
phenomena
with
which
the
polygraph examiner concerns him.
What are the ESSENTIAL PARTS OF POLYGRAPH?

Answer:
The polygraph has two, three, four, or
more recording channels according to their
importance in lie-detection. In an ordinary
polygraph
(consisting
of
three-recording
channels) various accessories are placed on some
chosen parts of the body of the subject. These
attachments are set as receivers to the changes
in
the
body
and
conduct
those
changes
electrically, electronically and pneumatically to
the instrument, which are finally recorded on
charts and graphs. These receivers are:
Pneumograph - The first receiver is the Pneumograph
tube (a rubberized corrugated tube) which is
attached to the subjects chest or stomach. These
attachments are part of the polygraph that detects
the air volume changes of the chest through the
breathing cycles.
Cardiograph and/or Cardio-Sphygmograph - The second
receiver is a blood pressure cuff wrapped around
subjects upper arm or wrist, and inflated to a
suitable air pressure. Changes in blood pressure
and pulse rate are detected.
Galvanograph and/or Galvo-graph (GSR) - The third
receiver is a set of electrodes attached either
P a g e | 26
between the palmer and dorsal surfaces of the

subjects hands or on the adjacent or relative
fingers of the same hand of the subject Operating
electrically
and
electronically,
physiological
changes are measured through an electrode placed on
the inactive portion (a-method) and/or through the
flow of current between two electrodes (b-method).
Kymograph (Chart-drive) - Another essential part of
the polygraph, although not a direct receiver of
internal responses. The kymograph is the chart
drive or paper-fed mechanism which is powered by a
synchronous electric motor or dynamo.
45 What are the DIAGNOSTIC TECHNIQUE in The Pre-Test
Interview and Preparation of Test Questions
Answer: the are:
a No test should be ever conducted without a
pretest interview, during which the subject is
conditioned for the test, and the questions to be
asked have been carefully formulated by the
examiner.
b The pretest interview also involves the casual
asking of a series of questions which are
designed to elicit verbal and nonverbal responses
that will give the examiner an indication of the
subjects truthful or deceptive status without
unnecessarily releasing his tension or engaging
in any accusatory interrogation.
c The
examiner
should
not
be
withhold
any
information
from
the
subject
about
the
instrument, its attachments, or recordings. This
will serve to increase a lying subjects concern
over possible detection, which is the most
important
requirement
for
an
effective
examination.
d During the pretest interview, the subject is
appraised of his constitutional right to remain
silent and have competent and independent counsel
preferably of his own choice, and that he must
give his written consent to show proof that he is
willing voluntarily to undergo the test. The
taking of his personal data and explanation of
the test procedure follow this.
P a g e | 27
e The pretest interview is very essential because

through
it,
extraneous
fear,
apprehension,
nervousness or distaste of the idea of the test
is overcome. It places the subject in a
cooperative and objective point of view to
willingly approach the test, and at the same time
afford the examiner to make an observation and
evaluation of the subject to form the basis for
the type of test technique best applicable. The
success of the polygraph test greatly depends on
the rapport existing between the examiner and his
subject.
f During this period, attachment of the polygraph
accessories is made with a brief explanation of
the function of each. This is followed by a
review of the details of the case and the
subsequent development and introduction of the
questions to be asked.
46
a
b
c
d
e
What are the Purposes of Interview?

Answer: they are:
To condition the subject psychologically for the
test.
To determine whether or not the subject is fit to
take the test.
To afford the examiner to make an observation and
evaluation of the subject in order to be able to
determine the type of test technique best
applicable on the case.
For the examiner to be able to establish rapport
with the subject.
For the examiner to determine whether the subject
voluntarily submits himself to the test.
47 What is the great importance to polygraph

examination?
Answer: great importance to polygraph examination
is the formulation of test questions. The
formulation of test questions carries from case
to
case.
The
information
supplying
these
questions
emanates
from
the
investigators
handling the case from the statements of the
witnesses or the subject himself, the official
and professional records, interviews and other
resources or agencies.
P a g e | 28
48 What
are
the
General
Rules
in
Question
Formulation?
Answer: Following are the General Rules in
Question Formulation:
a Questions must be simple and direct.
b They must not involve legal terminologies; ex.
Rape, assault, murder, etc.
c They must be answerable by yes or no and should
be as short as possible.
d Their meaning must be clear and unmistakable and
phrased
in
a
language
the
subject
easily
understands.
e They must not be in the form of accusation.
f They must never contain an influence, which
presupposes knowledge on the part of the subject.
g All questions must refer to only one offense.
h All questions must refer to only one element of
an offense.
i They
must
not
contain
inference
to
ones
religion, race or belief.
49
What are the DIFFERENT TYPES OF TEST QUESTIONS?

Answer: In every criminal investigation, there is
prescribed standard operational questioning of
subjects in any given case. In order to acquire
knowledge of the case, full appreciation and/or
study various types of questions is a must for
every
investigator
or
examiner.
Hence,
in
polygraph, the following are different types of
question used for test construction.
a Relevant Question (Critical) - These are the
primary or key questions asked by the examiner in
order to resolve a specific subject matter. It is
further classified according to its stimulation
effect when applied, namely:
b Strong Relevant or Primary Relevant Questions
are relevant questions, which have intense and
specific relationship to the crime or problem,
being considered. These are intended to produce
strong emotional response in guilty subjects. Ex.
Did you steal Joans wristwatch? Did you steal
anything from Joans house?
c Weak Relevant Question are questions that
concern some secondary elements of the crime and
P a g e | 29
deal mostly on guilty knowledge and partial

involvement. Ex. Do you know where the missing
wristwatch of Joan now? Further, the weak
relevant is classified into the following:
Sacrifice Relevant or DYAT Questions (Do You
intend to Answer Truthfully) are designed
to absorb the response generally generated by
the
introduction
of
the
first
relevant
questions in the series. Reaction to these
questions gives the examiner a clue as to
subjects
attitude
of
willingness
or
voluntaries to submit to the test. Ex.
Regarding the stolen wristwatch, do you
intend answer truthfully each question about
that?
Knowledge Question This type of question is
propounded to the subject to prove whether he
possesses the information leading to the
identification
of
the
offender
or
the
location of the evidence. Ex. Do you know for
sure who stole the wristwatch of Joan?
Evidence-Connecting Questions This has to
do with inviting subjects attention on the
probability of incriminating proof that would
tend to establish his guilt by linking him
and his predicaments to the fingerprints,
footprints, tool marks, etc. collected at the
crime scene. Ex. Were the footprints outside
the house of Joan yours?
d Irrelevant Question (Neutral) - After the subject
has been interviewed, it is the primary duty of
the examiner to prepare and arrange several types
of questions to be asked during what kind of
question test of no importance to the case under
investigation, but of great significance to
controlling fatigue, nervousness and discomfort
of the subject. Irrelevant or neutral questions
must precede the relevant ones. Some of them may
form like this: Ex.
Did you eat today
Do you Smoke?
Are you wearing brown shoes now?
Is the cigarette you smoke a Marlboro
brand?
P a g e | 30
Do you live at General Santos?

e Control Question (Probable Lie) - This is a
question based on a known lie made by the subject
about
denying
having
done
something
which
verified or known to be true. Control questions
have two kinds, namely:
Preliminary Control Question recalls
the offense done from the time of
childhood up to three to five years
before the occurrence of the present
offense being investigated.
Ex. Before
reaching the age of 25, have you ever
stolen anything?
Secondary
Control
Question
more
specific in nature and based upon another
species or wrongdoing that will enhance
the
subjects
opportunity
for
responsiveness. Its scope includes up to
the present period of examination. Ex.
Have you ever stolen anything from the
locality?
f Guilt Complex Question - This refers to questions
which
safeguard
against
mistaking
relevant
question response of the guilt complex reactor as
deception responses and is based on a fictitious
crime situation closely parallel and equal in
weight to the actual crime under investigation,
so that the guilty can be sure he did not commit
it. Ex. Did you steal the gold coin collection?
Remember that the stealing of a gold coin
collection was not actually committed because the
alleged crime investigated was the lost of the
precious wristwatch of Joan.
g Symptomatic Question - Its function is to detect
and evaluate the presence of outside issues which
may suppress responses to relevant questions.
This is often true that the subject fear they
might be asked about another case in which they
are involved, but are not the subject-matter
under investigation. Ex. Are you completely
convinced that I will not ask any question on
this test that has not already been reviewed?
P a g e | 31
h S K Y Question (S- Suspect, K- Knowledge and

Y-you) as the subject. These three questions
grouped together by Backster to confirm the
previous
charts
and
may
detect
indirect
involvement on guilt knowledge. Ex. (S) Do you
suspect anyone in particular of stealing Joans
wristwatch?(K) Do you know for sure who stole
Joans wristwatch? (Y) Did you steal Joans
wristwatch?
50
What are the COLOR ZONE

Answer: they are:
a Red Zone Strong Relevant
b Green Zone Probable Lie (Control)
c Black Zone Symptomatic (Outside Issue)
d Yellow
Zone
Irrelevant
and
Sacrifice
Relevant
e Yellow or Red Zone Weak Relevant
PART III
FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY
1 What is Photography?
Answer:
an art, and certainly is a science of
producing an image by the action of light on
light sensitive substances (silver halides) and
by the application of several chemicals and
physical laws.
2 What is vital to photography?
Answer: Light, for it is the physical means used
to produce the image. without light, there will
be no image.
3 What are the CLASSIFICATIONS OF LIGHT?
Answer:
Light, as a form of radiant energy, is
classified
according
to
wavelength
and
frequency.
P a g e | 32
4 What is WAVELENGTH?
Answer: Wavelength is the distance between any
two such identical points in a given instant of
time. Since the electromagnetic spectrum is
arranged according to wavelength, there must be
measurement of this length. The length of light
waves is measured from a point on one crest to an
identical point on the next crest.
5 What is FREQUENCY?
Answer: The frequency of light is the number of
complete waves that would pass a given point in a
second time. The longer the wavelength, the fewer
the number of waves that will pass a point in a
second or the longer the wavelength the less the
frequency; the shorter the wavelength the greater
the frequency.
6 What is the COMPOSITION OF WHITE LIGHT?
Answer: White light is composed of all visible
light wavelengths in the visible spectrum.
Sunlight is white and is an ideal or equal
blending of all the wavelengths of the visible
spectrum. If any of these wavelength are missing,
even in part, we have another color instead of
white light.
7 What is OPTICS?
Answer: Optics is a branch of science concerned
with the behavior of light.
8 What are the basic characteristics of light
behavior which we used to see and to produce
photographic image?
Answer: they are:
REFLECTION. Any object that is non-luminous,
that does not itself emit light, can be seen
only by reflected light that has originated
at a luminous source. All objects reflect
some light and absorb some. Glass mirrors,
polished metals, white papers, all reflect
most of the light and absorb some. Black
objects absorb most of the light and reflect
very little. Light that are either absorbed
or transmitted, that is, when light passes
P a g e | 33
through a medium such as glass or any

transparent substance.
ABSORPTION. Light will normally be absorbed
to some degree no matter what type of
surfaces is encountered. The color of the
object is largely a matter of absorption and
reflection. When white light falls on an
object that absorbs some of the wavelengths
and reflects and transmitted others, the
object appears to have color. The wavelength
that is reflected or transmitted determines
the color of the object. For example, a red
object appears red because it reflects or
transmit only the red wavelengths. The others
which is green and blue, are absorbed by the
object.
REFRACTION. When light strikes the surface of
opaque objects some is absorbed and some is
reflected. But when it strikes an object
which is transparent, such as glass, a little
light is absorbed. These penetrating rays,
however, have quite probably undergone some
changes; they have been bent. The bending or
deflection is what is termed as refraction.
9 What is the LAW OF REFRACTION?
Answer: If a light rays hit perpendicular to the
surface between two mediums of different density,
the ray is not bent. If the light strikes the
surface at an angle, the ray will be bent. The
direction in which the light is bent is dependent
upon the density of its mediums the light is
traveling to.
10
What is INDEX OF REFRACTION?

Answer: Light travels at varying speeds. The
speed of light in air or vacuum is approximately
186,000 miles per second while in some glass is
approximately 124,000 miles per second. Using the
two figures, the refractive index of the glass
would be 1.5 (124,000 divided into 186,000). The
refractive index of water is about 1.3. the
refractive index is never less than 1 and rarely
more than 2. The higher the index number, the
greater the light bending power of the
P a g e | 34
substance. A practical use of this knowledge is

in the determination of the angle of refraction
of lenses made for various types of glass and use
for varying purposes.
11
What is CAMERA LENSE or OPTICS?

Answer: A camera optic or lens, is
a spherical
and symmetrical piece of polished glass. The
purpose of which is to gather, refracts and
project light ray on the rear wall of the camera
and to produce a clear, sharp image.
12 What is the effect If a film is placed in front

of the wall opposite the pinhole?
Answer; the negative image that appears after the
film if develop will not be very sharp, but it
will be quite recognizable as an image of the
subject at which the pinhole was aimed. It will
not be sharp because the pinhole actually lets in
more than one ray of light from each point on the
subject and these rays do not strike at exactly
the same point on the film. If the pinhole sized
is decreased to reduced image blur, it requires
also a long exposure time ( which is already
long). In addition a very tiny pinhole tends to
scatter the light rays and thus image blur
actually increases.
13
How to accomplish a brighter and sharper image?

Answer: Both can be accomplished by reflecting or
refracting the light so that it can collect great
bundles of light rays from a single point and
redirect them all to meet again at another point
on the film.
14 What part of a camera usually has a function of

reflecting or refracting the light so that it can
collect great bundles of light rays from a single
point and redirect them all to meet again at
another point on the film?
Answer: the camera lens.
15 What is the effect if the distance between lens
and subject is shortened?
P a g e | 35
Answer; if the distance between lens and subject

is shortened, the distance between lens and film
is extended. This of course, the adjustment being
made when focusing the camera; the lens is moved
away from the film for close subjects and moved
towards the film for distant subject.
16
What are the TYPES OF SINGLE SIMPLE LENS?

Answer: Simple lenses are classified according to
the way in which they bend the rays of light
falling upon them. They are divided into two
groups:
Positive lens/ Convergent lens. Basically
these lenses are thicker at the center than
at the edges. Tehse lenses from real images
because light rays passing through them
converged, that is, the rays leaving the lens
are bent inward and toward one another and so
eventually meet (focus). Lens in this class
are
also
termed
convex,
convergent,
or
collective. The most common positive lens is
the double convex which will cause light rays
from either side of the lens surface, to
converge. All these lenses have at least one
convex surface, that is, a surface that
curved outward.
Negative lens. These lenses are thicker at
the ends than
at the center and have at
least one concave surface. These lens called
concave divergent, or dispersive. Light rays
that passed through them are spread apart,
negative lenses are not used alone but they
from part of a compound lens to correct for
errors or distortion.
17
What is meant by Focal Plane of a lens?

Answer: The focal plane of a lens is the plane
where the lens projected image which is clear and
sharp. This plane is sometimes called the film
plane, as the film is located at this point to
capture the image.
18
What is meant by Focal Length of a lens?

Answer: Focal lengths can be defined as the
distance from the lens to the point at which
P a g e | 36
light rays that entered the lens on parallel

paths will be brought to focus. If the camera
lens is focused at infinity which in practical
terms means focused on a subject a great distance
away (200 feet or more), the light rays reflected
by that subject will be traveling on parallel
paths, for all practical purposes, when they
reach the lens. So the definition of focal length
is often given as the distance between the lens
and the film when the lens is focused at
infinity. The photographer seldom or need no
measure the focal length of a lens for this
characteristic is almost always marked on the
front of the lens mount, in millimeters or in
inches.
19
What is the importance of Focal Length of a lens?

Answer: The focal length of a lens controls the
image brightness, speed of the lens, and the
image size at the focal plane. It is a fixed
value of the lens and cannot be varied by the
photographer. Also, it is inherent factor of the
lens which is controlled by the thickness of the
lens and the curvatures of its surfaces.
20 What is the best tool for learning to use of

lenses?
Answer: A 35 mm single lens reflex camera is
the best tool for learning to use of lenses of
varying focal lengths because you can actually
see what the lens is putting in your picture
frame. The picture can be studied in the finder,
observe the relative sizes of images within the
pictures depth.
21
What is Lens Speed?

Answer: it is the largest opening of the
diaphragm (aperture) at which a lens can be used.
Speed here refers to intensity of the light
reaching the film, and not to any movement. Thus
an f/2 lens is faster than f/4 because an f/2 has
a wider aperture and will admit more light at a
given time.
22
What are fast lenses?
P a g e | 37
Answer: Lenses having a large aperture are called

fast lenses because their large aperture makes
it possible to take photographic at a very short
exposure interval or under very dim light
conditions. The closer this widest aperture comes
to 1, or to being equal in diameter to the focal
length of the lens, the faster the lens.
23
What is the practical application of a fast lens?

Answer: the practical application of a fast lens
is when the light level of a scene is very low,
such as in a night club scene. In short, the
faster the lens, the lesser the amount of light
needed to reproduced an image
24
What is camera shutter?

Answer; A mechanical device used to control the
duration of the time interval during which light
will travel to act on the film. It is an
adjustable mechanism that regulates the amount of
light reaching the film by varying the length of
time light is allowed to pass through the lens.
25
What is Focal Plane Shutter?

Answer: Focal Plane Shutter is also known as
curtain
shutter
consist
of
a
lightproof
rubberized
cloth
curtain
having
rectangular
openings or slits usually arranged to move
horizontally/ or vertically in some cameras. It
house entirely within the camera body and is
mounted in two rollers. When an exposure is made,
the leading curtain moves, say to the right,
uncovering the film so that light can act upon
it. At the end of the exposure interval, curtain
moves to the right to cover the film surface once
again.
26
What is the advantage of Focal Plane Shutter?

Answer: The advantage of this type of shutter is
to allow the lens interchangeability and it has a
high shutter speed up to 1/1000 of a second.
27
What is the disadvantage of Focal Plane Shutter?

Answer:
where critical measurements in motion
are required, this shutter is undesirable because
P a g e | 38
of image distortion. At the instant, the fast

moving subject may appear elongated or shortened
than it actually is, depending on the direction
of motion.
28
What is Shutter Speed

Answer: Shutter speed refers to the time that the
shutter is opened, following light to reach the
film. The interval during which it is desired for
the shutter to remain open is selected by
rotating the shutter speed dial and setting it on
the desired scale.
29
What is usually the shutter-speed scale marking?

Answer: The cameras shutter-speed scale markings
are usually T, or D, 1, 2, 8, 15, 30, 60, 125,
250, 500, 1000, and / or even 2000. The first
number in this series stands for 1 full second,
but all other number are fractions of a second, 2
is for second, 4 is second and so forth. The
scale may vary from this example, depending upon
the camera but each shutter setting gives one
half of the time of the preceding number and
twice of the succeeding one.
All these numbers
are abbreviated expressions for fractions of a
second and denote shutter speed.
30
What is the B setting stands for?

Answer: the B setting stands for bulb a
word that goes far back into camera history. Used
for exposure longer than one second. Pressure on
the shutter release button will open the shutter
and will remain opened as long as pressure is
maintained. But once pressure is released, the
shutter closes again.
31
What is the T setting stands for?

Answer: the T setting stands for time time
like the bulb setting the T setting is also
used for time exposure of more than one second .
It differs from the bulb setting only in that the
shutter release button does not have to have held
down to make an exposure. Pressure on the button
causes the shutter open. It will remain open
P a g e | 39
until the shutter releases button is pressed a

second time to close it.
32
How to Photograph a Moving Object?

Answer: When an object is in motion during
exposure, its image on the film also moves, even
though the duration of exposure (shutter speed)
is 1/1000 of a second, the images moves a small
fraction of an inch during this time. The problem
for the photographer, then, is to determine just
how much image movement can be tolerated before
it becomes objectionable and regulate the shutter
speed accordingly. As a general rule, the
permissible image movement (circle of confusion)
is 1/1000 of an inch if they are to be enlarged.
33 What are the four factors which determine the

distance of an image moves on the film during
exposure?
Answer:
The four factors which determine the
distance of an image moves on the film during
exposure are:
a The object distance (from lens to object)
b The image distance (from lens to film)
c The speed of the object (perpendicular to
lens axis)
d The interval of the exposure
The first three factors determine the speed
at which the image moves across the film and
the fourth simply limits the times it is
allowed
to
move,
thereby
limiting
the
distance of image movement.
34
What is the use of LIGHT METER OR EXPOSURE METER?

Answer: These meters measures the incident light
falling upon or the light reflected from a
photographic subject, and provide means of
converting this information into useable shutter
speed and stop. However, this aid is mainly used
as a guide, the final interpretation of lighting
and camera factors, and picture requirement for
best
exposure
is
the
decision
of
the
photographer.
P a g e | 40
35 How to know the EXPOSURE without the built-in

LIGHT METER of a camera?
Answer: cameras which do not have built-in light
meters, exposure is determined by following the
manufacturers
suggested
general
guidelines
supplied with the film, and then ISO (formerly
ASA/ DIN) scale on the camera film speed dial
series simply as a reminder. Exposure can be done
by using the speed number of the film as the
initial shutter speed on the camera; 1/100 of the
second shutter speed for ASA/ 100 film; 1/400 for
a second for ASA/400 film, and so forth. Set the
film as close as can be on the shutter speed
dial, 1/125 for ASA/100; 1/500 for ASA/400 and so
forth. Then set the f/number according to the
class of lighting condition common throughout
photographic literature, and, in most cases, are
used in the film as an aid in determining
exposure. The information sheet is only a guide;
it does not guarantee perfect exposure. Variables
not adequately considered are: time of the day,
time
of
the
year,
geographical
location,
direction of the light, and type of the subject.
36 What
are
the
different
TYPES
OF
DAYLIGHT
ILLUMINATIONS?
Answer:
Bright Sun. The sky is clear, bright, and
free of large cloud masses or atmospheric
haze. Any shadows cast by the sun are sharply
defined. An ideal photographic condition.
Hazy Sun. The sun is partially obscured by
clouds or haze, the edges of shadows are
slightly diffused or set and are less clearly
defined than those in bright sun.
Cloudy Bright. The sun is largely obscured by
clouds or haze. The sun is in evidence, but
the shadow are not apparent. This daylight
condition exists when the light is bright
even glaring and it seems there should be
shadows but there are few, if any.
Cloudy Dull. The sun is completely obscured
by heavy layers of clouds or dense haze.
Light is completely diffused and it is
P a g e | 41
difficult to determine the exact position of

the sun.
37 What
are
the
different
TYPES
OF
SUBJECT
BRIGHTNESS?
Answer:
Dark Subject. Dark subjects reflects only
about 9 percent of the light striking it and
absorbs the remainder. Included in this
category are vehicles and weapons, people in
dark-toned clothing etc.
Average
Subject.
Is
one
that
reflects
approximately
18
percent
of
the
light
striking
it
and
absorbs
the
remainder.
Examples
are
people
in
medium-colored
clothing, most buildings, street scenes, and
interior views.
Bright Subject. Reflects twice as much as an
average subject. Typical subjects in this
category are a fair-skinned and
lighthaired person, people in light clothing, and
light-colored buildings.
Brilliant
Subject.
A
brilliant
subject
reflects about four times as much light as an
average subject and absorbs very little
light, some of this subject are people in
light colored clothing on a white and sandy
beach, a white sailboat against a blue sky
and white buildings of a desert village.
38 What are the different REFLECTIVE POWER OF
COLORS?
Answer: The following list are the approximate
percentage of light that is reflected by some
colors,
white (75%), chrome yellow (62%),
cardinal red
(27%), pearl gray (75%), cream
(62%), brown (27%), satin green (75%), sky blue
(62%), maroon (27%).
39
What is meant by FOCUS in a CAMERA LENS FOCUS?

Answer: focus a lens means to concentrate light
rays on one particular surface, which, in a
camera, is the surface of the film.
P a g e | 42
40
What is focal point?

Answer: focal point is the point where ones
visual attention becomes focused, and the point
on the films surface where the entire light ray
concentrate or intersects is known as the point
of principal focus.
41
What is FOCUSING RING?

Answer: The focusing ring is large knurled ring
around the barrel of the lens that operates on a
type of screw-thread mechanism. When turned, the
lens will either moves away or toward the camera
body, depending upon the direction of rotation.
The closer an object is to the camera, the more
the ring have to be turned in one direction to
increase the lens on objects at increasingly
greater distances;
42
What is meant by Focusing?

Answer: focusing means adjusting or changing the
distance between the focal plane and the lens
center. To focus; hold the camera to your eye in
level with the viewfinder. Turn the focusing ring
clockwise or counter-clockwise until a sharp
image of the subject appears in the center of the
viewfinder.
43
What is the importance of filter in photography?

Answer:
Filters
are
important
tools
in
photography because they significant increase the
photographers ability to control the image.
Filters can penetrate haze as though if it were
not there. Can also put contrast into black and
white reproduction of two different colors of
equal brightness, or can make two different
colors merge as a single brightness value in the
print.
44
What are the Functions and Uses of filter?

Answer:
Filters can be used in two ways in
photography:
to modify the light falling on the subject (a
filter over the light source) or,
P a g e | 43
to modify the light passing through the lens

before it reaches the film (a filter in front
of the lens).
45 What is the effect if a colored glass filter is
placed in a beam of white light?
Answer: When a colored glass filter is placed in
a beam of white light, the color composition of
the light is altered. According to its color, a
filter will absorb some wavelengths and transmit
others.
46 What is the effect if filter is placed over a
lens?
Answer: When a filter is placed over a lens it
does two things:
a It lighten its own color, and
b darkens its complementary colors.
Because a filter selectively absorbs certain
colors, it appears colored. A red filter
appears red because it absorbs blue and green
and transmit red. A blue filter absorbs red
and green, and a green filter absorbs blue
and red. A filter which absorbs only blue
appears yellow because it transmits red and
green.
47
What are the different kinds of Filter?

Answer: they are:
Correction Filters. Are used to equalized the
color sensitiveness of film emulsions into
make nearly coincide with that of the eyes.
The film emulsions is more sensitive to blue.
To
renders
color
in
their
relative
brightness, as seen by human eye, a filter is
used to change the sensitivity of the film,
making it more responsive to yellow and
greens.
Usually
correction
filters
are
yellow.
Contrast Filters. Although two colors may be
different, if their brightness value is the
same they will reproduce as almost the same
shade of the gray in the print. To crate the
needed contrast, a filter is used. The filter
P a g e | 44
selected should transmit one of the colors

and absorb the other more or less completely,
thus, contrast between green and red can be
affected by using a green or red filter. The
green filter makes green lighter than the
red, whereas the red filter eliminate green
entirely and yields a print that represents
green as black and the red as white.
48
What is the Special Purpose Filters?

Answer: in Neutral Density, filter used to
reduced the amount of light transmitted t o the
film
without
selective
filtering
of
any
particular
wavelength.
In
Ultraviolet
or
skylight, use to filter out unwanted blue, which
often appears in pictures of subjects in open
shade, rainy or overcast days, in distant scenic
views, etc.
49 What are the basic structures of a black and

white film?
Answer: the basic structures of a black and white
film are the following:
Top Coating, is an overcoming of a thin layer
of hard gelatin which helps protect the
silver halide emultion from scratches and
abrasions.
Emultion Layer, composed of silver compounds
which
are
light
sensitive,
but
for
photographic
purposes,
halogens
such
as
bromide; chloride; and iodine (used in small
amounts, seldom more than 5% with silver
bromide in fast film emulsion) is added to
silver halides,
Antihalation Backing, a black dye applied on
the rear surface of the film, its function is
to absorb light that may penetrate the
emulsion layer thus preventing it to reflect
back to the emulsion. The dye removed during
the processing by one of the chemical in the
developer. Its second function is to control
the film curling towards the emulsion layer.
50
P a g e | 45
What are the basic structures of COLOR FILM?

Answer: Basically, the structure of color film is
almost the same as black and white film, except
that the emulsion layer consists of three layers,
stacked one on top of the other.
A.
top Layer is sensitive to blue light
only; green and red light passes through it
without exposing the color blind halides
B.
yellow Filter known as carey-lea silver
suspended in gelatin is
coated between the
top
and
second
layer
to
absorb
any
penetrating blue light but freely passes
green light and red light.
C.
middle Layer is orthochromatic, sensitive
to blue (which can not reach it) and red. It
is also somewhat sensitive to green light,
but to such a degree that it is not
important.
51 What are the different types of FILM ACCORDING TO

COLOR SENSITIVITY?
Answer: All types of the photographic emultion
are sensitive to the color of blue violet, and
ultraviolet. The films sensivity to other colors
is obtained by adding dyes to the emulsion during
manufacture.
nonchromatic, sensitive to ultraviolet and
blue-violet colors only. This film may be
used
when
natural
redentition
is
not
important. For example, is used to copy black
and
white
originals
and
to
photograph
colorless subjects when extreme contrast is
needed.
orthochromatic,
sensitive
to
blues
and
greens, but not to reds. Reds are recorded as
dark tones, while greens and blues as light
tones when printed.
Panchromatic, sensitive to all colors, and
are further subdivided according to their
degree of sensitivity to each color. This
film
is
commonly
used
in
investigative
photography because it produces the most
natural recording of colors.
P a g e | 46
Infrared, sensitive to blues and infrared

radiations, which is beyond the human eyes
sensitivity. It is useful in penetration haze
because
of
its
longer
wavelength.
In
investigate photography, it is useful in the
laboratory
analysis
of
questionable
documents; in the discovery of old or faded
tattoos or areas where small objects are
hidden
under
the
skin,
and
in
the
construction of camera traps.
52
What is Film speed?

Answer: Is the sensitivity of the film emulsion
to light, which is measured and express in a
numerical rating called ISO formerly known as
ASA/ DIN. This means that higher the ISO number,
the more sensitive the film is to light, and that
pictures can be taken indoors under dim light
conditions. One film may be rated ISO -100, and
another film ISO-200. This means that the 200
film is twice as fast (twice more sensitive to
light) than the 100 film. Hence, would only
require half the amount of light to produce a
satisfactory negative. Each time the film speed
is doubled, it is equal to one f/ stop in
exposure. For instance, in the example given, if
ISO-100 is exposed at f/8, then ISO-200 would be
exposed at f/11 to produce the same negative
quality.
53 What are the uses of film under varying

condition?
Answer: Any film above ISO-100 can be considered
high speed and anything less is usually slow
speed and Tine-green. The suggested uses of the
following film under varying condition are:
ISO-25 or lowest the condition will permit,
for best color and sharpness.
ISO-100 or 200, for general purpose.
ISO-400, for dim light or with moving object.
ISO-1000, and up, for extremely low-light
conditions.
P a g e | 47
54 What are the different steps in the development

of negative through chemical process?
Answer: the development of a negative through
chemical process entails different steps in the
following order:
Predevelopment water rinse (optional),
actual development,
rinse bath,
fixing bath,
washing, and
drying.
55 In negative development, what are the factors
which must be pointed out?
Answer: they are
Cleanliness is a must when working with
chemicals. Work areas must be free of
extraneous objects. If this is not done the
negative may be worthless before it ever gets
into developing solution.
Chemical for negative development or printing
are set up from left to right to avoid
mistake in processing. When using these
chemicals do not go back to the previous
solution in the chain. This will destroy the
negative and will definitely affect the
chemical themselves.
When diluting concentrated acids, always add
the acid to
the water slowly, stirring
constantly. Never adds the water to the acids
because the acid may spatter on the face and
hands causing serious burns.
56
How to obtain visible image?

Answer: To obtain a visible image, the exposed
emulsion is treated in a solution known a
developer. This solution converts the light
affected halides to metallic silver which forms
the visible image.
57
What are the ingredients of developers?

Answer: Most all modern developer contains the
following ingredients;
P a g e | 48
Development agent/reducer, the basic and most

important
ingredient
in
the
developing
solution is the reducer, Metol-hyroquinon is
the most versatile and popular of all
developers.
Although
amidol,
glycin
,
paraphenylene diamine, and pyro are also use.
Accelerator, Borax, sodium carbonate, sodium
hydroxide are some of the alkalis used to
increased the rate of oxidation of the
reducing agent,
softens the gelatin o the
film
emulsion,
and
speeds
up
solution
penetration. However a solution containing
only a reducer and an accelerator will
oxidize quickly and act to rapidly.
Restrainer, the chemical most commonly used
as a restrainer is potassium bromide. Without
the restrainer, most developing solution act
too fast and develop unexposed silver halides
near the surface of the emulsion which causes
fog, steaks, and image lacking in contrast.
Preservative, all organic developing agents
in an alkaline state have a strong chemical
attraction to oxygen, so preservative such as
sodium sulfite or sodium bisulfite is added
to
prevent
excessive
oxidation
thus
prolonging the useful life of the developing
solution
and
prevents
the
formation
of
colored
oxidation
products
which
caused
stains.
58
What are Basic layers of printing paper?

Answer: they are:
Base. Made of paper which must be chemically
pure to insure that it will not interfere
with the chemical processes to which the
emulsion is subjected. Available either in
single or double weight paper.
Baryta Layer. A gelatin layer containing
baryta crystal to increase the reflectivity
of the paper.
Emulsion Layer. Contain minute silver halides
suspended with gelatin which needs only to
reproduce the total range of a negative.
P a g e | 49
59 What are the Types of Photographic Printing

Paper?
Answer: they are:
Chloride Papers. Have a slow speed emulsion
containing silver chloride, are fine grain
and produce deep blanks, used for contact
printing.
Bromide Papers. Have a faster emulsion speed
than chloride paper, achieve sensitivity
through the use of bromide halides. Because
of the relatively high sensitivity to light,
these emulsion are particularly suitable for
projecting printing.
Chlorobromide Papers. Contain both silver
chloride and silver bromide halides. Emulsion
Speed lies between that of chlorine and
bromide papers, used both for contact and
projection printing.
Variable
Contrast
Paper.
Combines
the
contrast range in one paper, this versatility
is achieved with a special chlorobromide
emulsion
that
produces
varying
contrast
responses upon exposure to different colored
light.
60
What is PRINTING?
Answer: Printing is the process whereby light is
transmitted through the negative to produce a
like positive image.
DEFINITION OF TERMS
61
What is Abrasions?
Answer: Abrasions are fined lines or streaks that
occur then a sharp or rough object rubs against
the emulsion surface before development, are also
caused by grit ot rough spots in the camera.
62
What is Acutance?
Answer: The degree to which an emulsion can
record a sharp division between image area
details of different contrast.
P a g e | 50
63
What is Air Bells?

Answer: Air bells are smell air bubbles that
adhere to the film surface and prevent the
processing solution from acting on the film,
producing small clear spots on film.
64
What is Contrast?
Answer: The difference between the bright and
dark areas in photograph of the densities of
various areas in the negative.
65
What is Emulsion?
Answer: A light sensitive
salt (silver halides),
which is thinly spread
permanent support such as
layer of finely divided

suspended in gelatin,
on the surface of a
acetate.
66
What is Fogging?
Answer: Is the reduction of unexposed silver
halides, which results from faulty development or
average film and causes a general lowering of
contrast by veiling the shadow areas.
67
What is Highlights?
Answer: Refers to the dense portion of a
negative, which is caused by bright area in the
subject that reflects a great amount of light,
causing a corresponding heavy density in the
negative.
68
What is Halftones?
Answer: The subject brightness between
lightest and darkest area recorded on
negative corresponding densities.
69
What is Latent Image?

Answer: The invisible image formed in an emulsion
by exposure to light.
70
What is Latitude?
Answer: The ability of an emulsion to record
subject brightness difference in density. An
emulsion capable of reproducing all brightness
values from dark to very bright has wide latitude
the
the
P a g e | 51
and conversely an emulsion which will reproduce

only a narrow or short range of brightness value
has poor latitude.
71
What is Negative Density?

Answer: Negative density is defined as the degree
of blackening of a silver deposit in a film
emulsion in relation to the light incident upon
it, or the amount of metallic silver deposited in
the negative emulsion.Density is used to describe
the light transmitting qualities of the negative
and is controlled by the thickness of the silver
deposit. Therefore, the amount of metallic silver
in any area of the negative is known as density.
The density of any negative is a dense negative
and a light negative is called a thin negative.
72
What is Reticulation?
Answer: Reticulation of the emulsion is a network
of
lines
having
a
grainy,
leather-like
appearance. This action occurs when film is
subjected to sudden temperature changes in
transferring from one solution to another.
73
What is Resolving Power?

Answer: Resolving power refers to the ability of
an emulsion to record fine subject detail
distinguishably.
74
What is Silver Halides?

Answer: Are metallic silver compound that darkens
on exposure to light.
75
What is Safelights?
Answer: Essentially, safelights are filters, the
functions is to transmit the maximum amount of
light which may be properly used for visibility
without damage to the sensitized material.
P a g e | 52
PART IV
FIREARMS IDENTIFICATION (BALLISTICS)
1 What is BALLISTICS?
Answer: is a science in itself because it evolved
from
systematic
knowledge,
research
and
development, training, experience and education
of those who pioneered in this field. Technically
speaking, it refers to the science of firearms
identification which involves the scientific
examination of ballistics exhibits such as:
a fires bullets;
b fired shells;
c firearms; and
d allied matters, used in crime.
LEGAL
DEFINITION:
It
is
the
microscopic
examination of fired cartridge cases and bullets
together with the recording and presentation by
means of photograph of what is revealed by the
microscope.
2 What is INTERIOR BALLISTICS?
Answer:
is the study of motion of projectiles
with the gun barrel. From the release of the
firing pin to the moment the sound of the shot
can be heard as it leaves the muzzle occupied
only 0.01 seconds, in a modern rifle.
3 What are the critical elements involved in the
study of interior ballistics?
Answer: they are the relationship of the weight
of charge to the weight if projectile, the length
of bore; the optimum size, shape, and density of
the propellant grains for different guns, and the
related problems if maximum and minimum muzzle
pressures.
4 What is Hang fire?
P a g e | 53
Answer: hang fire refers to the failure of a

cartridge to explode on time or delayed in
firing.
5 What is Loading Density?
Answer: refers to the ratio of the weight of the
powder charge to the powder chamber (case).
6 What is Misfire?
Answer: refers to the failure of the cartridge to
discharge. This is different from hang fire which
merely a delayed combustion, while misfire a
complete failure eve to start combustion.
7 What is PSI?
Answer: PSI means pounds per square inch. It is
often seen designated as PSIA. This designation
is now used to signify a measurement of chamber
pressure taken with a piezo-electric device.
8 What is Recoil?
Answer: refers to the equal and opposite reaction
of the gun against the forward movement of the
bullet during explosions.
A.
Residual
Pressure
the
pressure
remaining in the chamber after the bullet has
left the barrel.
9 What is EXTERIOR BALLISTICS?
Answer: it deals with the motion of projectiles
from the time they leave the muzzle of the
firearm to the time they hit the target.
10
What is velocity?
Answer: velocity refers to the speed of the
bullet per unit of time. Ex. M16 3, 300 ft.
/sec.
11
What is Muzzle blast?

Answer: the noise created at the muzzle point of
the gun due to the sudden escape of the expanding
gas coming in contact with the air in the
surrounding atmosphere at the muzzle point.
12
What is Trajectory?
P a g e | 54
Answer: the actual curved path of the bullet

during its flight from the gun muzzle to the
target.
The
following
are
the
kinds
of
trajectory, straight horizontal line.
13
14
What is Range?
Answer: the straight distance between the muzzle
point and the target.
What is accurate (effective) range?
Answer: the distance within the shooter has
control of his shots, meaning he can place his
shoots at the desired spots.
15
What is Maximum range?

Answer: the farthest distance that a projectile
can be propelled from a firearm.
16
What is Air Resistance?

Answer: resistance encountered
while in flight.
17
What is Pull of gravity?

Answer: downward reaction of the bullet while in
flight.
18
What is Penetration?
Answer: depth of entry on target.
19
What is Accuracy range?

Answer:
the maximum distance at which a
particular gun and cartridges will consistently
place all shots in the standard target for that
distance.
20
What is Bullet Energy?

Answer: the power possessed by a moving bullet,
or its ability to keep going when it meets
obstacles.
21
What is Effective Range?

Answer: the maximum distance at which the bullet
may reasonably be expected to travel accurately.
22
What is Extreme Range?
by
the
bullet
Answer: the greatest distance the

travel when the cartridge is fired.
P a g e | 55
bullet
will
23
What is Initial point?

Answer:
the
range
at
which
the
bullets
trajectory fist crosses line of sight. This is
normally occurs at a range of about 25 yards.
24
What is chronograph?
Answer: Instrument used to measure the velocity
of projectile.
25
What is Key-hole-shot?
Answer: the tumbling of the bullet in its flight
and hitting the target sideways as a result of
not spinning of its axis.
26
What is Maximum range?

Answer: the farthest distance that a projectile
can be propelled from a firearm.
27
What is Ricochet?
Answer: the bouncing off or defection of a bullet
from its original trajectory (normal path).
28
What is Stopping Power?

Answer: the power of the bullet that put out the
victim out of action instantly. So it should be
understood that stopping power is not necessarily
the same thing as killing power.
29
What is Zero range?

Answer: the farthest distance at which the line
of sight and the bullets path intersect.
30
What is TERMINAL BALLISTICS?

Answer: study of the effect of the impact of the
bullet on the target.
31
What are involves in TERMINAL BALLISTICS?

Answer: they are:
a Terminal Accuracy size of the
grouping on the target
bullet
P a g e | 56
b Terminal energy energy of the projectile

when it strikes the target. Also known as
striking energy.
c Terminal Penetration depth of entry of the
bullet in the target.
d Terminal velocity speed of the bullet upon
striking the target.
32
What is SHOTS BALLISITCS?

Answer: deals with the attributes and properties
of shots and pellets.
33
What is WOUND BALLISTICS?

Answer: study of the effects of projectile to
human body. .
34
What is Blackening?
Answer: wound caused by the deposition of smoke
particles by all types of powders at close
ranges.
35
What is Tattooing?
Answer: embedding of unburned and semi burned
powder particles into the surface of the target.
36
Why the blasted tissues are cherry red in color?

Answer:
the blasted tissues are cherry red in
color because of the presence of carbon monoxide.
37 What are the indications whether the gunshot

injury is suicidal, homicidal or Accidental?
Answer: they are:
a gunshot wound is suicidal when:
only one gunshot wound
Usually the distance is short range or
class range
Presence of the suicide note
History of frustration or despondency of
the victim
Presence of cadaveric spasm on the hand
of the victim
b gunshot wound is homicidal when:
Wound is located at any part of the body
P a g e | 57
Signs of struggle (defense wound) maybe

present in the victim
Disturbances of the surroundings
Wounding weapon usually not found at the
scene of the crime
c gunshot wound is accidental when:
Usually only one gunshot wound
Wound located at any part of the body
Absence of personal grudge between the
victim and the one who fired the gun
Testimony from the witnesses
38
What is Shotgun wound?

Answer: it is an open wound produced by the
penetration of pellets or shots in the victims
body.
39 What are the characteristics of the Shotgun wound

of entrance?
Answer: they are:
a There is singeing of the hair; presence of
wads and particles of gunpowder inside the
wound of entrance
b When a shot is up to six inches distance,
there is marked lacerated of the skin and
destruction of tissues due to the pressure of
the explosion.
c If the distance about one yard, there is a
blackening of tissues with slight burning,
singeing and tattooing.
d If the distance is about two to three yards,
the wound has a big central hole with ragged
edges and a few stray wounds of entrance
around the central hole. There will be no
more blackening or burning of the skin,
gunpowder tattooing, singeing of the hair and
pieces of wads near the wound of entrance.
e If the distance is four yards, a small group
of
pellets
may
penetrate
the
tissues
producing a central core.
40
What is FORENSIC BALLISTICS?

Answer: Identification of firearms by means of
ammunition fired through them. This is the real
P a g e | 58
branch of the science which the police use as

their guide in field investigations.
41
What is meant by the term FORENSIC

Answer:
As applied to ballistics, or to any
other subject, suggest a relationship to courts
of Justice and legal proceedings.
42
What is the technical definition of Firearm?

Answer:
instrument
that
is
used
for
the
propulsion
of
projectile
by
means
of
the
expansive force of gases of burning gunpowder.
43 What is the technical definition of Firearm or

Arm?
Answer: includes rifles, muskets, carbines, shot
guns, pistols, revolvers and all other weapons
from which a bullet a ball, a shot, a shell or
missiles may be discharged by means of gunpowder
or other explosives. The term also includes air
rifles, except that are in small in caliber at
and usually used as toys. The barrel of a firearm
for purposes of Section 877 of the Revised
Administrative Code is considered as a complete
firearm (legal Sec. 877 of the RAC and Sec.
290 of NIRC)
44
What is Rifle?
Answer: long rifle bored firearm designed to hit
targets a greater or longer distance with spiral
grooves to fire only a single shot.
45
What is Musket?
Answer: long smooth bored firearm
designed to prepare a single shot.
that
is
46
What is Shotgun?
Answer: long smooth bored firearm having a barrel
of 25-30 inches long and designed to shot birds
in flight; long smooth bored firearm and breech
loading designed to fire number of lead pellets
or shot in on charge.
47
What is Carbine?
P a g e | 59
Answer:
a short barrel riffle, having a barrel
not longer than 22 inches and it is designed to
fire a single shot through a rifled-bore, either
semi-automatic or full automaton, for every press
on the trigger.
48
What are the essential parts of firearms?

Answer: Any firearm, large or small, has four
essentials parts:
Barrel it is long tube. It may be smooth,
as in shotgun, or with spiral grooves on the
inner surface, as in a rifle
Chamber it is a widened hole at the breech
(rear) end of the barrel. It holds the
cartridge (explosive charge).
Breech mechanism the breech mechanism
closes the rear end of the barrel, holding
the cartridge in the chamber.
Firing mechanism the firing mechanism may
be electric, as in some large artillery. In
small arms, a spring moves a pointed firing
pin through the breech bolt against a
sensitive primer in the cartridge. The firing
pin is cocked (drawn back) against a hook
called the sear.
49
What is Pistol?
Answer: a handgun that use magazine feed
50
What is Revolver?
Answer: A handgun with the corresponding cylinder
that revolves before the barrel which consist of
different chambers.
51 Who are BERTHOLD SCHWARTZ A German monk, and

ROGER BACON, an English monk?
Answer: they are both credited with gunpowder
invention. (Most reference books credit Roger
Bacon, English monk and scientists, with the
invention of gunpowder in 1248, and Berthold
Schwartz, with the application of gunpowder to
the propelling of a missile in the early 1300s.
This powder was that we now call black powder)
It is also often stated that gunpowder was first
P a g e | 60
invented by Chinese were aware of gunpowder and

use as a propellant long before its advantage
became recognized in Europe. It may also assume
the Arabs with their advance knowledge of
Chemistry at that time.
52
Who is the Father of Modern Ballistics?

Answer: Col. Calvin H. Goddard, Md., OS, U.S.
Army.
53
Who is Alexander John Forsyth?

Answer: Father of the percussion ignition.
54 Who designed and invented the semi-automatic US

Riffle, Caliber .30 MI?
Answer: John C. Garand
55 Who pioneered the making of Thompson Sub-machine
gun?
Answer: John T. Thompson
56
What is firearms caliber?

Answer: The caliber of the firearm is the
diameter of the bore of the barrel measured form
land to land. Caliber in rifled firearm expresses
in inches or fraction of an inch by the American
and English manufacturers and millimeters or in
centimeters
by
manufacturers
in
continental
Europe.
57
What are the characters of a rifle?

Answer: Rifle is a gun with spiral grooves in its
long barrel that spin the bullet as it is shot.
Rifles are usually held against the shoulder when
firing. Soldiers use rifles in battle.
58
What are the parts of rifle?

Answer: all rifles have four basic parts: the
barrel, the stock, the action, and the sights.
59
What powder was developed in 1800?

Answer: Smokeless powder.
60
What are the characteristics of a Machine gun?
P a g e | 61
Answer: Machine gun is an automatic weapon that

can fire from 400 to 1,600 rounds of ammunition
each minute. Machine gun barrels range in size
from .22 calibers to 20 millimeters ammunitions
fed into the gun from a cloth or metal belt, or
from a cartridge holder called a magazine.
61 When the crime scene investigator recovers a
fired shell, where should he put his identifying
marks?
Answer: he should put at the inner surface near
the mouth
62 A rim fire cartridge case bearing firing pin
impression that is recovered at the crime scene is
normally presumed to have been fired from what type
of firearms?
Answer:
revolver
63 What gun mechanism grasps the rim of cartridge
case to pull it out from the chamber?
Answer: extractor
64 While the bullet is traveling through the gun
barrel, its bearing surface is not in close contact
with the bore surface. In effect, most of the
expanding gases came out first than the bullet.
This problem is caused by:
Answer: improper bullet design
65 What is refers to the distance the bullet needs
to travel through the barrel to complete a single
rotation?
Answer: rifling
66 What instrument is best used to examine bullet
and cartridge cases for purposes of determining
similarity in class characteristics?
Answer: comparison microscope
67 Caliber
is
one
example
of
firearm
class
characteristics. What indicates by this term?
Answer: bullet diameter in hundredths of an inch
P a g e | 62
68 Calibers of European made firearms are usually

expressed in millimeters. In Western caliber
system, what is the counterpart of 9mm?
Answer: cal .38 SPL
69 In ballistics, any object that fired or launched
from a firearm is technically called:
Answer: projectile
70 What Significant factors that affect the distance
traveled by the residues emitted from a firearm?
Answer:
wind, temperature, and barometric
pressure
71 Strictly speaking, a cartridge is a single unit
of ammunition consisting of:
Answer: the cartridge case, primer and one or
more projectiles
72 There are different scientific instruments used
in determining the caliber or firearm evidence.
What instrument is solely used for measuring the
bore diameter of gun barrel?
Answer: Caliper
73 What characteristics that would be common to a
particular group or family of items?
Answer: class characteristics
74 In
comparing
bullets,
most
positive
identifications are made on striations that are
found:
Answer: on land impressions near the base of the
bullet
75 What limits the forward
ammunition into the chamber?
Answer:
rim
travel
of
revolver
76 Death or serious injury may or may not have been

caused by accidental discharge of a firearm. In
this situation, a questioned gun is submitted at
the crime laboratory to undergo:
Answer: firearm functionality testing
77 What
force
opposes
projectile in flight?
Answer: gravity
forward
motion
P a g e | 63
of
the
78 Gunshot residues that allow a firearm examiner to

determine a muzzle to garment distance are
found around:
Answer: bullet entrance holes
79 When a cartridge is chambered then ejected in a
semi automatic or auto loading type of firearm,
it receives marks from the breech mechanisms. Which
of these marks found in the shell which may be in
the form of impression if the cartridge is fired
but could also be in the form of striated action
mark if the cartridge is thrown out without being
fired?
Answer: magazine lip marks
80 What area of forensic ballistics covers the
determination of distance between the shooter & the
target?
Answer: forensic external ballistics
81 What instrument for ballistics examination can be
used to photograph bullets in flight, which aids in
investigating the velocity of projectiles?
Answer: Chronograph
82 Which class characteristics of firearms can be
determined by analyzing fired bullet recovered at
the crime scene?
Answer: Caliber & rifling pattern
83 Given more than one bullet, the first problem
that should be resolved by the firearm examiner is:
Answer: Was the bullet fired from the suspect
firearm?
84 What marks is found on shells ejected from auto
loading firearms that appear as striated action
marks and sometimes impressed action marks?
Answer: ejector marks
P a g e | 64
85 All cases involving firearms identification start

with:
Answer: Test firing of questioned firearm
86 In a semi automatic pistol found at the crime
scene, where should the recovering officer place
his identifying marks before packing it for
transmission at the crime laboratory?
Answer: pistol grip
87 The rifling of the firearms is located inside the
barrel. It consists of:
Answer: lands and grooves
88
A rimmed shell is usually fired from:

Answer: revolver
89 The term double action with reference to revolver

means most nearly that:
Answer: pulling the trigger will automatically
cock of the firearm
90
What is refers to the caliber of a gun?

Answer: the diameter of its barrel
91
When a police officer should fire his handgun?

Answer: only at last resort
92 What is mostly refers to the term muzzle

velocity?
Answer: speed at which a bullet leaves the gun
93 What is the effect when a shot is fired on an
automatic pistol by a criminal?
Answer: the shell in most cases will be found at
the scene of
firing
P a g e | 65
PART V
QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATION
CONCEPT OF DOCUMENT
1 What is document?
Answer:
generally
defined
as
any
material
containing marks, symbols, or signs either
visible, or partially visible that may present or
ultimately convey a meaning to someone, maybe in
the form of pencil, ink writing, typewriting, or
printing on paper.
2 What are the legal definitions of document?
Answer: they are:
Any written document by which a right is
established or an obligation is extinguished
(People vs. Moreno, CA, 338 O.G. 119).
every deed or instrument executed by person
by whom some disposition or agreement is
proved, evidenced or set forth (People vs.
Nillosquin, CA, 48 O.G. 4453)
In relation to Criminal Jurisprudence under
the
Best
evidence
rule:
any
physical
embodiment of information of ideas; e.g. a
letter, a contract, a receipt, a book of
account, a blue print, or an X-ray plate
(Black`s Law Dictionary)
3 If a private document is intended to become a part
of the public record and falsified prior thereto,
what is the crime committed?
Answer: falsification of a public document
4 What are writings which do not constitute documentbased on some Supreme Court Rulings?
Answer:
A draft of a Municipal payroll which is not
yet approved by the proper authority (People
vs. Camacho, 44Phil. 484)
P a g e | 66
Mere blank forms of official documents, the

spaces of which are not filled up (People vs.
Santiago, CA, 48 O.G. 4558)
Pamphlets or books which do not evidence any
disposition or agreement are not documents
but are mere merchandise (People vs. Agnis,
47 Phil. 945)
CONCEPT OF QUESTIONED DOCUMENT
5 What is questioned document?
Answer: questioned document is one in which the
facts appearing therein may not be true, and are
contested either in whole or part with respect to
its authenticity, identity, or origin. It may be
a
deed,
contract,
will,
election
ballots,
marriage contract, check, visas, application
form, check writer, certificates, etc.
6 What is disputed document?
Answer: this term suggesting that there is an
argument or controversy over the document, and
strictly speaking this is true meaning.
7
What
is
the
examination?
focus
of
Questioned
document
Answer: Questioned document examination is a

branch of forensics which focuses on the analysis
of documents which are disputed.
8 What are the requirements to become a questioned
document examiner?
Answer:
the courts (State v. Evans 1991) have
decided that a person needs both: study and
practice -- that is, a period of training
(internship or apprenticeship is better than a
self-study course) and a period of experience
(twenty some previous cases worked on is a good
average).
9 What is meant by the term EXPERT WITNESS?
Answer: A legal term used to describe a witness
who by reason of his special training or
P a g e | 67
experience is permitted to express an opinion

regarding the issue, or a certain aspect of the
issue, which is involved in a court action.
10
Who are DOCUMENT EXAMINER?

Answer: One who studies scientifically details
and elements of documents in order to identify
their
source
or
to
discover
other
facts
concerning them
11
What is meant by the term ERASURE?

Answer: The removal of writings, typewriting or
printing, maybe chemical eradication and or by an
abrasive erasure.
12
What is meant by INSERTION OR INTERLINEATION?

Answer: the addition of writing and other
material between lines or paragraphs or the
addition of whole page to a document.
13 What are the DIVISIONS OF QUESTIONED DOCUMENT

EXAMINATION?
Answer: they are:
Criminalistic
Examinationinvolves
the
detection of forgery, erasure, alteration or
obliteration of documents.
Handwriting
Investigation
/Analysismore
focused in determining the author of writing.
14 Who Conducts the
Questioned Document?
Answer: conducted
examiner.
15
16
Preliminary
by
Examination
questioned
What is meant by OFF-HAND OPINION?

Answer: Off-hand opinion- not based
scientific examination.
of
document
on
though
What are the CLASSES OF QUESTIONED DOCUMENT?

Answer:
The
following
are
the
general
classification of QD.
Documents with questioned signatures;
P a g e | 68
Questioned documents alleged to have been

containing fraudulent alterations;
Questioned or disputed holographic wills;
Documents investigated on the question of
typewriting;
Questioned documents on issues of their age
or date;
Questioned documents on issues of material
used in their production; and,
Documents or writing investigated because it
is all alleged that they identify some
persons through handwriting.
17 What are the SCIENTIFIC METHODS IN QUESTIONED
DOCUMENT EXAMINATION?
Answer: they are:
Analysis
(Recognition)properties
or
characteristics, observed or measured.
Comparison- Properties or characteristics of
the unknown determined through analysis are
now compared with the familiar or recorded
properties of know items.
Evaluation- Similarities or dissimilarities
in properties will each have a certain value
for
identification,
determined
by
its
likelihood of occurrence.
18 What are the INSTRUMENTS AND APPARATUS USED IN
QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATIONS
Answer: they are:
Magnifying lens- could be an ordinary handlens; the maximum diameter is four inches,
and this appears big with its wide frame it
has a magnifying power of two times the
original only. Magnifying lenses of five
times or more magnifying power, with builtin-lightning are more useful.
SHADOWNGRAPH- a pictorial image formed by
casting a shadow, usually of the hands, upon
a rightful surface or screen.
STEREOSCOPIC BINOCULAR MICROSCOPE- a tridimensional (3D) enlargement is possible
P a g e | 69
MEASURES AND TEST PLATES (TRANSPARENT GLASS)those used for signatures and typewriting
(to measure degree of slant, size, etc.
TABLE LAMPS WITH ADJUSTABLE SHADES (Goose
Neck
Lamps)used
for
controlled
illumination; needed in sidelight examination
wherein light is place at low
angle in a
position oblique to plane or document.
TRANSMITTED LIGHT GADGET- light comes from
beneath or behind glass on document is
placed.
ULTRA VIOLET LAMP- used in the detection of
counterfeited bills but can actually be used
to detect security features of qualified
documents.
INFRARED VIEWER- primarily used to decipher
writings in a charred document.
COMPARISON MICROSCOPE- similar to that of the
bullet comparison microscope.
19 What are the TECHNIQUES IN THE EXAMINATION OF
QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS?
Answer: they are:
MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION- Any examination or
study which is made with the microscope in
order to discover minute physical details.
Stereoscopic examination with low and high
power
objectives
is
used
to
detect
retouching, patching and unnatural pen-lift
in signature analysis.
TRANSMITTED LIGHT EXAMINATION- the document
is viewed with the source of illumination
behind it and the light passing through the
paper to determine the presence
of
erasures, matching of serrations and some
other types of alterations.
OBLIQUE LIGHT EXAMINATION- the illumination
so controlled that it gazes or strikes the
surface of the document from one side at a
very
low
angle.
Decipherment
of
faded
handwriting, determination of outline in
traced forgery, embossed impression, etc.
P a g e | 70
PHOTOGRAPHIC EXAMINATION- Actual observations

are recorded in the photographs.
ULTRA-VIOLET
EXAMINATIONUltraviolet
radiation is invisible and occurs in the wave
lengths just below the visible blue-violet
end of the spectrum (rainbow). These visible
rays react on some substances so that visible
light is reflected, a phenomenon known as
FLOURESCENCE. The exposure of a document to
ultra-violet light is useful when it consists
of several pages and substitution is being
suspected.
The
color
and
intensity
of
fluorescence reaction is very apparent in
case of substituted page.
Mechanical and
chemical erasures will certainly change the
reflectivity and fluorescence of the area
affected.
INFARED
EXAMINATIONemploys
invisible
radiation beyond the red portion of the
visible spectrum (rainbow) which is usually
recorded
on
a
specially
sensitized
photographic emulsion.
20
Why photograph in QD is necessary?

Answer: Photography in QD is necessary to:
Serve as record of the initial condition of a
disputed document;
Make clear what otherwise may be hidden or
indistinct;
Enlarge writing in question so that every
quality and characteristics of it can be
clearly and properly interpreted.
Enable any number of accurate reproductions
of
document,
thus
affording
unlimited
opportunity for study;
Allow cutting apart as may be desired and the
various parts classified for comparisons;
Can shoe delicate discolorations due to
chemical
erasures
or
other
fraudulent
changes, which may otherwise be overlooked,
or misinterpreted;
Can show very clearly any erasures by
abrasions made by ordinary rubber eraser and
P a g e | 71
it can record in permanent form with paper

placed obliquely to the plane of the lens and
plate and inclined at just right angel of
reflection so as o show differences in the
reflected light from different portions of
the paper surface; and
With transmitted light, it is useful in:
examination of watermarks; determining the
identity; or the differences in paper by
showing arrangement of the fibers and the
markings of the wire gauze and dandy roll
showing
the
continuity
of
strokes
and
determining retouching or patching of a
writing by showing clearly the presence of
added ink film and the uneven distribution of
ink in interrupted strokes.
21
What are the methods of examining ERASURES?

Answer: they are:
Physical
inspection:
using
ultraviolet
light, observation with light striking the
surface at a sharp angle, and observation
under the microscope.
Fuming with iodine may cause an almost
negligible stain, but in most instances not
the slightest semblance of a stain remains.
22 What are the methods of examining INDENTED

WRITING?
Answer: usually applied to the partially visible
depressions appearing on a sheet of a paper
underneath the one on which the visible writing
appears. Methods of examination are:
Physical methods maybe used by passing a
strong beam of nearly parallel light almost
horizontally over the surface of the paper.
Fuming the document maybe of values in some
cases.
Powders of various kinds maybe used without
changing the document.
23 What are the
CHARRED PAPER?
methods
of
examining
BURNED
OR
P a g e | 72
Answer: If the combustion is incomplete, there is

a certain amount of success provided the pieces
are large enough to form a coherent message. Of
primary importance is the proper packing and
shipping of this type of evidence. The pieces
should be placed between layers of cotton and
ship in a strong, rigid box, exercising every
precaution to avoid damage in transit. It is
believed best not to spray or moisten the
evidence with water or any other liquid for
shipping purposes. The following methods maybe
applied
to
decipher
the
original
message
contained thereon:
Photographic methods, using various types of
filters and different angles of illumination
may determine the writing contained thereon
without
changing
the
appearance
of
the
charred fragments.
Chemical
methods,
such
as
spraying,
painting, or bathing charred pieces with
solutions of different chemical reagents.
Photographic
plates
maybe
utilized
by
allowing the charred paper to remain in
contact with emulsion sides in total darkness
from one to two weeks.
CARE, HANDLING AND PRESERVATION OF QUESTIONED
DOCUMENTS
24 How to care and handle DISPUTED DOCUMENTS AND
DOCUMENTARY EVIDENCE?
Answer: the following should be observed:
It should be kept UNFOLDED AND IN A SEPARATE,
PROPER SIZE ENVELOPE OR FOLDER.
It is also advisable that right after the
document becomes disputed, or questioned, it
is important to make not only the usual photo
static copy (Xerox), but also a proper
photograph or photo-enlargement.
It is often necessary for the lawyer or court
to handle repeatedly the disputed document.
Should this be necessary, instead of handling
and working with the original document, the
photograph should be used.
P a g e | 73
Touching with wet hands or fingers can create

smearing in the ink, pointing with a pencil
can leave marks that create a suspicion of
previous pencil marks, or experiments as
proof of attempted forgery.
Pointing
a
document
with
any
other
instruments, such as sharp stick, can cause
sight damage with although it cannot be seen
by the naked eye, can show definite marks
under the microscope or on the enlarged
photograph.
No
test
should
be
made
to
alter
the
conditions of the document.
Should any test be necessary, insist that it
should be done in the presence of a chemist,
or in court, or in front of both parties
involved the case.
25 What are the DO`s in CARE, HANDLING AND
PRESERVATION OF
DOCUMENTS?
Answer: they are:
Take disputed papers to Document Examiner`s
Laboratory at the First Opportunity.
If storage is necessary, keep in dry place
away from excessive heat strong light.
Maintain in consequential document, unfolded
and
in
transparent
plastic
envelope
or
evidence preserver.
26 What are the Donts
in CARE, HANDLING AND
PRESERVATION OF
DOCUMENTS?
Answer: they are:
Do not underscore, make careless markings,
fold, erase, impress rubber stamps, sticker,
write on, or otherwise alter any handwriting.
Do not smear with fingerprints powder or
chemicals.
Do not carry handwriting document carelessly
in wallet, notebook or brief case on grounds
of interviews.
Do not handle disputed papers, excessively or
carry then in pocket for a long time.
P a g e | 74
Do not marked disputed documents (either by

consciously writing instruments or dividers)
Do not mutilate or damage by repeated
refolding, creasing, cutting, tearing or
punching for filing purposes.
Do
not
allow
anyone
except
qualified
specialist to make chemical or other tests;
do not treat or dust for latent finger prints
before consulting a document examiner.
27
How to HANDLE CHARRED DOCUMENTS?

Answer: they are:
Those extremely fragile must be handled as
little as possible and transporting them to
the laboratory requires extra-ordinary care.
With forethought and caution they can be
brought from the distant fire scene to the
laboratory.
They should be moved in the container in
which they are found whenever possible. When
the fragments are not packed tightly, they
should be padded with lightweight absorbent
cotton.
If
jarring
cannot
be
entirely
eliminated jarring the box must be kept to a
minimum.
The fragment must be held firmly without
crushing and prevent movement or shifting
when finally packed in a sturdy container.
EXEMPLAR
28
What is exemplar?
Answer: Exemplars, also called standards, are
legally
admissible
authentic
samples
of
handwriting used for comparison with questioned
writing. They are used by the document examiner
to enable her to form an opinion concerning the
authenticity of handwriting in dispute. There are
two kinds of exemplars (informal which are
documents previously executed and known to be
genuine) and formal (which are request writing
samples).
Exemplars
are
also
called
known
handwriting samples.
P a g e | 75
29
What is the most reliable exemplar?

Answer: Informal handwriting exemplars (Collected
Standards) are more reliable for comparison
purposes than request writing. Since informal
writing was written in the normal course of
business,
it
more
accurately
reflects
the
subconscious
habits
of
the
writer.
Selfconsciousness or conscious-awareness enters into
the request writing process. Even when there is
no attempt to disguise request writing, it may
not represent the normal subconscious habits of
the writer.
30
What are the TYPES OF HANDWRITING STANDARDS?

Answer: they are:
Collected Standards are KNOWN (genuine or
informal
standard)
handwriting
of
an
individual written in the course of daily
life, both business and socials.
Request standards are signature or other
handwritings (or hand printings) written by
an individual upon request for the purpose of
comparison with other handwriting or for
specimen purposes.
Post Litem Motan Exemplars- writings produced
by the subject after evidential writings have
come into dispute and solely for the purpose
of establishing his contentions.
31 What are the DISADVANTAGES OF REQUEST WRITING

SAMPLES?
Answer: they are:
Request writing taken after the incident may
not be as close to the date of the questioned
writing as informal documents executed in the
normal course of business.
Courts consider request writing taken after
the fact as self-serving and may not allow
it. Some writers will deliberately disguise
their request handwriting.
It
may
be
difficult
or
impossible
to
duplicate the writing environment of the
P a g e | 76
suspect
document
in
order
to
obtain
comparable documents.
The writer may not be available for request
writing or circumstances may have caused
changes that make it impossible to obtain
similar request writing samples.
32 What are the SUGGESTED PROCEDURE FOR TAKING
REQUEST HANDWRITING STANDARDS IN ALL TYPES OF
QUESTIONED-DOCUMENT PROBLEMS?
Answer: they are:
Let subject seat in a natural position at
table or desk having smooth writing surface.
Furnish
subject
with
paper
and
writing
instrument
similar
to
those
used
in
questioned writings, lie; paper should be
same
size,
and
ruled
or
unruled;
as
questioned document.
Never permit the subject to see any writing
on the questioned document.
Dictate material to be written (or printed,
if questioned material is hand printed): give
no assistance in spelling or arrangement on
page. Dictate at a rate of speed which will
produce the subject natural writing habits.
Remove each specimen upon completion by
subject number in consequence, date, time and
identify by initiating each, and request
subjects to sign each specimen.
Observe all writing done by subjects and
indicate any attempt of disguise, and whether
subjects appears to be normally right or left
handed, etc.
33
HOW MANY SAMPLES OF HANDWRITING ARE NEEDED?

Answer: consider the following:
The type of case determines the number of
exemplars that the document examiner needs
for comparison with the questioned documents.
Always try to collect as many samples as
possible because it is more important to have
suitable undisputed samples than a large
quantity of little comparable value. Cases
have been won in court using a single known
P a g e | 77
signature to support the authenticity of a

questioned
document.
One
signature
is
sufficient when all the characteristics of
handwriting match. When proving that an
individual
did
not
write
a
questioned
document, it is necessary to obtain a larger
range of writing and one hundred signatures
may not be enough. An average would be twenty
to twenty-five signatures and four to five
pages of normal handwriting and/or hand
printing preferably written at different
times.
More known documents are needed if the writer
has
a
wide
range
of
variation
or
an
oversimplified signature, while only a few
signatures would suffice if the writer is
consistent. An oversimplified signature is
one that contains few changes of direction
and
is
usually
an
illegible
scrawl.
Oversimplified
signatures
are
easier
to
imitate than more complex signatures that
contain more changes of direction and more
stylized letter forms.
When a questioned signature shows obvious
signs of forgery not present in the known
signature, one known signature should be
enough
to
prove
no
genuineness.
Forged
writing often contains tremor or has a drawn
look.
A single signature would be sufficient to
determine the facts when the questioned
signatures are written with a higher skill
level
than
the
suspected
writer
could
execute. However, it is better to have more
exemplars whenever possible. The document
examiner must evaluate the exemplars to
determine if she has sufficient suitable
material to render an accurate opinion.
34
What are SUITABLE EXEMPLARS?

Answer: the following are suitable exemplar:
Cancelled checks, contracts, applications,
and business letters make suitable exemplars
or standards. The writing can be properly
P a g e | 78
identified, the date can be verified, and the

habits
of
the
writer
can
be
studied.
Additional standards may be needed if the
words on the disputed writing do not match
the exemplars.
Ideally, original writing should be available
for the scrutiny of the document examiner.
Original writing is always better than a
photocopy or a facsimile. If it is impossible
to
obtain
original
documents,
a
first
generation photocopy should be supplied. The
original
documents
should
be
requested
whenever a photocopy is supplied by the
adverse party. Intermediate tones are almost
always lost in a photocopy because it aims to
secure
the
greatest
possible
contrast.
Subsequent generations of photocopies may
drop
sufficient
detail,
rendering
them
worthless to a competent document examiner.
According to the FBI Law Enforcement Bulletin
published in September, 1970, handwriting
identification depends on the quality of the
known writing. A's cannot be compared with
Gs John Jones' cannot be compared with
'Samuel Hansen'
The J's must be compared
with J's and the 'ohn's' with 'ohn's.'
Handwriting cannot be compared with hand
printing.
Documents similar in nature will make the
best exemplars. Contracts should be compared
with contracts, and cancelled checks with
cancelled
checks.
Try
to
procure
like
signatures. An A should be compared with A,
an Al with Al, and hand printing with hand
printing. Documents written with ink should
be compared with other documents written in
ink.
Try
to
find
writing
on
similar
documents. People often have more than one
style signature depending on the document
being executed. Checks may be executed in a
more
careless
manner
than
wills
and
contracts. Do not use signatures written
while the writer was intoxicated unless the
P a g e | 79
questioned
documents
were
written
under
similar circumstances.
Some hand printing can be compared with
handwriting and vice versa. Some writers use
hand printed letters and handwritten ones
interchangeably. Most common is the use of
hand printed capital letters in place of
cursive. Other writers use the same letter
form for both hand printed and cursive
writing.
While it may be possible to make a match with
only a few exemplars, the more exemplars
available the better. Collect as many samples
of handwriting, including signatures, as
possible. It is necessary to collect enough
handwriting samples to enable the expert to
render a professional opinion. How much is
enough? Enough would be sufficient exemplars
to eliminate any other writer as the author
of a document.
35 What are the CASES IN WHICH NO EXEMPLARS ARE
NEEDED?
Answer: they are the following:
There are some cases in which no exemplars
are needed to prove spuriousness. Since no
one can write his signature exactly the same
way twice, identical signatures are generally
evidence
of
no
genuineness.
This
would
include traced forgeries, scanned signatures,
or even freehand simulations, as well as cut
and paste signatures.
Some
writers
use
signature
stamps
and
autopens as legitimate signatures making it
are necessary to determine the nature of the
signatures
before
an
opinion
of
no
genuineness is given.
Signs of forgery are indicative of no
genuineness.
Documents
that
contain
indications of tracing can be identified
without known signatures. Evidence of tracing
the signature would be a groove or guide line
along the signature line or residue of pencil
or carbon.
P a g e | 80
When a questioned signature matches the

handwriting of another writer, identification
can be made that the writing was penned by
that individual. In this case, no known
signatures of the victim are needed for
comparison.
Writing of the impaired or illiterate can be
identified as spurious if the questioned
writing exceeds the ability of the known
writer. A high skill level signature of an
impaired individual can be rejected without
comparison documents.
36
What is REQUEST WRITING?

Answer:
Request
writing
exemplars
are
handwriting samples made at the request and under
the
supervision
of
the
police,
document
examiners, or attorneys for comparison with
questioned writing.
37 What are the DOs AND DON'Ts FOR COLLECTING

EXEMPLARS AND STANDARDS?
Answer: they are:
DON'T rely on too little writing. How much is
enough?
Enough
to
show
the
range
of
handwriting characteristics of the writer.
DO obtain sufficient handwriting exemplars,
at least twenty to twenty-five signatures or
four to five pages of handwriting or hand
printing.
DON'T
rely
exclusively
on
writing
that
differs significantly from the questioned.
DO collect similar samples: hand printing
with hand printing, ink signatures with ink
signatures, lined paper with lined paper,
same size with same size.
DON'T rely on documents recently written if
the comparison documents were written many
years ago.
DO collect standards dated at approximately
the same time as the questioned.
DON'T compare writing written under abnormal
conditions (for example, when the writer was
intoxicated) with normal writing.
P a g e | 81
DO collect documents that duplicate the

writing environment: checks with checks,
contracts with contracts.
DO instruct the writer in order to obtain
similar exemplars. For example, print with
all uppercase letters.
HANDWRITING AND SIGNATURE IDENTIFICATION
A. HANDWRITING
38
How HANDWRITING is DEFINED?

Answer: Handwriting is the result of a very
complicated series of facts, being used as whole,
combination of certain forms of visible mental
and muscular habits acquired by long, continued
painstaking
effort
also
knows
as
visible
speech.
In Wignore`s Principles of judicial Proof,
handwriting is defined as a visible effect of
bodily movement which is an almost unconscious
expression of fixed muscular habits, reacting
from fixed mental impression of certain ideas
associated with script form.
39
What are the KINDS OF WRITINGS?

Answer:
Cursive- connected writing in which
letter is joined the next
Script- separated printed writing.
BLOCK- ALL CAPITAL LETTERS.
one
40 Why imitation of the style of writing by another

person becomes difficult?
Answer:
because
the
other
person
cannot
reproduce the muscular combination from the habit
of the first writer.
41 What is refers to the brains writing
where the impulse to form a letter begins?
Answer: cortex
center
P a g e | 82
42 What are the two groups of muscles involve in

Handwriting?
Answer: (1) Extensor muscles which push up the
pen to form the upward strokes, and (2) Flexor
muscles which push the pen to from the downward
strokes.
43 Generally speaking, what are the four groups of
muscles employed in writing?
Answer:
those which operate the joints of the
fingers, wrist, elbow, and shoulder.
44
What is motor coordination?

Answer: motor coordination is the delicate way in
which the various muscles used in writing work
together to procedure written form is known as
45 What are the environmental factors affecting the

handwriting?
Answer:
These include the writing instrument
itself, the writing surface and what lies beneath
it, and other variables of the writing situation.
46 What are the two categories of handwriting
characteristics?
Answer:
(1) general, or class characteristics,
and (2) individual characteristics.
47
What are the factors that can affect Handwriting?

Answer: (1) injury, (2) illness, (3) medication,
(4) drug or alcohol use, (5) stress, (6) the
writing surface, (7) the writing instrument, or
(8) attempted disguise.
TERMINOLOGIES RELATED TO HANDWRITING IDENTIFICATION

AND EXAMINATIONS
48
What is ALIGNMENT?
Answer: the relation of the writing or line of
individual letters to the baseline.
49
What is ANGULAR FORMS?
P a g e | 83
Answer: Sharp, straight strokes that are made by

stopping the pen and changing direction before
continuing.
50
What is ARCADE FORMS?

Answer: strokes that look like arches rounded on
the top and open at the bottom.
51
What is CHARACTERISTICS?
Answer: any property or mark which is commonly
called the identifying details.
52
What is COLLATION?
Answer: critical comparison on side
examination of the standard and QD.
by
side
53
What is COMPARISON?
Answer: the act of setting two or more items side
by side to weigh their identifying qualities.
54
What is DISTINGUISED WRITING?

Answer: altered writing in
identity.
55
What is DOWNSTROKE?
Answer:
The movement
writer.
of
hopes
the
pen
of
hiding
toward
the
56
What is FORM?
Answer: The way the writing looks, whether it is
copybook, elaborated, simplifier or printed
57
What is GARLAND FORMS?

Answer: A cup like connected form that is open at
the top and rounded on the bottom.
58
What is GESTALT?
Answer: The German word that means complete or
whole. A good gestalt needs nothing added or
taken away to make it look right.
59
What is GRAHOANALYSIS?
Answer: the study of handwriting based on the two
fundamental strokes, the curve and the straight
strokes.
P a g e | 84
60
What is GRAPHOMETRY?
Answer: analysis by comparison and measurement.
61
What is HANDLETTERINGAnswer:
Any disconnected style of writing in
which each letter is written separately, also
called hand printing.
62
What is LETTER SPACE?

Answer: The distance between the letters.
63
What is LINE DIRECTIONAnswer: Movement of the baseline, it may

slant-up, down or straight across the page.
be
64
What is LINE QUALLITY?

Answer: the overall character of the ink lines
from the beginning to the ending stroke: it may
be a Good Line quality or Poor Line quality.
65
What is LINE SPACE?

Answer: The amount of the space between lines.
66
What is MICROSOPIC EXAMINATION?

Answer: Any study or examination which is made
with the microscope in other to discover minute
details.
67
What is MOVEMENT?
Answer: an important element in handwriting which
embraces all the factors which are related to the
motion of the writing instrument skill, speed
freedom, hesitation, rhythm, emphasis, tremors
and the like.
68
What is NATURAL WRITING?

Answer: Any specimen of writing executed normally
without any attempt to control or alter its
identifying habits and its usual quality or
execution.
69
What is NATURAL VARIATIONAnswer: normal or usual deviation found between

repeated specimens of any individual handwriting.
P a g e | 85
70
What is PEN MPHASIS?

Answer:
The act of intermittently forcing the
pen against the paper surfaces which produces
shading out with more rigid writing points heavy
point emphasis can occur in writing without any
evidence of shading.
71
What is PEN HOLD?

Answer: - The place where the writer grasps the
barrel of the pen and the angle at which he holds
it.
72
What is PEN POSITION?

Answer: - relationship between the pen point and
the paper.
73
What is PEN PRESSURE?

Answer: the average force
contacts the paper.
74
What is PRINTSCRIPT
Answer: - A creative combination of printing and
cursive writing.
75
What is PROPORTION or RATIO

Answer: the relation between the tall and the
short letter
76
What is QUALITY
Answer: - A distinct or peculiar character. Also,
quality is used in describibg handwriting to
refer to any identifying factor that is related
to the writing movement itself.
77
What is RHYTHM?
Answer: The element of the writing movement which
is marked by regular or periodic recurrences:
maybe smooth, intermittent, or jerky in its
quality; the flourishing succession of motion
which are recorded in a written record.
78
What is SHADING?
with
which
the
pen
P a g e | 86
Answer:
widening of the ink strokes due to the
added pressure on a flexible pen point or to the
use of a stub pen.
79
What is SIMPLIFICATION?
Answer: Eliminating extra or superfluous strokes
from the copybook model.
80
What is SIZE?
Answer: the proportions between zones.
81
What is SKILL?
Answer: writers proficiency; degree, ability, or
skill of a write proficiency.
82
What is SLOPE/ SLANT?

Answer: the angle or inclination of the axis of
the letters relative to the baseline: Slant to
the left; Slant to the right; and Vertical Slant.
83
What is SYSTEM (OF WRITING)?

Answer:
The combination of the basic design of
letters and the writing movement as taught in
school make up the writing system.
84
What is THREADY FORM?

Answer: An indefinite connective form that looks
flat and wavy.
.
What is WRITING CONDITION?
Answer: circumstances under which the writing was
prepared and the factors in influencing the
writers ability to write at the time of
execution. It includes the writers position
(sitting, standing, abed, etc.), the paper
support and backing, and the writing instrument;
writing ability may be modified by the condition
of the writers health, nervous state or degree
of intoxication.
85
86
What is WRITING IMPULSE?

Answer:
The result of the pen touching down on
the paper and moving across the page, until it is
raised from the paper.
P a g e | 87
MOVEMENT IN HANDWRITING
87
What are the KINDS OF MOVEMENT?

Answer: (1) Finger Movement- The thumb, the first
and second and slightly the third fingers are in
actual motion. Most usually employed by children
and illiterates. (2) Hand Movement- produced by
the movement or action of the whole hand with the
wrist as the center of attraction; (3) Forearm
Movement- movement of the shoulder, hand and arm
with the support of the table, and, (4) Whole
Forearm Movement- action of the entire arm
without resting.
88 What
are
the
CHARACTERISTICS
OF
MOTOR
COORDINATION
Answer: (1) Free, smelt rounded curves; (2)
Gradual changes of directions; (3) Pressure is
always
in a state of change, moving from light
to heavy or from heavy to light; (4) Speed
89 What
are
the
characteristics
of
FAULTY
COORDINATION?
Answer: (1) Wavering and very irregular line or
strokes with uncertain and unsteady progress.
There is no freedom of movement along the strokes
of the letter-forms; and, (2) Angular Line, a
very common fault of coordination. Curves, large
and small are not smoothly rounded and there is
no gradual change of direction.
90
WHAT IS RHYTHM IN HANDWRITING?

ANSWER:
Rhythm is succession of connected,
uniform strokes in full coordination. This is
manifested by clear-cut accentuated strokes which
increase and decrease in which like perfect
cones.
91 What is characterized by succession of awkward,

independent,
poorly
directed
and
disconnected
motions?
Answer: LACK OF RHYTHM
92
Why rhythm is important?
P a g e | 88
Answer: important because one can determine if

the writer normally and spontaneously write with
hesitation as if he is attempting to for another
signature.
93
What is Garland?
Answer:
Links
the
downward
stroke
to
the
upstrokes with a flowing curve swinging from left
right. It is an easy, effortless mode of
connection, written with speed.
94
What is Angular connective form?

Answer: characterized by an abrupt stop and start
in each turning point.
95
What is STROKE?
Answer: Path trace by the pen on the paper.
TERMINOLOGIES CONCERNING STROKES

96
What is AIRSTROKE?
Answer: The movement of the pen as it is raised
from the paper and continues in the same
direction in the air.
97
What is COVERING STROKE?

Answer: A stroke that is
another stroke.
98
What is FINAL stoke?

Answer: The ending stroke on a letter.
99
What is UPSTROKE?
Answer: Movement of the pen away from the writer.
unnecessarily
covers
100 What is SEQUENCE OF STROKE?

Answer: The order in which writing strokes are
placed on the paper.
101 What is SUPPORTED STROKES?
Answer: Upstrokes partially covering the previous
down strokes.
P a g e | 89
102 What is TRAIT STROKE?

Answer: A school of handwriting analysis that
assigns personality trait manners to individual
writing strokes.
QUALITIES OF THE STROKES
103 What is Expansion?
Answer: whether the movement is extended or
limited in its range with respect to both
vertical and horizontal dimension.
104 What is Co-ordination?
Answer:
whether
the
flow
of
movement
is
controlled
or
uncertain,
smooth
or
jerky,
continuous or interrupted.
105 What is Speed-?
Answer: whether the movement has been rapid or
slow and whether the pace has been steady or
variable.
106 What is Pressure?
Answer: whether the pressure exerted in
movement and its upward and downward reach.
the
107 What is Direction?

Answer: Left ward and right ward trend of the
movement and its upward and downward reach.
108 What is GENERAL (CLASS) CHARACTERISTICS?
Answer: those habits are part of basic writing
system or which are modifications of the system
of writing found among so large a group of writes
that have only slight identification value.
109 What is INDIVIDUAL CHARACTERISTICS?
Answer: the result of the writer`s muscular
control, coordination, age, health, and nervous
temperament, frequency of writing, personality
and character found in writing.
110 What are the Indications
writing?
Answer: they are:
of
speed
(speedy)
P a g e | 90
Smooth, unbroken strokes and rounded forms.

Frequent signs or tendencies to the right.
Marked uncertain as to the location of the
dots of small letters I, j & crosses of
small letter t.
Increased spontaneity of words or small
letter t connected with the following
words.
Letters curtailed or degenerated almost to
illegibility towards the end of words.
Wide writing- width of letters is greater
than the connecting spaces adjoining it.
Great
difference
in
emphasis
between
upstrokes and down strokes.
Marked simplification of letters especially
capital letters.
Rising line.
Increased pen pressure.
Increase in the margin to left at the
beginning of the line.
111
What are the Indications of slow writing?

Answer: they are:
Wavering forms and broken strokes.
Frequent signs or tendencies to the left.
Conspicuous certainly as to the location of
the dots of small letters I, j, or t
crosses with scarcely perceptible deviation
from the intended direction.
Frequent pauses by meaningless blobs, angles,
divided letters and retouches.
Careful execution of detail of letters toward
the end or names.
Narrow writing.
No difference in emphasis in up stroke and
down stroke.
Ornamental or flourishing connections.
Sinking lines.
112 What
are
the
CHARACTERISTICS?
Answer: they are
CLASSIFICATION
OF
INDIVIDUAL
P a g e | 91
Permanent characteristics- found always in

his handwriting.
Common or usual- found in a group of writers
who studied the same system of writing.
Occasional- found occasionally in his
handwriting.
Rare- found only in one or two persons in a
group of one hundred individuals.
113
HOW INDIVIDUAL CHARACTERISTICS ARE ACQUIRED?

Answer: acquired by:
Outgrowth of definite teaching
Result of imitation
Accidental condition or circumstances
Expression of certain mental and physical
traits
of
the
writer
as
affected
by
education, by environment and by occupation.
114 What
are
the
PRINCIPLE
IN
HANDWRITING
IDENTIFICATION?
Answer: they are:
When
any
two
specimens
of
handwritings
contain a combination of corresponding or
similar
and
specifically
oriented
characteristics
of
such
number
and
significance as to preclude the possibility
of their occurrence by mere coincidence, and
there are no unaccounted for difference, it
may be concluded that they are similar in
writing characteristics and therefore written
by one and the same person.
Handwritings are fixed habits.
These writing habits become so automatic and
unconscious that even by the most strenuous
effort, it is almost impossible to change
them.
No
duplication
of
handwriting
by
two
individuals.
115 What are the FUNDAMENTAL LAW WHICH GOVERNS THE
CONCLUSION IN HANDWRITING IDENTIFICATION PROBLEMS?
Answer: they are
P a g e | 92
A signature/handwriting naturally and genuinely

written under normal condition contain all of the
individual habits of the writer`s signature which
are put into it in a way that is consistent with
his writing ability and the writing quality of
his signature.
A signature/handwriting is fraudulent if it
contains habits, qualities or elements which are
significantly different from genuine signatures
written under similar conditions.
B. SIGNATURE
116 What is SIGNATURE?
Answer:
is the name of a person written by
him/her
in
a
document
as
a
sign
of
acknowledgement. Or, it is a name or mark that a
person puts at the end of a document to attest
that he is its author or that he ratifies its
contests.
117 What is MODEL SIGNATURE?
Answer: A genuine signature that has been used to
prepare an imitated or traced forgery
118 Why THE EXAMINATION OF SIGNATURES IS CONSIDERED A
SPECIALIZED BRANCH OF HANDWRITING IDENTIFICATION,
FOR THE FOLLOWING REASONS?
Answer: because:
It is a word most practiced by many people
and therefore most fluently written.
It is a means to identify a person and have a
great personal significance.
It is written with a little attention to
spelling and some other details.
It is a word written with conscious thought
about the mechanics of its production and is
written automatically.
It is the only word the illiterate can write
with confidence.
119 What are the TYPES OF SIGNATURES?
Answer: they are
P a g e | 93
FORMAL (CONVENTIONAL or COPYBOOK FORM)

complete correct signature for an important
document such as will.
INFORMAL (CURSORY) usually for routine
documents and personal correspondence.
a Personalized
b Semi-personalized
CARELESS SCRIBBLE for the mail carrier,
delivery boy or the autograph collector.
120 What are the SUGGESTED STEPS IN THE EXAMINATION
OF SIGNATURE?
Answer: they are:
STEP 1- Place the questioned and the standard
signatures in the juxta-position or side-byside for simultaneous viewing of the various
elements and characteristics.
STEP 2 - The first element to be considered
is the handwriting movement or the manner of
execution (slow, deliberate, rapid, etc.).
The fundamental difference existing between a
genuine signature and an almost perfect
forgery is in the manner of execution.
STEP 3 Second elements to examine is the
quality of the line, the presence or tremors,
smooth, fluent or hesitation. Defect in line
quality is only appreciated when simultaneous
viewing is made.
STEP 4 Examine the beginning and ending
lines, they are very significant, determine
whether the appearance blunt, club-shaped,
tapered or/vanishing.
STEP 5 Design and structure of the letters.
Determine
as
to
roundness,
smoothness,
angularity and direction. Each individual has
a different concept of letter design.
STEP 6 Look for the presence of retouching
or patching.
STEP 7 Connecting strokes, slant, ratio,
size, lateral spacing.
STEP 8 Do not rely so much in the
similarity or difference of the capital
letters, for theses are the often

according to the whim of the writer.
P a g e | 94
changed
oOo
PART VI
FORENSIC MEDICINE
MEDICO-LEGAL ASPECTS
OF DEATH
1) What is Forensic Medicine?

Answer: application of medicine in the solution
of various problems in court.
2) What is medicine?
Answer: deals with the prevention and treatment
of diseases.
3) What is pathology?
Answer: study of disease affecting the body.
4) What is gynecology?
Answer: branch of medicine pertaining to disease
of woman.
5) What stage of muscular change which occurs 2-6
hrs after death and is characterized by hardening
of the muscles.
Answer: post-mortem rigidity (rigor mortis)
6) When the dead body was seen by the investigator,
there was a hardening of the muscles in the face,
what is the approximated time after his date?
Answer: two hours or less.
7) What part of the body usually starts
mortis?
Answer: muscle of the jaw and face.
rigor
P a g e | 95
8) What is the duration of rigor mortis during

summer in the Philippines?
Answer: will lasts for 36-48 hours after death
9) What is the duration of rigor mortis
tropical countries like the Philippines?
Answer: 24-48 hours.
in
the
10) What is heat stiffening?

Answer: A condition characterized by hardening of
the muscles due to coagulation of muscle protein
when the dead body is exposed to intense heat.
11) Normally, deaths temperature gradually decreases
however there is an increase of temperature due to
fast, early putrefactive and chemical changes of
the body. This is referred to as:
Answer: Post-mortem caloricity
12) What is cadaveric spasm or instantaneous rigor?
Answer: it is the instant stiffening of a certain
group of muscles which occurs immediately at the
moment of death associated with violent death due
to extremes nervous tension, fatigue and injury
to the nervous system.
13) The
complete,
continuous,
and
persistent
cessation of respiration, circulation and almost
all brain functions of an organism is referred to
as:
Answer: Somatic death
14) What are the factors that
cooling of the death body?
affect
the
rate
of
Answer: (1) Body size, (2) Death from asphyxia,

(3) Age, (4) infectious disease
15) If rigor mortis appears 2-6 hours after death,
how about cadaveric spasm?
Answer: immediately at the moment of death.
P a g e | 96
16) This refers to a fixed or permanent discoloration

when the blood clotted inside the blood vessels or
has diffused to different parts of the body.
Answer: Diffusion lividity
17) This refers to the burning of the dead body into
ashes.
Answer: Cremation
18) This voluntary contraction of muscles has a
medico-legal implication because it records the
last act of life in a person.
Answer: cadaveric spasm or instantaneous rigor
19) What is referred to when the skin of dead person,
if viewed through a strong light, an opaque will
appear due to absence of floe?
Answer: Opacity of the skin
20) A process of dissolution of tissues by the
digestive action of its enzymes and bacteria that
result of softening and liquefaction of tissues and
usually accompanied by liberation of foul-smelling
gases and change of color of the tissues
Answer: putrification
21) In temperate countries, the body, when exposed to
air, will be reduced to skeleton in:
Answer: 5-6 months.
22) A dead body when buried in a well-drained soil
and when embalmed, it will take ________ before an
adult dead body will be reduced to skeleton.
Answer: 10 years
23) What is referred to a method by placing the dead
body in the grave?
Answer: Burial
24) It is a form mummification wherein the forces of
nature such as sunlight, warm climate or hot dry
soil influences the dead body.
Answer: Natural mummification
P a g e | 97
25) What method of preserving the dead body for a

certain period of time by the removal of the body
fluid before decomposition set in.
Answer: Embalming
26) This
is
refers
to
a
lividity
when
the
discoloration is due to the blood pooled in the
most dependent areas of the body?
Answer: Hypostatic Lividity
27) It is a method of judicial death wherein a
poisonous substance is administered to the convict
to produce death?
Answer: Death by lethal injection
28) This refers to the discoloration of the body
after death when the blood tends to pool in the
blood vessels at the most dependent portion of the
body and appears 20-30 minutes after death?
Answer: Post mortem lividity (livor mortis)
29) Post mortem lividity (livor mortis) is completed
within:
Answer: 12 hours.
30) What body temperature is considered as a sign of
death?
Answer: 15 F to 20 F
31) What is the rate of growth of hair?
Answer: 0.4mm to 0.5mm per day
32) It is a disputable presumption that a person not
heard, seen or absent for ______ is dead.
Answer: 7 years
33) This refers to the raising or disinterring of the
dead body or remains from the grave.
Answer: Burial
34) The dead body is subjected to autopsy by the
physician and the findings will be presented to
court as evidence to:
P a g e | 98
Answer: Prove or disprove that a crime or foul

play had been done to the victim
35) What are the importances of Post-mortem Lividity?
Answer: (1) Sign of death, (2) Approximates the
time of death, (3) Determines the position of the
body after death, and (4) May indicate the cause
or manner of death
36) This refers to an instance wherein a person
suffering from a person hopeless incurable disease,
ailment or condition will be placed to death to
lessen his sufferings.
Answer: Euthanasia or Mercy killing
37) This refers to death which occurs unexpected and
outside of will due to misadventure.
Answer: accidental death
38) Operation is only for a living, while autopsy is
done to the:
Answer: Dead body
39) What refers to the death that occurs due to a
disease or ailment in the body?
Answer: Natural death
40) What is referred to the death due to injuries by
some forms of outside force wherein the physical
injuries inflicted is the proximate cause of death?
Answer: Violent death
41) Method of judicial death wherein the death
convict is placed in front of firing squad and a
volley of fire from the gun kill the victim.
Answer: death by musketry:
P a g e | 99
42) It is a post-mortem examination of the body after

death.
Answer: autopsy or necropsy
43) What is the purpose of autopsy or necropsy?
Answer: Determine the cause of death through the
findings in the body.
44) What is funeral?
Answer: it is the procession of the dead body
followed by the grieving relatives, friends and
other persons to the place of burial in
accordance
with
the
religion,
customs
or
traditions.
45) This refers to the sum total of all activities in
which
the
physical
integrity
and
biological
properties are maintained.
Answer: Life
46) A method of executing death penalty by placing
death convict in a closed one-way mirror
compartment and then a poisonous gas will kill the
convict inside the compartment
Answer: death by gas chamber
47) This refers to the burning of the dead body into
ashes.
Answer: Cremation
48) What is the other term of autopsy?
Answer: Necropsy
49) What is the approximate number of days of a dead
person, if the abdomen is distended with gases,
trunk blooded, hair and nails loosened from
attachment, and maggots are seen?
P a g e | 100
Answer: 3 days or 72 hours

50) When the temperature of the deads body suddenly
rises due to rapid and early putrefactive changes
or some internal changes, it is undergoing
Answer: post-mortem caloricity
51) A drop of blood which falls from a moving object
or person is elongated and the splashes are found
to be concentrated around one end of the stain. As
a general rule, the splashes and the extension of
the drop of blood indicates
Answer: Direction movement
52) What is the cause of death due to a sudden and
fatal cessation of the action of the hearth with
circulation included?
Answer: syncope
53) What is refers to a condition in which the supply
of oxygen to the blood or to the tissues has been
reduced below normal working level?
Answer: asphyxia
54) Refers to the state of unconsciousness with
insensibility of the pupil and conjunctive, and
inability to swallow, resulting from the arrest of
the function of the brain?
Answer: Coma
55) What is orthothanasia?
Answer: there is orthothanasia when an incurably
ill person is allowed to die a natural death
without the application of any operative or
treatment procedure.
56) The human body without food loses ____ of its
weight daily and a loss of 40% of the weight
results to death.
Answer: 1/24th
57) What is length of survival of a human
without food and water?
Answer: cannot survive more than 10 days.
body
P a g e | 101
58) What is the length of survival of a human body if

there is water but without food?
Answer: 50 to 60 days
MEDICO-LEGAL ASPECTS OF PHYSICAL INJURY
59) What is injury?
Answer: specific impairment of the body structure
or function caused by an outside force or agent.
60) What is wound?
Answer: wound is a break or solution in the
continuity of the skin or tissues of the body.
61) What kind of wound when inflected to the body is
immediately followed by death or is so serious that
it will endanger the life of the victim?
Answer: mortal wound
62) What are examples of mortal wounds which affect
the vital organs?
Answer: (1) brain, (2) spinal cord,(3) heart, (4)
lungs, (5) liver, (6) kidney, (7) big blood
vessels.
63) Wound which when inflicted to the body is not
immediately followed by death.
Answer: non-mortal wound.
64) What wound produced by blunt instrument?
Answer: lacerated wound
65) What wound is produced by sharp-edge instrument?
Answer: incised wound
66) What
wound
is
produced
instrument?
Answer: punctured wound
by
sharp
pointed
67) What wound is produced by a sharp-edge and sharppointed instrument?

Answer: stab wound
P a g e | 102
68) What physical injury which is found at the site

of the application of force.
Answer: coup injury
69) What physical injury is found not at the site but
opposite the site of the application of force?
Answer: Contre coup injury
70) What physical injury which is found at the site
and also opposite the site of the application of
force?
Answer: Coup contre coup injury
71) It is the physical injury which is found not at
the site or opposite the site of the application of
force but in some areas offering the least
resistance to the forced applied.
Answer: locus minoris resistencia
72) What wound which involves the outer layer of the
skin?
Answer: superficial wound
73) It is a condition of exposure to cold temperature
of certain parts of the body which produces
mechanical disruption of cell structure.
Answer: frostbite
74) An exposure to freezing temperature characterized
by cold stiffening, muscle cramps, necrosis and
gangrene of the muscles in the foot
Answer: trench foot.
75) What kind of burn if the body comes into contact
with a moving object?
Answer: friction burn
76) It is the burn which involves the superficial
layer of the skin or tissues characterized by the
redress and pain.
Answer: first degree burn (1 Burn)
77) A form of strangulation wherein the assailant
uses the arm or forearm legs or thigh in
compressing the neck of the victim.
Answer: mugging
P a g e | 103
78) It is asphyxia by suffocation wherein there is a

closure of the mouth or nose by solid objects such
as
the
hands,
pillows
or
by
hard
surface
externally.
Answer: smothering
79) It is the obstruction of the respiratory tract by
foreign bodies which may be a bolus food, blood,
false teeth or any hard material. It is usually
accidental.
Answer: choking
80) A form of traumatic crush asphyxia wherein the
victim is murdered by kneeling or sitting on the
chest and with hands, the nostrils and mouth are
closed. Afterwards, the cadaver is sold to medical
school to do scientific studies.
Answer: burking
81) It is a deprivation of food and or water which is
necessary for the maintenance of life and health.
Answer: starvation or inanition
82) Stoppage of respiration, or asphyxia due to such
stoppage.
Answer: suffocation
83) What is emphysema?
Answer: abnormal presence of air or gas in the
body tissue.
SEXUAL OFFENSE AND DEVIATION
84) What is homosexual?
Answer: a person who is sexually attracted to the
same sex.
85) What is refers to the rupture or laceration of
the hymen in woman due to sexual intercourse?
Answer: defloration
P a g e | 104
86) Refers to a condition of a woman who have not

experience sexual intercourse or whose genital
organs had not been altered by coitus.
Answer: virginity
87) What is blood?
Answer: circulating tissue of the body
88) The red color of the blood is due to the presence
of _________ in the red blood corpuscles.
Answer: hemoglobin
89) What test is used to determine whether the blood
is of human origin or not.
Answer: precipitin test
90) When the wounded body part is the heart, the
wound is ______.
Answer: mortal wounds
91) About ______ of blood is plasma and about 90% of
the plasma is water.
Answer: 65%
92) What is the normal quantity of seminal fluid in a
single ejaculation?
Answer: 1.5 to 3.5 cc
93) What is the composition of blackpowder for
firearms ammunition?
Answer: mixture of charcoal (15%), sulphur and
potassium (10%), or sodium nitrate (75%)
94) What wound is inflected when the muzzle of the
gun is held directly against the body at the time
of discharge?
Answer: Contact wound
95) What are the indications of contact wound?
Answer: (1) fabric is badly torn,(2) blackened
area surrounding the bullet hole, (3) singeing of
the fibers at the entrance, (4) presence of
partially burned powder residue around the
entrance hole
P a g e | 105
96) What is produced when the gun is held from about

2 inches to a maximum of 8 inches?
Answer: smudging
97) If the gun is held at a slightly greater distance
but within the range of the powder blast which was
estimated to be about 36 inches, what is produced?
Answer: tattooing
-oOo-

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CLARITO G.

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

Rolled impression, this is printed by rolling

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

the inner scarf will impaired, the fingerprint

15What are the different fingerprint patterns?

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

16What is arch pattern?

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

20What are the characteristics of plain whorl?

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

Answer: There are eight fingerprint

25What is pattern area?

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

32When a dot or other type of delta and the

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

Divergence. These are ridges running together

40What is primary classification?

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

classification. Right finger is the numerator

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

A ridge count of 1 to 10 in the middle

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

ridge count into Small (S) Medium (M) and Large

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

52When an impression is so scarred that neither of

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

What is meant by Specific Response?

11 What is meant by the term Subject in polygraph

Who are Polygraph Examiner/Polygraphist?

What is Polygraph Test/Examination?

What is Polygraph Chart/ Polygram?

Why a person tells a lie?

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

a 7 to 12 years - Fantastic subjects.

What are the types of emotion?

What are the different emotional responses?

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

Internal responses - Scientifically known as

What are the different systems of human body?

Who are behind the development of Cardiograph?

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

breathing patterns, and the Galvanograph,

Who are behind the development of Pneumograph?

Who are behind the development of Galvanograph?

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

electrical phenomenon was due to the activity

Who is behind the development of Polygraph?

What are the different Questioning Techniques?

25 What are the theories of Relevant-Irrelevant

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

28 What are the theories of Relevant-Irrelevant with

What is the theory of polygraph examination?

What are the CONCEPTS OF POLYGRAPH EXAMINATION?

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

Obtain additional investigative leads to the

What are the PRINCIPAL USES OF POLYGRAPH?

What are the LIMITATIONS OF POLYGRAPH?

35 What is the ACCURACY AND RELIABILITY OF THE

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

Answer: they are: