Name

Date

Base your answers to questions 1 through 4

on the diagrams below, which represent two
different solid, uniform materials cut into
cubes A and B.

Period

4. What is the density of cube A?

1) 0.2 g/cm3
2) 5.0 g/cm 3
3) 12.8 g/cm3
4) 64.0 g/cm 3

1. What is the mass of cube B?

1) 9 g
2) 27 g
3) 3 g
4) 81 g
2. Assume cube B was broken into many
irregularly shaped pieces. Compared to
the density of the entire cube, the
density of one of the pieces would be
1) less
2) greater
3) the same
3. If air is heated, its density will
1) decrease
2) increase
3) remain the same

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5. Base your answer to the following question on the diagrams below, and your
knowledge of Earth science. The diagrams represent five substances, A through E,
at the same temperature. Some mass, volume, and density values are indicated for
each substance. Substance C is a liquid in a graduated cylinder. [Note that 1 cubic
centimeter = 1 milliliter. Objects are not drawn to scale.]

What is the volume of object D?

1) 1.0 cm 3
2) 2.0 cm 3
3) 7.0 cm3
4) 16.0 cm 3

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6. The sphere was dropped into water in a

graduated cylinder as shown below.

9. Which graph most likely illustrates a

cyclic change?
1)

2)

What is the volume of the sphere?

3)

1) 15 mL
2) 25 mL
3) 40 mL
4) 65 mL
7. The diameter through the equator of
Jupiter is about 143,000 kilometers.
What is this distance written in
scientific notation (powers of 10)?

4)

1) 143 102 km
2) 1.43 103 km
3) 1.43 10 5 km
4) 143 105 km
8. A 25-gram sample of halite was placed in
a jar with five other mineral samples and
water. The jar was shaken vigorously for
5 minutes. The halite sample was then
found to have a mass of 15 grams. What
was the rate of weathering of the halite
sample?
1) 0.50 g/min
2) 2.0 g/min
3) 3.0 g/min
4) 10. g/min

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10. Which graph shows the most probable

effect of environmental pollution on the
chances of human survival?

12. Which pie graph correctly shows the

percentage of elements by volume in
Earths troposphere?

1)

1)

2)
2)

3)
3)

4)
4)

11. The tropopause is approximately how

far above sea level?
1) 12 mi
2) 12 km
3) 60 mi
4) 60 km

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13. Which graph best represents the

percentage by volume of the elements
making up the Earth's hydrosphere?

15. The pie graph below shows the elements

comprising Earth's crust in percent by
mass.

1)

2)

3)
Which element is represented by the
letter X?
1) silicon

4)

2) lead
3) nitrogen
4) hydrogen

14. Which atmospheric temperature zone is

located between 8 and 32 miles above
Earths surface and contains an
abundance of ozone?

16. The layer of bedrock near the Earth's

surface that forms a continuous shell
around the Earth is called the
1) troposphere
2) stratosphere

1) troposphere

3) lithosphere

2) stratosphere

4) hydrosphere

3) mesosphere
4) thermosphere

17. What is the approximate altitude of

Polaris at Syracuse, New York?
1) 43
2) 47
3) 76
4) 90

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18. If an observer on Earth views Polaris on

the horizon, the observer is located at
the

21. The diagram below shows an observer

on Earth viewing the star Polaris.

1) equator (0)
2) North Pole (90 N)
3) Tropic of Cancer (23.5 N)
4) Tropic of Capricorn (23.5 S)
19. At which New York State location would
an observer measure the highest
altitude of Polaris?
1) New York City

What is the observer's latitude?

2) Slide Mountain

1) 38 N

3) Niagara Falls

2) 38 S

4) Plattsburgh

3) 52 N

20. The diagram below shows latitude

measurements every 10 degrees and
longitude measurements every 15
degrees.

4) 52 S
22. The diagram below shows an observer
measuring the altitude of Polaris.

What is the latitude of the observer?

What is the latitude and longitude of
point X?
1) 40 S 45 E

1) 20 N
2) 20 S
3) 70 N
4) 70 S

2) 50 N 45 W
3) 60 S 30 W
4) 75 N 30 E
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Base your answers to questions 23 and 24 on the topographic map below. Points X, Y,
and Z are locations on the map. Elevations are expressed in meters.

23. What is the elevation of point Z?

1) 190 m
2) 220 m
3) 240 m
4) 250 m
24. Mill River generally flows toward the
1) southeast
2) southwest
3) northeast
4) northwest

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Base your answers to questions 25 through 27 on the contour map below. Points A
through F represent locations on the map.

25. Which diagram best represents the topographic profile from location A to
location F?
1)

3)

2)

4)

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26. What is the most likely elevation of the surface of Sunfish Lake?
1) 151 m
2) 140 m
3) 55 m
4) 28 m
27. Which statement about hill C is best supported by the map?
1) Hill C is located approximately 2 km west of Cedar River.
2) The steepest slope of hill C is on the western side.
3) Hill C has been shaped by glaciers.
4) The highest possible elevation of hill C is 179 m.
28. The topographic map below shows
locations X and Y.

29. Point X is a location on the topographic

map below. Elevations are measured in
meters.

What is a possible elevation, in meters,

of point X?
1) 55
2) 57

What is the approximate gradient

between X and Y?
1) 15 ft/mi
2) 20 ft/mi
3) 30 ft/mi

3) 68
4) 70
30. Which mineral can be found in all
samples of rhyolite and andesite?
1) pyroxene

4) 60 ft/mi

2) quartz
3) biotite
4) potassium feldspar

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31. Silicate minerals contain the elements

silicon and oxygen. Which list contains
only silicate materials?
1) graphite, talc, and selenite gypsum
2) potassium feldspar, quartz, and
amphibole
3) calcite, dolomite, and pyroxene
4) biotite mica, fluorite, and garnet
32. Base your answer to the following question on the drawings of six sedimentary
rocks labeled A through F.

Which table shows the rocks correctly classified by texture?

1)

3)

2)

4)

33. Most rock gypsum is formed by the

1) heating of previously existing
foliated bedrock
2) cooling and solidification of lava
3) compaction and cementation of
shells and skeletal remains
4) chemical precipitation of minerals
from seawater

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34. The three statements below are

observations of the same rock sample:
The rock has intergrown crystals
from 2 to 3 millimeters in diameter.
The minerals in the rock are gray
feldspar, green olivine, green pyroxene,
and black amphibole.
There are no visible gas pockets in
the rock.
This rock sample is most likely
1) sandstone
2) gabbro
3) granite
4) phyllite

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Base your answers to questions 35 through

38 on the diagram below, which shows the
results of three different physical tests, A,
B, and C, that were performed on a mineral.

37. Which test was used to determine this

minerals streak?
1) Test A
2) Test B
3) Test C
4) None of the above
38. Which test was used to determine this
mineral's hardness?
1) Test A
2) Test B
3) Test C
4) None of the above
39. Which mineral is composed of Calcium
and Fluorine?
1) Amphiboles
2) Calcite

35. Which mineral was tested?

3) Hematite
4) Fluorite

1) amphibole
2) quartz
3) galena
4) graphite
36. The luster of this mineral could be
determined by
1) using an electronic balance
2) using a graduated cylinder
3) observing how light reflects from
the surface of the mineral
4) observing what happens when acid
is placed on the mineral

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40. The data table below shows the

composition of six common
rock-forming minerals.

41. Which graph best represents the

textures of granite, pegmatite, and
rhyolite?
1)

2)

The data table provides evidence that

3)

1) the same elements are found in all

minerals
2) a few elements are found in
many minerals
3) all elements are found in only a few
minerals

4)

4) all elements are found in all

minerals

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42. The diagrams below show the crystal

shapes of two minerals.

43. A student classified the rock below as

sedimentary.

Quartz and halite have different

crystal shapes primarily because

Which observation about the rock best

supports this classification?

1) light reflects from crystal

surfaces

1) The rock is composed of several

minerals.

2) energy is released during

crystallization

2) The rock has a vesicular texture.

3) of impurities that produce surface

variations

3) The rock contains fragments of

other rocks.

4) of the internal arrangement of

the atoms

4) The rock shows distorted and

stretched pebbles.
44. Which phrase best describes coal?
1) low density, mafic
2) chemical precipitate
3) organic plant remains
4) glassy texture, volcanic

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45. The flowchart below illustrates the

change from melted rock to basalt.

The solidification of the melted rock

occurred
1) slowly, resulting in fine-grained
minerals
2) slowly, resulting in coarse-grained
minerals
3) rapidly, resulting in coarse-grained
minerals
4) rapidly, resulting in fine-grained
minerals
46. Which igneous rock is dark colored,
cooled rapidly on Earth's surface, and
is composed mainly of plagioclase
feldspar, olivine, and pyroxene?
1) obsidian
2) rhyolite
3) gabbro
4) scoria

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47. Base your answer to the following question on the geologic cross section below.
Location A is within the metamorphic rock.

The metamorphic rock at location A is most likely

1) marble
2) quartzite
3) phyllite
4) slate
48. The rock shown below has a foliated
texture and contains the minerals
amphibole, quartz, and feldspar
arranged in coarse-grained bands.

49. Rocks can be classified as sedimentary,

igneous, or metamorphic based
primarily upon differences in their
1) color
2) density
3) origin
4) age

Which rock is shown?

1) slate
2) dunite
3) gneiss
4) quartzite

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50. The diagram below represents

geological processes that act
continuously on Earth to form
different rock types.

51. Which part of Earths interior is

inferred to have convection currents
that cause tectonic plates to move?
1) rigid mantle
2) asthenosphere
3) outer core
4) inner core
52. Earths outer core is best inferred to
be
1) liquid, with an average density of
approximately 4 g/cm3
2) liquid, with an average density of
approximately 11 g/cm 3
3) solid, with an average density of
approximately 4 g/cm3

Which table correctly classifies each

rock type?
1)

4) solid, with an average density of

approximately 11 g/cm3
53. Compared to Earths continental crust,
Earths oceanic crust is
1) thinner and more dense
2) thinner and less dense

2)

3) thicker and more dense

4) thicker and less dense

3)

54. The interior of Earth between a depth

of 5200 kilometers and 6300
kilometers is inferred to be composed
mostly of
1) silicon and iron
2) silicon and oxygen
3) iron and lead

4)

4) iron and nickel

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55. Which element is most abundant in

Earth's crust?
1) nitrogen

59. Many scientists infer the composition

of the Earth's core to be similar to the
composition of

2) hydrogen

1) meteorites

3) oxygen

2) Moon rocks

4) silicon

3) the mantle

56. Which combination of temperature and

pressure is inferred to occur within
Earths stiffer mantle?

4) the oceanic crust

60. The cross section below shows a
portion of Earth's crust.

1) 3500C and 0.4 million

atmospheres
2) 3500C and 2.0 million atmospheres
3) 5500C and 0.4 million atmospheres
4) 5500C and 2.0 million atmospheres
57. What happens to the density and
temperature of rock within Earths
interior as depth increases?
1) density decreases and temperature
decreases
2) density decreases and temperature
increases
3) density increases and
temperature increases
4) density increases and temperature
decreases

Which observation provides the most

direct evidence that crustal plate
collision has occurred near this region?
1) alternating layers of shale and
limestone bedrock
2) absence of an igneous intrusive
rock
3) different thicknesses of the
sedimentary layers
4) folding of the sedimentary layers

58. Earths inner core is inferred to be

solid based on the analysis of
1) seismic waves
2) crustal rocks
3) radioactive decay rates
4) magnetic pole reversals

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61. The photograph below shows deformed

rock structure found on Earth's
surface.

63. A P-wave takes 8 minutes and 20

seconds to travel from the epicenter
of an earthquake to a seismic station.
Approximately how long will an S-wave
take to travel from the epicenter of
the same earthquake to this seismic
station?
1) 6 mm 40 sec
2) 9 mm 40 sec
3) 15 mm 00 sec
4) 19 mm 00 sec

Deformed rock structure like this is

most often caused by
1) crustal plate collisions

64. How long would it take for the first S

-wave to arrive at a seismic station
4,000 kilometers away from the
epicenter of an earthquake?

2) deposition of sediments

1) 5 min 40 sec

3) extrusion of magma

2) 7 min 0 sec

4) glacial movement

3) 12 min 40 sec

62. Which statement correctly compares

seismic P-waves with seismic S-waves?
1) P -waves travel faster than S
-waves and pass through Earths
liquid zones.
2) P-waves travel faster than S
-waves and do not pass through
Earths liquid zones.
3) P-waves travel slower than S
-waves and pass through Earths
liquid zones.

4) 13 min 20 sec
65. In 8 minutes, an earthquake P-wave
travels a total distance of
1) 2,100 km
2) 4,700 km
3) 6,600 km
4) 11,300 km
66. A huge undersea earthquake off the
Alaskan coastline could produce a

4) P-waves travel slower than S

-waves and do not pass through
Earths liquid zones.

Midterm Review

1) tsunami
2) cyclone
3) hurricane
4) thunderstorm

Page 19

67. The diagram below represents three

seismograms showing the same
earthquake as it was recorded at three
different seismic stations, A, B, and C.

68. The seismogram below shows P-wave

and S-wave arrival times at a seismic
station following an earthquake.

The distance from this seismic station

to the epicenter of the earthquake is
approximately

Which statement correctly describes

the distance between the earthquake
epicenter and these seismic stations?

1) 1,600 km

1) A is closest to the epicenter, and C

is farthest from the epicenter.
2) B is closest to the epicenter, and C
is farthest from the epicenter.
3) C is closest to the epicenter,
and A is farthest from the
epicenter.

2) 3,200 km
3) 4,400 km
4) 5,600 km
69. The block diagram below shows the
boundary between two tectonic plates.

4) A is the closest to the epicenter,

and B is the farthest from the
epicenter.

Which type of plate boundary is

shown?
1) divergent
2) convergent
3) transform
4) complex

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70. Which block diagram best represents

the relative direction of plate motion
at the San Andreas Fault?

72. Active volcanoes are most abundant

along the
1) edges of tectonic plates

1)

2) eastern coastline of continents

3) 23.5 N and 23.5 S parallels of
latitude
4) equatorial ocean floor
73. Which two tectonic plates are
separated by a mid-ocean ridge?

2)

1) Indian-Australian and Eurasian

2) Indian-Australian and Pacific
3) North American and South
American

3)

4) North American and Eurasian

4)

71. At which plate boundary is one

lithospheric plate sliding under
another?
1) Nazca Plate and Antarctic Plate
2) Pacific Plate and
Indian-Australian Plate
3) Indian-Australian Plate and
Antarctic Plate
4) Nazca Plate and Pacific Plate

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74. Which diagram best represents the polarity of the magnetic field preserved in
the ocean-floor bedrock found on both sides of the Mid-Indian Ridge?

1)

3)

2)

4)

75. The model below shows the apparent

path of the Sun as seen by an observer
in New York State on the first day of
one of the four seasons.

76. The diagram below represents the

apparent path of the Sun as seen by an
observer at 65 N on March 21.

This apparent path of the Sun was

observed on the first day of

The Sun's position shown in the

diagram was observed closest to which
time of day?
1) 9 a.m.

1) spring

2) 11 a.m.

2) summer

3) 3 p.m.

3) fall

4) 6 p.m.

4) winter

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Base your answers to questions 77 and 78 on the diagram below and on your knowledge
of Earth science. The diagram represents the Moon at different positions, labeled A, B,
C, and D, in its orbit around Earth.

77. At which two Moon positions would an observer on Earth most likely experience
the highest high tides and the lowest low tides?
1) A and B
2) B and C
3) C and A
4) D and B
78. During which Moon phase could an observer on Earth see a lunar eclipse occur?
1)

3)

2)

4)

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79. The table below shows the times of

ocean high tides and low tides on a
certain date at a New York State
location.

At approximately what time on the

following day did the next high tide
occur at this location?

Base your answers to questions 80 and 81 on

the data table below and on your knowledge
of Earth Science. The data table shows some
constellations that can be seen by an
observer in New York State during different
seasons.

80. The diagram below represents a portion

of the constellation Ursa Minor is
located almost directly

1) 4:40 a.m.
2) 5:40 a.m.
3) 4:40 p.m.
4) 5:40 p.m.
Ursa Minor can be seen by an observer
in New York State during all four
seasons because Ursa Minor is located
almost directly
1) above Earth's equator
2) above Earth's North Pole
3) overhead in New York State
4) between Earth and the center of
the Milky Way

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81. Which statement best explains why some constellations are not seen during all
four seasons?
1) Earth revolves around the Sun.
2) Constellations revolve around the Sun.
3) The Moon revolves around Earth.
4) The Sun revolves around the center of the Milky Way.
82. The best evidence of Earth's rotation
is provided by the

85. This diagram of our solar system

represents a

1) shape of Earth's orbit

2) shape of the Milky Way galaxy

1) geocentric model with the Sun near

the center

3) changes in the total yearly duration

of insolation at a location on Earth

2) geocentric model with Earth near

the center

4) apparent changes in the direction

of swing of a Foucault pendulum

3) heliocentric model with the Sun

near the center

83. Which motion causes the Coriolis

effect on Earth?

4) heliocentric model with Earth near

the center

1) revolution of Earth around the Sun

2) revolution of the Moon around
Earth
3) rotation of Earth on its axis
4) rotation of the Moon on its axis
84. Which statement best describes
Earths approximate rates of rotation
and revolution?
1) Earths rotation rate is 15/hour
and its revolution rate is 1/day.
2) Earths rotation rate is 1/hour and
its revolution rate is 15/day.
3) Earths rotation rate is 24/hour
and its revolution rate is 360/day.
4) Earths rotation rate is 360/hour
and its revolution rate is 24/day.

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86. The graph below shows the varying

amount of gravitational attraction
between the Sun and an asteroidinour
solar system. Letters A, B, C, and D
indicate four positions in the asteroid's
orbit.][]

1)

2)

Which diagram best represents the

positions of the asteroid in its orbit
around the Sun? [Note: The diagrams
are not drawn to scale.]

3)

4)

Midterm Review

Page 26

87. Which graph best shows the general relationship between a planet's distance
from the Sun and the Sun's gravitational attraction to the planet?
1)

3)

2)

4)

88. Compared to the terrestrial planets,

the Jovian planets are
1) larger and less dense
2) smaller and more dense

90. Base your answer to the following

question on the diagram below. This
diagram shows a portion of the solar
system.

3) closer to the Sun and less rocky

4) farther from the Sun and more
rocky
89. Compared to the size and density of
Earth, the Moon has a
1) smaller diameter and lower
density
2) smaller diameter and higher
density
3) larger diameter and lower density
4) larger diameter and higher density

What is the average distance, in

millions of kilometers, from the Sun to
the asteroid belt?
1) 129
2) 189
3) 503
4) 85

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Base your answers to questions 91 through 95 on the diagram below and on your
knowledge of Earth science. The diagram represents Earth's revolution around the Sun.
Points A, B, C, and D represent Earth's positions in its orbit on the first day of each of
the four seasons. The major axis and the foci (the center of the Sun and the other
focus) of Earth's orbit are shown.

91. At which two positions will an observer in New York State experience
approximately 12 hours of daylight during one rotation of Earth?
1) A and B
2) A and C
3) B and C
4) B and D
92. Approximately how many days (d) does it take Earth to travel from position A to
position C?
1) 91 d
2) 182 d
3) 274 d
4) 365 d

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93. Since Earth has an elliptical orbit, the

1) distance between the Sun and Earth varies
2) distance between the Sun and the other focus varies
3) length of Earth's major axis varies
4) length of Earth's period of revolution varies
94. At positions A, B, C, and D, the north end of Earth's axis of rotation is pointing
toward
1) Betelgeuse
2) Polaris
3) the center of the Milky Way
4) the center of our solar system
95. The constellation Orion is visible at night in New York State when Earth is at
position A, but not at position C because Earth's
1) nighttime is shorter when Earth is at position A
2) period of rotation is shorter than its period of revolution
3) distance to Orion is too great for the constellation to be seen
4) nighttime side is facing toward a different portion of space
96. Fourteen billion years represents the
approximate age of

98. A blue shift of the light from a star

indicates that the star

1) Earth
2) Earth's Moon

1) will soon become a main sequence

star

3) our solar system

2) will soon become a giant star

4) the universe

3) is moving closer to Earth

97. The theory that the universe is

expanding is supported by data from
the
1) nuclear decay of radioactive
materials

4) is moving away from Earth

99. Which star is more massive than our
Sun, but has a lower surface
temperature?
1) 40 Eridani B

2) nuclear fusion of radioactive

materials

2) Sirius

3) blue shift of light from distant

galaxies

4) Barnard's Star

3) Aldebaran

4) red shift of light from distant

galaxies
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100. Energy is produced within a star's

core by the process of
1) insolation
2) conduction
3) nuclear fusion
4) radioactive decay

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Page 30

Answer Key
Midterm Review
1.

30.

59.

88.

2.

31.

60.

89.

3.

32.

61.

90.

4.

33.

62.

91.

5.

34.

63.

92.

6.

35.

64.

93.

7.

36.

65.

94.

8.

37.

66.

95.

9.

38.

67.

96.

10.

39.

68.

97.

11.

40.

69.

98.

12.

41.

70.

99.

13.

42.

71.

100.

14.

43.

72.

15.

44.

73.

16.

45.

74.

17.

46.

75.

18.

47.

76.

19.

48.

77.

20.

49.

78.

21.

50.

79.

22.

51.

80.

23.

52.

81.

24.

53.

82.

25.

54.

83.

26.

55.

84.

27.

56.

85.

28.

57.

86.

29.

58.

87.

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Page 31