MCQ Bacteriology 1: Which of the following bacterial species cause Epidemic Typhus?

a. Rickettsiae prowazekii
b. Rickettsiae typhi
c. Rickettsiae tsutsugamushi
d. Rickettsiae akari
MCQ Bacteriology 2: Rocky Mountain Spotted fever is caused by;
a. Rickettsiae prowazekii
b. Coxiella burnetii
c. Rickettsiae rickettsii
d. Rickettsiae typhi
MCQ Bacteriology 3: Which of the following bacterial species can be transmitted via
aerosol?
a. Rickettsiae rickettsii
b. Rickettsiae typhi
c. Coxiella burnetii
d. Rickettsiae prowazekii
MCQ Bacteriology 4: Which of the following rickettsial disease is flea borne?
a. Rocky Mountain Spotted fever
b. Epidemic Typhus
c. Endemic Typhus
d. Scrub Typhus
MCQ Bacteriology 5: All of the following rickettsial diseases are zoonoses except the
one..
a. Rocky Mountain Spotted fever
b. Endemic Typhus
c. Scrub Typhus
d. Epidemic Typhus
MCQ Bacteriology 6: Brill-Zinsser disease is caused by
a. Rickettsiae typhi
b. Rickettsiae tsutsugamushi
c. Rickettsiae prowazekii
d. Rickettsiae rickettsii
MCQ Bacteriology7: Which of the following statement about Rickettsiae is not correct?
a. Rickettsiae are obligate intracellular bacteria
b. Weil-Felix test can be used in the diagnosis of rickettsial disease
c. All the rickettsial diseases are zoonoses
d. Rickettsiae are gram negative but stain poorly with standard Gram Stain
MCQ Bacteriology8: Which of the following rickettsial disease can to be transmitted
from person to person by the human body louse, pediculus?
a. Epidemic Typhus
b. Endemic Typhus
c. Scrub Typhus
d. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

MCQ Bacteriology 9: Ticks is an Anthropod vector responsible for the transmission of

one of the following organisms?
a. Rickettsiae prowazekii
b. Rickettsiae typhi
c. Rickettsiae tsutsugamushi
d. Rickettsiae rickettsii
MCQ Bacteriology 10: Which of the following Rickettsial disease is not transmitted to
humans by the bite of an anthropd vector?
a. Rickettsial Pox
b. Q Fever
c. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
d. Epidemic Typhus.
MCQ Bacteriology 31: A diagnosis of diphtheria is confirmed by:
A) Microscopic appearance of organisms stained with methylene blue
B) Isolation of a typical colony on Tinsdales agar
C) Isolation of typical organisms from materials such as blood, showing invasiveness
D) Detection of phage plaques in cultures of suspicious isolates
E) Demonstration of toxin production by a suspicious isolate.
MCQ Bacteriology 32: Listeria monocytogenes shows which of the following
characteristics?
A) It can grow at refrigerator temperatures (4C)
B) It is an extracellular pathogen
C) It is catalase-negative
D) It is a gram-negative coccus
E) It is strictly a human pathogen
MCQ Bacteriology 33: Which one of the following is characteristic of N.meningitidis but
not N.gonorrhoeae?
A) Ferments glucose
B) Contains a polysaccharide capsule
C) Is oxidase-positive
D) Most isolates show resistance to penicillin
E) No effective vaccines are available
MCQ Bacteriology 34: Which of the following is true of Haemophilus influenzae?
A) Invasive infections are most commonly associated with encapsulated strains
B) Most invasive infections occur in infants during the neonatal period
C) Most human infections are acquired from domestic pets
D) The organism can be readily cultured on sheep blood agar in an environment of elevated CO2
E) Older adults are rarely at risk for infection with this organism because they typically have a high
level of immunity.
MCQ Bacteriology 35: For which of the following organisms is there no known animal
reservoir?

A) Francisella tularensis
B) Pasteurella multocida
C) Bordetella pertussis
D) Brucella melitensis
E) Yersinia pestis
MCQ Bacteriology 36: A distinguishing feature of human mycoplasma species is that
they:
A) Stain well with Giemsa, but not by Gram stain
B) Contain no bacterial pepidoglycan
C) Are not immunogenic because they mimic host cell membrane components
D) Cannot be cultivated in vitro
E) Are dependent on host sources of ATP
MCQ Bacteriology 37: Which one of the following is most characteristic of Mycoplasma
pneumoniae infection?
A) Infection results in a fever of sudden onset accompanied by a productive cough
B) Infection most commonly occurs in the upper respiratory tract
C) Infection is definitively diagnosed by direct microscopic examination of sputum
D) Re-infection is rare and less severe than primary infection
E) Infection causes extensive scarring and calcification of affected lung tissue
MCQ Bacteriology 39: A massive lesion caused by spread of Staphylococcus
aureus infection
(often on the neck and upper back)
is called a:
a. Boil
b. Abscess
c. Furuncle
d.Carbuncle
e. Pustule
MCQ Bacteriology 40: Scalded skin syndrome is caused by exotoxin (exfoliatins)
produced by:
a. Streptococcus pyogens
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Propionibacterium acne
e. Demodex folliculorum
MCQ Bacteriology 41: Which of the following microorganisms causes scarlet fever?
a. Streptococcus pyogens
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Propionibacterium acne
e. Demodex folliculorum
MCQ Bacteriology 42: The pus producing skin infections (Pyoderma) can be caused by
a. Staphylococci
b. Streptococci
c. Corynebacteria

d. A combination of staphylococci, streptococci and corynebacteria

e. All of these
MCQ Bacteriology 43: Which of the following is not the characteristics of impetigo?
a. Common in children
b. Can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus
c. Can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Is highly contagious
e. Can be caused by pseudomonads
MCQ Bacteriology 44: Burn patients often develop nosocomial infection caused by:
a. Streptococcus epidermis
b. Corynebacterium spp.
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Candida albicans
e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
MCQ Bacteriology 45: The bacteria that multiply in blocked skin pores, metabolize
sebum, and can lead to the development of acne are:
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Propionibacterium spp.
c. Serratia marcescens
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
e. Acne is not caused by bacterial infection
MCQ Bacteriology 46: Bacterial conjunctivitis (inflammation of the eye conjunctiva) can
be caused by:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e. All of the above bacteria can cause conjunctivitis
MCQ Bacteriology 47: The leading cause of preventable blindness in the world is caused
by:
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Haemophilus influenzae
c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
d Staphylococcus aureus
e. Streptococcus pneumoniae
MCQ Bacteriology 48: Gas gangrene is most likely associated with infection with:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Clostridium perfringenes
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
e. Pseudomonas aeruginosaa
MCQ Bacteriology 49: Which of the following is generally not considered a potential
agent of bioterrorism and biologic warfare?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Yersinia pestis
Botulinum toxin
Streptococcus pyogenes
Burcella species
Bacillus anthracis

MCQ Bacteriology 50: Which of the following species of Pasteurella species has been
associated with infections of the female genital tract and of newborn?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Pasteurella multocida
Pasteurella pneumotropica
Pasteurella ureae
Pasteurella bettyae

MCQ Bacteriology 51: In a patient who has bubonic form of plague, all of the following
specimens are acceptable for diagnosis except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Stool culture on hektoen enteric agar

Blood culture using routine laboratory media
Culture of a lymph node aspirate on blood or MacConkey agars
Acute and Convalescent serology
Immunohistochemical staining of lymph node tissue

MCQ Bacteriology 52: An 8 year old boy was bitten by a stray cat. Two days later, the
wound was red and swollen and drained purulent fluid. Pasteurella multocida was
cultured from the wound. The drug of choice to treat this infection is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Amikacin
Erythromycin
Gentamicin
Penicillin G
Clindamycin

MCQ Bacteriology 53: All of the following statements regarding the epidemiology of
infections caused by Yersinia enterocolitica are correct except:
a)
Most human infections are caused by serotype O: 1
b)
Humans acquire the infection from ingestion of food or drinks contaminated by animals or
animal products.
c)
Person to person spread is quite common
d)
A large inoculum is required to cause infection
e)
Infection is more prevalent in persons with histocompatibility antigen HLA-B27.
MCQ Bacteriology 54: Intimate contacts of patients with suspected plague pneumonia
should receive which of the following agents as chemoprophylaxis?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Gentamicin
Cefazolin
Rifampin
Penicillin
Doxycycline

MCQ Bacteriology 55: Which of the following subspecies of Francisella tularensis is the
most virulent for humans?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Tularensis
Holarctica
Mediasiatica
novicida

MCQ Bacteriology 56: All the following statements regarding etiologic agents of
Chancroid are correct except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The organism is a small gram negative rod

The organism requires X factor but not V factor
The organism grow well on Standard Chocolate Agar
On Gram stain of lesions the organism occurs in strands
The organism is susceptible to erythromycin

MCQ Bacteriology 57: Which of the following cell components produced by Neisseria
gonorrhoeae is responsible for attachment to host cells?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Lipooligosaccharide
Pili (Fimbriae)
IgA1 protease
Outer membrane porin protein
Iron binding protein

MCQ Bacteriology 58: A 8 year old girl was playing in a slowly moving stream when she
cut her foot on a sharp object. Three days later she was brought to the emergency room
of Tribhuvan University Teaching Hospital because of pain and swelling at the site of the
wound and drainage of pus from it. The most likely cause of the infection is
a. Vibrio vulnificus
b. Escherichia coli
c. Aeromonas hydrophila
d. Proteus mirabilis
e. Salmonella typhimurium
MCQ Bacteriology 59: A 70 year old woman with severe chronic lung disease presented in the OPD
of Tribhuvan University Teaching Hospital with fever, productive cough with purulent sputum and
worsening hypoxemia. Sputum sample was collected and sent to microbiology lab. Lab reported
plenty of Polymorphonuclear leukocytes with both intracellular and extracellular gram negative

diplococci.
This organism grows well on 5% Sheep Blood Agar and Chocolate Agar. Later butyrate esterase
test was done and was found to be positive.
What is the most likely organism to be involved in this illness?
a)

Haemophilus influenzae

b)

Moraxella catarrhalis

c)

Neisseria gonorrheae

d)

Neisseria lactamica

e)

Neisseria meningitidis

MCQ Bacteriology 60: A 32 year old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant presents to the Obstetrics
clinic for prenatal care. She has a history of treatment for syphilis 7 years previously. The results of
serologic tests for syphilis are as follows:
Non treponemal test RPR: Nonreactive
Treponemal test (TP-PA) reactive
Which of the following statement is most correct?
a)

The baby is at high risk for congenital syphilis

b)

The mother needs a lumbar puncture and a VDRL test for her CSF for neurosyphilis

c)

The mother needs to be treated again for syphilis

d)

The mothers previous treatment for syphilis was effective

MCQ Bacteriology 61: A 26 year old sexually active woman presents to the OPD with purulent
vaginal discharge and dysuria. While history taking, she admitted that she had unprotected sexual
intercourse with a new partner a week ago.
Which of the following diagnostic tests will be the most sensitive method to find the etiologic
agents involved in this case?
a)

An enzyme immunoassay

b)

Bacterial culture on selective media

c)

Grams stain

d)

Molecular diagnostics methods

e)

Serology

MCQ Bacteriology 62: A 20 year old woman who reports unprotected sex with a new partner 2
weeks previously develops fever and left lower quadrant abdominal pain with onset in association
with her menstrual period. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is cultured from her endocervix. The diagnosis is
gonococcal pelvic inflammatory disease.
What is the common sequela of this infection?
a)

Cancer of the cervix

b)

Infertility

c)

Urethral stricture

d)

uterine fibriod tumors

e)

Vaginal-rectal fistula

MCQ Bacteriology 63: A 40 year old man is suffering from multiple episodes of disseminated
gonococcal infection since last few years. Cultures of his urethra and knee fluid yield Neisseria
gonorrhoeae.
What is the most likely cause for this infection?
a)

A polymorphonuclear cell chemotactic factor

b)

Absent of lymphocyte adenosine deaminase activity

c)

Deficiency of a late-acting complement component C5, C6, C7 or C8

d)

Myeloperoxidase deficiency

e)

Selective IgA deficiency

MCQ Bacteriology 64: Infection with which of the following agents can result in a false positive
nontreponemal (VDRL or RPR) test for syphilis?
a)

Borrelia burgdorferi

b)

Epstein-Barr virus

c)

Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

Varicella zoster virus

e)

All of the above

MCQ Bacteriology 65: False positive nontreponemal (VDRL or RPR) test for syphilis is a common
diagnostic problem. In which of the following conditions you can expect false positive VDRL or RPR
result?
a)

Leprosy

b)

Lupus erythematosis

c)

Malaria

d)

Measles

e)

All of the above

MCQ Bacteriology 66: A 22 year old woman presents with a 2 cm ulcer on her labia
majora. The lesion is painless and has a raised border. The differential diagnosis of this
lesion includes:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Adenovirus infection
Chlamydia trachomatis infection
Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection
Papilloma virus infection

e)

Treponema pallidum infection

MCQ Bacteriology 67: After returning from community posting from a rural village of
Nepal, a 20 year old medical student admitted to the hospital with chief complaints of
fever (39oC ) and headache. While history taking, the told that he had swimming in the
pond while being in the village where cows are also taken for bathing. Based on the
clinical examination, leptospirosis is suspected.
Which of the following test will help to confirm diagnosis?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Culture of CSF on blood and chocolate Agar

Culture of urine on Human diploid fibroblast cells
Testing acute and convalescent phase sera for antileptospiral antibodies
Testing acute and convalescent phase sera using the RPR test
Testing serum by dark-field examination for the presence of leptospires

MCQ Bacteriology 68: Which of the following animals is the source of the Leptospira
interrogans?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Cattle
Dogs
Mice
Swine
All of the above