You are on page 1of 52

ESE

2017 Prelims Exam


Detailed Solution

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Office Address: F-126, Katwaria Sarai, New Delhi - 110 016


Telephone: 011-41013406, Mobile: 8130909220, 9711853908
Web: www.iesmaster.org E-mail: info@iesmaster.org
Explanation of Mechanical Engg. Prelims Paper (ESE - 2017)

Directions:
ICG sin2
hcp = x
Each of the following thirty (30) items consists Ax

R
of two statements, one labelled as Statement
(I) and the other as Statement (II). Examine Hence depth of centre of pressure is
these two statements carefully and select the independent on density of fluid.
answers to these items using the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is the
TE 2.
Centre of area lies above the centre of
pressure
Statement (I): In flow through a pipeline, the
nature of the fluid flow depends on the velocity
AS
correct explanation of Statement (I) of the fluid.
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
Statement (II): Reynolds number of the
individually true but Statement (II) is not the
depends on the velocity, the diameter of the
correct explanation of Statement (I)
pipe and the kinematic viscosity of the fluid.
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
false
M

Ans. (a)
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
true Sol. The nature of flow means the flow is laminar
1. Statement (I): Depth of centre of pressure of or turbulent. Hence this nature is ascertained
any immersed surface is independent of the by Reynold number defined as,
S

density of the liquid.


vD
Statement (II): Centre of area of the immersed Re =
IE


body lies below the centre of pressure.

where v is flow velocity, D is pipe diameter


Ans. (c)
and ' ' is kinematic viscosity..
Sol. The depth of centre of pressure of immersed 3. Statement (I): The specific heat at constant
surface in liquid, pressure for an ideal gas is always greater
than the specific heat at constant volume.
ICG sin 2 Statement (II): Heat added at constant volume
Depth of centre of area +
Ax is not utilized for doing any external work.

, 8010009955
Ans. (a) Statement (II): The increase in this coefficient
is attributable to reduction in volume.
Sol. The specific heat of ideal gas of constant
pressure is the sum of specif ic heat at Ans. (c)
constant volume and a constant term. This
constant term comes due to work done Sol. The non-azeotropic or zeotropic mixtures are

R
component. This work done component is non-isothermal refrigerant i.e. temperature of
missing when heat is added at constant refrigerant varies during heat addition and
volume. rejection.

TE
4. Statement (I): A homogeneous mixture of
gases that do not react within themselves can Since average temperature of heat addition
be treated as a pure substance. i ncreases i n ev aporat or an d av erage
temperature of heat rejection reduces in
Statement (II): Flue gases can be treated as condenser which results in increased CoP
not reduction in volume.
AS
a homogeneous mixture of gases.
7. Statement (I): Sub-cooling of a refrigerant liquid
Ans. (b) increases the coefficient of performance of a
refrigeration cycle.
Sol. The composition of pure substance is
invariable and same through out the sample Statement (II): Sub-cooling reduces the work
M

i.e. constitutents of prue substance do not requirement of the refrigeration cycle.


react themselves.
5. Statement (I): Air-blast injection in diesel Ans. (c)
engines could reduce engine efficiency. Sol. The T-s diagram of vapour compression cycle,
S

Statement (II): Air-blast injection in diesel


engines is not instantaneous but happens when
the piston moves outward with the injection T
IE

valve remaining open for whatever reason.


2
Ans. (c) 4 3

4
Sol. In air injection or air blast injection, metered
fuel is carried by high pressure air around
5 5 1
65-70 bars into cylinders at the end of
compression stroke. The compressed air is
around 2.3% of total air consumption of s
engine and instantly enters the cylinder.
Process 4 4 is subcooling
6. Statement (I): Use of non-azeotropic mixtures
used as the refrigerant in a vapour compression Process 12 is work requirement.
system improves the coefficient of performance.

, 8010009955
The subcooling increases refrigerant effect speed side to transmit larger torque.
f rom (h 1 h 5 ) to (h1 h5 ) and nowork
requirement. Ans. (c)

8. Statement (I): In vapour-absorption system, Sol. The power rating of a mechanical system,
larger the value of specific solution circulation, Power = Torque Rotational.
more the pump work.
Hence higher the speed, lower will be the

R
Statement (II): Higher solution circulation rates torque so a clutch should be provided on
of poor as well as rich solutions need larger high speed side with suitable heat dissipation
pressure drops in the system. arrangement. This clutch will be small and

Ans. (c)

Sol. In vapour absorption system, high pressure


side pressure (generator and condenser) and
low pressure side pressure (absorber and
TE 11.
cost effective.
Statement (I): The volume of air taken into the
cylinder of a reciprocating air compressor is
less than the stroke volume of the cylinder,
AS
Statement (II): Air that has been compressed
ev aporat o r) are deci ded b y desi red
to clearance volume expands to larger volumes
application temperatures. The flow rate of
during the suction stroke.
solution controls the capacity of the system.
So high capacity requires high pump work.
Solution circulation rates and pressure drop Ans. (a)
has no relation.
M

Sol. In reciprocating compressor there is a


9. Statement (I): Outward radial flow turbines do clearance space between the piston crown
race inherently. and the top of the cylinder . Air trapped in
this clearance volume is never delivered, it
Statement (II): In outward radial flow turbines, expands as the piston moves back and limit
the centrifugal head impressed upon the exiting
S

the volume of fresh air which can be induced


water leads to flow increase. to a value less than the swept volume.
12. Statement (I): Providing reheat in a Rankine
IE

Ans. (a)
cycle would increase the efficiency of the cycle.
Sol. In outward radial turbine water enters at the
Statement (II): Reheat in Rankine cycle
centre and flows radially outwards towards
reduces specific steam consumption.
the outer periphery of the runner and hence
the fluid gains centrifugal head while flowing
through it. Ans. (b)

10. Statement (I): Regarding the power transmitted Sol. By reheating there is gain of 4 to 7% of
by a clutch, greater the speed, lower the torque thermal efficiency take place as the output
to be transmitted for fixed power rating. of turbine is increased. Reheating may also
shortout blade erosion and corrosion problem
Statement (II): The clutch is placed on the low- in turbine.

, 8010009955
org
ANNOUNCES NEW BATCHES FOR
IES/GATE/PSUs
BRANCHES4

CIVIL ENGG MECHANICAL


ENGG

ELECTRICAL ELECTRONICS &


ENGG COMM. ENGG

Weekend
Batches Start
th
28 Jan'17

Regular
ADMISSION
Batches Start OPEN FOR
th
15 Feb'17 SESSION
2017-18

F-126, Katwaria Sarai, New Delhi - 16

8010009955, 9711853908
Specific steam consumption,
15. Statement (I): Proximate analysis of coal is
3600 done to determine its calorific value.
= W kg / kWh
net
Statement (II): In proximate analysis of coal,
the percentages of moisture, volatile matter,

R
Reheating increases W net . So, SSC is
fixed carbon and ash are determined.
reduces.
13. Statement (I): Heat carried away by hot gases Ans. (d)

TE
in chimney draught is much greater than the
work required for lifting the same gases thorugh Sol. Proximate analysis is done to examine four
the height of the chimney. Yet artificial draught factors : Moisture, volatile compound, ash
is not preferred. content and fixed carbon. Calorimeters are
used for calorific value estimation.
Statement (II): Artificial draught involves large
AS
initial cost as well as large maintenance cost. 16. Statement (I): Water entering into a condenser
from the cooling tower has much dissolved
impurities.
Ans. (b)
Statement (II): In a closed cooling system, the
Sol. The choice of chimmney or artificial draught water is continuously aerated, therefore, there
is application is specific. The artificial draft
M

is abundant dissolved oxygen in this water.


require installation of FD & and ID fan and
some other accesories. The installation of
these equipments are very costly affair. Ans. (c)

14. Statement (I): The overall combustion efficiency Sol. A cooling tower is an open cooling system
S

of a fuel oil based plant is less as compared to and water can dissolved in purities from air
that of a coal burning plant. because of direct contact.
IE

Statement (II): Fuel oils contain comparatively A condenser a closed cooling system and
larger percentage of hydrogen, which produce there exists a vacuum in the condenser
more moisture per kg of fuel burnt. during operation. Hence t here ex ist a
possi bi l i t i es of ai r l eakage whi ch i s
Ans. (a) continuously deaerated.
17. Statement (I): Pyranometer is used to measure
Sol. Fuel oil (%H) is 10.99% (%H) in coal diffuse solar radiation by blocking the direct
(4.5 5.5) radiation with a shadow band.

Fuel oi ls contai n hydrogen in a large Statement (II): Pyrheliometer is used to


percentage which on heating react with measure diffuse radiation.
oxygen produce moisture content in fuel
which drop the calrofic value of fuel oil.

, 8010009955
Ans. (c) 20. Statement (I): Hardenability curves are
developed based on the fact that any given
Sol. T he pyroh el i om et er i s a b roadband steel it em al ways dev elops the same
instrument that measures the direct (or microstructure under a standardized cooling
beam) component of solar radiation at normal rate.
incidence. It does not measure diff use
radiation. Statement (II): Industry employs Jominy
hardenability test to measure hardenability.

R
T he dif f use radiat i on is m easured by
pyrometer. Ans. (b)
18. Statement (I): Directionally solidified materials
have good creep resistance.

TE
Statement (II): Directionally solidified materials
may be so loaded that there is no shearing
stress along, or tensile stress across, the grain
boundaries.
Sol. The hardenability of a f errous alloy is
measured by Jominy test. A round metal bar
of standard size is transfered to 100%
austenite through heat treatment, and is then
quenched on one end with room temperature
water. The cooling rate will be highest at the
AS
end being quenched and will decrease as
Ans. (c) t he di stance f rom t he end i ncreases.
Subsequent to cooling a flat surface ground
Sol. Directionally solidif ied material posses on the test piece and the hardenbility is then
ex t rem el y good el ev at ed t em perat ure found by measuring the hardness along the
capability due to elimination of highly bar.
M

stressed transverse grain bounderies.


Farther away from the quenched end that
Statement II is not explaining the reason as t he hardness ext ends, t he higher the
stated above. hardenability. This in formation is plotted on
graph.
S

19. Statement (I): The ideal material for shafts


transmitting power is CI. 21. Statement (I): Cams used in high-speed
application should have displacement, velocity
IE

Statement (II): CI resists compression well. and acceleration curves of the follower in
continuity.
Ans. (d)
Statement (II): Abrupt changes in these curves
will cause high contact stresses at the bearings
Sol. Cast iron (CI) is brittle in nature so, its
and make the operation noisy.
torsional (shear) strength is less hence can
not used as shaft.
Ans. (a)
Cast iron is strong in compression but weak
under tension. Sol. Abrupt changs in displacement, velocity and
acceleration curves cause jerk in the system
and high magnitude of forces.

, 8010009955
22. Statement (I): Resonance is a special case of materials will have same moment of inertia
forced vibration in which the natural frequency about their central axes of rotation.
of the body is the same as the impressed
frequency of the external periodic force whereby Statement (II): Moment of inertia depends upon
the amplitude of the forced vibration peaks the distribution of mass within the body.
sharply.

R
Ans. (a)
Statement (II): The amplitude of forced
vibration of a body increases with increase in 26. Statement (I): The speed of a governed water
turbine will remain constant irrespective of load.

TE
the frequency of the externally impressed
periodic force.
Statement (II): In governing, the water supply
is regulated to maintain the speed constant.
Ans. (c)
23. Statement (I): All worm drives (worm and worm Ans. (a)
AS
wheel) are reversible.
Sol. The primary objective in turbine operation is
Statement (II): The worm and worm wheel are to maintain a constant speed of rotation
made of different materials. irrespective as the varying load. This is
achieved by means as governing in a turbine.
Ans. (d) 27. Statement (I): In sugarcane crushing rollers,
M

the fit between the cast roll and the forged


Sol. Only low speed ratio worm driv es are
steel shaft is of interference type.
reversible while high speed ratio drives are
non reversible. Statement (II): This helps in removing the roll
24. Statemen t (I): There is no balancing from the shaft whenever not needed.
S

methodology in the case of reciprocating


engines. Ans. (c)
IE

Statement (II): Balancing of dynamic forces is 28. Statement (I): Thicker sections of casting take
achieved mostly by resorting to multi-cylinder longer to solidify than thinner sections.
engine concept.
Statement (II): Thicker sections of casting carry
residual stresses.
Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
Sol. Single cylinder reciprocating engine can not
be balanced completely by any method. But 29. Statement (I): Sand with grains of uniform
in multicylinder engine case, it is possible to round shape is preferred for preparing moulds.
balance the engine in particular configuration
e.g.six cylinder Statement (II): If grains are large and regular
in shape, the air-venting property of the mould
25. Statement (I): Two circular discs of equal prepared with them would be better.
masses and thickness made of different

, 8010009955
Ans. (a) Ans. (d)
30. Statement (I): Bar chart plots in the time Sol. Assuming unit width of dam, the dam section,
dimension the planned performance of various
activities of a project.
6m
Statement (II): One advantage of a bar chart 5m
is that the inter sequence and linkage of all
activities is indicated therein.

R
2
Ans. (c) 33m
3
31. A section of a dam made of concrete, 2.6,
total height = 35 m, with top walkway width of
6 m, is shown. The upstream bottommost point
is called the Heel of the dam. The sloped part
TE
on downstream side is 3 vertical on 2 horizontal.
FV

B
R
FH


AS
Water stands till 2m short of the top of the dam Base width of dam,
section. The net resultant force acting on the
base level of the dam is nearly 30 30 2
B = 6 tan 6 3 26m
6m
2m 5m 1 2
M

Horizontal force F H = H
2

Water on 2
upstream 3 1 2
side 30m FH = 1000 33 kgf
2
S

= 544.5 k kgf
IE

H=Heel Base width Vertical force (F v) = weight of the dam

(a) 1370 k kgf (b) 1385 k kgf


1
(c) 1400 k kgf (d) 1433 k kgf F v = 6 35 20 30 2.6 1000
2

= 1326 k kgf

Resultant force = FH 2 Fv 2

, 8010009955
33. Consider the following statements pertaining
= 544.5 2 1326 2 to stability of floating bodies:
1. A floating body will be stable when the centre
= 1433.45 k kgf
of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy.
32. A spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter splits 2. The position of metacentres corresponding

R
up in air into 64 smaller drops of equal size. to different axes of rotation are generally
The surface tension coefficient of water in air different for the same floating object.
is 0.073 N/m. The work required in splitting up 3. For cargo ships, the metacentric height
the drop is

TE
varies with loading.
(a) 0.96 106 J (b) 0.69 106 J Which of the abvoe statements are correct?
(c) 0.32 106 J (d) 0.23 106 J (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (b)
AS
Ans. (d)
Sol. By mass conservation
Sol. Floating body will be in stable equilibrium
4 3 4 3 when center of Buoyancy lies above the
0.5 = 64 r center of gravity.
3 3

Metacenteric height GM = BM BG
M

0.5
r = 0.125mm
4
I
= BG
V
E1 = T (surface area)
S

hence GM varies with axis of consideration.


2
= 0.073 4 0.5 106 The Metacentric heights are different for
IE

rolling, pitching and yachting.


2
1 34. Water is coming out from a tap and falls
E2 = 0.073 4 64 106
8 vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the
stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity
6
of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid flow,
= 0.073 4 10 constant pressure atmosphere everywhere, and
neglecting curvature and surface tension
E = 0.073 4 1 0.25 10
6 effects, the diameter of the stream 0.5 m below
the tap opening is nearly

3 (a) 11.7 mm (b) 14.6 mm


= 0.073 4 10 6
4 (c) 17.5 mm (d) 20.4 mm

= 0.687 106 J

, 8010009955
Ans. (b)
d12 2
2 = d2 3.74 (d1 = 20mm)
Sol. Applying Bernoulli equation A A

P V12 P V2 202 2
Z1 = 2 2 Z2 d2 =
2g 2g 3.74

R
= 14.62 mm
20 mm 35. Consider the following statements regarding
datum Bernoullis equation :

TE 1. It is assumed that no energy has been


supplied.
2. The velocity of a steady stream of fluid flow
will depend on the cross-sectional area of
the stream.
AS
3. Consider two sections 1 and 2 along a flow
d2 stream. In this reach, if q is work done by
a pump, w is work absorbed by turbine,
is density of water and g is acceleration of
P1 = P2 Patm gravity, with p, v and z carrying standard
M

meanings, Bernoullis equation will read


Z1 = 0
p1 v12 p v2
z1 2 2 z 2 w g
2g 2g
Z 2 = 0.5
Which of the above statements are correct?
S

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only


1 = 2m/s
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
IE

2 Ans. (a)
Z2 Vz
= 0.5
2 10 2 10 Sol. For find statement

2 = 3.74 m/sec
P V12 P V22
q Z1 = Z2 w
2g 2g
By continuity equation
36. An oil flows through a pipe at a velocity of 1.0
A1V1 = A2Vz m/s. The pipe is 45 m long and has 150 mm
diameter. What is the head loss due to friction,
if 869 kg/m3 and 0.0814 kg/m s?

, 8010009955
(a) 0.61 m (b) 0.51 m at low reynold number, viscous force
(c) 0.41 m (d) 0.31 m dominates over inertial force.
38. In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge
Ans. (a)
through a circular pipe of diameter D, the head
loss is proportional to
Sol. = 1m/sec d= 0.15

R
(a) D1 (b) D2
L = 45m s = 869 kg/m 3 (c) D3 (d) D4

TE
hL = ? = 0.0814 Ans. (d)

In flow through pipe Sol. Head loss in pipe is given by

32 VL 32 4L 128QL
hL
AS
hL = 2 2 4
rgD gD gID

32 0.0814 1 45 1
= hL
869 10 0.152 4
D
M

117.22 39. A two-dimensional flow field is defined as


=
195.52 V ix jy. The equation of the stream-line
passing through the point (1, 2) is
= 0.6 m
(b) x2 y + 2 = 0
S

(a) xy + 2 = 0
37. Consider the following statements:
(c) xy 2 = 0 (d) x2 y 2 = 0
1. At low Reynolds numbers of any flow,
IE

viscous forces dominate over inertial forces. Ans. (c)


2. Transition from laminar to turbulent flow

occurs over a range of Reynolds numbers Sol. V ix jy
depending on the surface presented to the
flow.
Here u = x
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only v = y
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
For stream function
Ans. (c)
dx dy

Inertial force u v
Sol. Re =
Viscous force

, 8010009955
the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of
dx dy
or work, W is
x y
(a) 8% (b) 10%
(c) 12% (d) 15%
or Inx ln y Inc
Ans. (d)
or Inxy ln y

R
W
or xy c Sol. = 0.333
Q

for x 1, y 2

xy c gives c 2

So, xy c
TE Q = Cp T

for constant pressure process


AS
W
Cp T = 0.333
xy 2 0

40. The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s.


Cp 1 1
What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if or =
the Reynolds number of the flow is 800? W 0.333 T 0.333 20
M

(a) 2 m/s (b) 1.5 m/s


Cp 100
(c) 1 m/s (d) 0.5 m/s In percentage 15
W 0.333 20
Ans. (c)
42. A cylinder contains 10m3 of an ideal gas at a
S

pressure of 2 bar. This gas is compressed in


Sol.
a reversible isothermal process till its pressure
Flow through a pipe is given by increases to 15 bar. What quantum of work will
IE

2 be required for this process? (You can use the



v = v max 1 r table given herewith).
R
Number 2 2.5 3 5 7
and m ean v el oci ty i n pipe rel at ed t o log10 0.301 0.397 0.475 0.698 0.845
maximum velocity is given by
(a) 4500 kJ (b) 4030 kJ
Vmax 2
Vmean = = = 1 (c) 450 kJ (d) 403 kJ
2 2

41. During a constant pressure expansion of a gas,


33.3% heat is converted into work while the
temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of

, 8010009955
Ans. (b) So, process is irreversible.
44. A reversible heat engine rejects 80% of the
p1 heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If
Sol. Work done W = p1v1 ln
p2 the engine is reversed and operates as a
refrigerator, then its coefficient of performance

R
shall be
5 2
= 2 10 10 ln (a) 6 (b) 5
15
(c) 4 (d) 3

6
6
= 2 10 2.303 log
2
15

= 2 10 2.303 log 2 log5 log3


TE Ans. (c)

Sol.
Q
AS
HE 0.2 Q
= 2 10 2.303 0.301 0.698 0.475
6

0.8 Q
= 4016 kJ
43. A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process
M

in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3


kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the
entropy of the surroundings decreases from Win
RE
80 kJ/kg K to 75 kJ/kg K. The process is
S

(a) reversible and isothermal Q


(b) irreversible
(c) reversible only
IE

(d) isothermal only


1
(COP )HP
HE
Ans. (b)

Sol. (S)univ (S)sys (S)sur & (COP )HP 1 (COP )RE

( S)sys 100(0.4 0.3) 10 kg/k 1 1


or, (COP )RE 1 1 4
E 0.2

(S)sur 75 80 5 kg/ k 45. For the same efficiency of the Brayton cycle
and the Carnot cycle working between
(S)univ 10 5 5 0 temperature limits of Tmax and Tmin, the power
contribution of the Brayton cycle will be

, 8010009955
(a) zero (a) 0.6 (b) 0.5
(b) maximum (c) 0.4 (d) 0.3
(c) minimum
Ans. (c)
(d) 50% of the Carnot cycle

Ans. (a) Sol.

R
Sol. brayton cycle = 1 c T(K)
t
B
700

TE
1
T2 P2
where c = T =
1 P1
A C
300
Tmax
t = T
AS
min

for brayten = carnot 1 3 5 S(kJ/K)


T2
c = 1, means 1 (rP )
T1
Net work done W = area of ABC
M


1 P2
or, (1) =
P1 1
= 5 1 700 300
i.e., P2 = P1 2
so, contribution of power ratio is zero
S

46. The thermal efficiency of the hypothetical cycle 1


= 4 400 800 kJ
shown is 2
IE

T(K) Heat added Q = area of 1-ABC51

700 = area of ABC area of 1-A-C-5-1

= 800 + (5 1) (300)

300 = 800 + 4 300 = 2000 kJ

n 800
efficiency = 0.4
1 3 5
Q 2000
S(kJ/K)

, 8010009955
47. A heat engine working on the Carnot cycle 49. A furnace is provided with an insulating
receives heat at the rate of 50 kW from a source refractory lining. The overal thermal conductivity
at 1300 K and rejects it to a sink at 400 K. The of the material is 0.03 W/mK. The thickness of
heat rejected is the lining is 100 mm. The inner and outer
temperatures are 250C and 50C, respectively.
(a) 20.3 kW (b) 15.4 kW
The heat loss to the surroundings will be

R
(c) 12.4 kW (d) 10.8 kW
(a) 30 J/m2/s (b) 60 J/m2/s
Ans. (b) (c) 60 J/s (d) 30 J/s

TE
Ans. (b)
Q Q2
Sol. T1 = T2 for Carnot cycle
Sol.

kA
50 Q2 Q =
AS
= t
1300 400
0.03 A (250 50)
=
50 400 100 103
Q2 = 15.4 kW
1300
Q
or, = 0.03 200 10
48. An ideal gas is flowing through an insulated A
M

pipe at the rate of 3.3 kg. There is a pressure = 60J m 2/sec


drop of 15% from the inlet to the outlet of the
pipe. What is the rate of energy loss because 50. A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of
of this pressure drop due to friction, given that 1.5 m2 and is made up of material of thermal
R gas = 0.287 kJ/kg K and the ref erence conductivity 0.4 W/mK. If the temperature on
S

temperature T0 is 300 K? the two sides of the wall are 800C and 1000C,
the thermal resistance of the wall is
(a) 42.62 kW (b) 40.26 kW
IE

(a) 1.8 K/W (b) 1.8 W/K


(c) 38.14 kW (d) 35.13 kW
(c) 1 K/W (d) 1 W/K
Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)

p Sol.
Sol. Rate of energy loss = mRT0
p

L 0.6
0.15p Rth = K = 1
= 3.3 0.287 300 A 0.4 1.5
p
51. Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam
= 42.62 kW pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30C.
If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal

, 8010009955
conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the 2
heat transfer coefficient will be 12 1
= 68.033 4 (77 27)
1000 2 x
(a) 7.5 W/m2K (b) 15 W/m2K
(c) 25 W/m2K (d) 35 W/m2K = 1.539 1.54
53. The view factors F12 and F21, for the sphere of
Ans. (a)
diameter d and a cubical box of length l = d as
shown in the figure, respectively, are

R
Sol.

h D h 0.1
Nu = K A1
0.03

TE
air

h 0.1 l=d
or, 25 = A2
0.03
or, h = 75 W/mK
AS
52. Air at 1 atmospheric pressure and 27C blows
across a 12 mm diameter sphere at a free

stream velocity of 4 m/s. A small heater inside (a) 1 and (b) and 1
3 3
the sphere maintains the surface temperature
at 77C. With k = 0.026 W/m (kelvin) and with

(Nu) = 31.4, the heat loss by the sphere would (c) 1 and (d) and 1
6 6
be
M

(a) 1.93 J/s (b) 1.76 J/s Ans. (a)


(c) 1.65 J/s (d) 1.54 J/s
Sol.
Ans. (d) A1
S

Sol.
A2
IE

hD
Nu 31.4 l=d
kair

31.4 0.026
or, h =
12 For sphere by summation rule
1000
F 11 + F 12 = 1
= 68.033 Wm/K F 12 = 1 as sphere can not view itself
Heat loss by the sphere, By reciprocity theorem
A1F 12 = A2F 21
= hAT

, 8010009955
indicated thermal efficiency was nearly
2
d
4 (a) 29% (b) 26%
A1 A1 2
or, F 21 = A F12 = A = (c) 31% (d) 23%
2 2 6 l2
Ans. (a)
d2

R

= =
6 d2 6 Sol. Indicated power of one cylinder

54. Knocking in a spark ignition engine can be

TE
105 23 1200
reduced by = 18.6
60
1. retarding the spark
2. supercharging = 5.405 kW
3. increasing the engine speed
ip for u-cylinder engine = 5.405 4 =
AS
4. using a fuel of long straight chain structure
21.62 kW
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
f
m
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 bsfc = f = bp bsfc
or m
bp
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
M

Ans. (b) 0.34


f = 18.6
m kg/s
3600
Sol. By increasing engine speed & increases the
turbulence of the mixture considerably
resulting increasing flame speed and hence ip
S

it =
reduce the ignition delay. mf CV

In supercharing we increase the density of


IE

fluid which will rise the chance of knocking 21.62 3600


=
in SI and reverse in CI. 18.6 0.34 42000

By retarding the spark timing, the peak = 0.293 or 29.3%


pressure are reached down on the power 56. In a Morse test on a 2-cylinder, 2-stroke SI
stroke and are thus of lower magnitude. This engine, the brake power is 9 kW and the BHP
might reduce the knocking.
of individual cylinders with spark cutoff are 4.25
55. A 4-cylinder diesel running at 1200 r.p.m. kW and 3.75 kW, respectively. The mechanical
developed 18.6 kW. The average torque when efficiency of the engine is
one cylinder was cut out was 105 N m. If the (a) 90% (b) 80%
calorific value of the fuel was 42000 kJ/kg and
(c) 52.5% (d) 45.5%
the engine used 0.34 kg of diesel/kW hr, the

, 8010009955
Ans. (a) Sol.

Sol. isoenthalpic line shows


the throtting in device
b p = 9 kW
ip1 = 4.75 kW
P
ip2 = 5.25 kW
Total ip of engine = iP 1 + iP2 = 4.75 + 5.25

R
= 10

bp 9 h
so, = = = 90%

57.
ip 10

The ordinates and abscissae of the diagram


TE
given for the vapour-compression refrigeration
cycle represent
58. Consider the f ol lowing statements f or
refrigeration and air-conditioning:
1. In a ref rigerating machine, the heat
exchanger that absorbs heat is connected
AS
to a conditioned space.
2. A refrigerating cycle operating reversibly
between two heat reservoirs has the highest
coefficient of performance.
3. The lower the refrigeration required and the
higher the temperature of heat rejection to
M

the surroundings, the larger the power


consumption.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
S

(a) pressure and volume


(b) temperature and entropy
Ans. (d)
(c) enthalpy and entropy
IE

(d) pressure and enthalpy Sol.


Statement 1 refer to evaporator
Ans. (d)
Statement 2 support the cop.
Heat obsorbed
CoP =
Workdone per minute
Heat observed
=
Heat rejected Heat added
CoP = f(T)
For lower refregeration requirement and
higher heat rejection work input required will

, 8010009955
get i ncr ease and hence t he power
P2
consumption. as 1 so, by decreasing the clearance
P1
59. In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser
volume, volumetric efficiency get increased.
coil temperatures are 33C and 27C,
respectively. Assumign that the maximum COP By cooling the intake air increases the
value of so,

R
is realized, the required power input for a
refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
1
(a) 8 kW (b) 4 kW P
v = 1 c 2 c

TE
(c) 2 kW (d) 1 kW P1

Ans. (d) 1
P
increase as value of 2 will reduce.
Sol. P1
AS
(273 33) RE RE
= = 61. In a Hartnell governor, the mass of each ball is
273 27 (273 33) W input P input
4 kg. The maximum and minimum centrifugal
forces on the balls are 1800 N and 100 N at
240 4 radii 25 cm and 20 cm, respectively. The lengths
= P
60 input of vertical and horizontal arms of the bell-crank
levers are the same. What is the spring
M

or, Pinput = 1 kW
stiffness?
60. Consider the following statements: (a) 780 N/cm (b) 740 N/cm
The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating (c) 720 N/cm (d) 680 N/cm
compressor can be improved by
S

Ans. (d)
1. decreasing the clearnace volume
2. cooling the intake air
2
a F F
IE

3. heating the intake air Sol. K = 2 2 1


Which of the above statements is/are correct? b r2 r1
(a) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3 1800 100
= 2 1
25 20
Ans. (c)

Sol. = 680 N/cm


62. Consider the following statements regarding the
ends of the pressure vessels flanged by pre-
1
P tensioned bolts:
v = 1 c c L 1. Pre-tensioning helps to seal the pressure
P1
vessel.

, 8010009955
2. Pre-tensioning reduces the maximum tensile
4 4
stress in the bolts.
32
d =
32
d0 di4 ,
3. Pre-tensioning countermands the fatigue life
of the bolts.
This does not gurantee the same weight
4. Pre-tensioning helps to reduce the
deleterious effect of pressure pulsations in 64. A solid shaft is to transmit 20 kW at 200 r.p.m.
the pressure vessel. The ultimate shear stress for the shaft material
is 360 MPa and the factor of safety is 8. The

R
Which of the above statements are correct?
diameter of the solid shaft shall be
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 42 mm (b) 45 mm
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 48 mm (d) 51 mm
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

Sol. Pre-tensioning does not reduce the maximum


TE Ans. (c)

Sol. P = 20 kW
AS
N = 200 rpm
tensile stress in the bolts.
63. Two shafts, one solid and the other hollow, = 20.94 rad/s
made of the same material, will have the same
strength and stiffness, if both are of the same Int = 360 MPa
(a) length as well as weight
FoS = 8
M

(b) length as well as polar modulus


(c) weight as well as polar modulus Torsion,
(d) length, weight as well as polar modulus

Ans. (b) P 20 103


S

T = 954.92 N m
2 200

60
GJ
Sol. K =
IE

L
16 T
I =
Tr d3
I =
J

Int 360 106 16 954.92


If J of both the shafts are same then L has =
to be same for both for same stiffness and FoS 8 d3
vice-versa.
d = 47.63 mm
For same J, J solid = JHollow

, 8010009955
65. In the 4-bar mechanism as shown, the link PQ (ii) Bending stress due to restraint of the
measures 30 cm and rotates uniformly at 100 arms.
rev/min. The velocity of point Q on link PQ is
67. A stockist has to supply 400 units of a product
nearly
every Monday to his customers. He gets the
product at Rs. 50 per unit f rom the

R
R manufacturer. The cost of ordering and
transportation from the manufacturer to the
50 cm stockists premises is Rs. 75 per order. The
60 cm
cost of carrying inventory is 7.5% per year of

TE
Q
the cost of the product. What are the economic
70 cm lot size and the total optimal cost (including
P S
capital cost) for the stockist?
(a) 989 units/order and Rs. 20,065.80/week
(a) 2.54 m/s (b) 3.14 m/s
(b) 912 units/order and Rs. 20.065.80/week
AS
(c) 4.60 m/s (d) 5.80 m/s
(c) 989 units/order and Rs. 18,574.50/week
Ans. (b) (d) 912 units/order and Rs. 18,574.50/week

Sol. PQ = 30 cm Ans. (b)

N = 100 rpm
M

2DC0 2 400 52 75
Sol. EOQ =
Cc 7.5
2 N 50
= 100
60
= 912 units
S

2 100
V = PQ 0.30
Total optimal cost
60
IE

= 3.14 m/sec D EOQ


= pD C0 Cc
66. The rim of a flywheel is subjected to EOQ 2
(a) direct tensile stress and bending stress
(b) torsional shear stress and bending stress 400 52
= 400 52 50 75 2
(c) direct shear stress and bending stress 912
(d) compressive stress and bending stress
Total optimal cost per week
Ans. (a)

Sol. Rim of a flywheel is subjected to 400 52 75 2


400 52 50
= 912
(i) Tensile stress due to the centrifugal force 52

, 8010009955
= Rs. 20,065.80 per week 2. Papers, tapes, floppy tapes and cassettes
are used for data storage.
68. Consider just only the following parameters:
3. Digitizers may be used as interactive input
1. Grinding wheel diameter
devices.
2. Regulating wheel diameter
4. Post-processor is an item of hardware.
3. Speed of grinding wheel
Which of the above statements are correct?
4. Speed of regualting wheel
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4

R
Which of the above parameters will influence (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
the axial feed rate in centreless grinding?
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 Ans. (d)
(c) 1 and 3

Ans. (a)

Sol.
(d) 1 and 4

TE 71. Consider the following benefits of CIM:


1. Less direct labour
2. Less scrap and rework
3. Higher machine use
Which of the above are correct?
AS
f speed regulating wheel
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
Dia of regulating wheel
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
f DNsin
Ans. (d)
69. A metric thread of pitch 2 mm and thread angle
60 is inspected for its pitch diameter usign the 72. A firms inventory turnover of Rs. 8,00,000 is 5
M

3-wire method. The indicated diameter of the times the cost of goods sold. If the inventory
wire will be nearly turnover is improved to 8 with the cost of goods
(a) 0.85 mm (b) 1.05 mm sold remaining the same, a substantial amount
of f und is either released f rom, or gets
(c) 1.15 mm (d) 2.05 mm
additionally invested in, inventory. Which one
S

of the following statements is correct?


Ans. (c)
(a) Rs. 1,60,000 is released.
(b) Rs. 1,60,000 is additionally invested.
IE

P 2
(c) Rs. 60,000 is released.
Sol. d = 2cos 60
2 cos (d) Rs. 60,000 is additonally invested
2 2

Ans. (c)
1
= 1.15mm
cos30 8,00,000
Sol. Inventory turnover = 5 =
old inventory
70. Consi der the f ollowing statements with
reference to NC machines:
1. Both closed-loop and open-loop systems are 800000
used. old inventory =
5

, 8010009955
Rs. 160,000 Ans. (b)

8,00,000 Net credit solar


Inventory Turnover = 8 Sol. Receivables turnover =
new inventory average receivable

R
800000 6,00,000 0.9
New inventory = Rs.100,000 5 = Average receivable
8

TE
Old inventory new inventory
6,00,000 0.9
Average receivable =
= 160,000 1,00,000 = Rs. 60,000 released 5
73. An 8-hour measurment study in a plant reveals
that 320 number of units were produced. If idle = 1,08,000
AS
time = 15% and performance rating = 120%,
with allowance = 12% of normal time, the 365
Average collection period = 73 days
standard time per unit produced will be 5
(a) 1.823 minutes (b) 1.714 minutes
75. A particular item has a demand of 9000 units/
(c) 1.645 minutes (d) 1.286 minutes
year. The cost of one procurement is Rs. 108
M

and the holding cost per u nit is Rs. 2.40/year.


Ans. ( )
The replacement is instantaneous and no
Sol. Standard t i me ST = observ ed t im e shortages are allowed. What is the optimum
Rating factor (1 + Allowance) number of orders/year?
(a) 7 orders/year (b) 8 orders/year
S

(c) 9 orders/year (d) 10 orders/year


480 0.85
or ST = 1.2 1.12
320
Ans. (d)
IE

= 1.714 minutes
2DC0
74. An organizations sales during a financial year Sol. EOQ = Cc
is Rs. 6,00,000 with 90% of it on credit. At the
end of the year, the receivables turnover was
found to be 5. Considering 365 days to a year,
the average collection period and receivables 2 9000 108
= 900
are, respectively 2.4
(a) 81 days and Rs. 1,08,000
(b) 73 days and Rs. 1,08,000 D
Optimum no. of order/year =
(c) 81 days and Rs. 1,20,000 EOQ
(d) 73 days and Rs. 1,20,000

, 8010009955
Ans. (d)
9000
= 10 orders/year
900

76. Which one of the following is correct with Accelerometer


respect to microcontrollers? Sol. (w<<w n)
z0 Displacement
(a) Integration of a microprocessor with I/O (w>>w n)
y0
interfaces and memory and other peripherals

R
in a single IC chip
1
(b) A single very large scale integrated (VLSI)
chip that contains programmable electronic

TE
w
components that perform control functions wn
(c) Digital circuits for data handling and
computation
(d) The primary computation and system control Displacement Pickup. n
AS
operations

Means a should be small


Ans. (a)

Sol. Microcont rol l er is com plet e f uncti onal K


microcomputer, i.e. it contains the circuitry n =
M
of microprocessor and in addition it has built
M

in memory (RAM, ROM), I/O circuits and


pripherals necessary for an applications. Increase m and decrease K.

77. Which one of the following statements is work spring and heavy mass
correct?
S

System modling
Seismic transducer working in the displacement
mode should have
IE

x = x0sin()
(a) weak springs and heavy mass
(b) stiff springs and light mass
(c) weak springs and light mass y = y0sint
(d) stiff springs and heavy mass

= c x y k x y
mx

where z = xy
cz kz = my
mz

, 8010009955
2 2N 1
za /n r

NL
y0 = 2 1/2 V = 60 2
2 2 60

1 2
ln ln
0.3 ALN

R
Given: Q= ALN 0.3
60 60
z0
If n 1;
y0

TE
2 2
A = d 0.05 1.9635 10 6
4 4
Displacement pickup n n
LN = 152.78
2
z0
AS
y0 Acceleration LN
n V = 2.546 m/s
60
78. What will be the velocity of piston movement
79. A stepper motor is to be used to drive the
for a single-acting hydraulic actuator, when the
linear axis of a certain mechatronics system.
fluid pressure is 100 bar, the diameter of the
The motor output shaft is connected to a screw
piston is 50 mm and the flow rate is 0.3 m 3/
thread with a 30 mm pitch. Linear resolution of
M

min?
0.5 mm is stipulated. What is the needed step
(a) 2.41 m/s (b) 2.55 m/s angle ?

(c) 2.67 m/s (d) 2.84 m/s (a) 9 (b) 8


S

(c) 7 (d) 6
Ans. (b)
Ans. (d)
IE

ALN
Sol. Discharge, Q =
60 Linear Resolution
Sol. Step angle = 360
Pitch
Also, displacement,

0.5
1 = 360
x = r 1 cos where, r L 30
2
= 6
dx
Velocity, = r sin 80. Consider the following statments regarding a
dt stepper motor :

Time average velocity,, 1. The rotation angle of the motor is proportional


to the input pulse.

, 8010009955
2. The motor has full torque at standstill Ans. (a)

3.Speed and electric control signal of the motor Sol.


vary mutually linearly.
16,16
Which of the above statement are correct? 2 D
A 10
30,30 42,42
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 0,0 16 F
1 8 C 4 5

R
B 12
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
20 E
3
6
Ans. (d) 24,24

Sol. Stepper motors are DC motors that moves


is descrete steps. Unlike normal DC motors,
if provides maximum torque of low speeds.
I ts rotat i onal speed v ari es di rect l y
proportional to the frequency of the pulse.
TE 82.
FT = (16 0) 16 = 0
Consi der the f ollowing statements with
reference to SCARA Robot :
AS
1.It has four degrees of freedom
81. The following table lists the tasks in a project
and the time duration for each task : 2. It has only one forward kinematic solution.

Task Preceding Normal duration 3.It has two inverse kinematic solutions.
A 16
B 20 Which of the above statements are correct?
M

C A 8
D A 10 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
E B,C 6
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
F D,E 12
S

The critical path, the project duration and the Ans. (d)
free float for activity A are, respectively.
Sol. SCARA Robot:
IE

(a) A-C-E-F; 42 weeks and 0 week


(b) B-E-F; 42 weeks and 1 week 4 DoFS,

(c) B-C-D-F; 50 weeks and 2 weeks 1 Forward kinematic solution (for given
(d) A-C-E-F; 50 weeks and 0 week joints rotation, unique end-effector (EE)

2 Inverse kinematic solution (For given EE


configuration, two sets of solution exist).

, 8010009955
83. Consider the following statements regarding the 1. Vibration signature is essentially in the
law of Robotics : frequency range zero to 100 cps whereas noise
signature is in the range 20 cps to 3000 cps.
1. A Robot shall not injure a human being or
through inaction allow a human being harmed. 2. Vibration signature has welldefined peaks
whereas the noise signal is smeared.

R
2. A Robot must obey orders given by humans
except when such orders conflict with first law. 3.The intensities of noise signatures are much
less than that of vibration signatures.

TE
3. A Robot must always protect its own
existence. 4. Detection of vibration signature calls for a
microphone whereas that of noise can do with
Which of the above statements are correct? a pickup.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
AS
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 below:

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3


Ans. (a)
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
Sol. Statement (1) is It should be
Ans. (b)
M

A robot shall not injure a human being or,


through in action, allow a human being Sol. Vibration signature range might go beyond
harmed. 100 Hz and may be even more than 20,000
Hz.
Statement (2) is right.
S

Vibration signature Acceleration (Pick-up)


Statement (3) Should be - A Robot must
always protect its own existance as long as Noise microphone
IE

such protection does not conflict with the first


86. Consider the following features relating to Robot
and second law of Robotics
kinematics with reference to SCARA Robot :
84. The number of degrees of freedom in a 3D
Robot of TRL : R type configuration is : 1. Shoulder and elbow rotational axes are
vertical.
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1 2. The Robot could perform insertion tasks
along the vertical direction.
Ans. (a)
3. Its general configuration is analogous to that
85. Which of the following are the basic differences of a human arm.
bet ween v ibration signature and noise
signature? Which of the above features are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

, 8010009955
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 So, Ch Cc

Ans. (d)
Th1 Th2 250 100
So,
Sol. Rev olute j oints of shoulder and elbow Th1 TC1 250 50
rotational axes are vertical.
87. A flywheel fitted to a steam engine has a mass
150

R
of 500 kg and radius of gyration 300 mm. The = = 0.75
starting torque is 900 N m. What is the kinetic 200
energy after 10 s ? 89. Two air streams with mass flow rates of 36 kg/

TE
min and 14 kg/min with respective enthalpies
(a) 225 kJ (b) 450 kJ
of 36 kJ/kg da and 50 kJ/kg da are mixed. The
(c) 900 kJ (d) 1800 kJ enthalpy of the mixture is nearly

(a) 64 kJ/kg da (b) 55 kJ/kg da


Ans. (c)
(c) 46 kJ/kg da (d) 40 kJ/kg da
AS
Sol. I = mk2 = 500 (0.3) 2 =45 kg-m 2
Ans. (d)
T 900
Angular acce. = 20 rad/s2
I 45 m1h1 m2h2
Sol. h =
m1 m2
M

= t 20 10 200 rad/s
36 36 14 50
1 2 1 2
= 39.92 40
KE = I 45 200 900 kJ 36 14
2 2
90. Consider the following statements in respect of
88. In a counterflow heat exchanger, hot gases maximum efficiency of a two-stage reciprocating
S

enter at 250C and leave at 100C. Atmospheric compressor :


air enters at 50C and leaves at 80C. The
effectiveness of the heat exchanger will be : 1. The pressure ratios are same for each stage.
IE

(a) 0.20 (b) 0.25 2. The work done is same in each stage.
(c) 0.30 (d) 0.35
3. The intercooling is perfect.
Ans. (*)
Which of the above statements are correct?

Sol. Th1 Th2 250 100 150 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
& Tc2 Tc1 80 50 30

, 8010009955
Ans. (d) By this total pressure Ps air get increase
which increase the condeser pressure
Sol. rp = pressure rat io f or each stage of
As air tend to cling the surface which
compress for maximum efficiency reduces the condesing co-efficient.
1/2 Because of low thermal conductivity of air,

R
Pmax air imparts large thermal resistance,
=
Pmin
92. The refrigeration system of an ice plant working
Work done in each stage will be same between temperatures of 5C and 25C

TE
produces 20 kg of ice per minute from water at
Pmax 20C. The specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg
as w = f P and latent heat of ice is 335 kJ/kg. The
min
refrigeration capacity of the refrigeration plant
By perfect inter cooling we will achieve the is
isothermal compression which required the
AS
last work the efficiency will improve. (a) 9040 kJ/min (b) 8750 kJ/min

91. Consider the following statements : (c) 8380 kJ/min (d) 8010 kJ/min

The presence of air inside condensers Ans. (c)


M

1. remains as a non-condensable gas Sol. Heat required to form the ice from 20
= 20 4.2 20 + 20 335
2. reduces the condensing coefficient
= 8380 kJ/min = Refrigeration
3. tends to cling to the surface Capacity of plant.
S

93. Consider the following statements in respect of


4. introduces large thermal resistance
a vapour-absorption refrigration cycle :
Which of the above statements are correct?
IE

1. The absorption refrigeration cycle is generally


(a) 1, 2 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only used when waste heat is avilable from an
existing source or when free energy like solar
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
energy is to be used.

Ans. (a) 2. There are no moving parts in the absortpion


refrigeration plant except a small liquid pump.
Sol.
The performance of condenser due to 3. The value of the coefficient of performance
presence of air (which will remain non is nearly the same in both vapour-absorption
considerable) gets affected badly. and vapour- compression refrigeration plants.
It blanket the heat transfer surfaces such
as outside the surface of condenser tubes Which of the above statements are correct?
which reduces the considering heat transfer
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
co-efficient.

, 8010009955
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Pv 2.5
Q 58.8%
PS = 4.246
Ans. (b)
95. Consider the following statements in respect of
Sol. The vapour absorption system in place of an evaporative cooling process :
compressor absorber equipments (Generator,
absorber sm all pump) are used which 1. The wet-bulb temperature remains constant.
replaces the moving part.

R
In this system strong solution in generater 2. The dew-point temperature remains constant.
is heated by same external sources, these
external source can be waste heat (e.g. 3. The enthalpy remains constant.

94.
steam in hospital is waste) or free energy
like solar energy is available.
The COP of absorption system is about 20
to 30% of the vapour compression system.
Air at 30C and 1 bar has a specific humidity
TE Which of the above statements are correct?

(a)

(b)
1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only
AS
of 0.016 kg/kg of dry air. By considering the
saturation pressure of water vapour at 30C as (c) 2 and 3 only
4.246 kPa, the relative humidity of th air will be
(d) 1 and 3 only
(a) 66.1% (b) 60.2%
(c) 58.8% (d) 56.8% Ans. (d)
M

Ans. (c) Sol. In evaporative cooling process wetbulb temp


and enthalpy remain constant.

0.622Pv

S

Sol. Pb Pv
IE

0.622 Pv tw1= tw2


0.016
1 Pv w2

1 P 0.622
or 38.875 w1
P 0.016

1 td1
or P 0.0250bar td2
39.875

2.5 ka

, 8010009955
h2 h1 (wL w1 )hfw Ans. (a)

Sol.
(w 2 w1 )hfw is very small Note: only in one case where efficiency of
otto cycle is more than and in disel cycle is
So, h2 h1 same compression ratio rest of the cases

R
efficiency of disel cycle is always greater than
96. For a steady process, the conditions at stage otto cycle.
1 and stage 2 are , respectively, h1 300 kJ/ In this case by considering same maximum

TE
Kg, h2 150 kJ/kg, S1 1.25 kJ/kg K and pressure and heat input or same maximum
pressure and work output or same peak
S2 0.8 kJ/kg K. The availability at the pressure, peak temp. and peak rejection
ambient temperature 300 K will be : compression ratio and efficiency of disel
cycle is more than otto cycle.
(a) 15 kJ (b) 20 kJ
AS
98. Which of the following statements are correct?
(c) 25 kJ (d) 35 kJ
1. The specific speed of a turbine is the speed
Ans. (a) at which a homologous turbine develops 1 mhp
Sol. Availability = h1 h0 T0 (S1 S2 ) under unit heat at its maximum efficiency.
M

= 300 150 300(1.25 0.8) 2. The specific speed is a dimensionless


parameter used for the selection of turbines.
= 150 300 0.45
3.The function of guide vanes in reaction
= 15 kg turbines is to minimize shock at entry of the
S

fluid onto the runner blades.


97. If the maximum pressure in both air standard
Otto and diesel cycles is the same, then the Select the correct answer using the code given
IE

relations for compression ratio r and the below :


efficiency between the two cycles are :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) rDiesel rOtto and Diesel Otto (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only

(b) rOtto rDiesel and Diesel Otto Ans. (a)

(c) rDiesel rOtto and Otto Diesel Sol. The specific speed may be dimensional or
non-di m en si onal and i s an i m portant
(d) rOtto rDiesel and Otto Diesel parameter in turbine selection.

, 8010009955
Ans. (c)
99. A centrifugal pump lifts 0.0125 m3 / s of water
For insulated rod, (shorter rod)
from a well with a static lift of 30 m. If the
Qconvection = Q radiation
brake power of the driving electric motor is 5
kW, what is the overall efficiency of the pump- KA '
set ? or, hA = ...(i)
L
For longer rod at mid point,
(a) 57.6% (b) 63.9%

R
Q convection = Q conduction
(c) 65.3% (d) 73.6%
KA '
hA = ...(ii)
L

TE
Ans. (d)
Both equation (i) and (ii) are same so, temp.
Sol. Q = 0.0125m 3/s at midpoint of rod = 55C
101. Consider the following statements in repsect of
H = 30 m
ideal and practical gas turbine cycles :
AS
P = QH 9.8 0.0125 30 kW 1. In the ideal cycle case, the cycle efficiency
depends on the pressure ratio only.
= 3.6 kW
2. In the practical cycle case (with
irrev ersibilities in the compression and
3.675
= 0.735 expansion processes), The cycle efficiency
M

5
depends on the maximum temperature as well
as on the pressure ratio.
= 73.5%
3. In the practical cycle case, at a given
100. Two rods, one of length l and the other of maximum temperature, the maximum efficiency
S

length 2l , are made of the same material and and the maximum work done occur at a same
have same diameter. Both ends of the longer pressure ratio.
rod are maintained at 100C. One end of the
IE

shorter rod is maintained at 100C while the Which of the above statements are correct ?
other end is insulated. Both rods are exposed
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
to the same environment at 40C. The
temperature at the insulated end is measaured (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
to be 55C The temperature at the midpoint of
the longer rod would be : Ans. (a)

(a) 45C (b) 50C Sol.


(c) 55C (d) 60C The efficiency of ideal gas turbine cycle
depends on the pressure ratio,

, 8010009955
1 1 2
= 1 1 y = gt ...(ii)
r z
The practical cycle, the efficiency of turbine
and compression came in picture due to
gx 2
irreversibilities so final efficiency depend not =

R
2y
only pressure ratio but also maximum temp.
The maximum work done and efficiency of
the gas turbine is given at temp. ratio Vth = 2gh

TE
1

r
t min = x2 0.4062
t c Cv =
Vth 4y h 4 0.085 0.51
Here T 03 = maximum temp. of cycle.
AS
if T 03 is fixed, then = 0.975
r = pressure ratio will also fixed only variation
103. In the working of a vapour-compression
may happen in t and c refrigeration plant, the following enthalpies are
recorded at salient points in the cycle :
102. A jet of water issues from a sharp-edged
vertical orifice under a constant heat of 0.51 1. Enthalpy at inlet to compressor (saturated
M

m. At a certain point of the issuing jet, the


horizontal and vertical coordinates measured vapour), h1 300 kJ / kg .
from vena contracta are 0.406 m and 0.085
m, respectively. What is the value of the 2. Enthalpy at outlet of compressor (after
coefficient of velocity ? isentropic compression), h2 330 kJ / kg
S

(a) 0.975 (b) 0.925


3. Enthalpy at exit of condenser (saturated
(c) 0.875 (d) 0.825
IE

liquid), h3 150 kJ / kg .

Ans. (d) What is the COP of the plant ?

(a) 3 (b) 4
Sol. x
(c) 5 (d) 6

y Ans. (c)

Sol. W input = h2 h1 = 330 300 30

RE = h7 h3 300 150 150


x = t ...(i)

, 8010009955
output.
RE 150
So, COP 5
Winput 30 3. The capacity of the condenser is reduced.

104. Consider the following statements for single- Which of the above statements are correct?
stage reciprocating compressors :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
1. Isothermal process is the most desirable
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

R
process for compression.

2. The size of clearance volume provided in Ans. (a)


the compressor has no effect on work done
per kg of air delivered.

3. The volumetric efficiency of the compressor


decreases with increasing pressure.

Which of the above statements are correct?


TESol. Regenera t i on i ncreases t he m ean
temperature of heat addition of rankine cycle,
hence the efficiency of cycle.

Due to extraction of bledoff steam in every


stage, less amount of steam will condensed
AS
in condenser so, it reduced the condenser
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only capacity (size of condenser).
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
The major disadvantage of regenerative cycle
is requirement of larger boiler capacity for a
Ans. (d)
given power.
M

Sol. As work input for isothermal process is 106. Consider the following statements in respect of
mi nimum. t hen f or polytropic then f or (l) the temperature of the medium, (m) the
adiabatic. so isothermal process is desirable
proces of compression. ref ri gerant and (n ) the condenser and
S

absorption system-in a refrigeration unit :


1/n
P 1. Temperature of the medium being cooled
vol 1 c c 2
must be below that of the evaporator.
IE

P1

2. Refrigerant leaves the condenser as liquid.


By increase in pressure ratio volumetric
efficiency will decrease in compressor. So, 3. Any solar thermally operated absorption
statement 3 is correct. system is capable only of intermittent operation.
105. Consider the following statements in respect of
regenerative Rankine cycle : Which of the above statements are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only


1. Regeneration increases the efficiency of the
cycle. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. The boiler capacity is increased for a given

, 8010009955
Ans. (c) transfer coefficient.

Sol. In absorption system the temperature of 2. The efficiency of heat transfer in a condenser
medium being cooled is more than the will improve by increase of the velocity of flow
evoporater temperature. of water in the tube.

R
I n t hi s syst em ref ri gerant l eav es t he 3. The difference between the temperature of
condenser as liquid. steam entering the condenser and the inlet
water temperature should be maximum for

TE
Solar thermally operated system can be used maximum efficiency.
for intermittent operation because of the
availability of absorber source. Which of the above statements are correct?

107. Volumetric analysis of a certain flue gas gave (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
CO2 15%, O2 5% and rest as N2. The gas was
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
AS
at a temperature of 200C and a pressure of 5
bar. The partial pressure of N2 in the flue gas
is Ans. (d)

(a) 250 kN / m2 (b) 300 kN / m2 Sol. Q U0 A 0 Tm


M

(c) 350 kN / m2 (d) 400 kN / m2 Q U0

So, rate of heat transfer is increased by


Ans. (d)
increasing the ov erall heat transfer co-
efficient.
Sol. let 1 mole of gas is there
S

mole of nitrogen will be = 1 0.15 0.05 Also, Q = ms (hsteam hcondensate )


IE

= 0.8 mole = mc cpc (Tcq TCi )

So, Partial pressure of nitrogen will be


Where mc = mass flow rate of water
= Ptotal mole of nitrogen
mc = AV
= 5 0.8 4 bar 400 KN / m2
V = Flow rate
108. Consider the following statements :
hsteam hcondensate Ts Tc
1. The efficiency of heat transfer in a condenser
will improve by increase of the overall heat

, 8010009955
109. The total power developed by a three stage Which of the above statements are correct?
velocity compounded impulse steam turbine is
900 kW. The power magnitudes developed in (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
the f irst and the second stages are, (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
respectively
Ans. (d)
(a) 500 kW and 300 kW
(b) 100 kW and 300 kW Sol. Cooling towers vary in size from small roof-

R
(c) 500 kW and 100 kW top units to very large Hyperboloid structure
that can be upto 200 meters tall 100m in
(d) 100 kW and 100 kW diameter or rectangular structure that can

Ans. (a)

Sol. Power output ratio in velocity compounded


3 stage turbine is 5:3:1.
TE be over 40m tall and 80 m. The Hyperboloid
st ruct ure of cool i ng t ower i s m ai nl y
associ at e d wi t h st rengt h not wi t h
thermodynamic Augumentation. This used in
Nucl ear p l ant where hei ght of t ower
AS
requirement is more due to safety.

In Natural draft cooling tower there is no uses


So, Work put in first stage of fan. Because of it these are very tall. So,
statement 1 is wrong.
5 111. Consider the following statements :
= 900 500 kW
M

5 3 1
Work out put in 2nd stage 1. Wind velocity at about 20 m height above
the ground is taken as the rated velocity for
3 design of windmills.
= 900 300 kW
5 3 1
S

2. The total power of a wind stream is directly


110. Consider the following statements in respect of proportional to the cube of average velocity.
natural-draft cooling towers :
IE

3. Wind turbine operates with variable load over


1. Theoretically the water can be cooled to even a narrow range between cut-in and cut-out
below the dry-bulb temperature of the induced velocities.
air flow.
4. Vertical wind machine operates in all wind
2. Natural draft cooling towers are 100 m or directions, but it needs yaw adjustment.
more in height.
Which of the above statements are correct?
3. The inner and outer surfaces are surfaces
of revolution of a segment of a hyperbola about (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
the vertical axis-affording improved strength (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
rather than any thermodynamic augmentation.

, 8010009955
Ans. (d) space craft.

Sol. The total power of wind stream in wind Direct methonal fuel cell is a type of
turbine is given by proton exchange membrane fuel cell.

Alkaline fuel cell has been used in Appolo

R
1
P = cpAV 3 space craft and it is also termed as Bacon
2
fuel cell.

where P = Power 113. A flywheel on a motor speeds up from rest to

TE
1000 r.p.m. in 6 seconds. the number of
C p = Power co-efficient revolutions made thereby is nearly :

= air density (a) 200 (b) 100


(c) 50 (d) 20
AS
A = swept area of turbine
Ans. (c)
V = Wind speed

Wind turbines operate from cut in speed 3 to Sol. = 0 t


4m/sec to cut-out speed around 25m/sec which
is a narrow range of speed.
M

1000
= 0 6
60
Vertical wind machines are omni-directional do
not require complex mechanism and motors to
yaw the rotor and pitch the blades. So, we can 1000
=
say statement 4 is wrong. 60 6
S

Only 2 and 3 are correct.


1 2
= 0 t
IE

112. W hich fuel cell is suitable for spacecraft 2


applications ?

(a) Direct methanol fuel cell 1 1000 2


= 0 6
(b) Proton exchange membrane fuel cell 2 60 6

(c) Alkaline fuel cell = 50 rotations


(d) Phosphoric acid fuel cell 114. Two steel balls of 2 kg and 4 kg mass,
respectively are pressed on the two ends of a
Ans. (c) spring, all pre-placed on a smooth surface.
When released, the smaller ball moves with an
Sol. Proton exchange membrane fuel cell is
under process of application so, we can acceleration of 2m / s2 . The simultaneous
not say directly it can be suitable for acceleration of the bigger ball will be :

, 8010009955
Ans. (b)
(a) 0.5 m / s2 (b) 1 m / s2
Sol. V2 = u2 + 2as
2 2
(c) 2 m / s (d) 4 m / s
2
0 400
Ans. (b) a=
2 0.12

R
dp = 666.67 103 m/s2
Sol. Here, Fext. =
dt
v = u + at

mA
k

F
mB

TE t=
u

400
a 666.67 103

= 0.6 103 sec


AS
rA rB

P mv 0
Average force =
C = centre of mass t t


MA rA MB rB = 0 0.03 400
= N
M

0.6 10 3

MA VA MB VB = 0
= 20 kN
116. A ball of weight 100 N is tied to a smooth wall
MA aA MBaB = 0
by a cord making an angle of 30 to the wall.
S

The tension is the cord is :


Acceleration of bigger mass, a B =
22
IE

1 m/s2 . 200
4 (a) 200 N (b) N
3
115. A bullet of mass 0.03 kg moving with a speed
of 400 m/s penetrates 12 cm into a fixed block (c) 100 N (d) 50 3 N
of wood. The average force exerted by the
wood on the bullet will be : Ans. (d)
(a) 30 kN (b) 20 kN
Sol. FBD of system is as follow :
(c) 15 kN (d) 10 kN

, 8010009955
1
1 =
2 0.385
I
30
10 = 0.298
0
0 co
in 3 s3 118. A bar produces a lateral strain of magnitude

R
0s 0
10 30
5 mm when subjected to a tensile
60 10
100 kg
stress of magnitude 300 MPa along the axial

TE
direction. What is the elastic modulus of the
material if the poissons ratio is 0.3?
at equilibrium (a) 200 GPa (b) 150 GPa
(c) 125 GPa (d) 100 Gpa
T = 100 cos 30
AS
Ans. (b)
3
T = 100 Sol. Lateral strain = Axail strain
2

3 60 105
M

= 50 Axial, E x = 200 105


2 0.3

117. The modulus of rigidity of an elastic material is


x = 300 MPa
found to be 38.5% of tghe value of its Youngs
modulus. The poissons ratio of the material
S

is nearly : x 300 106


E =
E x 200 105
(a) 0.28 (b) 0.30
IE

(c) 0.33 (d) 0.35


= 150 GPa

Ans. (b) 119. In the design of beams for a given strength,


consider that the conditions of economy of use
of the material would avail as follows :
E
Sol. G = 2 1
1.Rectangular cross-section is m ore
economical than square section area of the
beam.
G 1
= 2 1 0.385
E 2. Circular section is more economical than
square section.

, 8010009955
3. I-section is more economical than a
rectangular section of the same depth. b

Which of the above are correct ? by

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only


(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

R
o y
Ans. (d)

Sol. Sect i onal m o dul us (z) m ore 121. A beam of rectangular section (12 cm wide
economical.

=
My
I


M
I/ Y

M
Z
TE 20 cm deep) is simply supported over a span
of 12 m. It is acted upon by a concentrated
load of 80 kN at the midspan. The maximum
bending stress induced is :

(a) 400 MPa (b) 300 MPa


AS
Z = 6 (c) 200 MPa (d) 100 MPa

Z Z Ans. (b)

120. Which one of the following statements is 3


6 3 12 20
M

correct? Sol. I = cm 4
12 12
(a) The strain produced per unit volume is called
resilience. = 8 103 cm 4
(b) The maximum strain produced per unit
Span, L = 12m
S

volume is called proof resilience.


(c) The least strain energy stored in a unit Load, P = 80 kN
volume volume is called proof resilience.
IE

(d) The greatest strain energy stores in a unit PL


Mmax = 240 kNm
volume of a material without permanent 4
deformation is called proof resilience.

Ans. (d) My 240 103 0.1


=
I 8 105
Sol. Definition of Resilience
= 300 Mpa
122. A uniform bar, simply supported at the ends,
carries a concentrated load P at mid-span. If
the same load be, alternatively, uniformly

, 8010009955
distributed over the full length of the bar, the 124. A boy walks up a stalled escalator in 90
maximum deflection of the bar will decrease seconds. When the same escalator moves, he
by is carried up in 60 seconds. How much time
would it take him to walk up the moving
(a) 25.5% (b) 31.5% escalator?
(c) 37.5% (d) 50.0%

R
(a) 48 seconds (b) 36 seconds

Ans. (c) (c) 30 seconds (d) 24 seconds

TE
Ans. (b)
PL3
Sol. concentrated =
48EI
Sol. Let ' ' be length of escalator,,

5L4 5PL3 1
AS
uniformly = P L Velocity, b =
384EI 284EI 90


1 5 v escable =
60
48 384
% decrement in = 1
M

If both starts moving,


48


= 37.5% Time =


123. A thin cylindrical pressure vessel and a thin
S

90 60
spherical pressure vessel have the same mean
radius, same wall thickness and are subjected
= 36 sec
to same internal pressure. The hoop stresses
IE

set up in these vessels cylinder in relation to 125. A 10 mm diameter bar of mild steel of elastic
sphere) will be in the ratio
modulus 200 109 Pa is subjected to a tensile
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1: 1 load of 50000 N, taking it just beyond its yield
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1 point. The elastic recovery of strain that would
occur upon removal of tensile load will be
Ans. (c)
(a) 1.38 103 (b) 2.68 10 3

Pd (c) 3.18 103 (d) 4.62 10 3


hoop/cylinder 2t
Sol. hoop/sphere = = 2 : 1
Pd
1t

, 8010009955
Ans. (c) 127. Which of the following statements is correct ?

Sol. d = 10 mm (a) Iron-carbon and TTT diagrams are both


equilibrium diagrams.
E = 200 GPa (b) Iron-carbon and TTT diagrams are both non-
equilibrium diagrams.
P = 5000 N
(c) Iron-carbon diagram is an equilibrium

R
diagram but TTT diagram is a non-
P 4P
Stress, = 2 636.62 MPa equilibrium diagram
A d
(d) Iron carbon diagram is a non-equilibrium

E =

E
3.18 10 3

126. On completion of heat treatment, the austenite


structure would be retained if :
TE Ans. (c)

Sol.
diagram but TTT diagram is an equilibrium
diagram.

Iron carbon diagram is a equilibrium phase


AS
(a) the rate of cooling is greater than the critical diagram but does not show time as a variable
cooling rate and hence the effects of different cooling
rates on steel does not revealed. Moreover,
(b) the rate of cooling is less than the critical
equilibrium conditions are not maintained in
cooling rate
heat treatment. Although, the iron-carbon
(c) the initiating temperatrue of martensite equilibrium diagram reveals on the phases
M

formation is above the room temperature and corresponnding microstructure under


equilibrium conditions but several useful
(d) the finishing temperature of martensite
properties of steel can be obtained under
formation is below the room temperature
non-equilibrium conditions e.g. variable rates
of cooling as produced during quenching and
S

Ans. (d) better transformation of austenite into pearlite


and martensite.
Sol. When the finishing temperature of martensite
IE

(Mf) is below the room temperature then we 128. The correct order of increasing resistivity among
get the retained austenite. the following materials is :

The martensite start (M s ) and martensite (a) nickel, doped silicon, sodium silicate, pure
finish (Mf) temperature are related and these silica
temperatures are controlled by v arious (b) doped silicon, nickel, pure silica, sodium
all oying elem ent includi ng carbon and silicate
chromium.
(c) Nickel, pure silica, sodium silicate, doped
Note: Higher carbon reduces the Ms and M f silicon
temperature, until the Mf temperature can be (d) Sodium silicate, nickel, pure silica, doped
lower than room temperature. silicon

, 8010009955
Ans. (a) By Helmhottz free energy equation free
energy is given by
Sol. Nickel is a metal so it will have higher
electrical conductivity because of valence A = U Ts
electrons free movement in solid.
where U = internal energy

R
Due to dopping Si become a extrinsic
sem i cond uct or whi ch hav e hi gher T = temp.
conductivity than intrinsic semiconductor.

TE
S = entropy
Sodium silicate is a partial conductor of
electricity due to presence of sodium ion and So, By increase in entropy free energy get
silicate ion. reduced,

Pure silica is piezoelectric material which So, option 2 and 3 are true
AS
hav e lower electrical conductiv ity than 130. Which of the following properties will be the
sodiumsilicate meaningful indicator/indicators of uniform rate
of elongation of a test piece of a structural
Note: Resistivity is opposite of conductivity. material before necking happens in the test
129. Consider the following statements : piece ?
M

On heating an elastomer under tensile load, its 1. Ductility


shrinkage
2. Toughness
1. maximizes the enthalpy
3. Hardness
S

2. maximizes the entropy


Select the correct answer using the code given
3. minimizes the free energy below :
IE

4. avoids breaking (a) 1 only (b) 2 only


(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 Ans. (b)

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 Sol. Toughness is ability of a material to absorb


energy and pl asti cal ly def orm wi thout
Ans. (b) fracture. It can also defined as the amount
of energy per unit volume that a material
Sol. In heating elostomere under tensile load can absorb before rupturing.
entropy get decrease because of only one
possible microstate but by shrinkage entropy
get increased because of many possible
microstates.

, 8010009955
131. Which one of the following alloying elements Ans. (b)
increases the corrosion resistance of steel?
(a) Vanadium (b) Chromium Sol. dof = 3 (n 1) 2J h Fr
(c) Nickel (d) Copper
= 3 (10 1) 2 12 0 0
Ans. (b)
=3
Sol. Chrom i um i s t he m ai n con st i t uent 134. The displacement and velocity diagrams of a

R
responsible for increasing the corosion cam and follower mechanism are shown:
resistant of steel and because of it stainless
steel in industry frequently termed as high B1 C1

TE
Displacement
chrome low chrome steel.

e.g. SS304, SS91b, etc.


A B C D E
If chromium percentage in steel is more than
One revolution of cam
10.5% then only steel is termed as corrosion
AS
resistant or stainless steel.
132. W hich of the following mechanisms are Velocity
examples of forced closed kinematic pairs?
1. Cam and roller mechanism
2. Door-closing mechanism
M

Angular displacement
3. Slider-crank mechanism
Select the correct answer using the code given W hich of the following statements is/are
below. correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 1. The acceleration of the follower at the
S

beginning and at the end of each stroke will


(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
be zero.
Ans. (a) 2. The follower remains at rest in the dwell
IE

period.
Sol. Slider-crank mechanism is not forced - 3. During period DE, the motion of the follower
closed mechanism. is retarding.
133. A planer mechanism has 10 links and 12 rotary Select the correct answer using the code given
joints. Using Grublers criterion, the number of below.
degrees of freedom of the mechanism is
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
(c) 2 (d) 4

, 8010009955
Ans. (c) Ans. (d)

Sol. Acceleration of follower of beginning is


infinite not zero. K 4 40000
Sol. n =
M 1450 150
135. The number of instantaneous centres of rotation

R
in a slider-crank quick return mechanism is
= 10 rad/s
(a) 10 (b) 8
(c) 6 (d) 4
2 2

TE
T=
Ans. (c) 10

Sol. No of instantaneous centre, = 0.628 SEC

Time for two complete vibrations = 2T =


43
AS
= c 2 4c 2 6 1.256 sec
2
138. Consider the following statements:
136. A simple spring-mass vibrating system has a
Arterfacts to prevent harmful effects resulting
natural frequency of N. If the spring stiffness is
from vibrations of an unbalanced machine fixed
halved and the mass doubled, then the natural
frequency will be on its foundation include
M

(a) 0.5 N (b) N 1. mounting the machine on springs thereby


minimizing the transmission of forces
(c) 2N (d) 4N
2. using vibration isolating materials to prevent
Ans. (a) or reduce the transmission of forces
3. moving the foundation so as to have only
S

degree of freedom towards reducing the


K K transmission of forces
Sol. = / 2m
M 2 Which of the above statements are correct?
IE

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only


(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1 K
= 0.5 N
2 M
Ans. (d)
137. A car of mass 1450 kg is constructed on a 139. Two heavy rotors are mounted on a single shaft.
chassis supported by four springs. Each spring Considering each of the rotors separately, the
has a force constant of 40000 N/m. The transverse natural frequencies are 100 cycles/
combined mass of the two people occupying s and 200 cycles/s, respectively. The lower
the car is 150 kg. W hat is the period of critical speed will be
execution of two complete vibrations? (a) 12000 r.p.m. (b) 9360 r.p.m.
(a) 0.63 s (b) 1.59 s (c) 8465 r.p.m. (d) 5367 r.p.m.
(c) 4.96 s (d) 1.26 s

, 8010009955
Ans. (d)
B D Steel wire
Sol. Using Dunkerlons Method Steel wire
1.0 m
0.6 m
1 1 1 A C
2 = 2
2
wn w n1 w n
0.8 m O

R
1 1 20 kN
= 2
2
100 200
(a) 15.2 kN and 7.1 kN

=
1
8000

w n = 89.44 cycle s
TE (b)
(c)
(d)

Ans. (b)
11.8
15.2
11.8
kN
kN
kN
and
and
and
7.1
5.0
5.0
kN
kN
kN
AS
rpm = 89.44 60 5366.56rpm AB CO
=
1 0.6
140. Considering the following statements:
In the case of gears of involute profiles, CD = 0.6 AB
increase in the centre to centre distance
M

between the mounting shafts


1. increases the pressure angle TCDL T L
= 0.6 AB
AE AE
2. will not affect the law of gearing
3. shortens the path of contact
T CO = 0.6 T AB
S


4. increases the contact ratio
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
Moment about 0, M 0
IE

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4


TAB 1 TCD 0.6 20 0.8
Ans. (b)
1.36TAB = 20 0.8
Sol. Increasing centre distances lead to decrease
in contact ratio.
TAB = 11.76 KN
141. A rigid bar ACO as shown is hinged at O and
is held in a horizontal position by two identical T CD = 7.05 KN
vertical steel wires AB and CD. A point load of
20 kN is hung at the position shown. The
tensions in wires AB and CD are

, 8010009955
142. An epicyclic gear train has 3 shafts A, B and Ans. (d)
C, A is the input shaft running at 100 r.p.m.
clockwise. B is the output shaft running at 250 Sol.
r.p.m. clockwise. The torque on A is 50 kN m
(clockwise), C is a fixed shaft. The torque x
needed to fix C is Given : y = 1; ?? if fixed y 0

R
y
(a) 20 kN m (anti-clockwise)
(b) 20 kN m (clockwise)
x =4
(c) 30 kN m (anti-clockwise)

TE
(d) 30 kN m (clockwise) Pinion = x + y = 4 + 1 = 5

Ans. (c) 144. Consider the following statements:


1. Balancing of several masses rotating in the
same plane can be effected by a single
Sol. N =0
AS
mass.
2. Balancing of several masses in different
ANA BNB BNC 0 planes can be done by 2 masses in 2 planes
on either side of the reference plane or on
100 50 250 B 0 the same side.
3. Reciprocating masses cannot be completely
M

balanced by rotating masses.


B = 20 kNm
4. Secondary unbalanced f orces will be
negligible compared to primary imbalance
Now, = 0 forces.
Which of the above statements are correct?
S

c = A B (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only


(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
IE

= 50 20
Ans. (b)
= 30 kNm
Sol. Secondary unbalanced f orces were be
= 30 kNm (ccw)
l
143. A fixed gear having 200 teeth is meshed with negligible only when, the ratio, n 1 .
r
a smaller gear having 50 teeth. The two gears That means not always.
are connected by an arm. The number of turns
made by the smaller gear for one revolution of
cos 2
the arm about the centre of the bigger gear is a x w 2r cos
(a) 1 (b) 2 rec x
(c) 3 (d) 5

, 8010009955
145. A body of mass 10 kg with its CG 200 mm (c) 9.81 kN m (d) 13.1 kN m
from the axis of rotation is to be completely
balanced by another mass B of 5 kg placed in Ans. (a)
the same plane. The radius at which the CG of
mass B should be is Sol. Valternate = 360 kmph
(a) 500 mm (b) 400 mm
(c) 300 mm (d) 200 mm 5
= 360 ms

R
18
Ans. (b)
= 100 m/s
Sol. M1r1 = M2 Y2

r2 =
10 200
5
400mm

146. Consider the following statements:


TE Radius, r = 100 m

Angular Precession,
V
r
1 rad sec
AS
1. In stationary constant speed engines, the
I MK 2 500 0.25 2 31.25Kg m2
spring-loaded governor mechanism is fitted
on the cam-shaft of the engine.
w = engine spin = 2000 rpm
2. Hunting occurs when the governor is not
sensitive.
3. Isochronous governors have the same 2000 2
M

= 209.45rad s
speed over a wide range of governor action. 60
4. A governor is said to be unstable if the radius
of rotation falls as the speed increases. Gyroscopic couple C = Iw
Which of the above statements are correct?
= 6.544 KN.m
S

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 only


(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only 148. The maximum shearing stress induced in the
beam section at any layer at any position along
IE

Ans. (c) the beam length (shown in the figure) is equal


to
Sol. Hunting occurs when a governor is too
sensitive.
2000 kgf
147. An aircraft cruising at 360 kmph takes a right
turn on an arc of 100 m radius. The turbines 200 mm
and propellers have a total mass of 500 kg
with radius of gyration of 25 cm. The engine 1m
rotates at 2000 r.p.m. The magnitude of the
gyroscopic couple generated is
(a) 6.55 kN m (b) 7.65 kN m
50 mm
Cross-section of beam

, 8010009955
(a) 30 kgf/cm2 (b) 40 kgf/cm2 Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) 50 kgf/cm2 (d) 60 kgf/cm2 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
Ans. (b)

R
VQ
Sol. Shear stress, = Sol. If external force is fluctuating then material
Ib
get fail at stress which is considerably lower
than the normal stress of static load. This

TE
Q = Ay behaviour is termed as fatigue. These are
two termonology used is fatigue fracture.
These are fatigue strength and fatigue life.
bh h
= . The graph in between these tells the fatigue
2 4
strength and finally define endurnace limit of
AS
particular material. Under fatigue failure
ductile material will fail as like as brittle
bh2 50 200 2
= may material.
8 8
For ductile material under static load material
VQ start yielding at yield point beyond which
= material get deformed permanently and
M

2b
finally fail by cup and cone fracture at UTS.
the allowable stress of material is also
bh2 governed by yield stress and in Industry
V.
8 3 V beyond it material termed as fail.
= bh2 .
2 bh
S

b Note: Due to yielding Lauders band take


12
place in ductile material due to static loading
which act as a stress intensifier.
IE

3 2000 150. A machine component is subjected to a flexural


= Kgf mm 2
2 50 200 stress, which fluctuates between 300 MN/m2
and 150 MN/m2. Taking the yield strength =
= 30Kgf cm 2 0.55 of the ultimate strength, endurnace
strength = 0.50 of the ultimate strength and
149. Consider the following statements: factor of safety to be 2, the value of the
For a component made of ductile material, the minimum ultimate strength according to
failure criterion will be modified Goodman relation will be
1. endurance limit, if the external force is (a) 1100 MN/m2 (b) 1075 MN/m2
fluctuating (c) 1050 MN/m2 (d) 1025 MN/m2
2. fatigue, if the external force is fluctuating
3. yield stress, if the external force is static

, 8010009955
Ans. (c)

Sol. bmax bmin


Alternating stress,ba 225
2

bmax bmin
Mean Stress,bm 75
2

R
60
tan 5
6m

Modulated-Goodmax

60 6m

Se Sut
=
1
n
TE
AS
225 75 1

0.5Sut Sut 2

sut = 1050 MN/m 2


M
S
IE

, 8010009955