Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.

-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Time : 3 Hrs. MOCK TEST MM : 600

for
UPSEE 2016
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :
1. UPSEE consists of one paper of three subjects - Physics, Chemistry and Maths. Each subject contains 50
questions and each correct answer carries four marks. No negative marking.
2. The exam can be written in Hindi or English. After a candidate clears this exam there is another examination
of objective type Hindi questions to check the basic knowledge of Hindi of candidate.
3. Read each question carefully.
4. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
5. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle in the answer sheet.
6. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once marked
is allowed.
7. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
8. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
9. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no page
is missing.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
     
1. The vectors a, b and c are related by c b a . 2. Acceleration versus time graphs for four objects are
Which diagram below illustrates this relationship? shown below. All axes have the same scale. Which
objects have the greatest change in velocity in the
interval t = 0 to t = t0?
c
b a0 a0
(1)
acceleration
acceleration

a
(1) (2)
t
(2) t0 t t0

a0 a0
acceleration

acceleration

a (3) (4)
c
(3) t t
t0 t0
b 3. A stone is released from an elevator moving up with
an acceleration a0. The acceleration of the stone
b after the release is
c (1) a0 upward (2) a0 downward
(4)
(3) g + a0 downward (4) g downward
a
(1)
Mock Test for UPSEE 2016 Complete Syllabus Test
4. Acceleration-time graph of a particle moving along 10. The work function of sodium is 2.3 eV. The
X-axis as shown. Find the speed of particle at time threshold wavelength of sodium will be
t = 5 sec (Take initial speed of particle is zero)
(1) 2000 (2) 4000
a 2 (3) 5380 (4) 6380
(ms )
5
11. An -particle and a proton travel with same velocity
in a magnetic field perpendicular to the direction of
their velocities. Find the ratio of the radii of their
t(s) circular path.
5 10

(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
(1) 5 ms1 (2) 10 ms1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
(3) 15 ms1 (4) 25 ms1
12. Distance between a frog and an insect on a
5. Light is an electromagnetic wave. Its speed in horizontal plane is 10 m. Frog can jump with a
vacuum is given by the expression maximum speed of 10 ms1. Minimum number of
jumps required by the frog to catch the insect is (g
1
(1) 0 0 (2) = 10 ms2)
0 0
(1) 5 (2) 10
0 0 (3) 100 (4) 50
(3) 0 (4) 0
13. A particle starts from the origin at t = 0 and moves
in the XY-plane with constant acceleration a in the
6. Kirchhoffs first law i.e. i 0 at a junction is y direction. Its equation of motion is y = bx2. The
based on the law of conservation of x-component of its velocity is
(1) Charge (2) Energy
2a
(3) Momentum (4) Angular momentum (1) Variable (2)
b
7. The earth's radius is R and acceleration due to
gravity at its surface is g. If a stone of mass m
a a
is sent to a height h = R/5 from the earths (3) (4) 2b
surface, the potential energy increases by 2b

4 14. A body is thrown horizontally with a velocity 2gh

(1) mgh (2) mgh
5 from the top of a tower of height h. It strikes the level
ground through the foot of the tower at a distance X
5 6 from the tower. The value of X is
(3) mgh (4) mgh
6 7
h
8. If all the resistors shown have the value of 2 (1) h (2)
2
each, the equivalent resistance between A & B is
(3) 2h (4) 2h/3
15. A man crosses the river perpendicular to river
flow in time t seconds and travels an equal
A B
distance down the stream in T seconds. The ratio
of man's speed in still water to the speed of river
water will be
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 8 t2 T 2 T 2 t2
(1) (2)
9. For the myopic eye, the defect is cured by t2 T 2 T 2 t2

(1) Convex lens (2) Concave lens

t2 T 2 T 2 t2
(3) (4)
(3) Cylindrical lens (4) Toric lens t2 T 2 T 2 t2
(2)
Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for UPSEE 2016

16. Two blocks A and B each of mass m are placed 20. A system is shown in the figure. The time period
on a smooth horizontal surface. Two horizontal for small oscillations of the two blocks will be
force F and 2F are applied on both the blocks A
and B respectively as shown in figure. The block K 2K
m m
A does not slide on block B. Then the normal
reaction acting between the two blocks is
A B 3m 3m
(1) 2 (2) 2
m m K 2K
F 2F
30
3m 3m
(1) F (2) F/2 (3) 2 (4) 2
4K 8K
(3) F / 3 (4) 3F 21. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and
4 moles of argon at temperature T. Neglecting all
17. In the figure shown, the pulleys and strings are vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the
massless. The acceleration of the block of mass system is
4 m just after the system is released from rest is
( = sin1 (3/5)) (1) 4RT (2) 5RT
(3) 15RT (4) 11RT
22. Maxwell's velocity distribution curve is given for
two different temperatures. For the given curves

m m
4m N

2g T2
(1) downwards T1
5
V
2g (1) T1 > T2 (2) T1 < T2
(2) upwards
5
(3) T1 T2 (4) T1 T2
5g 23. The values of kinetic energy K and potential
(3) upwards energy U are measured as follow K = 100.0 2J,
11
U = 200.0 1.03. Then the percentage error in
the measurement of mechanical energy is
5g
(4) downwards (1) 2.5 % (2) 1 %
11
18. Two points of rod move with velocities 3V and V (3) 0.5 % (4) 1.5 %
perpendicular to the rod and in the same direction 24. An electric field is given by E x = 2x 3 K N/C.
separated by a distance r. Then the angular The potential of the point (1, 2), if potential of
velocity of the rod is the point (2, 4) is taken as zero, is
(1) 7.5 103 V (2) 7.5 103 V
3V 4V
(1) (2) (3) 15 103 V (4) 15 103 V
r r
25. Electrical potential 'V' in space as a function of
5V 2V
(3) (4) 1 1 1
r r co-ordinates is given by V . Then the
x y z
19. A ring of radius R rolls without sliding with a
constant velocity. The radius of curvature of the electric field intensity at (1,1,1) is given by
path followed by any particle of the ring at the
highest point of its path will be (1) (i j k ) (2) (i j k )

(1) R (2) 2R
(3) 4 R (4) None of these
(3) Zero (4)
3

1   
i j k
(3)
Mock Test for UPSEE 2016 Complete Syllabus Test
26. In the circuit shown, each resistance is 2. The 31. Direction of electromagnetic wave is along the
potential of point A is equal to vector
   
(1) E B (2) B E
 
(3) E (4) B

32. Torque on magnetic dipole of dipole moment M
5V 12 V 

in uniform magnetic field B is given by
A
   
(1) M.B (2) M.B
(1) 11 V (2) 11 V
   
(3) 9 V (4) 9 V (3) M B (4) B M
27. A dipole of dipole moment p is kept at the centre 33. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one
of a ring of radius R and charge Q. The dipole percent, its mass remaining the same,
moment has direction along the axis of the ring. acceleration due to gravity on the earth's surface
The resultant force on the ring due to the dipole would
is
(1) Decrease (2) Remain unchanged
(1) Zero
(3) Increase (4) Zero
kpQ 34. A satellite is moving with a constant speed V in
(2)
R3 a circular orbit about the earth, an object of mass
m is ejected from the satellite such that it just
2kpQ escapes from the gravitational pull of the earth.
(3)
R3 At the time of its ejection, the kinetic energy of
the object is
kpQ
(4) only if the charge is uniformly distributed 1
R3 (1) mv 2 (2) mv2
on the ring 2
28. Equivalent capacitance between points A and B 3
is (capacitance of each capacitor is C) (3) mv 2 (4) 2mv2
2
A B 35. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line
joining two equal charges Q such that the
system is in equilibrium, then the value of q is

(1) 2 C (2) 3 C Q Q
(1) (2)
(3) 4 C (4) C 2 2
29. Induced electric field is
Q Q
(1) Conservative in nature (3) (4)
4 4
(2) Non-conservative in nature 36. If the electric flux entering and leaving an
(3) Form closed loop enclosed surface, respectively are 1 and 2, the
electric charge inside the surface will be
(4) Both (2) and (3)
30. Select the correct option. (1) (2 1)0

(1) Time varying magnetic field produces electric (2) (1 + 2)0

field
2 1
(2) Time varying electric field produces magnetic (3)
0
field
(3) Both (1) and (2) 1 2
(4)
(4) None of these 0
(4)
Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for UPSEE 2016

37. Two coherent point sources S 1 and S 2 are 44. If N0 is the original mass of a substance of half-
separated by a small distance d shown. The life period t(1/2) 5 years, then the amount of
fringes obtained on the screen will be
substance left after 15 years is

N0 N0
d (1) (2)
8 16
S1 S2
D Screen N0 N0
(3) (4)
2 4
(1) Straight lines (2) Semi-circles
45. A 220 V, 1000 W bulb is connected across a 110 V
(3) Concentric circles (4) Points main supply. The power consumed will be
38. A beam of unpolarized light of intensity I 0 is (1) 1000 W (2) 750 W
passed through a polaroid A and then through
(3) 500 W (4) 250 W
another polaroid B which is oriented such that its
principal axis makes an angle of 45 relative to 46. By increasing the temperature, the specific
that of A. The intensity of the emergent light is resistance of a conductor and a semiconductor
(1) Increases for both
I0 I0
(1) (2) (2) Decreases for both
2 4
(3) Increases, decreases
I0 (4) Decreases, Increases
(3) (4) I0
8
47. When a rubber-band is stretched by a distance x,
39. The angle of incidence at which reflected light is if exerts a restoring force of magnitude
totally polarised for reflection from air to glass F = ax + bx2, where a and b are constant. The
(refractive index ) is work done in stretching the unstretched rubber
band by L is
(1) sin1() (2) sin1()
(3) tan1(1/) (4) tan1() aL2 bL2 1 aL2 bL3
(1) (2) 2 2 3
40. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, 2 3
its de Broglie Wavelength changes by the factor 1
1
(3) aL2 + bL3 (4)
2

aL2 bL3
(1) 2 (2)
2 48. Two particles A and B, initially at rest move
towards each other by a mutual force of
1 attraction. At the instant when the speed of A is
(3) 2 (4)
2 V and the speed of B is 2V, the speed of the
41. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The centre of mass of the system is
longest wavelength of light can cause (1) 3 V (2) V
photoelectron emission from this substance is
approximately (3) 1.5 V (4) 0
49. The speed of sound in oxygen gas at a certain
(1) 540 nm (2) 400 nm
temperature is 460 ms1. The speed in helium gas
(3) 310 nm (4) 220 nm at the same temperature will be (assume both
42. Which of the following transition in hydrogen gases to be ideal)
atoms emits photons of the highest frequency? (1) 1420 ms1 (2) 500 ms1
(1) n = 6 to n = 2 (2) n = 2 to n = 1 (3) 650 ms1 (4) 330 ms1
(3) n = 1 to n = 2 (4) n = 2 to n = 6 50. Curie temperature is the temperature above which

43. Backlash error present in (1) A paramagnetic material becomes

ferromagnetic
(1) Vernier caliper
(2) A ferromagnetic material becomes
(2) Screw gauge and vernier caliper paramagnetic
(3) Screw gauge (3) A paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
(4) Vernier caliper and spherometer (4) A ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
(5)
Mock Test for UPSEE 2016 Complete Syllabus Test

CHEMISTRY
51. Which of the following aldehydes give cannizzaros 59. In the first order reaction the concentration of reactants
reaction when heated with concentrated base? decrease from 2 M to 0.5 M in 20 minutes. The value
(1) (CH3)3C CHO (2) (CH3)2CHCHO of specific rate constant is

(3) CH3CHO (4) C6H5CH2CHO (1) 69.32 min1 (2) 6.932 min1
52. Which of the following is not a condensation polymer? (3) 0.6932 min1 (4) 0.06932 min1
(1) Nylon-6, 6 (2) Natural rubber 60. The most stable carbocation among the following is
(3) Terrylene (4) Bakelite
+ +
53. The mixture of equal masses of SO3 and O2 gases is CH2 CH2
allowed to effuse through an orifice. The relative rate
rSO3 (1) (2)
of effusion is
rO2
CH3 CH
1 2 2 CH3 CH3
(1) (2)
5 5 5
2 2
(3) (4) + +
5 5 CH2 CH2
54. Bronze is a mixture of
(3) (4)
(1) Pb Zn (2) Pb + Sn
(3) Cu + Sn (4) Cu + Zn OCH3 NO2
55. If EI 0.50 V and EI 0.20 V then EI /I is
2 /I 2 /I3 3
61. Which of the following inert gas has the highest value
(1) 0.30 V (2) 0.65 V of electron gain enthalpy?
(3) 1.30 V (4) 0.067 V (1) Ne (2) Kr
56. The correct order of hybridisation of the central atom (3) Xe (4) He
in the following species NF3, BF3, PF5, [SiF6]2 is
(1) sp2 sp3 sp3d2 sp3d OCOCH3
COOH
(2) sp3 sp2 sp3d sp3d2
62. The compound is used as
(3) sp2 sp3 sp3d sp3d2
(4) sp3 sp2 sp3d2 sp3d3 (1) Antiseptic (2) Antibiotic
+
57. A binary solid consisting A and B has structure with (3) Analgesic (4) Pesticide
B ions consisting the lattice and A+ ions occupying
25% tetrahedral holes. The formula of the solid is 63. The Ksp of Ag2CrO4 is 1.1 1012 at 258 K. The
solubility (in mol/L) of Ag2CrO4 in a 0.1 M AgNO3
(1) AB (2) A2B
solution is
(3) AB2 (4) AB4
(1) 1.1 1011 (2) 1.1 1010
58. In the reaction sequence
(3) 1.1 1012 (4) 1.1 109
CH3MgBr (i) CO2
CH3 C C H CH + A
(ii) H2 O/H
B. 64. The correct sequence of reagents used for conversion
4
of aniline into benzylamine (Ph CH2 NH2) is
B will be
(1) NaNO2/HCl, Cu2(CN)2/HCN, Sn/HCl
(1) CH3 C C CH3
(2) CH3 C C MgBr (2) NaNO2/HCl, CuCN/H3O+

(3) CH3 CH = CH COOH (3) NaNO2/HCl, Cu+/H3PO3, CH3NH2

(4) CH3 C C COOH (4) None of these
(6)
Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for UPSEE 2016
65. Compound having the lowest melting point is 73. Which of the following species is diamagnetic in
(1) LiCl (2) CsCl nature?

(3) RbCl (4) KCl (1) H2 (2) H2+

66. How many monochlorinated products are possible for (3) H2 (4) He22+
2, 3-dimethyl butane?
74. Which of the following on thermal decomposition yields
(1) 2 (2) 3
a basic as well as acidic oxide?
(3) 4 (4) 5
(1) NaNO3 (2) KClO3
67. Which one is the correct IUPAC name of the following?
(3) CaCO3 (4) NH4NO3
OH
75. Which of the following will form tribromoderivatives of
phenol?
Br
(1) 1-Bromo-5-hydroxycyclohexane OH OH
(2) 2-Bromo-4-hydroxycyclohexane Br2
CH3 Br2
(1) (2) H2O
(3) 4-hydroxycyclohexene chlorine H2O

(4) 3-bromocyclohex-3-en-1-ol


 OH OH
 H A . The pH of
68. An acid HA ionises as HA 
Br2 Br2
1 M solution is 4. Its dissociation constant would be (3) (4)
CS2 H2O
(1) 5 (2) 5 108
(3) 1 104 (4) 1 108 CH3

69. One mole of magnesium nitride on the reaction with

an excess of water gives 76. What mass of non-volatile solute (molecular mass 40
g/mol) should be dissolved in 114 g octane to reduce
(1) Two moles of ammonia
its vapour pressure to 80%?
(2) One mole of nitric acid
(1) 8 g (2) 4 g
(3) One mole of ammonia
(3) 2 g (4) 16 g
(4) Two moles of nitric acid
70. Which halide will not react with benzene in presence 77. A hydrocarbon C5H8 consumes two moles of hydrogen
of anhydrous AlCl3? and on ozonolysis it produces 2-oxopropanal and
methanal. Then the hydrocarbon is
(1) CH3CHClCH3 (2) C6H5CH2Cl
(3) C6H5Cl (4) CH3CH2CH2Cl (1) CH2 = CH CH = CH2

71. Which of the following has highest value of Ka? CH 3

(1) CH3COOH (2) CF3COOH
(2) CH 3 C = CH CH = CH 2
(3) CI3COOH (4) CBr3COOH
72. Strongest base is (3) CH3 CH = CH2

H CH3
|
N N (4) CH2 = C CH = CH2
(1) (2)
78. 2Cu2O(s) + Cu2S (s) 6Cu(s) + SO2(g)

H The species which acts as a reductant in the above

| reaction is
N O (1) Cu2O (2) Cu2S
(3) (4)
(3) Cu (4) Cu+
(7)
Mock Test for UPSEE 2016 Complete Syllabus Test
79. The heat of neutralization of four acids A, B, C and D


85. The equilibrium 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 
 2SO3(g)
are 13.7, 9.4, 11.2 and 12.4 kcal respectively.
When they are neutralized by a common base. The
shifts in forward direction if
acidic character obeys the order
(1) Catalyst is added
(1) A > B > C > D
(2) More amount of reactants are used
(2) A > D > C > B (3) Small amount of reactants are used
(3) D > C > B > A (4) An adsorbent is used to remove SO3 as soon
as it is formed
(4) D > B > C > A
86. K2Cr2O7 will act as an oxidising agent in
80. Which of the following is not a condensation polymer?
(1) Acidic medium only
(1) Glyptal (2) Dacron
(2) Basic medium only
(3) Nylon-66 (4) PTFE (3) Neutral medium only
(CH3CO)2O (4) In all above three medium
81. CHO P . The product P is
CH3COONa 87. Strength of H2O2 is
Pyridine
V V
(1) M (2) N
11.6 5.6
(1) CH2 CH2COOH
V
(3) N (4) Both (1) & (2)
11.6
(2) CH2 COOH 88. Which of the following is not characteristic of KMnO4
(1) It acts as an oxidising agent only
(3) CH = CH COOH (2) It acts as self indicator
(3) KMnO4 is purple colour due to dd transition
(4) KMnO4 shows the n-factor of 5 in acidic medium
(4) CH = CH CHO
89. How many sp3 hybrid orbitals are present in borax?

82. Given ECr 3 /Cr 0.72 V, EFe3 /Fe 0.42 V . The (1) 1 (2) 2

potential for the cell Cr|Cr3+(0.1 M)|Fe3+(0.01 M)|Fe is (3) 3 (4) 4

90. B2H6 contains
(1) 0.026 V (2) 0.336 V
(1) 2 centre 2e bond
(3) 0.339 V (4) 0.26 V
(2) 3 centre 2e bond
83. Ease of oxidation in the following compounds will be
(3) 3 centre 4e bond
(4) (1) & (2) only
I. II. III. 91. In blue vitriol the number of water of crystalisation is
(1) 1 (2) 2
NO2 CH3
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I 92. The formula of plaster of paris is
(3) I > III > II (4) II > III > I
1
(1) CaSO4. HO (2) CaSO4.2H2O
84. Consider the following reaction sequence 2 2
H2
A HNO2
B CH3 CH2 OH 3
Ni (3) CaSO4. HO (4) CaSO4.5H2O
2 2
The starting component A is
93. Bleaching action of bleaching powder is due to
(1) CH3CN (2) CH3NC (1) Cl (2) O
(3) C2H5CN (4) CH3NO2 (3) Ca (4) Cl2
(8)
Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for UPSEE 2016
94. Amphoteric oxide combinations are in 98. Number of H atom directly linked with P atom in
H4P2O5 is/are
(1) ZnO, K2O, SO3 (2) ZnO, P2O5, Cl2O7
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) ZnO, Al2O3, SnO2 (4) PbO2, SnO2, SO3
(3) 3 (4) 4
95. The heat of formation for CO2(g), H2O(g) and CH4(g)
are 400 kJ mol1, 280 kJ mol1 and 70 kJ mol1. 99. Which of the following sets of ions represent a
The heat of combustion of CH4 in kJ mol1 is collection of isoelectronic species?
(1) 890 (2) 160 (1) C22, O2, CO and NO
(3) 890 (4) 90 (2) NO+, C22, CN and N2
96. Which of the following element has highest electron (3) Li+, Na+, Mg2+ and Ca2+
affinity?
(4) N3, O2, F and S2
(1) F (2) Cl
100. Structure of IF7 is a
(3) Br (4) I
(1) Square pyramidal
97. Number of peaks in curve of radial probability function
with distance r from nucleus is (2) Trigonal bipyramidal

(1) n l (2) n l + 1 (3) Octahedral

(3) l (4) n 1 (4) Pentagonal bipyramidal

MATHEMATICS

101. The perimeter of a right triangle is 12 8 3 units. 1

105. If the value of x 119 , then the value of
4

x4
The sum of squares of the 3 sides is 294 sq. units.
3 1
x x 3 is equal to (where [.] denotes the greatest
Then the value of where denotes the area of
3 integer function)
the given triangle and [.] denotes the greatest integer
function. (1) 12 (2) 18

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 24 (4) 36

(3) 4 (4) 1 106. The domain of f(x) is (0, 1), let the domain of
y = f(ex) + f(ln|x|) be (a, b), then [a + b 0.7] is
102. The number of solutions of sin x cos x
tan2 x
1 in equal to (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
the interval 0,4 is (1) 5 (2) 4

(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 0 (4) 3

(3) 7 (4) 9
b 2 3 2 1
107. In a triangle ABC, if A = 30 and
103. The number of integral values of x satisfying the c 2 3 2 1
equation log7 x log7 x 2 is
2
then angle B is equal to
(1) 3 (2) 5 (1) 97.5 (2) 52.5
(3) 6 (4) 7 (3) 15 (4) 75

104. The number of integers satisfying the inequality 108. The number of 6-digits numbers that can be made
x 1 with the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 so that even digits
is
x6 x occupy odd places, without repetition, is
(1) 3 (2) 7 (1) 24 (2) 36

(3) 8 (4) 9 (3) 48 (4) 5! 4!

(9)
Mock Test for UPSEE 2016 Complete Syllabus Test
117. The locus of the mid-point of a chord of the circle
9 13 17
109. The sum of the series 2 x2 + y2 = 4 which subtends a right angle at the
5 .2.1 5 3.3.2 5 4.4.3 origin is
............ to is equal to (1) x + y = 2 (2) x2 + y2 = 1
9 (3) x2 + y2 = 2 (4) x + y = 1
(1) 1 (2)
5
1 1 1
118. If cot x cot y cot z , then x + y + z
1 2 2
(3) (4) equals
5 5
18 18
(1) xyz (2) xy + yz + zx
x i 8 9 x i 8
2
45 (3) 2xyz (4) 0
110. If and , then the
i 1 i 1
standard deviation of variables x1, x2 - - - - -, x18 is dx
119. If x = ylnxy, then equals
dy
4 9
(1) (2)
9 4 y(x y ) x( x y )
(1) (2)
x( x y ) y(x y )
3 3
(3) (4) y(x y ) x( x y )
2 8 (3) (4)
111. If (2a, 3b) is the mid-point of a chord passing x( x y ) y(x y )
through the vertex of parabola y2 = 4x, then 1
(1) 9b2 = 8a (2) 9b2 = 4a 120. The value of lim (cosecx )ln x is
x 0
(3) 9b2 = 16a (4) 3b2 = 8a
(1) 1 (2) 1
112. The negation of (p r) (q p) is
(1) (p ~ r) (q ~ p) 1
(3) e (4)
e
(2) (p ~ r) (q ~ p)
121. If the system of equations
(3) (p ~ r) (q ~ p)
a3x + (a + 1)3y + (a + 2)3z = 0,
(4) (p ~ r) (q ~ p)
ax + (a + 1)y + (a + 2)z = 0, x + y + z = 0 has a
113. The circles x2 + y2 + 4x + c = 0 and x2 + y2 + 4y non-zero solution, then value of a is
+ c = 0 touch when the value of C is
(1) 1 (2) 0
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 1 (4) 2
(3) 2 (4) 4
122. If A is square matrix of order n, then adj(adj. (A)) is
114. The length of the latus rectum of the parabola
equal to
x = ay2 + by + c is
(1) |A|n1 A (2) |A|n2 A
a a
(1) (2) (3) |A|n2 I (4) |A|n A
4 3

(3)
1
a
1
(4) 4 a 1
123. If cos tan sin cot
1
3 y , then
x2 y2 4 2
115. The equation 1 represents an ellipse (1) y (2) y
2 5 5 5
for
2 10
(3) y
2
(1) > 5 (2) < 2 (4) y
5 11
(3) 2 < < 5 (4) 124. The angle at which the curve y = kekx intersects the
116. General equation of a plane which is parallel to x-axis y-axis is
is (1) tan1 (k2) (2) cot1 (k2)
(1) ax + d = 0 (2) ax + by + d = 0

(3) by + cz + d = 0 (4) ax + cz + d = 0 (3) sec 1 1 k 4 (4)
2
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Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for UPSEE 2016

1 x7 1 1 1 1
dx equals 131. nlim ...
125.
x (1 x 7 ) na na 1 na 2 nb is equal to

2 2 b a
(1) ln x ln(1 x ) C (2) ln x ln(1 x ) C
7 7

7 7 (1) ln (2) ln
a b
2 2
(3) ln x ln(1 x ) C (4) ln x ln(1 x ) C
7 7
(3) ln a (4) ln b
7 7
126. Let y = {x}[x] where {x} denotes the fractional part of 132. The area of the region under the graph of y = xeax
x and [x] denotes greatest integer x, then as x varies from 0 to , where a is a positive
3
constant, is
0
ydx
1 1 1
(1) (2)
5 2 a a a2
(1) (2)
6 3
1 1 1
11 (3) (4)
(3) 1 (4) a a2 a2
6
133. The solution of the differential equation
cos2 x 1
127. I
1 ax
dx equals dy

dx xy [ x sin y 2 1] is
2

(1) (2) 2
(1) x 2 (cos y 2 sin y 2 2ce y ) 2
4
2
(2) y 2 (cos x 2 sin y 2 2ce y ) 2
(3) (4)
3 2
128. For all a, b R, the function f(x) = 3x4 4x3 + 6x2 2
(3) x 2 (cos y 2 sin y 2 e y ) 4c
+ ax + b has
(1) No extremum (4) x 2 (cos y 2 sin y 2 2c ) 2
(2) Exactly one extremum         
134. If a 2b 3c 0, then a b b c c a
(3) Exactly two extremum
 
(4) Exactly three extremum k (a b ), where k is equal to

ln(6 x 2 ) (1) 0 (2) 1

129. x
dx is equal to
(3) 2 (4) 3
1 3 1 2 135. The unit vector perpendicular to the lines
(1) ln(6 x 2 ) C (2) ln (6 x 2 ) C
8 4 x 1 y 2 z 1
L1 and
1 1 4 3 1 2
(3) ln(6 x 2 ) C (4) ln(6 x 2 ) C
2 16 x 2 y 2 z3
L2 is
dx 1 2 3
130. 3
x 1 x 1
equals
i 7 j 7k i 7 j 5k
(1) (2)
99 5 3
(1) ln 3
x 1 x 1 C
i 7 j 5k 7i 7 j k
(3) (4)
(1 x ) 1/ 2
(1 x ) 1/3
5 3 99
(2) 6 log(( x 1)1/ 6 1 C
3 2 136. A pair of dice is thrown five times. The probability that
doubles appear at least 3 times is
(1 x )1/ 2
(3) 6 log(( x 1)1/ 6 1 C 23 23
3 (1) (2)
324 162
(1 x )1/ 2 (1 x )1/3 23 17
(4) 6 (1 x )1/ 6 log(( x 1)1/ 6 1) C (3) (4)
3 2 648 162
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Mock Test for UPSEE 2016 Complete Syllabus Test
137. A and B are events such that A B , 144. If A and B are two sets consisting of 5 and 3
P(A | B) = P(B | A) then elements respectively such that
(1) A = B n(( A B ) (B A)) 2 , then number of elements
(2) P(A) = P(B) in the power set of ( A B ) (B A) are
(3) A and B are independent
(1) 219 (2) 221
(4) All of these
   (3) 220 (4) 222
138. If the vector a, b, c form the sides BC, CA, AB
145. Lines OA and OB are drawn from origin O with
respectively of ABC, then
direction cosines proportional to (1, 2, 1) and
  
(1) a.b b.c c.a 0 (3, 2, 3) respectively. The direction ratios of the
      normal to the plane OAB are
(2) a b b c c a 0
(1) (2, 3, 4) (2) (4, 3, 2)
  
(3) a.b b.c c.a
(3) (4, 3, 2) (4) (4, 3, 2)
     
(4) a b b c c a 0 146. Solution of the differential equation
139. Number of divisors of the forms (4n + 2), n W (set dy
of whole numbers) of the integer 240 is ln 4 x 2y 2, y (1) 1, is
dx
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 10 (4) 3 (1) 2e 2( y 1) e 4 x e 4 (2) 2e 2( y 1) e 4( x 1)

140. The area bounded by the curves y x 1 ,

(3) 2e 2( y 1) 2e 4 x (4) 2e 2( y 1) 4e 4 x
1 147. A ball is thrown straight up from the top of 64 feet
y x 1 and y
2
is
4 tall building with initial speed of 48 feet per second.
1 2 The height of the ball as a function of time can be
(1) (2)
3 3 modelled by the function h t 16t 2 48t 64 .
1 1 How long will it take for the ball to hit the ground?
(3) (4)
4 5 (1) 2 s (2) 4 s
141. A group of 10 items has mean 6. If the mean of
4 of these items is 7.5, then mean of the remaining (3) 6 s (4) 1 s
item is 148. A train of length 150m, travelling at 20m/s overtakes
(1) 6.5 (2) 5.5 another train of length 350 m, travelling at 10m/s in
the same direction. The time taken by first train to
(3) 4.5 (4) 5.0
pass the second train is
142. If tan2 2 tan2 1, then cos 2 sin2 is equal (1) 50 s (2) 40 s
to (3) 30 s (4) 35 s
(1) 1 (2) 2
149. If the resultant of two forces of magnitude P and
(3) 1 (4) 0
P 3 acting on a particle is of magnitude 2P, then
1 the angle between their line of action is
143. If x 1, y 1, z 1 are in G.P., then ,
1 ln x
(1) 60 (2) 75
1 1
, are in (3) 90 (4) 120
1 ln y 1 ln z
(1) A.P. a be y b ce y c de y
150. If , then a, b, c, d are
(2) H.P. a be y b ce y c de y
(3) G.P. (1) in A.P. (2) in G.P.
(4) None of A.P., G.P. and H.P. (3) in H.P. (4) All are equal
  

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 Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MOCK TEST
for
Time : 3 Hrs. UPSEE-2016 MM : 600
ANSWERS
1. (4) 31. (1) 61. (1) 91. (1) 121. (1)
2. (4) 32. (3) 62. (3) 92. (1) 122. (2)
3. (4) 33. (3) 63. (2) 93. (1) 123. (2)
4. (4) 34. (2) 64. (1) 94. (3) 124. (2)
5. (2) 35. (4) 65. (1) 95. (3) 125. (3)
6. (1) 36. (1) 66. (1) 96. (2) 126. (4)
7. (3) 37. (3) 67. (4) 97. (1) 127. (4)
8. (1) 38. (2) 68. (4) 98. (2) 128. (2)
9. (2) 39. (4) 69. (1) 99. (2) 129. (2)
10. (3) 40. (2) 70. (3) 100. (4) 130. (4)
11. (3) 41. (3) 71. (2) 101. (2) 131. (1)
12. (2) 42. (2) 72. (1) 102. (2) 132. (4)
13. (4) 43. (3) 73. (3) 103. (3) 133. (1)
14. (3) 44. (1) 74. (3) 104. (2) 134. (3)
15. (3) 45. (4) 75. (1) 105. (4) 135. (2)
16. (4) 46. (3) 76. (1) 106. (1) 136. (3)
17. (4) 47. (1) 77. (4) 107. (1) 137. (2)
18. (4) 48. (4) 78. (2) 108. (1) 138. (2)
19. (3) 49. (1) 79. (2) 109. (3) 139. (1)
20. (3) 50. (2) 80. (2) 110. (3) 140. (1)
21. (4) 51. (1) 81. (3) 111. (2) 141. (4)
22. (2) 52. (2) 82. (4) 112. (1) 142. (4)
23. (2) 53. (2) 83. (4) 113. (3) 143. (2)
24. (1) 54. (3) 84. (1) 114. (3) 144. (2)
25. (2) 55. (2) 85. (4) 115. (4) 145. (1)
26. (4) 56. (2) 86. (1) 116. (3) 146. (1)
27. (2) 57. (3) 87. (4) 117. (3) 147. (2)
28. (4) 58. (4) 88. (3) 118. (1) 148. (1)
29. (4) 59. (4) 89. (2) 119. (2) 149. (3)
30. (3) 60. (3) 90. (4) 120. (4) 150. (2)

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