Answers

Exam Title : S 1: T 1 - POLITY & SCIENCE
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QUESTION 1.
According to the Constitution of India, the executive power of Union Government is vested in
a) The President
b) The Prime Minister
c) Council of Ministers
d) Cabinet Ministers
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (a)
The Constitution of India vests the executive power of the Union formally in the President . Article 53:
Executive power of the Union The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall
be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this
Constitution.
In reality, the President exercises these powers through the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime
Minister.
President is the head of the State. The President has wide ranging executive, legislative, judicial and
emergency powers. In a parliamentary system, these powers are in reality used by the President only on
the advice of the Council of Ministers. The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers have support of the
majority in the Lok Sabha and they are the real executive. In most of the cases, the President has to follow
the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 4 Executive
QUESTION 2.
Consider the following statements with regard to the President of India

1. the president is elected by elected MLAs and MPs only
2. the president is elected by the ordinary citizens of India
3. the election takes in accordance with the principle of territorial representation
Select the correct code
a) 1 Only
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) 1 and 2 Only
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Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
The President is elected for a period of five years. But there is no direct election by the people for the office
of President. The President is elected indirectly. This means that the president is elected not by the
ordinary citizens but by the elected MLAs and MPs. This election takes place in accordance with the
principle of proportional representation with single transferable vote.
Difference between Territorial Representation (TR) and Proportional Representation (PR)PR is based on giving representation in proportion to population, whereas TR aims at giving representation
on the basis of territories irrespective of the population of that territory. In India PR is followed in the Rajya
Sabha (upper house) and TR in the Lok Sabha (lower house) and Legislative Assemblies of the State.
QUESTION 3.
Consider the following statements

1. The only ground for impeachment of President of India is violation of the Constitution
2. The advice of the Council of Ministers is not binding on the President
3. The President can be removed by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in the
House
4. In the history of India, no President has been impeached so far
a) 1 and 4 Only
b) 2 and 4 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
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The President can be removed from office only by Parliament by following the procedure for impeachment.
This procedure requires a special majority - not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the
House (as per Article 61)
The only ground for impeachment is violation of the Constitution (Article 61).
42nd Amendment Act, 1976 made the aid and advice of Council of Ministers binding . 44th Amendment
Act, 1978 - the President can ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider its advice but, has to accept the
reconsidered advice of the Council of Ministers.
In the history of Indian Constitution, no President has been impeached so far.
To do: Go through different types of majority and instances of usage in the Indian Parliament - Absolute,
Effective, Simple, Special majority
QUESTION 4.
When the President keeps a bill pending with him without any time limit. It is referred to as
a) Absolute veto
b) Pocket veto
c) Suspensive veto
d) Qualified veto
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
When the President can just keep the bill pending with him without any time limit. This gives the President
an informal power to use the veto in a very effective manner. This is referred to as pocket veto .
Absolute veto refers to the power of the President to withhold his assent to a bill passed by the
Parliament.
Suspensive Veto , the President exercises this veto when he returns a bill for reconsideration of the
Parliament. It can be overridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority.
Qualified veto , which can be overridden by the legislature with a higher majority.
The President of India is vested with three - absolute veto, suspensive veto and
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pocket veto. There is no qualified veto in the case of Indian President ; it is possessed by the
American President.
QUESTION 5.
The Vice President of India can be removed from his office

a) By a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by a special majority and agreed to by the Rajya Sabha by a
simple majority
b) By a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha
c) By a resolution of the Parliament
d) By a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a
special majority
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
The Vice President is elected for five years. His election method is similar to that of the President, the only
difference is that members of State legislatures are not part of the electoral college. The Vice President
may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority and agreed
to by the Lok Sabha . The Vice President acts as the exofficio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and takes
over the office of the President when there is a vacancy by reasons of death, resignation, removal by
impeachment or otherwise.
QUESTION 6.
Consider the following regarding Carnivores, Herbivores and Omnivores animals

1. Carnivores have digestive enzymes in their saliva like herbivores
2. Small intestine of carnivores and omnivores are larger than herbivores
3. Herbivores and omnivores have simple stomach with one chamber
Select the correct statement/s
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) Only 2
c) 1 and 3
d) None
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Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Difference between Herbivores Carnivores and Omnivores
Diet
Herbivores only eat plant materials.
Carnivores only eat meat.
Omnivores eat both meat and plant materials.
Incisors
Herbivores have broad, flat, spade-shaped incisors.
Carnivores have short, pointed incisors.
Omnivores have short, pointed incisors.
Canines
Herbivores have dull, short or long (for defense ) canines.
Carnivores have extremely sharp, long and curved canines.
Omnivores have sharp, long and curved canines.
Chewing Capacity
Herbivores have a very high chewing capacity.
Carnivores do not chew.
Omnivores do not often chew, but may use simple crushing.
Detoxification of Vitamin A in Liver
Herbivores can detoxify vitamin A.
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Carnivores cannot detoxify vitamin A.

Omnivores cannot detoxify vitamin A.
Stomach Type
Herbivores have either simple or with multiple chambers.
Carnivores have a simple stomach with one chamber.
Omnivores have a simple stomach with one chamber.
Length of the Small Intestine
Herbivores have extremely longer intestines (10-12 times body length)
Carnivores intestines are 3-6 times of body length.
Omnivores intestines are 4-6 times of body length.
Examples
Herbivores include Giraffe, goat, cow, deer, etc.
Carnivores include lion, jaguar, tiger, hyena, leopard, etc.
Omnivores include human, bear, dog, etc.
Source: NCERT Science- 6 th (Chapter 1)
QUESTION 7.
Consider the following

1. Beets
2. Broccoli
3. Brinjal
4. Onion
Which of the above plants have two or more edible parts?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 4
c) 1, 3, and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
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Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Vegetable
Common Edible
Parts
Other Edible Parts
Beans, snap
pod with seeds
leaves
Beans, lima
seeds
pods, leaves
Beets
root
leaves
Broccoli
flower
leaves, flower stem
Carrot
root
leaves
Cauliflower
immature flower
flower stem, leaves
Celery
leaf stems
leaves, seeds
Corn, sweet
seeds
young ears, unfurled tassel,

young leaves
Cucumber
fruit with seeds
stem tips and young leaves
Eggplant
fruit with seeds
leaves edible but not flavorful
Kohlrabi
swollen stem
leaves
Okra
pods with seeds
leaves
Onions
root
young leaves
Source : NCERT Science- 6 th (Chapter 1)

QUESTION 8.
Consider the following statements.

1. They are caused by germs.
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2. They are caused due to lack of nutrients in our diet.

3. They can be passed on to another person through contact.
4. They can be prevented by taking a balanced diet.
Which pair of statements best describes a deficiency disease?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 1 and 4
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Diseases that are caused by the lack of some particular nutrient in a person's diet are called deficiency
diseases.
Source : NCERT Science - 6 th (Chapter 2)
QUESTION 9.
Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Vitamin A
Night Blindness
2. Vitamin D
Beriberi
3. Vitamin C
Scurvy
4. Vitamin B 1
Rickets

a) 1 and 2
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
QUESTION 10.
Which part of the jute plant is used for getting jute fibre?
a) Flower
b) Stem
c) Fruit
d) Leaf
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Jute is a rain-fed crop with little need for fertilizer or pesticides, in contrast to cotton's heavy requirements.
Production is concentrated mostly in India's states of Assam, Bihar, and West Bengal and Bangladesh. The
jute fibre comes from the stem and ribbon (outer skin) of the jute plant.
QUESTION 11.

1. The President allocates ranks and portfolios to the ministers
2. The ministers are given the ranks of Cabinet minister, Minister of State and Deputy Ministers based on
the seniority and political importance.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: B
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Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (b)
The Prime Minister allocates ranks and portfolios to the ministers. Depending upon the seniority and
political importance, the ministers are given the ranks of cabinet minister, minister of State or deputy
ministers.
QUESTION 12.

1. The size of the Council of Ministers is determined according to exigencies of time and requirements of
the situation
2. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (d)
Before the 91st Amendment Act (2003) , the size of the Council of Ministers was determined according to
exigencies of time and requirements of the situation. But this led to very large size of the Council of
Ministers. Besides, when no party had a clear majority, there was a temptation to win over the support of
the members of the Parliament by giving them ministerial positions as there was no restriction on the
number of the members of the Council of Ministers. This was happening in many States also. Therefore, an
amendment was made that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of
members of the House of People (or Assembly, in the case of the States).
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha . This provision means that a
Ministry which loses confidence of the Lok Sabha is obliged to resign. The principle indicates that the
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ministry is an executive committee of the Parliament and it collectively governs on behalf of the Parliament.
Collective responsibility is based on the principle of the solidarity of the cabinet . It implies that a
vote of no confidence even against a single minister leads to the resignation of the entire Council of
Ministers. It also indicates that if a minister does not agree with a policy or decision of the cabinet, he or
she must either accept the decision or resign. It is binding on all ministers to pursue or agree to a policy
for which there is collective responsibility.
The Council comes into existence only after the Prime Minister has taken the oath of office. The death or
resignation of the Prime Minister automatically brings about the dissolution of the Council of
Ministers but the demise, dismissal or resignation of a minister only creates a ministerial vacancy.
QUESTION 13.
Which of the following States have a bicameral legislature?

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Bihar
3. Jammu and Kashmir
4. Karnataka
5. Telangana
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 4 Only
c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
States (7) having bicameral legislature are - Andhra Pradesh, Telangana , Bihar, Jammu and Kashmir,
Karnataka, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh
Advantages of Bicameral Legislature:
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Countries with large size and much diversity usually prefer to have two houses of the national legislature
to give representation to all sections in the society and to give representation to all geographical regions or
parts of the country.
A bicameral legislature makes it possible to have every decision reconsidered. Every decision taken by
one house goes to the other house for its decision.
This means that every bill and policy would be discussed twice. This ensures a double check on every
matter.
Even if one house takes a decision in haste, that decision will come for discussion in the other house and
reconsideration will be possible.
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 5 Legislature
QUESTION 14.
Consider the following statements with regard to Rajya Sabha

1. It is an indirectly elected body
2. All members of the Rajya Sabha do not complete their terms at the same time
3. The Prime Minister advices the President to dissolve the Rajya Sabha and hold fresh elections after
every 6 years
a) 1 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Each of the two Houses of the Parliament has different bases of representation. The Rajya Sabha
represents the States of India. It is an indirectly elected body. Residents of the State elect members to
State Legislative Assembly. The elected members of State Legislative Assembly in turn elect the members
of Rajya Sabha . Therefore, Rajya Sabha is an indirectly elected body.
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Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of six years. They can get re-elected. All members of
the Rajya Sabha do not complete their terms at the same time. Every two years, one third members of
the Rajya Sabha complete their term and elections are held for those one third seats only. Thus, the Rajya
Sabha is never fully dissolved. Therefore, it is called the permanent House of the Parliament. The
advantage of this arrangement is that even when the Lok Sabha is dissolved and elections are yet to take
place, the meeting of the Rajya Sabha can be called and urgent business can be conducted.
The Lok Sabha can be dissolved if no party or coalition can form the government or if the Prime Minister
advices the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha and hold fresh elections.
QUESTION 15.

1. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal powers over approval of Constitutional Amendment Bill
2. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal powers in appointing President and Vice-President of
India
3. The Prime Minister appoints twelve members among those persons who have made their mark in the
fields of literature, arts, social service, science
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (a)
Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal powers in electing (and NOT appointing) President and
Vice-President of India.
Apart from the elected members, Rajya Sabha also has twelve nominated members. The President
nominates these members. These nominations are made from among those persons who have made their
mark in the fields of literature, arts, social service, science etc.
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QUESTION 16.
Consider the following statements with respect to Fiji

1. It is an archipelago in South Atlantic Ocean
2. Fiji won gold in Rugby Sevens at Rio Olympics 2016
3. Hindi is one of the official languages of Fiji
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Fiji is an archipelago in South Pacific Ocean
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Fiji won gold in Rugby Sevens at Rio Olympics 2016. The 2016 Summer Olympics marked the debut for
rugby sevens at the Summer Olympics
Official languages of Fiji Fijian, Hindi and English
Source : In news http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=149194
QUESTION 17.
Consider the following statements with respect to Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS)
1. Airport Authority of India (AAI) is the implementing agency
2. Maharashtra is going to be the first state to develop 10 airports as part of the Centres Regional
Connectivity Scheme
3. The RCS route will include under-served airports and not un-served airports
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (a)
Airport Authority of India will be the implementing Agency for the Scheme (RCS).
The RCS route would have to include un-served airports i.e. airports where there is no scheduled
commercial flight or under-served airports i.e. airports which have 7 or less scheduled commercial
flights per week. The RCS routes would cover a length between 200 to 800 km . But this criteria would not
apply to hilly areas, islands, North-east region and for helicopter operations.
The Central Government will support the RCS Scheme by levying an excise duty of only 2% on Aviation
Turbine Fuel (ATF) purchased at RCS Airports for a period of three years. The service tax will be levied at
only 10% of the taxable value of tickets for RCS seats for a period of one year. The operating Airline will be
free to enter into code sharing arrangement with domestic and international airlines.
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The State Governments will charge Vat of 1% or less on ATF at RCS Airports for a period of 10 years. It
will also provide security and fire services free of cost, besides providing electricity, water and other utility
services at concessional rates.
Central Government will subsidise 80% of the cost for revival of airports, while the states will meet the rest
under the viability gap fund (VGF). In the case of the North-eastern states, the central subsidy will be 90%.
The RCS also stipulates that the air tickets will be capped at Rs 2,500 under a one-hour flight and the VGF
will take care of the rest of the operational cost.
Besides, a Regional Connectivity Fund (RCF) will be created to subsidise the operation of the RCS.
A tripartite Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) was signed between the Ministry of Civil Aviation, the
Maharashtra government and the state-run Airports Authority of India
Source : In News
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-news-india/maharashtra-becomes-first-state-to-signs-mou-for-regional-air-lin
QUESTION 18.
Jaipur Declaration and Udaipur Declaration is concerned with which of the following?
a) BRICS
b) Resurgent Rajasthan
c) Raisina Dialogue
d) Rajasthan Tourism
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (a)
Jaipur Declaration
Women Parliamentarians from BRICS nations expressed commitment to work together in the field of
economic growth, social inclusion and environmental protection in the 'Jaipur Declaration' adopted by them.
The Declaration also called upon international financial institutions to extend support to developing and
least developed countries and help them gain easier access to new and affordable technologies as
envisaged under the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change and the Paris Agreement.
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The Declaration mentions the need to address climate change and protection of ecological system and
forest as well as food security, expeditious parliamentary approval of SDG related legislation and adequate
budgetary resources.
It also emphasises on plans for incorporating gender concerns and greater involvement of women
parliamentarians in integrating citizens in the development process.
Udaipur Declaration
BRICS nations to set up a dedicated Joint Task Force for Disaster Risk Management for regular
dialogue, exchange, mutual support and collaboration among them.
The meeting was a new milestone in collaboration and cooperation among BRICS countries in the field
of disaster management.
The roadmap for implementation of the three-year Joint Action Plan for BRICS emergency services
(2016-18) was also finalised.
Source: Jaipur Declaration in News -
http://www.business-standard.com/article/international/brics-women-parliamentarians-forum-adopts-jaipur-declaration-1
Udaipur Declaration in News - http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=149135

QUESTION 19.
Consider the following statements with respect to Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA)
1. It is a tax treaty signed between two or more countries and tax-payers in these countries can avoid being
taxed twice for the same income
2. Recently the cabinet approved a revised DTAA with Cyprus
3. DTAAs are limited to taxing of income from shipping, air transport and inheritance only
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
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Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
A DTAA is a tax treaty signed between two or more countries . Its key objective is that tax-payers in
these countries can avoid being taxed twice for the same income. A DTAA applies in cases where a
tax-payer resides in one country and earns income in another.
DTAAs can either be comprehensive to cover all sources of income or be limited to certain areas such as
taxing of income from shipping, air transport, inheritance, etc.
India has DTAAs with more than eighty countries , of which comprehensive agreements include those
with Australia, Canada, Germany, Mauritius, Singapore , UAE, the UK and US.
DTAAs are intended to make a country an attractive investment destination by providing relief on dual
taxation . Such relief is provided by exempting income earned abroad from tax in the resident country or
providing credit to the extent taxes have already been paid abroad. DTAAs also provide for concessional
rates of tax in some cases.
The Union Cabinet gave its nod for signing of revised double taxation avoidance agreement (DTAA) with
Cyprus , a popular tax haven. It has approved the removal of island nation as a non-cooperative
jurisdiction for income-tax purpose. Cyprus was the only country to have been blacklisted by India as a
non-cooperative jurisdiction, due to lack of effective exchange of information.
India and Cyprus had entered into a tax treaty in 1994, and are obliged to exchange information. On
November 1, 2013, the Finance Ministry had notified Cyprus as a non-cooperative jurisdiction following
failed discussions to secure the desired level of cooperation.
Source : In News -
http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/cabinet-okays-signing-of-revised-dtaa-with-cyprus/article9026109.ece?r
QUESTION 20.
Operation Euphrates Shield has been launched in Syria by which country?

a) United States of America
b) Russia
c) Turkey
d) Israel and Jordan
Correct Answer: C
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Explanation
Solution (c)
Source: In News
http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/turkish-tanks-roll-into-syria/article9027597.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/40-dead-as-turkish-shelling-raids-hit-syrian-civilians/article9042898.ece
QUESTION 21.
In case of a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha can

1. Approve the Bill
2. Make amendments to the Bill
3. Reject the Bill
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) 1 and 3 Only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
If it is a money bill, the Rajya Sabha can either approve the bill or suggest changes (RS cannot make
changes .. It can only Suggest changes/amend) but cannot reject it . If it takes no action within 14 days
the bill is deemed to have been passed. Amendments to the bill, suggested by Rajya Sabha , may or may
not be accepted by the Lok Sabha .
QUESTION 22.
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The Indian Constitution has ensured the independence of the judiciary through a number of measures.
Which of the following measures are found in the Indian Constitution?
1. The Legislature is not involved in the process of appointment of judges
2. The judges hold office during the pleasure of the President
3. The judiciary is financially dependent on the legislature
4. The judiciary has the power to penalise those who are found guilty of contempt of court.
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 4 Only
d) 4 Only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
The Indian Constitution has ensured the independence of the judiciary through a number of measures. The
legislature is not involved in the process of appointment of judges . Thus, it was believed that party
politics would not play a role in the process of appointments.
The judges have a fixed tenure . They hold office till reaching the age of retirement. Only in exceptional
cases, judges may be removed. But otherwise, they have security of tenure. Security of tenure ensures that
judges could function without fear or favour. The Constitution prescribes a very difficult procedure for
removal of judges. The Constitution makers believed that a difficult procedure of removal would provide
security of office to the members of judiciary.
The judiciary is not financially dependent on either the executive or legislature. The Constitution
provides that the salaries and allowances of the judges are not subjected to the approval of the legislature.
The actions and decisions of the judges are immune from personal criticisms.
The judiciary has the power to penalise those who are found guilty of contempt of court. This
authority of the court is seen as an effective protection to the judges from unfair criticism. Parliament
cannot discuss the conduct of the judges except when the proceeding to remove a judge is being carried
out. This gives the judiciary independence to adjudicate without fear of being criticised.
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Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 6 Judiciary

QUESTION 23.
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under
its
a) original jurisdiction
b) appellate jurisdiction
c) advisory jurisdiction
d) writ jurisdiction
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Original jurisdiction means cases that can be directly considered by the Supreme Court without going to
the lower courts before that. The Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court establishes it as an umpire in
all disputes regarding federal matters . In any federal country, legal disputes are bound to arise between
the Union and the States; and among the States themselves. The power to resolve such cases is entrusted
to the Supreme Court of India. It is called original jurisdiction because the Supreme Court alone has the
power to deal with such cases. Neither the High Courts nor the lower courts can deal with such cases
. In this capacity, the Supreme Court not just settles disputes but also interprets the powers of Union and
State government as laid down in the Constitution.
QUESTION 24.
Consider the following statement with regard to Indian Judiciary

1. The term judicial review is not mentioned in the Constitution
2. The Supreme Court is not bound by its own decisions and can review it anytime
3. Both Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to issue writs
Which of the above statement[s] is correct?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1, 2 and 3
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Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: C
QUESTION 25.
Which of the following subjects are not included in the State List?
a) Public Health
b) Trade and Commerce
c) Education
d) Local Government
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
QUESTION 26.
Which out of the following is the most suitable method to separate the grains from the flour?
a) Threshing
b) Sieving
c) Winnowing
d) Filtration
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
In a flour mill, impurities like husk and stones are removed from wheat before grinding it. Usually, a bagful
of wheat is poured on a slanting sieve. The sieving removes pieces of stones, stalk and husk that may still
remain with wheat after threshing and winnowing.
QUESTION 27.
Consider the following statements regarding landfill gas

1. Landfill gases are dominantly produced by evaporation of volatile organic compounds present in waste
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2. Gases are produced in landfills due to the aerobic digestion by microbes.

3. Landfill gas is mainly carbon dioxide with remainder being mostly methane.
Which of the statement/s is/are correct about Landfill gas?
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
In NCERT Science- 6 th chapter 16, there is mention about landfill. The hint of this question is taken from
there. One needs to prepare taking clue from basic books like this. Also, solid waste management is
something very common in news.
Landfill gases are the result of three processes
Evaporation of volatile organic compounds ( e.g solvents), chemical reactions between waste components
and microbial action , especially methanogenesis . The first two depend strongly on the nature of the
waste . The dominant process in most landfills is the third process whereby anaerobic bacteria
decompose organic waste to produce biogas which consists of methane and carbon dioxide together with
traces of other compounds
Landfill gas is approximately forty to sixty percent methane, with the remainder being mostly carbon
dioxide.
QUESTION 28.
Compost is a key ingredient in organic farming. Consider the following regarding composting
1. Composting can be aerobic or anaerobic
2. Composting organisms require carbon for oxidizing the oxygen in the decomposition process
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both
d) None
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Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (a)
Composting organisms require four equally important ingredients to work effectively
Carbon -for energy; the microbial oxidation of carbon produces the heat, if included at suggested levels.
High carbon materials tend to be brown and dry.
Nitrogen - to grow and reproduce more organisms to oxidize the carbon. High nitrogen materials tend to
be green (or colorful , such as fruits and vegetables) and wet.
Oxygen - for oxidizing the carbon, the decomposition process.
Water - in the right amounts to maintain activity without causing anaerobic conditions.
Please note that Carbon is a reducing agent and it will not oxidize oxygen but reduce it. Hence second
statement is wrong.
During composting, organic matter breaks down into nitrogen and carbon, and when these two are
balanced, you get compost. Too much nitrogen will make the matter rot; too much carbon makes the mix
dry and inert.
Nitrogen comes from the green waste vegetable and fruit peels, flowers, leftover food. Carbon comes
from the brown waste dry leaves that fall from trees, shredded cardboard, brown coconut shreds (not the
shell).
While composting can be aerobic or anaerobic, the simplest way to compost involves air, introduced into
the mix through vents in the composting bin and through an occasional stir.
QUESTION 29.
Consider the following

1. Honey Bee
2. Monkey
3. Lizard
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4. Humming Bird
5. Sun Birds
Which of the above are pollinators?
a) 1, 4 and 5
b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
c) 1 and 4
d) All
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (d)
All are pollinators.
Insect pollinators include bees, (honey bees, solitary species, bumblebees); pollen-wasps ; ants; a variety
of flies including bee flies and hoverflies; lepidopterans , both butterflies and moths; and flower beetles.
Vertebrates, mainly bats and birds, but also some non-bat mammals (monkeys, lemurs, possums, rodents)
and some reptiles (lizards and snakes) pollinate certain plants. Among the pollinating birds are
hummingbirds, honeyeaters and sunbirds with long beaks; they pollinate a number of deep-throated
flowers.
QUESTION 30.
Consider the following statements:

1. Shallow surface earthquakes are more destructive for humans than deep earthquakes.
2. Shallow surface earthquakes generally releases more energy than deep centered earthquakes.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: C
Explanation
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Solution (a)
Earthquakes:
An earthquake is the perceptible shaking of the surface of the Earth, resulting from the sudden release of
energy in the Earth's crust that creates seismic waves.
An earthquake occurs when energy stored inside the earth gets released with great pressure. When this
happens, earthquake waves transfer the released energy to the surface of the earth. In the process,
physical and chemical changes occur deep within the earth. The tremendous geological forces acting upon
the rocks and adjoining plates break the earths crust, thereby creating an earthquake with a sudden
forceful impact.
They can be caused due to natural phenomenon like Plate tectonics or volcanism, or due to anthropogenic
activities like mining, bombing, Reservoirs etc.
The most destructive are the ones caused due to tectonic activity.
Significance of the Depth of Earthquakes:
Earthquakes occur at depths from near the Earth's surface to about 700 km deep. Below that depth, rocks
are too hot and ductile, so they tend to bend and flow rather than break in a brittle manner. The strength of
shaking from an earthquake diminishes with increasing distance from the earthquake's source, so the
strength of shaking at the surface from an earthquake that occurs at 500km deep is considerably less than
if the same earthquake had occurred at 20 km depth.
Differences between shallow-focus earthquakes and deep-focus earth quakes:
Shallow focus earthquakes are called crustal earthquakes as they exist in the earths crustal layer. Deep
focus earthquakes are known as intra plate earthquakes, as they are triggered off by collision between
plates.
Shallow-focus earthquakes occur at depths less than 70 km, while deep-focus earthquakes occur at
greater focal depths of 300 700 km.
Shallow focus earthquakes are found within the earths outer crustal layer, while deep focus earthquakes
occur within the deeper subduction zones of the earth.
While shallow focus earthquakes are of wider spread along the earths crust, deep focus earthquakes
typically occur across great expanses and vertically as well.
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Shallow-focus earthquakes begin where the crustal plates of the earth are moving against one another.
Whereas deep-focus earthquakes begin where one tectonic plate moves under another or sub-ducts, at the
boundary of oceanic and continental plates.
Shallow focus earthquakes are of smaller magnitudes, of a range 1 to 5, while deep focus earthquakes
are of higher magnitudes, 6 to 8 or more.
Shallow focus earthquakes are best measured using the traditional Richter scale which can record minor
tremors too. However, deep focus earthquakes are best measured using the Moment Magnitude scale that
has capacity to record earthquakes of magnitudes up to 10 on the scale.
Less energy is released during a shallow focus earthquakes , while tremendous energy accumulates
during a deep focus earthquake.However , the annual total energy released from the frequent shallow
focus earthquakes exceeds that released from fewer happening deep focus earthquakes.
During shallow focus earthquakes, rocks and plates buckle, deform and fault. While in the deep focus
earthquakes, the rocks being at greater depths and extremely hot under high pressure, deform by flowing,
rather than breaking and faulting.
While shallow focus earthquakes happen frequently and at random within the earths crust, often going
unrecorded, deep focus earthquakes occur every 20 to 30 years along a given fault line.
Shallow quakes generally tend to be more damaging than deeper quakes. Seismic waves from deep
quakes have to travel farther to the surface, losing energy along the way.
Shaking is more intense from quakes that hit close to the surface like setting off a bomb directly under a
city,
Source: In News http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/difference-between-shallow-and-deep-earthquakes/article9036238.ece
QUESTION 31.
Which among the following is/are true with regard to Preamble

1. The Preamble is a source of power to legislature.
2. Its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.
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3. The Preamble can be amended

Choose the appropriate code
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of
legislature.
It is non-justiciable , that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.
The preamble has been amended only once so far. During the Emergency in India, the Indira Gandhi
government pushed through several changes in the 42 nd Constitutional Amendment Act. Through this
amendment the words "socialist" and "secular" were added between the words "Sovereign" and
"democratic" and the words "unity of the Nation" were changed to "unity and integrity of the Nation
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 9 Constitution as a living document
QUESTION 32.
The famous quote - "swaraj would mean wishes of the people as expressed through their freely chosen
representatives" was originally said bya) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Dadabhai Naoroji
c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (a)
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Much before the Constituent Assembly finally came into being, the demand for such a constituent assembly
was first echoed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad (in 1946).
Dr. Rajendra Prasad quoted Mahatma Gandhis words that " swaraj would mean wishes of the people as
expressed through their freely chosen representatives".
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 1 Constitution Why and How
QUESTION 33.
The category Right to freedom in Fundamental Rights of our Constitution consists of

1. Right to form associations/union
2. Right to reside and settle in any part of India
3. Right to manage religious affairs
4. Right to life and liberty
Choose appropriate code:
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (c)
Right to Freedom: (Article 19-22)
Protection of Right to:
freedom of speech and expression;
assemble peacefully;
form associations/unions;
move freely throughout the territory of India;
reside and settle in any part of India;
practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
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Protection in respect of conviction for offences

Right to life and personal liberty
Right to education
Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
Freedom to manage religious affairs and Right of minorities to establish educational institutions belong to
Right to Freedom of Religion and Cultural and Educational Rights category respectively.
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 2 Rights in the Indian Constitution
QUESTION 34.
List I consists of the provisions borrowed from constitutions of different countries and List II consists of the
names of different countries. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the Lists:
List I List II
A. First Past the Post 1. France
B. Lawmaking procedure 2. US
C. The idea of Residual Powers 3. Canada
D. Principles of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity 4. Irish
E. Directive Principles of State Policy 5. British
A-B-C-D-E
a) 5-2-3-1-4
b) 4-5-3-1-4
c) 5-5-3-1-4
d) 5-2-3-2-4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
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Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 1 Constitution Why and How
QUESTION 35.
Consider the following statements about Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. The Directive Principles resemble the Objective Resolutions which was moved by Nehru in 1946
2. DPSP includes Right to education
3. DPSP consists of certain rights that individuals should enjoy apart from the Fundamental Rights
Select the correct answer:
a) 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (b)
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The Directive Principles resemble the Instrument of Instructions enumerated in the Government of
India Act of 1935 .
The Directive principles are not legally enforceable this means that if a government did not implement a
particular guideline, we cannot go to the court asking the court to instruct the government to implement that
policy. Thus, these guidelines are non-justiciable i.e., parts of the Constitution that cannot be enforced
by the judiciary. Those who framed our Constitution thought that the moral force behind these guidelines
would ensure that the government would take them seriously.
The chapter on Directive Principles lists mainly three things:
1. The goals and objectives that we as a society should adopt;
2. Certain rights that individuals should enjoy apart from the Fundamental Rights; and
3. Certain policies that the government should adopt.
The governments from time to time tried to give effect to some Directive Principles of State Policy. They
passed several zamindari abolition bills, nationalised banks, enacted numerous factory laws, fixed
minimum wages, cottage and small industries were promoted and provisions for reservation for the uplift of
the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes were made. Directive Principles include the right to
education , formation of panchayati raj institutions all over the country, partial right to work under
employment guarantee programme and the mid-day meal scheme etc.
QUESTION 36.
Which of the following statements with respect to Chikungunya are correct?

1. It is transmitted by the Aedes mosquitoes
2. There is no vaccine/medicine to prevent/cure the infection
3. It attacks the nervous system and can even lead to paralysis
Select the correct code:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
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Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (d)
Chikungunya is a mosquito-borne viral infection that causes fever, rashes and arthralgia or joint pain.
It is transmitted in humans by the Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquito species. It is
non-contagious.
There is no vaccine/medicine to prevent/cure the infection.
Patients suffer from sudden fever and severe joint pain.
Name derivation: derived from the Makonde (language of the ethnic people living in southern Tanzania
and northern Mozambique) word meaning that which bends in reference to the stooped posture
developed as a result of arthritic symptoms.
Source: In News
http://indianexpress.com/article/explained/an-uneasy-buzz-understanding-the-chikungunya-scare-in-delhi/
QUESTION 37.
Consider the following statements about Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY)
1. It is under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
2. It aims to skill rural youth who are poor and provide them with jobs having regular monthly wages or
above the minimum wages
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (b)
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(DDU-GKY) aims to skill rural youth who are poor and provide them with jobs having regular monthly
wages or above the minimum wages. It is one of the cluster of initiatives of the Ministry of Rural
Development, Government of India that seeks to promote rural livelihoods. It is a part of the National Rural
Livelihood Mission (NRLM) - the Mission for poverty reduction called Aajeevika . The scheme will benefit
more than 55 million poor rural youth who are ready to be skilled by providing sustainable employment.
Source: http://ddugky.gov.in/content/about-us-0
QUESTION 38.
Recently a few banks went live with unified payments interface (UPI) apps. Consider the following
statements
1. UPI is developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
2. Bank account number and IFSC code is not required during the financial transaction through the app
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect ?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (d)
Both the statement are correct ..
Axis Bank Ltd, Union Bank of India, Federal Bank Ltd and Bank of Maharashtra on Thursday (25 August
2016) went live with National Payments Corporation of Indias (NPCIs) UPI apps on the Google Play Store.
UPI is a payment system that allows money transfer between any two bank accounts by using a
smartphone.
UPI allows a customer to pay directly from a bank account to different merchants, both online and offline,
without the hassle of typing credit card details, IFSC code, or net banking/wallet passwords.
It is safe as the customers only share a virtual address and provide no other sensitive information (Bank
Account number and IFSC Code).
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Source: In News
http://www.livemint.com/Industry/uzxn0ORTzqmUXLcoowGj9N/UPI-enabled-apps-coming-soon-to-Google-Play-Store.h
http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/what-is-unified-payment-interface/article9037034.ece
QUESTION 39.
Recently, India successfully test fired Scramjet Engine. Consider the following statements regarding it
1. Scramjet engine carry both fuel and oxidiser.
2. The scramjet engine is used only during the atmospheric phase of the rockets flight.
3. It uses hydrogen as fuel and the oxygen as the oxidiser.
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Very important to note:
In conventional rocket engines carrying fuel and oxidizer is a challenge both technically and economically.
Imagine, if one has to send rockets to distant space with supersonic speed, how long will it be active? Fuel
needs oxidisers for combustion.
And scramjet technology has abled to overcome this issue.
Scramjet engines designed by ISRO, uses hydrogen as fuel and the oxygen from the atmospheric air
(focus on atmospheric air) as the oxidiser.
Oxidiser (oxygen) will not have to be carried unlike conventional rocket engines. Scramjet will make use of
oxygen from atmospheric air.
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Source: In News http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/isro-successfully-testfires-scramjet-rocket-engine/article9042486.ece
QUESTION 40.
Consider the following statements about Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT)
1. It was proposed by India in 1996 and is now adopted by the UNGA
2. It addresses the issue of Pakistans alleged support for cross-border terrorism in South Asia
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
It is a draft proposed by India in 1996 that is yet to be adopted by the UNGA
It addresses the issue of Pakistans alleged support for cross-border terrorism in South Asia
Source : In news http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/india-plans-antiterror-drive-at-nam/article9043899.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/delhi-hopes-un-will-push-global-terror-convention/article8801696.ece
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QUESTION 41.
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State?
1. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws.
2. Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment.
3. The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
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Solution (d)
All the given statements reveal the secular character of the Indian State.
QUESTION 42.
With regard to Universal adult franchise, consider the following

1. It enhances the self-respect and prestige of the common people and opens up new hopes and vistas for
weaker sections.
2. The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act provided for Universal adult franchise.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (a)
The Indian Constitution adopts universal adult franchise as a basis of elections to the Lok Sabha and the
state legislative assemblies.
Universal adult franchise means every citizen who is not less than 18 years of age has a right to vote
without any discrimination of caste, race, religion, sex, literacy, wealth, and so on.
Universal adult franchise was adopted on the day on which the Constitution of India was adopted, that is
the 26th January 1950, the Republic Day.
The voting age was reduced to 18 years from 21 years in 1989 by the 61st Constitutional Amendment
Act of 1988.
Universal adult franchise makes democracy broad-based, enhances the self-respect and prestige of the
common people, upholds the principle of equality, enables minorities to protect their interests and opens up
new hopes and vistas for weaker sections.
Source: Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 3 Election and Representation
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The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
The term secular was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42 nd Constitutional
Amendment Act of 1976.
The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14).
The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code* (Article 44).
Other articles: Article 25, 26, 27, 28, 29 and 30.
* Uniform Civil Code refers to replacing the personal laws (based on religious scriptures and customs)
with a common set of governing rules for all citizens of India.
Article 44 of the Constitution declares that the state shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform
Civil Code throughout the territory of India.
P.S.: We added this question to introduce you about Uniform Civil Code, which is often in news recently.
(Link: Why not a Common Civil Code for all? )
Source: Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 2, 10 ; Value-add Notes; Current Affairs
QUESTION 43.
Consider the following statements in regard to local governments, which got a fillip after the 73rd and 74th
Constitution Amendment Acts:
1. Local government is enumerated in concurrent list.
2. The amendment made a provision for the mandatory creation of the Gram Sabha.
3. One third of the positions in all panchayat institutions are reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3
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Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Local government is a State subject . States are free to make their own laws on this subject.
The amendment made a provision for the mandatory creation of the Gram Sabha . The Gram Sabha
would comprise of all the adult members registered as voters in the Panchayat area. Its role and functions
are decided by State legislation.
One third of the positions in all panchayat institutions are reserved for women . Reservations for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are also provided for at all the three levels, in proportion to
their population . If the States find it necessary, they can also provide for reservations for the backward
castes (OBCs).
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 8 Local Governments
QUESTION 44.
Which among the following is not true in regard to First Past the Post (FPTP) system and Proportional
Representation (PR) system?
a) In India all key representatives, except President and Vice President are elected via FPTP system.
b) FPTP allows voters to choose between people rather than between parties.
c) PR ensures that smaller parties get representation in the legislature
d) PR encourages new parties to emerge and more women and minorities to contest for political power.
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
In India, all key representatives except President, Vice President, Members of Rajya Sabha and Members
of state legislative council are elected via FPTP system .
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Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 3 Election and Representation
QUESTION 45.
Which among the following writs is known as bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention?
a) Habeas Corpus
b) Mandamus
c) Prohibition
d) Quo-warranto
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Habeas Corpus
It is a Latin term which literally means to have the body of . It is an order issued by the court to a person
who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it.
The court then examines the cause and legality of detention. It would set the detained person free, if the
detention is found to be illegal. Thus, this writ is a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary
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detention .
QUESTION 46.
Which of the following statements about Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO) is/are
correct?
1. The Act defines a child as any person below 16 years of age
2. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) will monitor the implementation of the Act
3. An online complaint box for reporting child sexual abuse, the POCSO e-Box was launched by the
Minister for Women and Child Development
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) Only 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012
The Act defines a child as any person below eighteen years of age .
It defines different forms of sexual abuse, including penetrative and non-penetrative assault, as well as
sexual harassment and pornography, and deems a sexual assault to be aggravated under certain
circumstances, such as when the abused child is mentally ill or when the abuse is committed by a person
in a position of trust or authority vis--vis the child, like a family member, police officer, teacher, or doctor.
Under Section 44 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act and Rule 6 of POCSO
Rules, 2012, the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights , in addition to its assigned
functions, also mandated:
1. To monitor in the implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act,
2012
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2. To monitor the designation of Special Courts by State Governments

3. To monitor the appointment of Public Prosecutors by State Governments
4. To monitor the formulation of the guidelines described in section 39 of the Act by the State
Governments, for the use of non-governmental organisations, professionals and experts or persons having
knowledge of psychology, social work, physical health, mental health and child development to be
associated with the pre-trial and trial stage to assist the child, and to monitor the application of these
guidelines
5. To monitor the designing and implementation of modules for training police personnel and other
concerned persons, including officers of the Central and State Governments, for the effective discharge of
their functions under the Act
6. To monitor and support the Central Government and State Governments for the dissemination of
information relating to the provisions of the Act through media including the television, radio and print
media at regular intervals, so as to make the general public, children as well as their parents and guardians
aware of the provisions of the Act
The POCSO e-box is an easy and direct medium for reporting any case of sexual assault under Protection
of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012. It is displayed prominently in the home page of
NCPCR website where the user has to simply press a button named, POCSO e-box which will navigate to
a page with the window having a short animation movie.
QUESTION 47.

1. It is dedicated towards Lord Shiva
2. It is also a part of UNESCO World Heritage Site as Great Living Chola Temples.
3. It is popularly known as Big Temple
a) Khajuraho Temple
b) Angkor Wat Temple
c) The Konark Sun Temple
d) Brihadeeswarar Temple
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: A
Explanation
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Solution (d)
Peruvudaiyar Kovil , which is also famous as Brihadeeswarar Temple, Rajarajeswaram and
RajaRajeshwara Temple, is located at Thanjavur in Tamil Nadu state of India.
It is one Hindu temple, which they dedicate towards Lord Shiva. It is one luminous example of major
heights, which Cholas achieves within Tamil architecture .
This temple remains as Indias largest and Indian architectures one of greatest glories. It is also a part of
UNESCO World Heritage Site as Great Living Chola Temples.
This great temple is Indias one of most prized site for its architecture. It stands in middle of fortified walls
added probably in sixteenth century .
There is one temple tower, which people call as Vimana . It is 216 feet or 66 meters high. It is also one
among tallest tower in whole world in its kind. Kumbam , Chikharam or Kalasha , which is bulbous, or apex
structure on top of temple, people believe that it is made out of a single stone carving.
There is one statue of a sacred bull or Nandi at entrance of this temple measuring about thirteen feet
high and sixteen feet long. It is result of a single rock carving.
Entire structure of temple is made of granite, whose nearest source are near Tiruchchirapalli , which is
nearly 60 kms to Thanjavurs west, where temple is.
Built by Raja Raja Chola I in 1010 AD in Thanjavur , Brihadeeswarar Temple is also popular by name of
Big Temple and it turns 1000 years in 2010.
Source: In News http://www.thehindu.com/features/friday-review/dance/a-visit-to-thanjavur-quartets-house/article9031793.ece
QUESTION 48.
The Home Ministry wants the Finance Ministry to surrender its powers to monitor non-governmental
organisations (NGOs) under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA). Which of the following
statements about FEMA Act is/are correct?
1. It replaced FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulations Act), 1973 as it became incompatible after economic
reforms and pro-liberalization policies of the Government of India
2. It makes offences related to foreign exchange civil offenses
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a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA)
It was passed in 1999
It replaced FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulations Act), 1973 which had become incompatible after
economic reforms and pro-liberalization policies of the Government of India.
It makes offenses related to foreign exchange civil offenses.
It allows only the authorized people to deal with foreign security or foreign exchange.
Source: In news http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/mha-oversight-for-all-ngos/article9043107.ece
QUESTION 49.
Recently, Indonesian authorities have seized hundreds of pangolins found hidden in freezers. Consider the
following statements regarding Pangolins
1. They are Critically Endangered species
2. They are mammals
3. They are nocturnal in nature
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
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Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
All the statements are correct about Pangolins
Source: In News -
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/environment/flora-fauna/Indonesia-seizes-hundreds-of-frozen-pangolins/articles
QUESTION 50.
India is signatory with which of the following agreements with U.S.?

1. Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA)
2. Communication Interoperability and Security Memorandum Agreement (CISMOA)
3. Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA)
Select the correct code:
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Q.50) Solution (a)
India and US signed the bilateral Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) that will give
the militaries of both countries access to each others facilities for supplies and repairs.
It prohibits the US military from stationing its troops on the Indian soil. Also, India would not have to support
the US if it initiates military action against countries that maintain friendly ties with India. The agreement will
be country-specific for India and focus on providing support that will primarily include food, fuel and stores.
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CISMOA would allow the United States to supply India with its proprietary encrypted communications
equipment and systems, allowing secure peacetime and wartime communication between high-level
military leaders on both sides. CISMOA would extend this capability to Indian and U.S. military assets,
including aircraft and ships. Finally, BECA would set a framework through which the United States could
share sensitive data to aid targeting and navigation with India.
Communications and Information Security Memorandum of Agreement (CISMOA) and Basic Exchange
and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) for Geospatial Intelligence are the two pending ones.
Source: In News http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/india-us-sign-logistics-pact/article9049583.ece <o:p></o:p>
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