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SBI PO 2015 - Prelims (Tier I) Mock Test

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SBI Clerk Prelims

Mock Paper - II
This Mock Test consists of 100 questions which are spread across 3 sections English Language, Numerical
Ability and Reasoning Ability. The mock test carries 100 marks and of one hour duration. There is negative
marking of 1/4 marks for each wrong answer.
Pattern of the Mock Test
Name of the Test
1. English Language
2. Numerical Ability
3. Reasoning Ability
Total

Maximum Questions
30
35
35
100

Maximum Marks
30
35
35
100

Duration
Composite Time of 60
minutes (1 hour)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Qs. 1 10): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the given questions. Certain
words/phrases are given in bold to help you to locate them
while answering some of the questions.
The terrorist attacks in Paris on Friday, along with twin
bombings in Beirut on the day before and the downing of a
Russian jetliner over the Sinai Peninsula on Oct. 31, show a
new phase in the Islamic States war against the West, a
readiness to strike far beyond areas it controls in Iraq,
Syria, and increasingly, Libya.
The challenge for threatened countries is huge. The sort of
attacks the Islamic State, or ISIS, has launched are hard to
anticipate or prevent, yet in Europe each one intensifies
the raucous xenophobia of far-right nationalists ever
ready to demonize Muslim citizens, immigrants and
refugees, and shut down Europes open internal borders.
The Islamic State must be crushed, but that requires
patience, determination and the coordination of strategies
and goals that has been sorely lacking among countries
involved in the war on ISIS, especially the United States
and Russia.
President Franois Hollande of France defiantly declared
the attacks in Paris an act of war and vowed a pitiless
response. On Sunday, French warplanes bombarded
Raqqa, the Syrian city that is an ISIS stronghold. Mr.
Hollande is expected to offer other proposals when he
addresses the French Parliament at a special session in

Versailles on Monday. France already has some of Europes

most intensive antiterrorist policing; adopting draconian
measures of the sort demanded by far-right nationalists
like Marine Le Pen of the National Front can only further
alienate Frances Muslim population of five million,
without offering any assurance against more attacks.
The discovery of a Syrian passport near one of the
attackers, which matched one used by an asylum-seeker
who had entered Europe through Greece, was bound to
intensify anti-refugee sentiments and calls to close
Europes open internal borders. There is no proof that the
owner of the passport was one of the gunmen. And even if
one of the attackers had entered Europe in the guise of a
refugee, the first gunman to be conclusively identified,
Omar Ismail Mostefai, was not a refugee, but a French
citizen born and raised in a town just south of Paris.
Pouring fuel on the passions swirling around refugees and
Muslims in Europe was no doubt a major goal behind the
ISIS attack. The choice of the neighbourhoods where most
attacks occurred, an ethnically diverse area in eastern
Paris increasingly populated by young professionals,
seemed designed to send the message that tolerance would
be no protection against what ISIS described in a
communiqu as the coming storm.
France must take measures to protect its citizens, as must
the United States, Russia and all the other countries
Western and Middle Eastern threatened by the Islamic
States murderous dream of a new caliphate. At the same

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time, its clear that the prevention of further ISIS attacks

will require threatened states to find a way to end the
Syrian civil war, which has made it possible for this
terrorist group to gain wealth, territory and power. That
means closely coordinating action among countries
already engaged in the fight most notably the United
States and Russia and it means persuading more
European and Middle Eastern nations to join in the
mission.
Until the latest spate of ISIS attacks, Americas focus on
that terrorist organization as the primary enemy had not
been fully shared by Russia, which has used its military
actions more to defend its ally, President Bashar al-Assad
of Syria. But there have been several promising moves of
late toward greater cooperation.
At a meeting in Vienna on Saturday, representatives of
more than a dozen countries with an urgent interest in
ending the Syrian war, including Secretary of State John
Kerry and Foreign Minister Sergey Lavrov of Russia,
agreed on a tentative plan for a phased transition to an
interim government and elections in Syria. And at the
Group of 20 summit meeting underway in Turkey, Syria
and ISIS have been a topic of urgent discussion, as they
presumably were when President Obama met separately
with President Vladimir Putin of Russia.
The attacks in Paris sent a major shockwave around the
world, and the Beirut bombings and the downing of the
Russian civilian jetliner were every bit as horrific. ISIS has
demonstrated that there is no limit to its reach, and no
nation is really safe until they all come together to defeat
this scourge.
1. What according to the passage are the challenges
European nationalists after the Paris attacks?
(1) To anticipate the attacks by Muslim states on the
threatened countries.
(2) To pacify and recover the mental and physical as
well as economic losses of the victims.
(3) To crush the Islamic States spreading terrorism.
(4) Both A and C
(5) None of the above.
2. Why is it difficult to destroy the Islamic states for the
countries involved in the war against ISIS?
(1) Lack of patience, determination and the
coordination of strategies and goals among Russia and
America.
(2) America is not the one fighting against ISIS rather it
is the originator of such terror groups.
(3) Unstable economy of Russia.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

(4) All of the above.

(5) None of the above.
What do the European nationalists see as the solution
of the terror attacks?
(1) Relocation of Muslim citizens from France.
(2) Preventing refugees from entering into European
borders.
(3) Killing of all the Muslim citizens residing in Europe.
(4) Only A and B.
(5) None of the above.
What will be required for prevention of further ISIS
attacks?
(1) Finding a way to end the Syrian civil war.
(2) Coordinating action among countries already
engaged in the war.
(3) Persuading more European and Middle Eastern
nations to join hands to end terrorism.
(4) All of the above.
(5) None of the above.
What according to the passage could be inferred from
the attacks that took place in Paris?
(1) ISIS has no limits when its reach is concerned and
all the countries must unite to end its terror.
(2) Such attacks are an easy way to show their
presence in the world.
(3) ISIS wants to show itself as the most powerful
organisation by victimising the helpless citizens.
(4) All of the above.
(5) None of the above.
Which among the following words express the SAME
meaning of the word raucous as used in the passage
above?
(1) calm
(2) enthusiastic
(3) harsh
(4) restrained
(4) subdued
Which among the following words express the SAME
meaning of the word alienate as used in the passage
above?
(1) disarm
(2) estrange
(3) agree
(4) aid
(5) defend
Which among the following words express the SAME
meaning of the word persuading as used in the
passage above?
(1) allure
(2) hinder
(3) deter
(4) threaten
(5) Blame

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9. Which among the following words express the

meaning OPPOSITE to the word diverse as used in
the passage above?
(1) assorted
(2) alike
(3) contrary
(4) discrete
(5) uniform
10. Which among the following words express the
meaning OPPOSITE to the word ally as used in the
passage above?
(1) accessory
(2) friend
(3) abettor
(4) antagonist
(5) insider
Directions (Q. 11-15): In the following passage there are
blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers
are printed below the pas-sage and against each, five
words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Scientists and top officials from the National Oceanic
and Atmospheric Administration have agreed to start
interviews akin to depositions this week with House
investigators, who are __11__ to know their internal
deliberations on a ground-breaking climate change study.
But the interviews may not be enough to __12__ the
chairman of the House science committee, a global
warming sceptic who last week __13__ up the pressure on
the Commerce Department to comply with his subpoena
for e-mails that NOAA has refused to turn over. Chairman
Lamar Smith (R-Tex.) wants thousands of e-mails among
scientists and NOAAs staff of political __14__ that he thinks
will show that the researchers had something to hide when
they refuted claims that global warming had paused or
__15__ over the past decade.
11. (1) acknowledging
(3) processing
(5) panting
12. (1) placate
(3) agitation
(5) upsetting
13. (1) rest
(3) reframed
(5) stood
14. (1) appeals
(3) appointees
(5) grounds

(2) demanding
(4) noticing
(2) align
(4) rides
(2) tamed
(4) stepped
(2) means
(4) nature

15. (1) fast

(2) quick
(4) rapid
(5) clean
(5) slowed
Directions (Qs.16 - 20): Rearrange the following six
sentences (A), (B), (C), (13), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph: then answer
the questions given below them.
(A) Indias IT sector and tech workers, who cornered about
70% of H-1B visas last year, are particularly invested in
this debate.
(B) Two bills with conflicting aims, one which aims to
restrict visas while the other wants to enhance the
numbers, represent the dangers of a lurch towards
protectionism against the opportunities offered by a freer
trade regime.
(C) Instead, there have been reports of how outsourcing
companies circumvent federal rules by paying their
employees $60,000 a year, or just above that enough to
evade the declaration that no Americans would be
displaced, and yet lower than what comparably skilled
Americans command in the market.
(D) In an election year in the US, the debate has predictably
swung between job loss and the productivity gains of
employing the most skilled and competitive foreigners.
(E) The H-1B, they argue, was meant to fill gaps in
specialised areas for which qualified Americans could not
be found.
(F) Senators Chuck Grassley and Dick Durbin have moved a
new bill with bipartisan support, to tighten the use of the
visa.
16. . Which of the following will be the Fourth sentence?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) F
(4) D
(5) E
17. Which of the following will be the First sentence?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
18. Which of the following will be the Last sentence?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) F
(4) A
(5) C
19. Which of the following will be the Third sentence?
(1) A
(2) F
(3) B
(4) C
(5) D
20. Which of the following will be the Second sentence?
(1) A
(2) F
(3) B
(4) C
(5) D

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Directions (Q. 21-25): Read each sentence to find out

whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if
any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number
of the part with error as your answer. If there is no error,
mark (5).
21. If you have made a mistake / while filling up the form /
you should be informed / the Income Tax department
immediately. / No error
(1) If you have made a mistake
(2) while filling up the form
(3) you should be informed
(4) the Income Tax department immediately.
(5) No error
22. Reading newspapers will / help you / in understand
banking / and business concepts. / No error
(1) Reading newspapers will
(2) help you
(3) in understand banking
(4) and business concepts.
(5) No error
23. Government departments should / share information
with / one another so that / they records are up-to
date. / No error
(1) Government departments should
(2) share information with
(3) one another so that
(4) they records are up-to date.
(5) No error
24. The bank will decide / unless Ashok is / eligible for a
loan / based on his monthly salary. / No error.
(1) The bank will decide
(2) unless Ashok is
(3) eligible for a loan
(4) based on his monthly salary.
(5) No error
25. The power supplying in / many states has been / badly
affected because / of the shortage of coal. / No error
(1) The power supplying in
(2) many states has been
(3) badly affected because
(4) of the shortage of coal.
(5) No error

Directions (Q. 26-30): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and

4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in
the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically
correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and No correction
is required, mark 5) as the answer.
26. Because of its accuracy in outlining the Earths
subsurface, the seismic-reflection method remains
more important tool in the search for petroleum
reserves.
(1) the most important tool
(2) a important tool
(3) the more important tool
(4) mostly important tool
(5) No correction required
27. Modern archaeological finds can still contribute most
to the study of ancient literature.
(1) mostly to study of
(2) merely to the study of
(3) much to the study of
(4) more in the study of
(5) No correction required
28. The economic leaders will thus be mainly agents of
change.
(1) will thus be main
(2) would thus be mainly
(3) will so be main
(4) would have been mainly
(5) No correction required
29. Tourism surely has suffered given the huge social
unrest in the country.
1) giving the huge
2) because to
3) as the huge
4) taken the huge
5) No correction required
30. Combining the ongoing crisis in Europe, the data does
make a case for a pause in rate hike.
1) Together
2) Apart with
3) Combined with
4) Combination of
5) No correction required

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NUMERICAL ABILITY
Directions (31-35): What should come in place of the
questions mark (?) in the following questions?
31. 8.5 (80 1.52.5) 4 =?
(1) 637.5
(2) 620.5
(3) 544.22
(4) 647.5
(5) None of these
32. 23% of 2500 22% of 500 = 930 ?
(1) 2.5
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 1.5
(5) None of these
33. 5312.15 1318.82 2321.43 = ?
(1) 1681.9
(2) 1571.9
(3) 2671.7
(4) 1671.9
(5) None of these
34. (333.33 + 33.33 + 3333.34) 50 = ?
(1) 74
(2) 78
(3) 82
(4) 84
(5) None of these
35. 3% of 3500 + 5% of 700 = ?% of 1400
(1) 12%
(2) 15%
(3) 10%
(4) 8%
(5) None of these
Directions (36-40): What approximate value should
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
question? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the
exact value.)
36. 16.003 27.998 209.010 = ?
(1) 150
(2) 200
(3) 75
(4) 240
(5) 110
37. 840.0003 23.999 + 10.99 x 5 = ?
(1) 74
(2) 85
(3) 90
(4) 18
(5) 98
38. (6885.009 419.999 94.989) 5 = ?
(1) 1160
(2) 1250
(3) 1274
(4) 1360
(5) 1100
2
2
39. (6.5) + (8.5) +(9.5)2 = ?
(1) 225
(2) 190
(3) 205
(4) 160
(5) 215
40. 11111 111 11 = ?
(1) 9
(2) 20
(3) 5
(4) 2
(5) 25
Directions (41-45): What should come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following number series?
41. 2 16 112 672 3360 13440 ?
(1) 3430
(2) 3340
(3) 40320
(4) 43240
(5) None of these
42. 4 9 19 ? 79 159 319
(1) 59
(2) 39
(3) 49
(4) 29
(5) None of these

43. 4000 2000 1000 500 250 125 ?

(1) 80
(2) 65
(3) 62.5
(4) 83.5
(5) None of these
44. 588 563 540 519 ? 483 468
(1) 500
(2) 496
(3) 494
(4) 490
(5) None of these
45. 122 ? 82 65 50 37 26
(1) 92
(2) 114
(3) 98
(4) 101
(5) None of these
46. Mukesh sold an item for Rs 8,400/- and incurred a loss
of 25%. At what price should he have sold the item to
have gained a profit of 40%?
(1) Rs 15,680/(2) Rs 16,220/(3) Rs 14,540/(4) cannot be determined
(5) None of these
47. What should be the simple interest accrued in 4 years
on a principle of Rs 16,500/- @ 16 p.c.p.a.?
(1) Rs 11,560/(2) Rs 10,250/(3) Rs 10,560/(4) Rs 9,980/(5) None of these
48. A truck covers a distance of 360 kms in 8 hrs. A car
covers the same distance in 6 hrs. What is the
respective ratio between the speed of the truck and the
car?
(1) 3 : 5
(2) 3 : 4
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 4 : 5
(5) None of these
49. In order to pass in an exam a student is required to get
975 marks out of the aggregate marks. Rahul got 870
marks and was declared failed by 7 percent. What are
the maximum aggregate marks a student can get in the
examination?
(1) 1500
(2) 1000
(3) 1200
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
50. At present Kavita is twice Sona age. Eight years hence,
the respective ratio between Kavitas and Sona ages
than will be 22 : 13. What is Kavitas present age?
(1) 26 years
(2) 18 years
(3) 42 years
(4) 36 years
(5) None of these

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(1) Rs 27,700/(2) Rs 25,600/(3) Rs 21,250/(4) Rs 29,000/(5) Rs 27200/

54. A can do a piece of work in 20 days and B can do it in
10 days. They started together, but after 5 days A
leaves off. B will do the rest work in
(1) 2 day
(2)2 days
(3) 2 days

51. On childrens day sweets were to be equally

distributed amongst 200 children. But on that
particular day 40 children remained absent; hence
each child got 2 sweets extra. How many sweets were
distributed?
(1) 3000
(2) 1500
(3) 2000
(4) 1600
(5) cannot be determined
52. The area of a rectangle is equal to the area of a circle
with circumference equal to 220 meters. What is the
length of the rectangle if its breadth is 50 metres?
(1) 56 metres
(2) 83 metres (3) 77 meters
(4) 69 meters
(5) None of these
53. Prashant incurred a loss of 75 percent on selling an
article for Rs 6,800/- what was the cost price of the
article?

(4)3 days
(5) None of these
55. A card is drawn from a pack of playing cards, what is
the probability of getting either a black or a black
queen?
(1) 4/13
(2)7/13
(3)1/13
(4) 1/26
(5) None of these

Directions (56-60): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow.
A team of 5 players Akash, Venki, Chandu, Dilabar and Kabir participated in a cricket tournament and played four
games (1 to 4).

The Following table gives partial information about their individual scores and the total runs scored by the team in each
match as well as the Total runs scored by a particular player in all the matches.

Runs
scored by
players

Players
Akash
Venki
Chandu
Dilabar
Kabir
Total

Game-1

Game-2

Game-3
70
62
58
280

250

60
65
55
310

56. What is the difference between the runs scored by

Akash in first three games and kabir in last three
games?
(1) 130
(2) 145
(3) 140
(4) 135
(5) None of these
57. What is the ratio between dilabars average score in
all the games and chandus average score in all the
games?
(1) 8:7
(2) 24:25
(3) 20:25
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) 7:8
58. What is the percentage of runs chandu had scored in
game 1 with respect to his dilabars score in the
same game?
(1) 76.5
(2) 76.4
(3) 76.9
(4) 76.6
(5) None of these

Game-4
85
75
45
25

Total
90
93
40
390

310
280
250
240
150
1230

59. By how much percentage venkis score got increased

in the game 3 as compared to previous game?
(1) 33.33
(2) 36.36
(3) 35.45
(4) 33.50
(5) None of these
60. By how much percentage increase in Akash
performance in Game 3 in comparisons with
previous game?
(1) 21.42%
(2) 25%
(3) 23.3%
(4) 20%
(5) 15%

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Directions (61-65) Study the following table carefully to

answer the questions that follow:
Liking of People among six IPL teams.
Total number of persons = 125000

61. What is the difference between the total number of

persons who like KKR and CSR together and the total
number of persons who like DD and PWI together?
(1) 6530
(2) 7260
(3) 6250
(4) 6340
(5) None of these

62. What is the respective ratio between the number of

persons who like CSR and the number of persons who
like MI?
(1) 1:2
(2) 2:3
(3) 3:5
(4) 5:11
(5) None of these
63. The number of persons who like CSR and RCB together
are what percent of the total number of persons who
like MI and DD?
(1) 36.65%
(2) 45.50%
(3) 42.30%
(4) 48.25%
(5) None of these
64. The number of persons who like PWI are
approximately what percent of the number of persons
who like KKR?
(1) 26.84%
(2) 36.84%
(3) 18.26%
(4) 39.64%
(5) 29
65. How many persons like DD and CSR together?
(1) 46250
(2) 46260
(3) 46300
(4) 45360
(5) None of these

REASONING ABILITY
Directions (66-70): In each of the following questions
assuming that given statement to be true. Find which of the
following two conclusions I and II given below are true.
(1) If only conclusion I follows
(2) If only conclusion II follows
(3) If either conclusion I or II follows
(4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(5) if both conclusion I & II follow
66. Statements : A B = C; B < D E
Conclusions: I. D > A
II. E > C
67. Statements: L > U K; Z < U < R
Conclusions: I. L > Z
II. K < R
68. Statements : Y < J = P R > I
Conclusions: I. J > I
II. Y < R
69. Statements: V K > M = N; M > S; T < K
Conclusions: I. T < N
II. V = S
70. Statements : F X < A; R < X E
Conclusions: I. F E
II. R < F

Directions (Q.71-75): Study the following information

carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight persons J, K, L, M, N, P, Q and R are sitting in a
straight line facing north but not necessarily in the same
order.
L sits third from the right end and N is an immediate
neighbour of J. There are two persons between L and J. K
and R always sit adjacent to each other. Q is the neighbour
of neither J nor L. N does not like to sit adjacent to L.
Neither K nor R sits on the immediate right of J. There is
only one person between P and K. M does not sit adjacent
to P.
71. Which of the following pairs sit on the extreme ends of
the row?
1) J, Q
2) Q, R
3) R, M
4) Cant be determined
5) None of these
72. What is the position of J with respect to P?
1) Second to the right
2) Third to the right
3) Second to the left
4) Either 1) or 3)
5) None of these
73. How many persons sit between M and N?
1) None
2) Three
3) Two
4) One
5) None of these

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74. Who among the following sits second to the right of P?

1) R
2) J
3) N
4) K
5) None of these
75. Who among the following sits on the extreme right end
of the row?
1) R
2) K
3) Q
4) M
5) None of these
Directions (76-80): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
In a certain code language notification of the Indian
government is written as doo see mo nee ti,
government notification published is written as see jo
mo, published by authority is written as jo pi ga, and
notification of authority is written as pi see ti.
76. Which of the following represents the code for
government notication by authority?
1) see ga pi mo
2) mo pi see nee
3) ga pi mo ti
4)jo mo pi ga
5) none of these
77. Which of the following could be a code for government
declares authority notication?
1) alu pta ga see
2) alu pi ga see
3) Pi qa see mo
4) ga see mo jo
5) None of these
78. Which of the following is the code for Indian?
1) nee
2) doo
3) mo
4) Cant say
5) None of these
79. What does nee stand for?
1) of
2) the 3) Either Indian or the
4) Indian
5) None of these
80. What does ga stand for?
1) by
2) published 3) authority
4) Cant say
5) None of these
Directions (81-85): Study following information and
answer the questions given below:
Eight people - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting around
a circular table facing the centre. Each of them is of a
different profession - News Editor, Publisher, Leader, IT
analyst, Marketing Manager, Judge, Reader and Research
Scholar but not necessarily in the same order. Q is sitting
second to the left of U. The Research Scholar is an
immediate neighbour of U. There are only three people
between the Research Scholar and P. Only one person sits
between the IT analyst and P. The Publisher is to the
immediate right of the IT analyst. W is second to the right
of U. S is the Research Scholar. R and T are immediate
neighbours of each other. Neither R nor T is an IT analyst.
The Marketing Manager is to the immediate left of Q. The
Judge is second to the right of the Publisher. The Reader is
an immediate neighbor of the IT analyst. R is second to the
right of the News Editor.

81. Who is sitting second to the right of P?

(1) The Judge
(2) R (3) The IT analyst
(4) Q
(5) U
82. Who amongst the following is the Reader?
(1) Q
(2) V
(3) W
(4) U
(5) T
83. Four of the following ve are alike in a certain way
based on the given arrangement and hence form a
group. Which of the following does not belong to that
group?
(1) News Editor S
(2) W Leader
(3) T IT analyst
(4) Marketing Manager V
(5) Judge U
84. What is the position of V with respect to the Research
Scholar?
(1) Third to the left
(2) Second to the right
(3) Second to the left
(4) Third to the right
(5) Immediate right
85. Which of the following statements is true according to
the given arrangement?
(1) The Judge is second to the left of the Leader
(2) P is an immediate neighbour of the Marketing
Manager
(3) H sits exactly between F and the Marketing
Manager
(4) Only four people sit between the Publisher and Q
(5) All of the given statements are true
Directions (Q.86-90) : In each question below are given
two/three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the given statements, disregarding commonly known
facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
86. Statements: No guide is software.
Some softwares are anti-virus.
All applications are software
Conclusions: I. No applications is a guide.
II. Some guides are applications.
87. Statements: All wings are plastic.
No metal is wing. All metals are fibres.
Conclusions: I. some fibres are metals.
II. Some fibres if they are wings must be plastic.

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88. Statements: Some frames are circular.

Some rectangles are frames.
Conclusions:
I. some frames being circular is a possibility.
II. Some rectangles are circular.
89. Statements: All seniors are experienced.
All seniors are educated.
Conclusions: I. Some experienced are educated.
II. Some seniors being not educated is a possibility.
90. Statements: No logic is right.
Some wrong are right. No solution is wrong.
Conclusions: I. No logic is a solution.
II. No right is a solution.
91. If Kamal says, Vishal's mother is the only daughter of
my mother", how is Kamal related to Vishal?
(1) Brother
(2) Father
(3) Maternal Uncle
(4) Cousin
(5) None of these
92. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes west
and so on. What will West become?
(1) North-East
(2) North-West
(3) South-East
(4) South-West
(5) None of these
93. In a certain code, TOGETHER is written as RQEGRJCT.
In the same code, PAROLE will be written as,
(1) RYPQJG
(2) RCPQJG
(3) NCPQJG
(4) NCPQJC
(5) None of these
Directions: (94- 95) Read the following instructions and
give the answers.
A. There are five friends.
B. They are standing in a row facing south.
C. Jaideep is to the immediate right to Abhinav.
D. Prashant is between Bhavna and Saurabh .
E. Saurabh is between Jaideep and Prashant.
94. Who is at the extreme left end ?
(1) Jaideep
(2) Saurabh
(3) Abhinav
(4) Bhavna
(5) None of these
95. Who is in the Middle ?
(1) Bhavna
(2) Saurabh
(3) Jaideep
(4) Prashant
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 96-100) : Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.

each, in six different categories, namely Best Actor,

Director, Music, Costume, Story, and Lyrics, but not
necessarily in the same order.
(i) Chandramaulli did not direct Dilwale while Bajrangi
bhaijaan won the award for Best Music.
(ii) Ghajani was awarded for the Best Story and was
directed by Kabir khan. Shivaya lost the award for Best
Direction.
(iii) Bajrangi bhaijaan was directed neither by Ketan
mehta nor by Chandramaulli.
(iv) Kismat was directed by lmtiaz Ali and Sultan won the
award for Best Costume.
(v) The movie that won the Award for Best Actor was
directed by Abhinav Kashyap. Dilwale won the award for
Best Lyrics.
96. Which movie won the award for Best Actor?
1) Kismat
2) Shivaya
3) Bajrangi bhaijaan
4) Dilwale
5) Can t be determined
97. Rohit shettys movie won the award for which
category?
1) Best Actor
2) Best Music
3) Best Director
4) Best Costume
5) None of these
98. Who is the director of the movie Bajrangi bhaijaan?
1) Chandramaulli
2) Rohit shetty
3) Ketan Mehta
4) Ram gopal verma
5) Cant be determined
99. Chandramaulli directed which of the following movies?
1) Ghajani
2) Bajrangi bhaijaan
3) Sultan
4) Dilwale
5) None of these
100. The award for Best Movie went to
1) Shivaya
2) Dilwale
3) Kismat
4) Sultan
5) None of these

There are six movies, viz Dilwale, Kismat, Sultan, Shivaya,

Bajrangi bhaijaan and Ghajani. All of them have been
directed by six different directors, namely Abhijit Sarkar,
Imatiaz Ali, Abhinav Kashyap, Kabir khan, Ketan mehta and
Chandramaulli, but not necessarily in the same order.
Moreover, each of the six movies won a Filmfare award

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(1) None follow

(2) Either I or III or IV follows
(3) Only II and IV follow
(4) Either I or III and II and IV follow
(5) None of these

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