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EMILIO AGUINALDO COLLEGE SCHOOL OF MEDICINE DEPARTMENT OF PATHOLOGY

ACADEMIC YR 2015-2016 YEAR LEVEL 3 ADVANCED PATHOLOGY (MED 307A & B)


NAME:____________________________
DATE:____________________________

1. Free Hemoglobin in plasma is usually bound by.


a. Transferrin
b. Haptoglobin
c. Albumin d. Hemopexin
2. Heinz bodies are caused by:
a. Lymph node enlargement
b. Hypotonic conditions
c. Oxidative attack on erythrocytes
d. Immune attack on the erythrocyte
3. Patient Boni has sickle cell anemia. Her red cells become sickle-shaped when:
a. Cell fragility is decreased.
c. Oxygen is added to the cells.
b. Cell fragility is increased.
d.Oxygen is removed from the cells.
4. The total body hemoglobin is increased in:
a. Anemia
b. Leukemia
c. Polycythemia vera
d. Dehydration
5.
6. Vitamin K absorption cannot take place in the absence of:
a. Carotene
b. Prothrombin
c. Insulin
d. Bile
7. Bleeding may occur when the plasma concentration of prothrombin drops below:
a.80% of the normal
b. 50% of the normal
c. 40% of the normal
d. 20% of
the normal
8. Patient Brylle has hemophilia. You would expect that his platelet count to be:
a.Increased
b. Decreased
c. Either a or b
d. Neither a or b
9. All of the following are true about Vitamin C except:
a. Citrus and other fruits are excellent source.
c. It prevents scurvy.
b. It is used in the formation of capillary walls.
d. It is used in the formation of
prothrombin.
10.
11.Schilling test measures:
a. The presence of megaloblasts in the marrow
c. The adsorption of folic acid
b. The absorption of Vitamin B12
d. The action of lead on
erythrogenesis
12.Polychromatophilia is also called:
a. Poikilocytosis
b. Erythroblastosis
c. Neutrophilia
d. Polychromasia
13.
14.Serum contains all but one of the following coagulation factors:
a.Factor VIII
b. Factor IX
c. Factor XII
d. Factor
X
41.
What is the most critical step in venipuncture?
a. Correct patient identification b. Use of tourniquet c. Choice of evacuated tubes
d.
Staining
42. Why should Jared dela Cruz, RMT discard 1 st drop of blood in skin puncture?
a. Remove dead epidermal cells
c. Remove excess tissue fluid e. NOTA (None of
the above)
b. Facilitate free flow of blood
d. AOTA (All of the above)
43. What is the CLSI approved standard depth of skin puncture?
a. <6mm
b. <2cm
c. <2mm
d. <6cm
44. What is the most commonly encountered complication in venipuncture?
a. Edema
b. Ecchymosis
c. Syncope
d. Seizure
45. What should you do to obtain a blood sample from a patient who underwent double
mastectomy?
a. Leave it to the doctors
b. Draw blood at the back of the hand without tourniquet
c. Let the Chief Medical Technologist do it
d. Draw blood from the left arm
46. What is the approximate volume of anticoagulated blood to be used for centrifugal or
spinner type automated method for blood film preparation?
a. 0.2mL
b. 0.5mL
c. 0.10 mL
d.
0.75mL

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47. What should be the appropriate pH of buffer for blood smear staining?
a. 6.4 6.8
b. 6.0 9.0
c. 5.5 6.0
d. 7.0
48. What is the last stage in the granulocytic series to undergo mitosis?
a. Myeloblast
b. Promyelocyte
c.Myelocyte
d.
Metamyelocyte
e. Band
49. What are the histiocytes in the placenta called?
a. Kupffer cells
b. Osteoclasts
c. Microglial
d. Hoffbower
cells
e. Langerhans
50. Which cell is described as having a sky blue or Robin egg blue cytoplasm and deep
purple, round or oval nucleus?
a. Neutrophil
b. Eosinophil
c. Lymphocyte
d. Monocyte
e. Macrophage
51. What abnormal cells are associated with Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia?
a. Smudge cells
b. Rieder cells
c. Both A and B
d. Neither
A nor B
52. Translocation of which chromosomes are involved in CML?
a. 9,22
b. 8, 21
c. 9, 11
d. 5, 15
53. Where is vWF stored inside the body?
a. Weibel-Palade bodiesb. Alpha granules of platelets
c. A and B
d. NOTA
54. a-naphthyl acetate and a- naphthyl butyrate are specific substrates under Esterases
cytochemistry. Naphthol AS-D Chloroacetate is a nonspecific substrate under Esterases
cytochemistry.
a. Both statements are true.
c. First statement is true. Second
statement is false.
b. Both statements are false.
d. First statement is false.
Second statement is true.
55. The sphygmomanometer should be inflated to _______________ at patients forearm for Ivy
Method of Bleeding Time.
a. 20 mmHg
b. 100 mmHg
c. 40 mmHg
d. 10
mmHg
56. In the indirect method of platelet count, platelets are counted in relation to ___________
RBCs in the blood smear.
a. 1000
b. 100
c. 10
d. 10000
e. 100000
57. What is the diluting fluid used in the Brecher-Cronkite Method of Phase Microscopy
method in Platelet Count?
a. Crystal violet
b. Distilled water
c. 1% Ammonium oxalate
d. Na citrate
58. Milky characteristic of extruded serum in Clot Retraction Test could indicate:
I. Jaundice
II. Leukemia
III. Diabetes
IV. After meals
a. I only
b. I, II, III
c. II, III, IV
d. IV only
59. Arachnodactyly and skeletal abnormalities are characteristics of which vascular disorder?
a. Senile purpura
b. Scurvy
c. Marfans Syndrome
d. EhlersDanlos Syndrome
60. What enzyme is inhibited by acetyl salicylic acid?
a. Cyclooxygenase
b. Plasmin
c. Carbonic anhydrase
d.
Transglutaminase
61. What is the distance between the venipuncture site and tourniquet application?
a. 3 4 inches
b. 3 4 cm
c. 1 2 inches
d. 1 2 cm
62. If all antecubital fossa veins are palpable, which vein should Bailey Pitt, RMT choose first
for venipuncture?
a. Basilic vein
b. Cephalic vein
c. Median cubital vein
d. NOTA
63. Which form of EDTA is recommended by CLSI and ICHS?
a. Na2EDTA
b. K3EDTA
c. K2EDTA
d. Heparin
64. Nathaniel Anghel, RMT is going to perform Osmotic Fragility Test. Which specimen is
most suitable to be used?
a. Blood in EDTA tube
b. Bood in Heparin tube c. Either A or B
d. NOTA
65. Which top is specifically used for lead determination?
a. Orange top
b. Lavender top
c. Light Green Top d. Tan top
66. What is the correct angle between spreader and film slide in blood smearing?
a. 30 45 degrees
b. 15 30 degrees
c. 10 25 degrees
d. 15 50
degrees

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67. A falsely elevated G-6-PD assay using fluorescent spot test may be seen in patients
with:
a. A change in drug dosage

c. Deficiency of pyruvate kinase

b. Presence of many reticulocytes


d. Increased RBC count
68. The peripheral blood smear of patient Sarrah Barilis contains 80% blast cells, which stain
positively with Sudan Black B and peroxidase. The result is consistent with diagnosis of:
a. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
c. Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia
b. Chronic Myelocytic Leukemia
d. Either a, b or c
e. NOTA
69. A hemoglobin value of 13 g/dL best correlates with a hematocrit value of:
a. 0.390 L/L
b. 0.375 L/L
c. 0.380 L/L
d. 0.250 L/L
70. Which two plasma coagulation factors are the least stable in vitro?
a. I and XII
b. V and VIII
c. X and XI
d. VII and IX
71. What is the pH used for cellulose acetate electrophoresis to determine types of
hemoglobin?
a. 7.0
b.7.6
c. 8.0
d. 8.6
e. 9.0
72. Hemoglobin S has ___________ for Glutamic acid at 6 th position beta chain.
a. Lysine
b. Valine
c. Tyrosine
d. Arginine
73. Citrate agar electrophoresis separates Hemoglobin S from:
a. Hemoglobin D
b. Hemoglobin A
c. Hemoglobin I
d.
Hemoglobin H
74. What are the diluents used for RBC manual count?
I. Acetic acid
II. Hydrochloric acid
III.Gowers
IV.
Isotonic saline
a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. I, II and III
d. I, II, III and IV
75. What is the depth of the Neubauer counting chamber?
a. 0.04 mm2
b. 1 mm
c. 0.1 mm
d. 4 mm
76. George Washington, RMT performed a WBC manual count. He counted a total of 100
WBCs in one chamber and
115 on the other chamber. What is the patients WBC
count?
a. 3,750/mm3
b. 6,567/mm3
c. 5,375/mm3
d. 8,890/mm 3
77. What vital stains could Jeremy Rom, RMT use for reticulocyte count?
a. Brilliant cresyl blue
b. New methylene blue
c. Eosin
d. A
and B e. AOTA
78. What stain or cell marker is used to distinguish ALL (+) from AML (-)?
a. SBB
b. PAS
c. TdT
d. LAP
79. The following are Ezra Apareces lab results:
MCV 100 fL; MCH 32.5 pg;
MCHC 36 g/dL
What is the appearance of her red blood cells?
a. Normocytic, normochromic
c. Macrocytic, normochromic
b. Microcytic, hypochromic
d. Macrocytic, hyperchromic
80. In hematology instrumentation optical detection, the larger a cell, the more forward
scatter. The more granular a cell, the more right angle scatter.
a. Both statements are true.
c. Both statements are false.
b. First statement is true. Second statement is false. d. First statement is false. Second
statement is true.
81. Lebron Oneal has Gauchers disease. What is accumulated in his body?
a. Mucopolysaccharides
b. Sphingomyelin c. Sphingolipids
d.
Glucocerebroside
82. The major iron storage compound is:
a. Transferrin
b. Siderotic granules c. Ferritin
d.
Hemosiderin
83. Maya Manns results are the following:
Hb 6.0 g/dL; MCV 114 fL; MCH 39 pg; MCHC 34 g/L; RDW 15.0%;
Reticulocyte count 1.2 %; Serum B12 55 pg/mL; Serum folate 7 ng/mL;
Anti-IF (intrinsic factor) antibodies positive; Schilling test 5%
Oval macrocytes on Wrights stain.What could be her condition?
a.Liver disease
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Reticulocytosis d. Folate
deficiency
84. Rouleaux formation on peripheral smear with osteolytic lesions could be observed in
patients with:
a. Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia
b. Multiple myeloma
c. ALL
d. Hairy Cell Leukemia

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85. What screening test can help you know if a patient has Paroxysmal Nocturnal
Hemoglobinuria?
a. Kleihauer-Betke test
b. Osmotic Fragility test c. Sucrose Hemolysis test d.
Donath Landsteiner test
86. What red cell inclusion is composed of DNA material and is seen in post-splenectomy and
disturbed
erythropoiesis?
a. Heinz body
b. Cabot ring
c. Howell-Jolly body
d.
Pappenheimer bodies
87. Prolonged bleeding time and giant platelets best describe:
a. Wiskott- Aldrich syndrome
c. von Willebrands disease
b. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
d. Glanzmanns thrombasthenia
88. This hemostatic disorder occurs in high incidence in Askenazi Jews. It is also called
Hemophilia C.
a. Factor X deficiency
b. Factor XI deficiency c. Factor XII deficiency
d. Factor
XIII deficiency
89. 22 year old Gwen Stacy was seen in the emergency room with the evidence of prolonged
bleeding following a spider bite. Her laboratory results show:
Blood smear: Schistocytes; Platelet Count: 50,000 mm3; PT: 20 seconds; APTT: 60 seconds; Ddimer: (+)
The most likely diagnosis/problem/condition is:
a.Vitamin K deficiency
b. Allergic reaction
c. Primary fibrinolysis
d Secondary
fibrinolysis
90. Presence of Dohle bodies, increased toxic granulation and increased LAP characterize:
a. Leukemoid reaction
b. CML
c. Tay-Sachs disease
d.
Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia
91. Albinism, increased susceptibility to infection, large lysosomes and Dohle bodies in
segmenters characterize:
a. Pelger-huet
b. Chediak-Higashi c. Alder-Reilly
d. May-Hegglin
92. Phyloxine is a stain that tests for acid granules of:
a. Neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Eosinophils
d. Basophils
93. Georgina Wilson has the following WBC differential results:
WBC count 10.5 billion cells/L
Neutrophils 77%
Lymphocyte 20%
Monocytes 3%
What condition does she have?
a.Absolute Neutropenia b. Relative Monocytopenia
c. Relative Neutrophilia
d.
Either A or B
94. Which anticoagulant chelates Ca 2+ so it is unavailable to participate in the coagulation
cascade?
a. EDTA
b. Heparin
c. Sodium fluoride
d. CTAD
95. Metamegakaryocyte has how many nuclei?
a. 1
b. 2
c. > or equal to 2
d. > or equal to 4
96. In sickle cell disease, what causes the HbS to change the RBC cell from round to sickle
shape?
a. Exposure to low O2 levels
b. Low blood pressure
c. Splenectomy
d. Exposure
to high O2 levels
97. Patient XYZ has the following Mixing Study results:
PT increased, APTT increased; Fresh plasma - corrected
Aged plasna corrected; Adsorbed plasma - not corrected
What is the factor deficiency?
a. Factor VII deficiency
c. Factor XII deficiency
b. Factor VIII deficiency
d. Factor X deficiency
98. What test for secondary hemostasis is used to monitor coumadin therapy?
a. APTT
b. PT
c. Bleeding time
d. Clotting time
99. Patient MNO has the following mixing study results:
PT - increased, APTT - increased
Fresh plasma - not corrected
Aged plasma - not corrected
Aged serum - not corrected
Adsorbed plasma - not corrected
What is the condition of the patient?
a. Factor X deficiency
b. Has circulating inhibitors

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c. There is no problem.
d. Thrombocytopenia
100. It is a zymogen normally present in the plasma. It is synthesized in the liver and stored and
transported in eosinophils.
a. Heparin
b. Von willebrand factor
c. Plasminogen
d. Factor VII

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