Biology test

Chapters 12 -15

1) What is a genome?
A) the complete complement of an organism's genes
B) a specific sequence of polypeptides within each cell
C) a specialized polymer of four different kinds of monomers
D) a specific segment of DNA that is found within a prokaryotic chromosome
E) an ordered display of chromosomes arranged from largest to smallest
2) Asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction are different in that
A) individuals reproducing asexually transmit 100% of their genes to their progeny, whereas individuals
reproducing sexually only transmit 50%.
B) asexual reproduction produces offspring that are genetically identical to the parents, whereas sexual
reproduction gives rise to genetically distinct offspring.
C) asexual reproduction involves a single parent, whereas sexual reproduction involves two.
D) asexual reproduction only requires mitosis, whereas sexual reproduction always involves meiosis.
E) all of the above
3) What is a karyotype?
A) the set of unique physical characteristics that define an individual
B) the collection of all the mutations present within a genome
C) a unique combination of chromosomes found in a gamete
D) a system of classifying cell nuclei
E) a display of every pair of homologous chromosomes within a cell, organized according to size and shape
4) At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes photographed in the preparation of a karyotype?
A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) interphase
5) The human X and Y chromosomes are
A) both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike.
B) of approximately equal size.
C) almost entirely homologous, despite their different names.
D) called "sex chromosomes" because they determine an individual's sex.
E) all of the above

6) If the liver cells of an animal have 24 chromosomes, how many chromosomes do its sperm cells have?
A) 6
B) 12
C) 24
D) 48
E) 64

7) Which of the following is the term for a human cell that contains 22 pairs of autosomes and two X
chromosomes?
A) an unfertilized egg cell
B) a sperm cell
C) a male somatic cell
D) a female somatic cell
E) both A and D
8) In animals, meiosis results in gametes, and fertilization results in
A) spores.
B) gametophytes.
C) zygotes.
D) sporophytes.
9) In animals, somatic cells are produced by mitosis and ________ are produced by meiosis.
A) gametes
B) clones
C) zygotes
D) spores
E) diploid cells
10) All of the following are functions of meiosis in plants except
A) production of spores.
B) reduction of chromosome number by half.
C) independent assortment of chromosomes.
D) crossing over and recombination of homologous chromosomes.
E) production of identical daughter cells.
11) Which of the following terms belongs with the words synapsis, tetrads, and chiasmata?
A) haploid
B) crossing over
C) autosomes
D) prophase II
E) fertilization
12) Crossing over occurs during which phase of meiosis?
A) prophase I
B) anaphase I
C) telophase I
D) prophase II
E) metaphase II
13) Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?
A) chromosome replication
B) synapsis
C) production of daughter cells
D) alignment of tetrads at metaphase plate
E) both B and D
14) In a cell in which 2n = 6, the independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis can by itself give rise
to ________ genetically different gametes.
A) two
B) four
C) five
D) six

E) eight
15) A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is
A) a somatic cell of a male.
B) a zygote.
C) a somatic cell of a female.
D) a sperm cell.
E) an ovum.
16) How many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes can be packaged in gametes
made by an organism with a diploid number of 8 (2n = 8)?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
17) Multicellular haploid organisms
A) are typically called sporophytes.
B) produce new cells for growth by meiosis.
C) produce gametes by mitosis.
D) are found only in aquatic environments.
E) are the direct result of fertilization.
18) Pea plants were particularly well suited for use in Mendel's breeding experiments for all of the following
reasons except that
A) peas show easily observed variations in a number of characters, such as pea shape and flower color.
B) it is possible to completely control matings between different pea plants.
C) it is possible to obtain large numbers of progeny from any given cross.
D) peas have an unusually long generation time.
E) many of the observable characters that vary in pea plants are controlled by single genes.

19) A plant with purple flowers is allowed to self-pollinate. Generation after generation, it produces purple
flowers. This is an example of
A) hybridization.
B) incomplete dominance.
C) true-breeding.
D) the law of segregation.
E) polygenetics.
20) What is the difference between a monohybrid cross and a dihybrid cross?
A) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.
B) A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross produces two progeny.
C) A monohybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for a single character, whereas a dihybrid
cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters.
D) A monohybrid cross is performed only once, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed twice.
E) A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio. aracters that
vary in pea plants are controlled by single genes
21) A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and homozygous white-flowered pea plants results in
offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates
A) the blending model of genetics.
B) true-breeding.

C) dominance.
D) a dihybrid cross.
E) the mistakes made by Mendel.
22) What is genetic cross between an individual showing a dominant phenotype (but of unknown genotype)
and a homozygous recessive individual called?
A) a self-cross
B) a testcross
C) a hybrid cross
D) an F1 cross
E) a dihybrid cross
23) A 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio is characteristic of which of the following?
A) a monohybrid cross
B) a dihybrid cross
C) a trihybrid cross
D) linked genes
E) both A and D
24) P = purple, pp = white. The offspring of a cross between two heterozygous purple-flowering plants (Pp
Pp) results in
A) all purple-flowered plants.
B) purple-flowered plants and white-flowered plants.
C) two types of white-flowered plants: PP and Pp.
D) all white-flowered plants.
E) all pink-flowered plants.

25) What are Punnett squares used for?

A) predicting the result of genetic crosses between organisms of known genotypes
B) determining the DNA sequence of a given gene
C) identifying the gene locus where allelic variations are possible
D) testing for the presence of the recessive allele
E) more than one of the above
26) Skin color in a fish is inherited via a single gene with four different alleles. How many different types of
gametes would be possible in this system?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
E) 16

The questions below refer to the following terms.

A. incomplete dominance
B. multiple alleles
C. pleiotropy
D. epistasis

27) the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects

28) the ABO blood group system
29) the phenotype of the heterozygote differs from the phenotypes of both homozygotes
30) cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms
ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections
31) When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1 generation flies to each other, the F2 generation
included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the
explanation for this result?
A) The involved gene was on the X chromosome.
B) The involved gene was on the Y chromosome.
C) The involved gene was on an autosome.
D) Other male-specific factors influence eye color in flies.
E) Other female-specific factors influence eye color in flies.

32) New combinations of linked genes are due to which of the following?
A) nondisjunction
B) crossing over
C) independent assortment
D) mixing of sperm and egg
E) both A and C
33) Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because
A) males are hemizygous for the X chromosome.
B) male hormones such as testosterone often exacerbate the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
C) female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X.
D) X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females.
E) mutations on the Y chromosome often exacerbate the effects of X-linked mutations.
Use the list of chromosomal systems below to answer the following questions.

A. haploid-diploid
B. X-0
C. X-X
D. X-Y
E.

Z-W

34) What is the chromosomal system for determining sex in mammals?

35) What is the chromosomal system for sex determination in grasshoppers and certain other insects?
36) What is the chromosomal system for sex determination in birds?
37) What is the chromosomal system of sex determination in most species of ants and bees?
38) SRY is
A) a gene present on the Y chromosome that triggers male development.
B) a gene present on the X chromosome that triggers female development.
C) an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the Y chromosome.
D) an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the X chromosome.
E) required for development, and males or females lacking the gene do not survive past early childhood.
39) Most calico cats are female because
A) a male inherits only one of the two X-linked genes controlling hair color.
B) the males die during embryonic development.
C) the Y chromosome has a gene blocking orange coloration.
D) only females can have Barr bodies.
E) multiple crossovers on the Y chromosome prevent orange pigment production.

Refer to the following information to answer the questions below.

An achondroplastic male dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The
man's father was six-feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Achondroplastic
dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive.
40) How many of their daughters might be expected to be color-blind dwarfs?
A) all
B) none
C) half
D) one out of four
E) three out of four
41) How many of their sons would be color-blind and of normal height?
A) all
B) none
C) half
D) one out of four
E) three out of four
42) Which of these syndromes afflicts mostly males?
A) Turner syndrome
B) Down syndrome
C) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
D) cri du chat syndrome
E) chronic myelogenous leukemia
43) What do all human males inherit from their mother?
A) mitochondrial DNA
B) an X chromosome
C) the SRY gene
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C

44) The centromere is a region in which

A) chromatids are attached to one another.
B) metaphase chromosomes become aligned.
C) chromosomes are grouped during telophase.
D) the nucleus is located prior to mitosis.
E) new spindle microtubules form.
45) What is a chromatid?
A) a chromosome in G1 of the cell cycle
B) a replicated chromosome
C) a chromosome found outside the nucleus
D) a special region that holds two centromeres together
E) another name for the chromosomes found in genetics
46) If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80

The questions below refer to the following terms .

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

telophase
anaphase
prometaphase
metaphase
prophase

47) Two centrosomes are arranged at opposite poles of the cell.

48) Centrioles begin to move apart in animal cells.
49) This is the longest of the mitotic stages.
50) Centromeres uncouple, sister chromatids are separated, and the two new chromosomes move to opposite
poles of the cell.
51) If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of
the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?
A) anaphase
B) prophase
C) telophase
D) metaphase
E) interphase
52) A cell containing 92 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would, at its completion, produce two nuclei
containing how many chromosomes?
A) 12
B) 16
C) 23
D) 46

E) 92
53) All of the following occur during prophase of mitosis in animal cells except
A) the centrioles move toward opposite poles.
B) the nucleolus can no longer be seen.
C) the nuclear envelope disappears.
D) chromosomes are duplicated.
E) the spindle is organized.

54) If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell
following cytokinesis?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80
55) Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell completed mitosis but not cytokinesis, the
result would be a cell with
A) a single large nucleus.
B) high concentrations of actin and myosin.
C) two abnormally small nuclei.
D) two nuclei.
E) two nuclei but with half the amount of DNA.
56) Chromosomes first become visible during ________ of mitosis.
A) prometaphase
B) telophase
C) prophase
D) metaphase
E) anaphase
57) The correct sequence of steps in the M phase of the cell cycle is
A) prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.
B) prophase, metaphase, prometaphase, anaphase, telophase.
C) prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis.
D) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis.
E) cytokinesis, telophase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase
58) The somatic cells derived from a single-celled zygote divide by which process?
A) meiosis
B) mitosis
C) replication
D) cytokinesis alone
E) binary fission
59) If mammalian cells receive a go-ahead signal at the G1 checkpoint, they will
A) move directly into telophase.
B) complete the cycle and divide.
C) exit the cycle and switch to a nondividing state.
D) show a drop in MPF concentration.

E) complete cytokinesis and form new cell walls.

60) Cells that are in a nondividing state are in which phase?
A) G0
B) G2
C) G1
D) S
E) M