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Detailed Solution

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Telephone: 011-41013406, Mobile: 8130909220, 9711853908

Web: www.iesmaster.org E-mail: info@iesmaster.org

Explanation of Mechanical Engg. Prelims Paper (ESE - 2017)

Directions:

ICG sin2

hcp = x

Each of the following thirty (30) items consists Ax

R

of two statements, one labelled as Statement

(I) and the other as Statement (II). Examine Hence depth of centre of pressure is

these two statements carefully and select the independent on density of fluid.

answers to these items using the code given

below:

Code:

(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are

individually true and Statement (II) is the

TE 2.

Centre of area lies above the centre of

pressure

Statement (I): In flow through a pipeline, the

nature of the fluid flow depends on the velocity

AS

correct explanation of Statement (I) of the fluid.

(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are

Statement (II): Reynolds number of the

individually true but Statement (II) is not the

depends on the velocity, the diameter of the

correct explanation of Statement (I)

pipe and the kinematic viscosity of the fluid.

(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is

false

M

Ans. (a)

(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is

true Sol. The nature of flow means the flow is laminar

1. Statement (I): Depth of centre of pressure of or turbulent. Hence this nature is ascertained

any immersed surface is independent of the by Reynold number defined as,

S

vD

Statement (II): Centre of area of the immersed Re =

IE

body lies below the centre of pressure.

Ans. (c)

and ' ' is kinematic viscosity..

Sol. The depth of centre of pressure of immersed 3. Statement (I): The specific heat at constant

surface in liquid, pressure for an ideal gas is always greater

than the specific heat at constant volume.

ICG sin 2 Statement (II): Heat added at constant volume

Depth of centre of area +

Ax is not utilized for doing any external work.

, 8010009955

Ans. (a) Statement (II): The increase in this coefficient

is attributable to reduction in volume.

Sol. The specific heat of ideal gas of constant

pressure is the sum of specif ic heat at Ans. (c)

constant volume and a constant term. This

constant term comes due to work done Sol. The non-azeotropic or zeotropic mixtures are

R

component. This work done component is non-isothermal refrigerant i.e. temperature of

missing when heat is added at constant refrigerant varies during heat addition and

volume. rejection.

TE

4. Statement (I): A homogeneous mixture of

gases that do not react within themselves can Since average temperature of heat addition

be treated as a pure substance. i ncreases i n ev aporat or an d av erage

temperature of heat rejection reduces in

Statement (II): Flue gases can be treated as condenser which results in increased CoP

not reduction in volume.

AS

a homogeneous mixture of gases.

7. Statement (I): Sub-cooling of a refrigerant liquid

Ans. (b) increases the coefficient of performance of a

refrigeration cycle.

Sol. The composition of pure substance is

invariable and same through out the sample Statement (II): Sub-cooling reduces the work

M

react themselves.

5. Statement (I): Air-blast injection in diesel Ans. (c)

engines could reduce engine efficiency. Sol. The T-s diagram of vapour compression cycle,

S

engines is not instantaneous but happens when

the piston moves outward with the injection T

IE

2

Ans. (c) 4 3

4

Sol. In air injection or air blast injection, metered

fuel is carried by high pressure air around

5 5 1

65-70 bars into cylinders at the end of

compression stroke. The compressed air is

around 2.3% of total air consumption of s

engine and instantly enters the cylinder.

Process 4 4 is subcooling

6. Statement (I): Use of non-azeotropic mixtures

used as the refrigerant in a vapour compression Process 12 is work requirement.

system improves the coefficient of performance.

, 8010009955

The subcooling increases refrigerant effect speed side to transmit larger torque.

f rom (h 1 h 5 ) to (h1 h5 ) and nowork

requirement. Ans. (c)

8. Statement (I): In vapour-absorption system, Sol. The power rating of a mechanical system,

larger the value of specific solution circulation, Power = Torque Rotational.

more the pump work.

Hence higher the speed, lower will be the

R

Statement (II): Higher solution circulation rates torque so a clutch should be provided on

of poor as well as rich solutions need larger high speed side with suitable heat dissipation

pressure drops in the system. arrangement. This clutch will be small and

Ans. (c)

side pressure (generator and condenser) and

low pressure side pressure (absorber and

TE 11.

cost effective.

Statement (I): The volume of air taken into the

cylinder of a reciprocating air compressor is

less than the stroke volume of the cylinder,

AS

Statement (II): Air that has been compressed

ev aporat o r) are deci ded b y desi red

to clearance volume expands to larger volumes

application temperatures. The flow rate of

during the suction stroke.

solution controls the capacity of the system.

So high capacity requires high pump work.

Solution circulation rates and pressure drop Ans. (a)

has no relation.

M

9. Statement (I): Outward radial flow turbines do clearance space between the piston crown

race inherently. and the top of the cylinder . Air trapped in

this clearance volume is never delivered, it

Statement (II): In outward radial flow turbines, expands as the piston moves back and limit

the centrifugal head impressed upon the exiting

S

water leads to flow increase. to a value less than the swept volume.

12. Statement (I): Providing reheat in a Rankine

IE

Ans. (a)

cycle would increase the efficiency of the cycle.

Sol. In outward radial turbine water enters at the

Statement (II): Reheat in Rankine cycle

centre and flows radially outwards towards

reduces specific steam consumption.

the outer periphery of the runner and hence

the fluid gains centrifugal head while flowing

through it. Ans. (b)

10. Statement (I): Regarding the power transmitted Sol. By reheating there is gain of 4 to 7% of

by a clutch, greater the speed, lower the torque thermal efficiency take place as the output

to be transmitted for fixed power rating. of turbine is increased. Reheating may also

shortout blade erosion and corrosion problem

Statement (II): The clutch is placed on the low- in turbine.

, 8010009955

org

ANNOUNCES NEW BATCHES FOR

IES/GATE/PSUs

BRANCHES4

ENGG

ENGG COMM. ENGG

Weekend

Batches Start

th

28 Jan'17

Regular

ADMISSION

Batches Start OPEN FOR

th

15 Feb'17 SESSION

2017-18

8010009955, 9711853908

Specific steam consumption,

15. Statement (I): Proximate analysis of coal is

3600 done to determine its calorific value.

= W kg / kWh

net

Statement (II): In proximate analysis of coal,

the percentages of moisture, volatile matter,

R

Reheating increases W net . So, SSC is

fixed carbon and ash are determined.

reduces.

13. Statement (I): Heat carried away by hot gases Ans. (d)

TE

in chimney draught is much greater than the

work required for lifting the same gases thorugh Sol. Proximate analysis is done to examine four

the height of the chimney. Yet artificial draught factors : Moisture, volatile compound, ash

is not preferred. content and fixed carbon. Calorimeters are

used for calorific value estimation.

Statement (II): Artificial draught involves large

AS

initial cost as well as large maintenance cost. 16. Statement (I): Water entering into a condenser

from the cooling tower has much dissolved

impurities.

Ans. (b)

Statement (II): In a closed cooling system, the

Sol. The choice of chimmney or artificial draught water is continuously aerated, therefore, there

is application is specific. The artificial draft

M

require installation of FD & and ID fan and

some other accesories. The installation of

these equipments are very costly affair. Ans. (c)

14. Statement (I): The overall combustion efficiency Sol. A cooling tower is an open cooling system

S

of a fuel oil based plant is less as compared to and water can dissolved in purities from air

that of a coal burning plant. because of direct contact.

IE

Statement (II): Fuel oils contain comparatively A condenser a closed cooling system and

larger percentage of hydrogen, which produce there exists a vacuum in the condenser

more moisture per kg of fuel burnt. during operation. Hence t here ex ist a

possi bi l i t i es of ai r l eakage whi ch i s

Ans. (a) continuously deaerated.

17. Statement (I): Pyranometer is used to measure

Sol. Fuel oil (%H) is 10.99% (%H) in coal diffuse solar radiation by blocking the direct

(4.5 5.5) radiation with a shadow band.

percentage which on heating react with measure diffuse radiation.

oxygen produce moisture content in fuel

which drop the calrofic value of fuel oil.

, 8010009955

Ans. (c) 20. Statement (I): Hardenability curves are

developed based on the fact that any given

Sol. T he pyroh el i om et er i s a b roadband steel it em al ways dev elops the same

instrument that measures the direct (or microstructure under a standardized cooling

beam) component of solar radiation at normal rate.

incidence. It does not measure diff use

radiation. Statement (II): Industry employs Jominy

hardenability test to measure hardenability.

R

T he dif f use radiat i on is m easured by

pyrometer. Ans. (b)

18. Statement (I): Directionally solidified materials

have good creep resistance.

TE

Statement (II): Directionally solidified materials

may be so loaded that there is no shearing

stress along, or tensile stress across, the grain

boundaries.

Sol. The hardenability of a f errous alloy is

measured by Jominy test. A round metal bar

of standard size is transfered to 100%

austenite through heat treatment, and is then

quenched on one end with room temperature

water. The cooling rate will be highest at the

AS

end being quenched and will decrease as

Ans. (c) t he di stance f rom t he end i ncreases.

Subsequent to cooling a flat surface ground

Sol. Directionally solidif ied material posses on the test piece and the hardenbility is then

ex t rem el y good el ev at ed t em perat ure found by measuring the hardness along the

capability due to elimination of highly bar.

M

Farther away from the quenched end that

Statement II is not explaining the reason as t he hardness ext ends, t he higher the

stated above. hardenability. This in formation is plotted on

graph.

S

transmitting power is CI. 21. Statement (I): Cams used in high-speed

application should have displacement, velocity

IE

Statement (II): CI resists compression well. and acceleration curves of the follower in

continuity.

Ans. (d)

Statement (II): Abrupt changes in these curves

will cause high contact stresses at the bearings

Sol. Cast iron (CI) is brittle in nature so, its

and make the operation noisy.

torsional (shear) strength is less hence can

not used as shaft.

Ans. (a)

Cast iron is strong in compression but weak

under tension. Sol. Abrupt changs in displacement, velocity and

acceleration curves cause jerk in the system

and high magnitude of forces.

, 8010009955

22. Statement (I): Resonance is a special case of materials will have same moment of inertia

forced vibration in which the natural frequency about their central axes of rotation.

of the body is the same as the impressed

frequency of the external periodic force whereby Statement (II): Moment of inertia depends upon

the amplitude of the forced vibration peaks the distribution of mass within the body.

sharply.

R

Ans. (a)

Statement (II): The amplitude of forced

vibration of a body increases with increase in 26. Statement (I): The speed of a governed water

turbine will remain constant irrespective of load.

TE

the frequency of the externally impressed

periodic force.

Statement (II): In governing, the water supply

is regulated to maintain the speed constant.

Ans. (c)

23. Statement (I): All worm drives (worm and worm Ans. (a)

AS

wheel) are reversible.

Sol. The primary objective in turbine operation is

Statement (II): The worm and worm wheel are to maintain a constant speed of rotation

made of different materials. irrespective as the varying load. This is

achieved by means as governing in a turbine.

Ans. (d) 27. Statement (I): In sugarcane crushing rollers,

M

Sol. Only low speed ratio worm driv es are

steel shaft is of interference type.

reversible while high speed ratio drives are

non reversible. Statement (II): This helps in removing the roll

24. Statemen t (I): There is no balancing from the shaft whenever not needed.

S

engines. Ans. (c)

IE

Statement (II): Balancing of dynamic forces is 28. Statement (I): Thicker sections of casting take

achieved mostly by resorting to multi-cylinder longer to solidify than thinner sections.

engine concept.

Statement (II): Thicker sections of casting carry

residual stresses.

Ans. (b)

Ans. (b)

Sol. Single cylinder reciprocating engine can not

be balanced completely by any method. But 29. Statement (I): Sand with grains of uniform

in multicylinder engine case, it is possible to round shape is preferred for preparing moulds.

balance the engine in particular configuration

e.g.six cylinder Statement (II): If grains are large and regular

in shape, the air-venting property of the mould

25. Statement (I): Two circular discs of equal prepared with them would be better.

masses and thickness made of different

, 8010009955

Ans. (a) Ans. (d)

30. Statement (I): Bar chart plots in the time Sol. Assuming unit width of dam, the dam section,

dimension the planned performance of various

activities of a project.

6m

Statement (II): One advantage of a bar chart 5m

is that the inter sequence and linkage of all

activities is indicated therein.

R

2

Ans. (c) 33m

3

31. A section of a dam made of concrete, 2.6,

total height = 35 m, with top walkway width of

6 m, is shown. The upstream bottommost point

is called the Heel of the dam. The sloped part

TE

on downstream side is 3 vertical on 2 horizontal.

FV

B

R

FH

AS

Water stands till 2m short of the top of the dam Base width of dam,

section. The net resultant force acting on the

base level of the dam is nearly 30 30 2

B = 6 tan 6 3 26m

6m

2m 5m 1 2

M

Horizontal force F H = H

2

Water on 2

upstream 3 1 2

side 30m FH = 1000 33 kgf

2

S

= 544.5 k kgf

IE

1

(c) 1400 k kgf (d) 1433 k kgf F v = 6 35 20 30 2.6 1000

2

= 1326 k kgf

Resultant force = FH 2 Fv 2

, 8010009955

33. Consider the following statements pertaining

= 544.5 2 1326 2 to stability of floating bodies:

1. A floating body will be stable when the centre

= 1433.45 k kgf

of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy.

32. A spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter splits 2. The position of metacentres corresponding

R

up in air into 64 smaller drops of equal size. to different axes of rotation are generally

The surface tension coefficient of water in air different for the same floating object.

is 0.073 N/m. The work required in splitting up 3. For cargo ships, the metacentric height

the drop is

TE

varies with loading.

(a) 0.96 106 J (b) 0.69 106 J Which of the abvoe statements are correct?

(c) 0.32 106 J (d) 0.23 106 J (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

AS

Ans. (d)

Sol. By mass conservation

Sol. Floating body will be in stable equilibrium

4 3 4 3 when center of Buoyancy lies above the

0.5 = 64 r center of gravity.

3 3

Metacenteric height GM = BM BG

M

0.5

r = 0.125mm

4

I

= BG

V

E1 = T (surface area)

S

2

= 0.073 4 0.5 106 The Metacentric heights are different for

IE

2

1 34. Water is coming out from a tap and falls

E2 = 0.073 4 64 106

8 vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the

stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity

6

of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid flow,

= 0.073 4 10 constant pressure atmosphere everywhere, and

neglecting curvature and surface tension

E = 0.073 4 1 0.25 10

6 effects, the diameter of the stream 0.5 m below

the tap opening is nearly

= 0.073 4 10 6

4 (c) 17.5 mm (d) 20.4 mm

= 0.687 106 J

, 8010009955

Ans. (b)

d12 2

2 = d2 3.74 (d1 = 20mm)

Sol. Applying Bernoulli equation A A

P V12 P V2 202 2

Z1 = 2 2 Z2 d2 =

2g 2g 3.74

R

= 14.62 mm

20 mm 35. Consider the following statements regarding

datum Bernoullis equation :

supplied.

2. The velocity of a steady stream of fluid flow

will depend on the cross-sectional area of

the stream.

AS

3. Consider two sections 1 and 2 along a flow

d2 stream. In this reach, if q is work done by

a pump, w is work absorbed by turbine,

is density of water and g is acceleration of

P1 = P2 Patm gravity, with p, v and z carrying standard

M

Z1 = 0

p1 v12 p v2

z1 2 2 z 2 w g

2g 2g

Z 2 = 0.5

Which of the above statements are correct?

S

1 = 2m/s

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

IE

2 Ans. (a)

Z2 Vz

= 0.5

2 10 2 10 Sol. For find statement

2 = 3.74 m/sec

P V12 P V22

q Z1 = Z2 w

2g 2g

By continuity equation

36. An oil flows through a pipe at a velocity of 1.0

A1V1 = A2Vz m/s. The pipe is 45 m long and has 150 mm

diameter. What is the head loss due to friction,

if 869 kg/m3 and 0.0814 kg/m s?

, 8010009955

(a) 0.61 m (b) 0.51 m at low reynold number, viscous force

(c) 0.41 m (d) 0.31 m dominates over inertial force.

38. In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge

Ans. (a)

through a circular pipe of diameter D, the head

loss is proportional to

Sol. = 1m/sec d= 0.15

R

(a) D1 (b) D2

L = 45m s = 869 kg/m 3 (c) D3 (d) D4

TE

hL = ? = 0.0814 Ans. (d)

32 VL 32 4L 128QL

hL

AS

hL = 2 2 4

rgD gD gID

32 0.0814 1 45 1

= hL

869 10 0.152 4

D

M

=

195.52 V ix jy. The equation of the stream-line

passing through the point (1, 2) is

= 0.6 m

(b) x2 y + 2 = 0

S

(a) xy + 2 = 0

37. Consider the following statements:

(c) xy 2 = 0 (d) x2 y 2 = 0

1. At low Reynolds numbers of any flow,

IE

2. Transition from laminar to turbulent flow

occurs over a range of Reynolds numbers Sol. V ix jy

depending on the surface presented to the

flow.

Here u = x

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only v = y

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

For stream function

Ans. (c)

dx dy

Inertial force u v

Sol. Re =

Viscous force

, 8010009955

the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of

dx dy

or work, W is

x y

(a) 8% (b) 10%

(c) 12% (d) 15%

or Inx ln y Inc

Ans. (d)

or Inxy ln y

R

W

or xy c Sol. = 0.333

Q

for x 1, y 2

xy c gives c 2

So, xy c

TE Q = Cp T

AS

W

Cp T = 0.333

xy 2 0

Cp 1 1

What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if or =

the Reynolds number of the flow is 800? W 0.333 T 0.333 20

M

Cp 100

(c) 1 m/s (d) 0.5 m/s In percentage 15

W 0.333 20

Ans. (c)

42. A cylinder contains 10m3 of an ideal gas at a

S

Sol.

a reversible isothermal process till its pressure

Flow through a pipe is given by increases to 15 bar. What quantum of work will

IE

v = v max 1 r table given herewith).

R

Number 2 2.5 3 5 7

and m ean v el oci ty i n pipe rel at ed t o log10 0.301 0.397 0.475 0.698 0.845

maximum velocity is given by

(a) 4500 kJ (b) 4030 kJ

Vmax 2

Vmean = = = 1 (c) 450 kJ (d) 403 kJ

2 2

33.3% heat is converted into work while the

temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of

, 8010009955

Ans. (b) So, process is irreversible.

44. A reversible heat engine rejects 80% of the

p1 heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If

Sol. Work done W = p1v1 ln

p2 the engine is reversed and operates as a

refrigerator, then its coefficient of performance

R

shall be

5 2

= 2 10 10 ln (a) 6 (b) 5

15

(c) 4 (d) 3

6

6

= 2 10 2.303 log

2

15

TE Ans. (c)

Sol.

Q

AS

HE 0.2 Q

= 2 10 2.303 0.301 0.698 0.475

6

0.8 Q

= 4016 kJ

43. A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process

M

kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the

entropy of the surroundings decreases from Win

RE

80 kJ/kg K to 75 kJ/kg K. The process is

S

(b) irreversible

(c) reversible only

IE

1

(COP )HP

HE

Ans. (b)

or, (COP )RE 1 1 4

E 0.2

(S)sur 75 80 5 kg/ k 45. For the same efficiency of the Brayton cycle

and the Carnot cycle working between

(S)univ 10 5 5 0 temperature limits of Tmax and Tmin, the power

contribution of the Brayton cycle will be

, 8010009955

(a) zero (a) 0.6 (b) 0.5

(b) maximum (c) 0.4 (d) 0.3

(c) minimum

Ans. (c)

(d) 50% of the Carnot cycle

R

Sol. brayton cycle = 1 c T(K)

t

B

700

TE

1

T2 P2

where c = T =

1 P1

A C

300

Tmax

t = T

AS

min

T2

c = 1, means 1 (rP )

T1

Net work done W = area of ABC

M

1 P2

or, (1) =

P1 1

= 5 1 700 300

i.e., P2 = P1 2

so, contribution of power ratio is zero

S

= 4 400 800 kJ

shown is 2

IE

= 800 + (5 1) (300)

n 800

efficiency = 0.4

1 3 5

Q 2000

S(kJ/K)

, 8010009955

47. A heat engine working on the Carnot cycle 49. A furnace is provided with an insulating

receives heat at the rate of 50 kW from a source refractory lining. The overal thermal conductivity

at 1300 K and rejects it to a sink at 400 K. The of the material is 0.03 W/mK. The thickness of

heat rejected is the lining is 100 mm. The inner and outer

temperatures are 250C and 50C, respectively.

(a) 20.3 kW (b) 15.4 kW

The heat loss to the surroundings will be

R

(c) 12.4 kW (d) 10.8 kW

(a) 30 J/m2/s (b) 60 J/m2/s

Ans. (b) (c) 60 J/s (d) 30 J/s

TE

Ans. (b)

Q Q2

Sol. T1 = T2 for Carnot cycle

Sol.

kA

50 Q2 Q =

AS

= t

1300 400

0.03 A (250 50)

=

50 400 100 103

Q2 = 15.4 kW

1300

Q

or, = 0.03 200 10

48. An ideal gas is flowing through an insulated A

M

drop of 15% from the inlet to the outlet of the

pipe. What is the rate of energy loss because 50. A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of

of this pressure drop due to friction, given that 1.5 m2 and is made up of material of thermal

R gas = 0.287 kJ/kg K and the ref erence conductivity 0.4 W/mK. If the temperature on

S

temperature T0 is 300 K? the two sides of the wall are 800C and 1000C,

the thermal resistance of the wall is

(a) 42.62 kW (b) 40.26 kW

IE

(c) 38.14 kW (d) 35.13 kW

(c) 1 K/W (d) 1 W/K

Ans. (a)

Ans. (c)

p Sol.

Sol. Rate of energy loss = mRT0

p

L 0.6

0.15p Rth = K = 1

= 3.3 0.287 300 A 0.4 1.5

p

51. Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam

= 42.62 kW pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30C.

If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal

, 8010009955

conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the 2

heat transfer coefficient will be 12 1

= 68.033 4 (77 27)

1000 2 x

(a) 7.5 W/m2K (b) 15 W/m2K

(c) 25 W/m2K (d) 35 W/m2K = 1.539 1.54

53. The view factors F12 and F21, for the sphere of

Ans. (a)

diameter d and a cubical box of length l = d as

shown in the figure, respectively, are

R

Sol.

h D h 0.1

Nu = K A1

0.03

TE

air

h 0.1 l=d

or, 25 = A2

0.03

or, h = 75 W/mK

AS

52. Air at 1 atmospheric pressure and 27C blows

across a 12 mm diameter sphere at a free

stream velocity of 4 m/s. A small heater inside (a) 1 and (b) and 1

3 3

the sphere maintains the surface temperature

at 77C. With k = 0.026 W/m (kelvin) and with

(Nu) = 31.4, the heat loss by the sphere would (c) 1 and (d) and 1

6 6

be

M

(c) 1.65 J/s (d) 1.54 J/s

Sol.

Ans. (d) A1

S

Sol.

A2

IE

hD

Nu 31.4 l=d

kair

31.4 0.026

or, h =

12 For sphere by summation rule

1000

F 11 + F 12 = 1

= 68.033 Wm/K F 12 = 1 as sphere can not view itself

Heat loss by the sphere, By reciprocity theorem

A1F 12 = A2F 21

= hAT

, 8010009955

indicated thermal efficiency was nearly

2

d

4 (a) 29% (b) 26%

A1 A1 2

or, F 21 = A F12 = A = (c) 31% (d) 23%

2 2 6 l2

Ans. (a)

d2

R

= =

6 d2 6 Sol. Indicated power of one cylinder

TE

105 23 1200

reduced by = 18.6

60

1. retarding the spark

2. supercharging = 5.405 kW

3. increasing the engine speed

ip for u-cylinder engine = 5.405 4 =

AS

4. using a fuel of long straight chain structure

21.62 kW

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

f

m

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 bsfc = f = bp bsfc

or m

bp

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

M

f = 18.6

m kg/s

3600

Sol. By increasing engine speed & increases the

turbulence of the mixture considerably

resulting increasing flame speed and hence ip

S

it =

reduce the ignition delay. mf CV

IE

=

in SI and reverse in CI. 18.6 0.34 42000

pressure are reached down on the power 56. In a Morse test on a 2-cylinder, 2-stroke SI

stroke and are thus of lower magnitude. This engine, the brake power is 9 kW and the BHP

might reduce the knocking.

of individual cylinders with spark cutoff are 4.25

55. A 4-cylinder diesel running at 1200 r.p.m. kW and 3.75 kW, respectively. The mechanical

developed 18.6 kW. The average torque when efficiency of the engine is

one cylinder was cut out was 105 N m. If the (a) 90% (b) 80%

calorific value of the fuel was 42000 kJ/kg and

(c) 52.5% (d) 45.5%

the engine used 0.34 kg of diesel/kW hr, the

, 8010009955

Ans. (a) Sol.

the throtting in device

b p = 9 kW

ip1 = 4.75 kW

P

ip2 = 5.25 kW

Total ip of engine = iP 1 + iP2 = 4.75 + 5.25

R

= 10

bp 9 h

so, = = = 90%

57.

ip 10

TE

given for the vapour-compression refrigeration

cycle represent

58. Consider the f ol lowing statements f or

refrigeration and air-conditioning:

1. In a ref rigerating machine, the heat

exchanger that absorbs heat is connected

AS

to a conditioned space.

2. A refrigerating cycle operating reversibly

between two heat reservoirs has the highest

coefficient of performance.

3. The lower the refrigeration required and the

higher the temperature of heat rejection to

M

consumption.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

S

(b) temperature and entropy

Ans. (d)

(c) enthalpy and entropy

IE

Statement 1 refer to evaporator

Ans. (d)

Statement 2 support the cop.

Heat obsorbed

CoP =

Workdone per minute

Heat observed

=

Heat rejected Heat added

CoP = f(T)

For lower refregeration requirement and

higher heat rejection work input required will

, 8010009955

get i ncr ease and hence t he power

P2

consumption. as 1 so, by decreasing the clearance

P1

59. In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser

volume, volumetric efficiency get increased.

coil temperatures are 33C and 27C,

respectively. Assumign that the maximum COP By cooling the intake air increases the

value of so,

R

is realized, the required power input for a

refrigerating effect of 4 kW is

1

(a) 8 kW (b) 4 kW P

v = 1 c 2 c

TE

(c) 2 kW (d) 1 kW P1

Ans. (d) 1

P

increase as value of 2 will reduce.

Sol. P1

AS

(273 33) RE RE

= = 61. In a Hartnell governor, the mass of each ball is

273 27 (273 33) W input P input

4 kg. The maximum and minimum centrifugal

forces on the balls are 1800 N and 100 N at

240 4 radii 25 cm and 20 cm, respectively. The lengths

= P

60 input of vertical and horizontal arms of the bell-crank

levers are the same. What is the spring

M

or, Pinput = 1 kW

stiffness?

60. Consider the following statements: (a) 780 N/cm (b) 740 N/cm

The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating (c) 720 N/cm (d) 680 N/cm

compressor can be improved by

S

Ans. (d)

1. decreasing the clearnace volume

2. cooling the intake air

2

a F F

IE

Which of the above statements is/are correct? b r2 r1

(a) 2 only (b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3 1800 100

= 2 1

25 20

Ans. (c)

62. Consider the following statements regarding the

ends of the pressure vessels flanged by pre-

1

P tensioned bolts:

v = 1 c c L 1. Pre-tensioning helps to seal the pressure

P1

vessel.

, 8010009955

2. Pre-tensioning reduces the maximum tensile

4 4

stress in the bolts.

32

d =

32

d0 di4 ,

3. Pre-tensioning countermands the fatigue life

of the bolts.

This does not gurantee the same weight

4. Pre-tensioning helps to reduce the

deleterious effect of pressure pulsations in 64. A solid shaft is to transmit 20 kW at 200 r.p.m.

the pressure vessel. The ultimate shear stress for the shaft material

is 360 MPa and the factor of safety is 8. The

R

Which of the above statements are correct?

diameter of the solid shaft shall be

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(a) 42 mm (b) 45 mm

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 48 mm (d) 51 mm

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

TE Ans. (c)

Sol. P = 20 kW

AS

N = 200 rpm

tensile stress in the bolts.

63. Two shafts, one solid and the other hollow, = 20.94 rad/s

made of the same material, will have the same

strength and stiffness, if both are of the same Int = 360 MPa

(a) length as well as weight

FoS = 8

M

(c) weight as well as polar modulus Torsion,

(d) length, weight as well as polar modulus

S

T = 954.92 N m

2 200

60

GJ

Sol. K =

IE

L

16 T

I =

Tr d3

I =

J

If J of both the shafts are same then L has =

to be same for both for same stiffness and FoS 8 d3

vice-versa.

d = 47.63 mm

For same J, J solid = JHollow

, 8010009955

65. In the 4-bar mechanism as shown, the link PQ (ii) Bending stress due to restraint of the

measures 30 cm and rotates uniformly at 100 arms.

rev/min. The velocity of point Q on link PQ is

67. A stockist has to supply 400 units of a product

nearly

every Monday to his customers. He gets the

product at Rs. 50 per unit f rom the

R

R manufacturer. The cost of ordering and

transportation from the manufacturer to the

50 cm stockists premises is Rs. 75 per order. The

60 cm

cost of carrying inventory is 7.5% per year of

TE

Q

the cost of the product. What are the economic

70 cm lot size and the total optimal cost (including

P S

capital cost) for the stockist?

(a) 989 units/order and Rs. 20,065.80/week

(a) 2.54 m/s (b) 3.14 m/s

(b) 912 units/order and Rs. 20.065.80/week

AS

(c) 4.60 m/s (d) 5.80 m/s

(c) 989 units/order and Rs. 18,574.50/week

Ans. (b) (d) 912 units/order and Rs. 18,574.50/week

N = 100 rpm

M

2DC0 2 400 52 75

Sol. EOQ =

Cc 7.5

2 N 50

= 100

60

= 912 units

S

2 100

V = PQ 0.30

Total optimal cost

60

IE

= pD C0 Cc

66. The rim of a flywheel is subjected to EOQ 2

(a) direct tensile stress and bending stress

(b) torsional shear stress and bending stress 400 52

= 400 52 50 75 2

(c) direct shear stress and bending stress 912

(d) compressive stress and bending stress

Total optimal cost per week

Ans. (a)

400 52 50

= 912

(i) Tensile stress due to the centrifugal force 52

, 8010009955

= Rs. 20,065.80 per week 2. Papers, tapes, floppy tapes and cassettes

are used for data storage.

68. Consider just only the following parameters:

3. Digitizers may be used as interactive input

1. Grinding wheel diameter

devices.

2. Regulating wheel diameter

4. Post-processor is an item of hardware.

3. Speed of grinding wheel

Which of the above statements are correct?

4. Speed of regualting wheel

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4

R

Which of the above parameters will influence (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

the axial feed rate in centreless grinding?

(a) 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 Ans. (d)

(c) 1 and 3

Ans. (a)

Sol.

(d) 1 and 4

1. Less direct labour

2. Less scrap and rework

3. Higher machine use

Which of the above are correct?

AS

f speed regulating wheel

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only

Dia of regulating wheel

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

f DNsin

Ans. (d)

69. A metric thread of pitch 2 mm and thread angle

60 is inspected for its pitch diameter usign the 72. A firms inventory turnover of Rs. 8,00,000 is 5

M

3-wire method. The indicated diameter of the times the cost of goods sold. If the inventory

wire will be nearly turnover is improved to 8 with the cost of goods

(a) 0.85 mm (b) 1.05 mm sold remaining the same, a substantial amount

of f und is either released f rom, or gets

(c) 1.15 mm (d) 2.05 mm

additionally invested in, inventory. Which one

S

Ans. (c)

(a) Rs. 1,60,000 is released.

(b) Rs. 1,60,000 is additionally invested.

IE

P 2

(c) Rs. 60,000 is released.

Sol. d = 2cos 60

2 cos (d) Rs. 60,000 is additonally invested

2 2

Ans. (c)

1

= 1.15mm

cos30 8,00,000

Sol. Inventory turnover = 5 =

old inventory

70. Consi der the f ollowing statements with

reference to NC machines:

1. Both closed-loop and open-loop systems are 800000

used. old inventory =

5

, 8010009955

Rs. 160,000 Ans. (b)

Inventory Turnover = 8 Sol. Receivables turnover =

new inventory average receivable

R

800000 6,00,000 0.9

New inventory = Rs.100,000 5 = Average receivable

8

TE

Old inventory new inventory

6,00,000 0.9

Average receivable =

= 160,000 1,00,000 = Rs. 60,000 released 5

73. An 8-hour measurment study in a plant reveals

that 320 number of units were produced. If idle = 1,08,000

AS

time = 15% and performance rating = 120%,

with allowance = 12% of normal time, the 365

Average collection period = 73 days

standard time per unit produced will be 5

(a) 1.823 minutes (b) 1.714 minutes

75. A particular item has a demand of 9000 units/

(c) 1.645 minutes (d) 1.286 minutes

year. The cost of one procurement is Rs. 108

M

Ans. ( )

The replacement is instantaneous and no

Sol. Standard t i me ST = observ ed t im e shortages are allowed. What is the optimum

Rating factor (1 + Allowance) number of orders/year?

(a) 7 orders/year (b) 8 orders/year

S

480 0.85

or ST = 1.2 1.12

320

Ans. (d)

IE

= 1.714 minutes

2DC0

74. An organizations sales during a financial year Sol. EOQ = Cc

is Rs. 6,00,000 with 90% of it on credit. At the

end of the year, the receivables turnover was

found to be 5. Considering 365 days to a year,

the average collection period and receivables 2 9000 108

= 900

are, respectively 2.4

(a) 81 days and Rs. 1,08,000

(b) 73 days and Rs. 1,08,000 D

Optimum no. of order/year =

(c) 81 days and Rs. 1,20,000 EOQ

(d) 73 days and Rs. 1,20,000

, 8010009955

Ans. (d)

9000

= 10 orders/year

900

respect to microcontrollers? Sol. (w<<w n)

z0 Displacement

(a) Integration of a microprocessor with I/O (w>>w n)

y0

interfaces and memory and other peripherals

R

in a single IC chip

1

(b) A single very large scale integrated (VLSI)

chip that contains programmable electronic

TE

w

components that perform control functions wn

(c) Digital circuits for data handling and

computation

(d) The primary computation and system control Displacement Pickup. n

AS

operations

Ans. (a)

microcomputer, i.e. it contains the circuitry n =

M

of microprocessor and in addition it has built

M

pripherals necessary for an applications. Increase m and decrease K.

77. Which one of the following statements is work spring and heavy mass

correct?

S

System modling

Seismic transducer working in the displacement

mode should have

IE

x = x0sin()

(a) weak springs and heavy mass

(b) stiff springs and light mass

(c) weak springs and light mass y = y0sint

(d) stiff springs and heavy mass

= c x y k x y

mx

where z = xy

cz kz = my

mz

, 8010009955

2 2N 1

za /n r

NL

y0 = 2 1/2 V = 60 2

2 2 60

1 2

ln ln

0.3 ALN

R

Given: Q= ALN 0.3

60 60

z0

If n 1;

y0

TE

2 2

A = d 0.05 1.9635 10 6

4 4

Displacement pickup n n

LN = 152.78

2

z0

AS

y0 Acceleration LN

n V = 2.546 m/s

60

78. What will be the velocity of piston movement

79. A stepper motor is to be used to drive the

for a single-acting hydraulic actuator, when the

linear axis of a certain mechatronics system.

fluid pressure is 100 bar, the diameter of the

The motor output shaft is connected to a screw

piston is 50 mm and the flow rate is 0.3 m 3/

thread with a 30 mm pitch. Linear resolution of

M

min?

0.5 mm is stipulated. What is the needed step

(a) 2.41 m/s (b) 2.55 m/s angle ?

S

(c) 7 (d) 6

Ans. (b)

Ans. (d)

IE

ALN

Sol. Discharge, Q =

60 Linear Resolution

Sol. Step angle = 360

Pitch

Also, displacement,

0.5

1 = 360

x = r 1 cos where, r L 30

2

= 6

dx

Velocity, = r sin 80. Consider the following statments regarding a

dt stepper motor :

to the input pulse.

, 8010009955

2. The motor has full torque at standstill Ans. (a)

vary mutually linearly.

16,16

Which of the above statement are correct? 2 D

A 10

30,30 42,42

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 0,0 16 F

1 8 C 4 5

R

B 12

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

20 E

3

6

Ans. (d) 24,24

is descrete steps. Unlike normal DC motors,

if provides maximum torque of low speeds.

I ts rotat i onal speed v ari es di rect l y

proportional to the frequency of the pulse.

TE 82.

FT = (16 0) 16 = 0

Consi der the f ollowing statements with

reference to SCARA Robot :

AS

1.It has four degrees of freedom

81. The following table lists the tasks in a project

and the time duration for each task : 2. It has only one forward kinematic solution.

Task Preceding Normal duration 3.It has two inverse kinematic solutions.

A 16

B 20 Which of the above statements are correct?

M

C A 8

D A 10 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

E B,C 6

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

F D,E 12

S

The critical path, the project duration and the Ans. (d)

free float for activity A are, respectively.

Sol. SCARA Robot:

IE

(b) B-E-F; 42 weeks and 1 week 4 DoFS,

(c) B-C-D-F; 50 weeks and 2 weeks 1 Forward kinematic solution (for given

(d) A-C-E-F; 50 weeks and 0 week joints rotation, unique end-effector (EE)

configuration, two sets of solution exist).

, 8010009955

83. Consider the following statements regarding the 1. Vibration signature is essentially in the

law of Robotics : frequency range zero to 100 cps whereas noise

signature is in the range 20 cps to 3000 cps.

1. A Robot shall not injure a human being or

through inaction allow a human being harmed. 2. Vibration signature has welldefined peaks

whereas the noise signal is smeared.

R

2. A Robot must obey orders given by humans

except when such orders conflict with first law. 3.The intensities of noise signatures are much

less than that of vibration signatures.

TE

3. A Robot must always protect its own

existence. 4. Detection of vibration signature calls for a

microphone whereas that of noise can do with

Which of the above statements are correct? a pickup.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given

AS

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 below:

Ans. (a)

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4

Sol. Statement (1) is It should be

Ans. (b)

M

through in action, allow a human being Sol. Vibration signature range might go beyond

harmed. 100 Hz and may be even more than 20,000

Hz.

Statement (2) is right.

S

Statement (3) Should be - A Robot must

always protect its own existance as long as Noise microphone

IE

86. Consider the following features relating to Robot

and second law of Robotics

kinematics with reference to SCARA Robot :

84. The number of degrees of freedom in a 3D

Robot of TRL : R type configuration is : 1. Shoulder and elbow rotational axes are

vertical.

(a) 4 (b) 3

(c) 2 (d) 1 2. The Robot could perform insertion tasks

along the vertical direction.

Ans. (a)

3. Its general configuration is analogous to that

85. Which of the following are the basic differences of a human arm.

bet ween v ibration signature and noise

signature? Which of the above features are correct?

, 8010009955

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 So, Ch Cc

Ans. (d)

Th1 Th2 250 100

So,

Sol. Rev olute j oints of shoulder and elbow Th1 TC1 250 50

rotational axes are vertical.

87. A flywheel fitted to a steam engine has a mass

150

R

of 500 kg and radius of gyration 300 mm. The = = 0.75

starting torque is 900 N m. What is the kinetic 200

energy after 10 s ? 89. Two air streams with mass flow rates of 36 kg/

TE

min and 14 kg/min with respective enthalpies

(a) 225 kJ (b) 450 kJ

of 36 kJ/kg da and 50 kJ/kg da are mixed. The

(c) 900 kJ (d) 1800 kJ enthalpy of the mixture is nearly

Ans. (c)

(c) 46 kJ/kg da (d) 40 kJ/kg da

AS

Sol. I = mk2 = 500 (0.3) 2 =45 kg-m 2

Ans. (d)

T 900

Angular acce. = 20 rad/s2

I 45 m1h1 m2h2

Sol. h =

m1 m2

M

= t 20 10 200 rad/s

36 36 14 50

1 2 1 2

= 39.92 40

KE = I 45 200 900 kJ 36 14

2 2

90. Consider the following statements in respect of

88. In a counterflow heat exchanger, hot gases maximum efficiency of a two-stage reciprocating

S

air enters at 50C and leaves at 80C. The

effectiveness of the heat exchanger will be : 1. The pressure ratios are same for each stage.

IE

(a) 0.20 (b) 0.25 2. The work done is same in each stage.

(c) 0.30 (d) 0.35

3. The intercooling is perfect.

Ans. (*)

Which of the above statements are correct?

Sol. Th1 Th2 250 100 150 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

& Tc2 Tc1 80 50 30

, 8010009955

Ans. (d) By this total pressure Ps air get increase

which increase the condeser pressure

Sol. rp = pressure rat io f or each stage of

As air tend to cling the surface which

compress for maximum efficiency reduces the condesing co-efficient.

1/2 Because of low thermal conductivity of air,

R

Pmax air imparts large thermal resistance,

=

Pmin

92. The refrigeration system of an ice plant working

Work done in each stage will be same between temperatures of 5C and 25C

TE

produces 20 kg of ice per minute from water at

Pmax 20C. The specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg

as w = f P and latent heat of ice is 335 kJ/kg. The

min

refrigeration capacity of the refrigeration plant

By perfect inter cooling we will achieve the is

isothermal compression which required the

AS

last work the efficiency will improve. (a) 9040 kJ/min (b) 8750 kJ/min

91. Consider the following statements : (c) 8380 kJ/min (d) 8010 kJ/min

M

1. remains as a non-condensable gas Sol. Heat required to form the ice from 20

= 20 4.2 20 + 20 335

2. reduces the condensing coefficient

= 8380 kJ/min = Refrigeration

3. tends to cling to the surface Capacity of plant.

S

4. introduces large thermal resistance

a vapour-absorption refrigration cycle :

Which of the above statements are correct?

IE

(a) 1, 2 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only used when waste heat is avilable from an

existing source or when free energy like solar

(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

energy is to be used.

refrigeration plant except a small liquid pump.

Sol.

The performance of condenser due to 3. The value of the coefficient of performance

presence of air (which will remain non is nearly the same in both vapour-absorption

considerable) gets affected badly. and vapour- compression refrigeration plants.

It blanket the heat transfer surfaces such

as outside the surface of condenser tubes Which of the above statements are correct?

which reduces the considering heat transfer

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only

co-efficient.

, 8010009955

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Pv 2.5

Q 58.8%

PS = 4.246

Ans. (b)

95. Consider the following statements in respect of

Sol. The vapour absorption system in place of an evaporative cooling process :

compressor absorber equipments (Generator,

absorber sm all pump) are used which 1. The wet-bulb temperature remains constant.

replaces the moving part.

R

In this system strong solution in generater 2. The dew-point temperature remains constant.

is heated by same external sources, these

external source can be waste heat (e.g. 3. The enthalpy remains constant.

94.

steam in hospital is waste) or free energy

like solar energy is available.

The COP of absorption system is about 20

to 30% of the vapour compression system.

Air at 30C and 1 bar has a specific humidity

TE Which of the above statements are correct?

(a)

(b)

1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

AS

of 0.016 kg/kg of dry air. By considering the

saturation pressure of water vapour at 30C as (c) 2 and 3 only

4.246 kPa, the relative humidity of th air will be

(d) 1 and 3 only

(a) 66.1% (b) 60.2%

(c) 58.8% (d) 56.8% Ans. (d)

M

and enthalpy remain constant.

0.622Pv

S

Sol. Pb Pv

IE

0.016

1 Pv w2

1 P 0.622

or 38.875 w1

P 0.016

1 td1

or P 0.0250bar td2

39.875

2.5 ka

, 8010009955

h2 h1 (wL w1 )hfw Ans. (a)

Sol.

(w 2 w1 )hfw is very small Note: only in one case where efficiency of

otto cycle is more than and in disel cycle is

So, h2 h1 same compression ratio rest of the cases

R

efficiency of disel cycle is always greater than

96. For a steady process, the conditions at stage otto cycle.

1 and stage 2 are , respectively, h1 300 kJ/ In this case by considering same maximum

TE

Kg, h2 150 kJ/kg, S1 1.25 kJ/kg K and pressure and heat input or same maximum

pressure and work output or same peak

S2 0.8 kJ/kg K. The availability at the pressure, peak temp. and peak rejection

ambient temperature 300 K will be : compression ratio and efficiency of disel

cycle is more than otto cycle.

(a) 15 kJ (b) 20 kJ

AS

98. Which of the following statements are correct?

(c) 25 kJ (d) 35 kJ

1. The specific speed of a turbine is the speed

Ans. (a) at which a homologous turbine develops 1 mhp

Sol. Availability = h1 h0 T0 (S1 S2 ) under unit heat at its maximum efficiency.

M

parameter used for the selection of turbines.

= 150 300 0.45

3.The function of guide vanes in reaction

= 15 kg turbines is to minimize shock at entry of the

S

97. If the maximum pressure in both air standard

Otto and diesel cycles is the same, then the Select the correct answer using the code given

IE

efficiency between the two cycles are :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only

(a) rDiesel rOtto and Diesel Otto (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only

(c) rDiesel rOtto and Otto Diesel Sol. The specific speed may be dimensional or

non-di m en si onal and i s an i m portant

(d) rOtto rDiesel and Otto Diesel parameter in turbine selection.

, 8010009955

Ans. (c)

99. A centrifugal pump lifts 0.0125 m3 / s of water

For insulated rod, (shorter rod)

from a well with a static lift of 30 m. If the

Qconvection = Q radiation

brake power of the driving electric motor is 5

kW, what is the overall efficiency of the pump- KA '

set ? or, hA = ...(i)

L

For longer rod at mid point,

(a) 57.6% (b) 63.9%

R

Q convection = Q conduction

(c) 65.3% (d) 73.6%

KA '

hA = ...(ii)

L

TE

Ans. (d)

Both equation (i) and (ii) are same so, temp.

Sol. Q = 0.0125m 3/s at midpoint of rod = 55C

101. Consider the following statements in repsect of

H = 30 m

ideal and practical gas turbine cycles :

AS

P = QH 9.8 0.0125 30 kW 1. In the ideal cycle case, the cycle efficiency

depends on the pressure ratio only.

= 3.6 kW

2. In the practical cycle case (with

irrev ersibilities in the compression and

3.675

= 0.735 expansion processes), The cycle efficiency

M

5

depends on the maximum temperature as well

as on the pressure ratio.

= 73.5%

3. In the practical cycle case, at a given

100. Two rods, one of length l and the other of maximum temperature, the maximum efficiency

S

length 2l , are made of the same material and and the maximum work done occur at a same

have same diameter. Both ends of the longer pressure ratio.

rod are maintained at 100C. One end of the

IE

shorter rod is maintained at 100C while the Which of the above statements are correct ?

other end is insulated. Both rods are exposed

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

to the same environment at 40C. The

temperature at the insulated end is measaured (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

to be 55C The temperature at the midpoint of

the longer rod would be : Ans. (a)

(c) 55C (d) 60C The efficiency of ideal gas turbine cycle

depends on the pressure ratio,

, 8010009955

1 1 2

= 1 1 y = gt ...(ii)

r z

The practical cycle, the efficiency of turbine

and compression came in picture due to

gx 2

irreversibilities so final efficiency depend not =

R

2y

only pressure ratio but also maximum temp.

The maximum work done and efficiency of

the gas turbine is given at temp. ratio Vth = 2gh

TE

1

r

t min = x2 0.4062

t c Cv =

Vth 4y h 4 0.085 0.51

Here T 03 = maximum temp. of cycle.

AS

if T 03 is fixed, then = 0.975

r = pressure ratio will also fixed only variation

103. In the working of a vapour-compression

may happen in t and c refrigeration plant, the following enthalpies are

recorded at salient points in the cycle :

102. A jet of water issues from a sharp-edged

vertical orifice under a constant heat of 0.51 1. Enthalpy at inlet to compressor (saturated

M

horizontal and vertical coordinates measured vapour), h1 300 kJ / kg .

from vena contracta are 0.406 m and 0.085

m, respectively. What is the value of the 2. Enthalpy at outlet of compressor (after

coefficient of velocity ? isentropic compression), h2 330 kJ / kg

S

3. Enthalpy at exit of condenser (saturated

(c) 0.875 (d) 0.825

IE

liquid), h3 150 kJ / kg .

(a) 3 (b) 4

Sol. x

(c) 5 (d) 6

y Ans. (c)

x = t ...(i)

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output.

RE 150

So, COP 5

Winput 30 3. The capacity of the condenser is reduced.

104. Consider the following statements for single- Which of the above statements are correct?

stage reciprocating compressors :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only

1. Isothermal process is the most desirable

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

R

process for compression.

the compressor has no effect on work done

per kg of air delivered.

decreases with increasing pressure.

TESol. Regenera t i on i ncreases t he m ean

temperature of heat addition of rankine cycle,

hence the efficiency of cycle.

stage, less amount of steam will condensed

AS

in condenser so, it reduced the condenser

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only capacity (size of condenser).

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

The major disadvantage of regenerative cycle

is requirement of larger boiler capacity for a

Ans. (d)

given power.

M

Sol. As work input for isothermal process is 106. Consider the following statements in respect of

mi nimum. t hen f or polytropic then f or (l) the temperature of the medium, (m) the

adiabatic. so isothermal process is desirable

proces of compression. ref ri gerant and (n ) the condenser and

S

1/n

P 1. Temperature of the medium being cooled

vol 1 c c 2

must be below that of the evaporator.

IE

P1

By increase in pressure ratio volumetric

efficiency will decrease in compressor. So, 3. Any solar thermally operated absorption

statement 3 is correct. system is capable only of intermittent operation.

105. Consider the following statements in respect of

regenerative Rankine cycle : Which of the above statements are correct ?

1. Regeneration increases the efficiency of the

cycle. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Ans. (c) transfer coefficient.

Sol. In absorption system the temperature of 2. The efficiency of heat transfer in a condenser

medium being cooled is more than the will improve by increase of the velocity of flow

evoporater temperature. of water in the tube.

R

I n t hi s syst em ref ri gerant l eav es t he 3. The difference between the temperature of

condenser as liquid. steam entering the condenser and the inlet

water temperature should be maximum for

TE

Solar thermally operated system can be used maximum efficiency.

for intermittent operation because of the

availability of absorber source. Which of the above statements are correct?

107. Volumetric analysis of a certain flue gas gave (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

CO2 15%, O2 5% and rest as N2. The gas was

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

AS

at a temperature of 200C and a pressure of 5

bar. The partial pressure of N2 in the flue gas

is Ans. (d)

M

Ans. (d)

increasing the ov erall heat transfer co-

efficient.

Sol. let 1 mole of gas is there

S

IE

Where mc = mass flow rate of water

= Ptotal mole of nitrogen

mc = AV

= 5 0.8 4 bar 400 KN / m2

V = Flow rate

108. Consider the following statements :

hsteam hcondensate Ts Tc

1. The efficiency of heat transfer in a condenser

will improve by increase of the overall heat

, 8010009955

109. The total power developed by a three stage Which of the above statements are correct?

velocity compounded impulse steam turbine is

900 kW. The power magnitudes developed in (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only

the f irst and the second stages are, (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

respectively

Ans. (d)

(a) 500 kW and 300 kW

(b) 100 kW and 300 kW Sol. Cooling towers vary in size from small roof-

R

(c) 500 kW and 100 kW top units to very large Hyperboloid structure

that can be upto 200 meters tall 100m in

(d) 100 kW and 100 kW diameter or rectangular structure that can

Ans. (a)

3 stage turbine is 5:3:1.

TE be over 40m tall and 80 m. The Hyperboloid

st ruct ure of cool i ng t ower i s m ai nl y

associ at e d wi t h st rengt h not wi t h

thermodynamic Augumentation. This used in

Nucl ear p l ant where hei ght of t ower

AS

requirement is more due to safety.

So, Work put in first stage of fan. Because of it these are very tall. So,

statement 1 is wrong.

5 111. Consider the following statements :

= 900 500 kW

M

5 3 1

Work out put in 2nd stage 1. Wind velocity at about 20 m height above

the ground is taken as the rated velocity for

3 design of windmills.

= 900 300 kW

5 3 1

S

110. Consider the following statements in respect of proportional to the cube of average velocity.

natural-draft cooling towers :

IE

1. Theoretically the water can be cooled to even a narrow range between cut-in and cut-out

below the dry-bulb temperature of the induced velocities.

air flow.

4. Vertical wind machine operates in all wind

2. Natural draft cooling towers are 100 m or directions, but it needs yaw adjustment.

more in height.

Which of the above statements are correct?

3. The inner and outer surfaces are surfaces

of revolution of a segment of a hyperbola about (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4

the vertical axis-affording improved strength (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

rather than any thermodynamic augmentation.

, 8010009955

Ans. (d) space craft.

Sol. The total power of wind stream in wind Direct methonal fuel cell is a type of

turbine is given by proton exchange membrane fuel cell.

R

1

P = cpAV 3 space craft and it is also termed as Bacon

2

fuel cell.

TE

1000 r.p.m. in 6 seconds. the number of

C p = Power co-efficient revolutions made thereby is nearly :

(c) 50 (d) 20

AS

A = swept area of turbine

Ans. (c)

V = Wind speed

4m/sec to cut-out speed around 25m/sec which

is a narrow range of speed.

M

1000

= 0 6

60

Vertical wind machines are omni-directional do

not require complex mechanism and motors to

yaw the rotor and pitch the blades. So, we can 1000

=

say statement 4 is wrong. 60 6

S

1 2

= 0 t

IE

applications ?

= 0 6

(b) Proton exchange membrane fuel cell 2 60 6

(d) Phosphoric acid fuel cell 114. Two steel balls of 2 kg and 4 kg mass,

respectively are pressed on the two ends of a

Ans. (c) spring, all pre-placed on a smooth surface.

When released, the smaller ball moves with an

Sol. Proton exchange membrane fuel cell is

under process of application so, we can acceleration of 2m / s2 . The simultaneous

not say directly it can be suitable for acceleration of the bigger ball will be :

, 8010009955

Ans. (b)

(a) 0.5 m / s2 (b) 1 m / s2

Sol. V2 = u2 + 2as

2 2

(c) 2 m / s (d) 4 m / s

2

0 400

Ans. (b) a=

2 0.12

R

dp = 666.67 103 m/s2

Sol. Here, Fext. =

dt

v = u + at

mA

k

F

mB

TE t=

u

400

a 666.67 103

AS

rA rB

P mv 0

Average force =

C = centre of mass t t

MA rA MB rB = 0 0.03 400

= N

M

0.6 10 3

MA VA MB VB = 0

= 20 kN

116. A ball of weight 100 N is tied to a smooth wall

MA aA MBaB = 0

by a cord making an angle of 30 to the wall.

S

Acceleration of bigger mass, a B =

22

IE

1 m/s2 . 200

4 (a) 200 N (b) N

3

115. A bullet of mass 0.03 kg moving with a speed

of 400 m/s penetrates 12 cm into a fixed block (c) 100 N (d) 50 3 N

of wood. The average force exerted by the

wood on the bullet will be : Ans. (d)

(a) 30 kN (b) 20 kN

Sol. FBD of system is as follow :

(c) 15 kN (d) 10 kN

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1

1 =

2 0.385

I

30

10 = 0.298

0

0 co

in 3 s3 118. A bar produces a lateral strain of magnitude

R

0s 0

10 30

5 mm when subjected to a tensile

60 10

100 kg

stress of magnitude 300 MPa along the axial

TE

direction. What is the elastic modulus of the

material if the poissons ratio is 0.3?

at equilibrium (a) 200 GPa (b) 150 GPa

(c) 125 GPa (d) 100 Gpa

T = 100 cos 30

AS

Ans. (b)

3

T = 100 Sol. Lateral strain = Axail strain

2

3 60 105

M

2 0.3

x = 300 MPa

found to be 38.5% of tghe value of its Youngs

modulus. The poissons ratio of the material

S

E =

E x 200 105

(a) 0.28 (b) 0.30

IE

= 150 GPa

consider that the conditions of economy of use

of the material would avail as follows :

E

Sol. G = 2 1

1.Rectangular cross-section is m ore

economical than square section area of the

beam.

G 1

= 2 1 0.385

E 2. Circular section is more economical than

square section.

, 8010009955

3. I-section is more economical than a

rectangular section of the same depth. b

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

R

o y

Ans. (d)

Sol. Sect i onal m o dul us (z) m ore 121. A beam of rectangular section (12 cm wide

economical.

=

My

I

M

I/ Y

M

Z

TE 20 cm deep) is simply supported over a span

of 12 m. It is acted upon by a concentrated

load of 80 kN at the midspan. The maximum

bending stress induced is :

AS

Z = 6 (c) 200 MPa (d) 100 MPa

Z Z Ans. (b)

6 3 12 20

M

correct? Sol. I = cm 4

12 12

(a) The strain produced per unit volume is called

resilience. = 8 103 cm 4

(b) The maximum strain produced per unit

Span, L = 12m

S

(c) The least strain energy stored in a unit Load, P = 80 kN

volume volume is called proof resilience.

IE

Mmax = 240 kNm

volume of a material without permanent 4

deformation is called proof resilience.

=

I 8 105

Sol. Definition of Resilience

= 300 Mpa

122. A uniform bar, simply supported at the ends,

carries a concentrated load P at mid-span. If

the same load be, alternatively, uniformly

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distributed over the full length of the bar, the 124. A boy walks up a stalled escalator in 90

maximum deflection of the bar will decrease seconds. When the same escalator moves, he

by is carried up in 60 seconds. How much time

would it take him to walk up the moving

(a) 25.5% (b) 31.5% escalator?

(c) 37.5% (d) 50.0%

R

(a) 48 seconds (b) 36 seconds

TE

Ans. (b)

PL3

Sol. concentrated =

48EI

Sol. Let ' ' be length of escalator,,

5L4 5PL3 1

AS

uniformly = P L Velocity, b =

384EI 284EI 90

1 5 v escable =

60

48 384

% decrement in = 1

M

48

= 37.5% Time =

123. A thin cylindrical pressure vessel and a thin

S

90 60

spherical pressure vessel have the same mean

radius, same wall thickness and are subjected

= 36 sec

to same internal pressure. The hoop stresses

IE

set up in these vessels cylinder in relation to 125. A 10 mm diameter bar of mild steel of elastic

sphere) will be in the ratio

modulus 200 109 Pa is subjected to a tensile

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1: 1 load of 50000 N, taking it just beyond its yield

(c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1 point. The elastic recovery of strain that would

occur upon removal of tensile load will be

Ans. (c)

(a) 1.38 103 (b) 2.68 10 3

hoop/cylinder 2t

Sol. hoop/sphere = = 2 : 1

Pd

1t

, 8010009955

Ans. (c) 127. Which of the following statements is correct ?

equilibrium diagrams.

E = 200 GPa (b) Iron-carbon and TTT diagrams are both non-

equilibrium diagrams.

P = 5000 N

(c) Iron-carbon diagram is an equilibrium

R

diagram but TTT diagram is a non-

P 4P

Stress, = 2 636.62 MPa equilibrium diagram

A d

(d) Iron carbon diagram is a non-equilibrium

E =

E

3.18 10 3

structure would be retained if :

TE Ans. (c)

Sol.

diagram but TTT diagram is an equilibrium

diagram.

AS

(a) the rate of cooling is greater than the critical diagram but does not show time as a variable

cooling rate and hence the effects of different cooling

rates on steel does not revealed. Moreover,

(b) the rate of cooling is less than the critical

equilibrium conditions are not maintained in

cooling rate

heat treatment. Although, the iron-carbon

(c) the initiating temperatrue of martensite equilibrium diagram reveals on the phases

M

equilibrium conditions but several useful

(d) the finishing temperature of martensite

properties of steel can be obtained under

formation is below the room temperature

non-equilibrium conditions e.g. variable rates

of cooling as produced during quenching and

S

and martensite.

Sol. When the finishing temperature of martensite

IE

(Mf) is below the room temperature then we 128. The correct order of increasing resistivity among

get the retained austenite. the following materials is :

The martensite start (M s ) and martensite (a) nickel, doped silicon, sodium silicate, pure

finish (Mf) temperature are related and these silica

temperatures are controlled by v arious (b) doped silicon, nickel, pure silica, sodium

all oying elem ent includi ng carbon and silicate

chromium.

(c) Nickel, pure silica, sodium silicate, doped

Note: Higher carbon reduces the Ms and M f silicon

temperature, until the Mf temperature can be (d) Sodium silicate, nickel, pure silica, doped

lower than room temperature. silicon

, 8010009955

Ans. (a) By Helmhottz free energy equation free

energy is given by

Sol. Nickel is a metal so it will have higher

electrical conductivity because of valence A = U Ts

electrons free movement in solid.

where U = internal energy

R

Due to dopping Si become a extrinsic

sem i cond uct or whi ch hav e hi gher T = temp.

conductivity than intrinsic semiconductor.

TE

S = entropy

Sodium silicate is a partial conductor of

electricity due to presence of sodium ion and So, By increase in entropy free energy get

silicate ion. reduced,

Pure silica is piezoelectric material which So, option 2 and 3 are true

AS

hav e lower electrical conductiv ity than 130. Which of the following properties will be the

sodiumsilicate meaningful indicator/indicators of uniform rate

of elongation of a test piece of a structural

Note: Resistivity is opposite of conductivity. material before necking happens in the test

129. Consider the following statements : piece ?

M

shrinkage

2. Toughness

1. maximizes the enthalpy

3. Hardness

S

Select the correct answer using the code given

3. minimizes the free energy below :

IE

(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Which of the above statements are correct ?

energy and pl asti cal ly def orm wi thout

Ans. (b) fracture. It can also defined as the amount

of energy per unit volume that a material

Sol. In heating elostomere under tensile load can absorb before rupturing.

entropy get decrease because of only one

possible microstate but by shrinkage entropy

get increased because of many possible

microstates.

, 8010009955

131. Which one of the following alloying elements Ans. (b)

increases the corrosion resistance of steel?

(a) Vanadium (b) Chromium Sol. dof = 3 (n 1) 2J h Fr

(c) Nickel (d) Copper

= 3 (10 1) 2 12 0 0

Ans. (b)

=3

Sol. Chrom i um i s t he m ai n con st i t uent 134. The displacement and velocity diagrams of a

R

responsible for increasing the corosion cam and follower mechanism are shown:

resistant of steel and because of it stainless

steel in industry frequently termed as high B1 C1

TE

Displacement

chrome low chrome steel.

A B C D E

If chromium percentage in steel is more than

One revolution of cam

10.5% then only steel is termed as corrosion

AS

resistant or stainless steel.

132. W hich of the following mechanisms are Velocity

examples of forced closed kinematic pairs?

1. Cam and roller mechanism

2. Door-closing mechanism

M

Angular displacement

3. Slider-crank mechanism

Select the correct answer using the code given W hich of the following statements is/are

below. correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 1. The acceleration of the follower at the

S

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

be zero.

Ans. (a) 2. The follower remains at rest in the dwell

IE

period.

Sol. Slider-crank mechanism is not forced - 3. During period DE, the motion of the follower

closed mechanism. is retarding.

133. A planer mechanism has 10 links and 12 rotary Select the correct answer using the code given

joints. Using Grublers criterion, the number of below.

degrees of freedom of the mechanism is

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only

(a) 1 (b) 3

(c) 2 only (d) 3 only

(c) 2 (d) 4

, 8010009955

Ans. (c) Ans. (d)

infinite not zero. K 4 40000

Sol. n =

M 1450 150

135. The number of instantaneous centres of rotation

R

in a slider-crank quick return mechanism is

= 10 rad/s

(a) 10 (b) 8

(c) 6 (d) 4

2 2

TE

T=

Ans. (c) 10

43

AS

= c 2 4c 2 6 1.256 sec

2

138. Consider the following statements:

136. A simple spring-mass vibrating system has a

Arterfacts to prevent harmful effects resulting

natural frequency of N. If the spring stiffness is

from vibrations of an unbalanced machine fixed

halved and the mass doubled, then the natural

frequency will be on its foundation include

M

minimizing the transmission of forces

(c) 2N (d) 4N

2. using vibration isolating materials to prevent

Ans. (a) or reduce the transmission of forces

3. moving the foundation so as to have only

S

K K transmission of forces

Sol. = / 2m

M 2 Which of the above statements are correct?

IE

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

1 K

= 0.5 N

2 M

Ans. (d)

137. A car of mass 1450 kg is constructed on a 139. Two heavy rotors are mounted on a single shaft.

chassis supported by four springs. Each spring Considering each of the rotors separately, the

has a force constant of 40000 N/m. The transverse natural frequencies are 100 cycles/

combined mass of the two people occupying s and 200 cycles/s, respectively. The lower

the car is 150 kg. W hat is the period of critical speed will be

execution of two complete vibrations? (a) 12000 r.p.m. (b) 9360 r.p.m.

(a) 0.63 s (b) 1.59 s (c) 8465 r.p.m. (d) 5367 r.p.m.

(c) 4.96 s (d) 1.26 s

, 8010009955

Ans. (d)

B D Steel wire

Sol. Using Dunkerlons Method Steel wire

1.0 m

0.6 m

1 1 1 A C

2 = 2

2

wn w n1 w n

0.8 m O

R

1 1 20 kN

= 2

2

100 200

(a) 15.2 kN and 7.1 kN

=

1

8000

w n = 89.44 cycle s

TE (b)

(c)

(d)

Ans. (b)

11.8

15.2

11.8

kN

kN

kN

and

and

and

7.1

5.0

5.0

kN

kN

kN

AS

rpm = 89.44 60 5366.56rpm AB CO

=

1 0.6

140. Considering the following statements:

In the case of gears of involute profiles, CD = 0.6 AB

increase in the centre to centre distance

M

1. increases the pressure angle TCDL T L

= 0.6 AB

AE AE

2. will not affect the law of gearing

3. shortens the path of contact

T CO = 0.6 T AB

S

4. increases the contact ratio

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3

Moment about 0, M 0

IE

TAB 1 TCD 0.6 20 0.8

Ans. (b)

1.36TAB = 20 0.8

Sol. Increasing centre distances lead to decrease

in contact ratio.

TAB = 11.76 KN

141. A rigid bar ACO as shown is hinged at O and

is held in a horizontal position by two identical T CD = 7.05 KN

vertical steel wires AB and CD. A point load of

20 kN is hung at the position shown. The

tensions in wires AB and CD are

, 8010009955

142. An epicyclic gear train has 3 shafts A, B and Ans. (d)

C, A is the input shaft running at 100 r.p.m.

clockwise. B is the output shaft running at 250 Sol.

r.p.m. clockwise. The torque on A is 50 kN m

(clockwise), C is a fixed shaft. The torque x

needed to fix C is Given : y = 1; ?? if fixed y 0

R

y

(a) 20 kN m (anti-clockwise)

(b) 20 kN m (clockwise)

x =4

(c) 30 kN m (anti-clockwise)

TE

(d) 30 kN m (clockwise) Pinion = x + y = 4 + 1 = 5

1. Balancing of several masses rotating in the

same plane can be effected by a single

Sol. N =0

AS

mass.

2. Balancing of several masses in different

ANA BNB BNC 0 planes can be done by 2 masses in 2 planes

on either side of the reference plane or on

100 50 250 B 0 the same side.

3. Reciprocating masses cannot be completely

M

B = 20 kNm

4. Secondary unbalanced f orces will be

negligible compared to primary imbalance

Now, = 0 forces.

Which of the above statements are correct?

S

(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

IE

= 50 20

Ans. (b)

= 30 kNm

Sol. Secondary unbalanced f orces were be

= 30 kNm (ccw)

l

143. A fixed gear having 200 teeth is meshed with negligible only when, the ratio, n 1 .

r

a smaller gear having 50 teeth. The two gears That means not always.

are connected by an arm. The number of turns

made by the smaller gear for one revolution of

cos 2

the arm about the centre of the bigger gear is a x w 2r cos

(a) 1 (b) 2 rec x

(c) 3 (d) 5

, 8010009955

145. A body of mass 10 kg with its CG 200 mm (c) 9.81 kN m (d) 13.1 kN m

from the axis of rotation is to be completely

balanced by another mass B of 5 kg placed in Ans. (a)

the same plane. The radius at which the CG of

mass B should be is Sol. Valternate = 360 kmph

(a) 500 mm (b) 400 mm

(c) 300 mm (d) 200 mm 5

= 360 ms

R

18

Ans. (b)

= 100 m/s

Sol. M1r1 = M2 Y2

r2 =

10 200

5

400mm

TE Radius, r = 100 m

Angular Precession,

V

r

1 rad sec

AS

1. In stationary constant speed engines, the

I MK 2 500 0.25 2 31.25Kg m2

spring-loaded governor mechanism is fitted

on the cam-shaft of the engine.

w = engine spin = 2000 rpm

2. Hunting occurs when the governor is not

sensitive.

3. Isochronous governors have the same 2000 2

M

= 209.45rad s

speed over a wide range of governor action. 60

4. A governor is said to be unstable if the radius

of rotation falls as the speed increases. Gyroscopic couple C = Iw

Which of the above statements are correct?

= 6.544 KN.m

S

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only 148. The maximum shearing stress induced in the

beam section at any layer at any position along

IE

to

Sol. Hunting occurs when a governor is too

sensitive.

2000 kgf

147. An aircraft cruising at 360 kmph takes a right

turn on an arc of 100 m radius. The turbines 200 mm

and propellers have a total mass of 500 kg

with radius of gyration of 25 cm. The engine 1m

rotates at 2000 r.p.m. The magnitude of the

gyroscopic couple generated is

(a) 6.55 kN m (b) 7.65 kN m

50 mm

Cross-section of beam

, 8010009955

(a) 30 kgf/cm2 (b) 40 kgf/cm2 Which of the above statements are correct?

(c) 50 kgf/cm2 (d) 60 kgf/cm2 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

Ans. (b)

R

VQ

Sol. Shear stress, = Sol. If external force is fluctuating then material

Ib

get fail at stress which is considerably lower

than the normal stress of static load. This

TE

Q = Ay behaviour is termed as fatigue. These are

two termonology used is fatigue fracture.

These are fatigue strength and fatigue life.

bh h

= . The graph in between these tells the fatigue

2 4

strength and finally define endurnace limit of

AS

particular material. Under fatigue failure

ductile material will fail as like as brittle

bh2 50 200 2

= may material.

8 8

For ductile material under static load material

VQ start yielding at yield point beyond which

= material get deformed permanently and

M

2b

finally fail by cup and cone fracture at UTS.

the allowable stress of material is also

bh2 governed by yield stress and in Industry

V.

8 3 V beyond it material termed as fail.

= bh2 .

2 bh

S

12

place in ductile material due to static loading

which act as a stress intensifier.

IE

= Kgf mm 2

2 50 200 stress, which fluctuates between 300 MN/m2

and 150 MN/m2. Taking the yield strength =

= 30Kgf cm 2 0.55 of the ultimate strength, endurnace

strength = 0.50 of the ultimate strength and

149. Consider the following statements: factor of safety to be 2, the value of the

For a component made of ductile material, the minimum ultimate strength according to

failure criterion will be modified Goodman relation will be

1. endurance limit, if the external force is (a) 1100 MN/m2 (b) 1075 MN/m2

fluctuating (c) 1050 MN/m2 (d) 1025 MN/m2

2. fatigue, if the external force is fluctuating

3. yield stress, if the external force is static

, 8010009955

Ans. (c)

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