The major action of sodium chromoglycate is : mast cell -1

. stabilization

The action of histamine is : stimulation of gastric secretion -2

One of the following antibiotics is resistant to penicillinase : floxapen -3

( flucloxacillin

Inderal is : pure b -adrenergic receptor blocker -4

Rifampicin is indicated for treatment of : tuberculosis -5

Which of the following is selective b1 blocker : labetalol but it is non -6

selective b blocker

The latabbreviation for " After Meals " is : p.c -7

The latin abbreviation for " Four Times Daily " is : q.i.d -8

The latin abbreviation for " Every Night " is : o.n -9

Erythroped A : is effective against G +ve Cocci >>and G ve -10

bacteria, is a macrolide antibioticc-can increase g.i.t. motility,
,could be used in pregnant women if need

For the treatment of anaphylactic shock use : epinephrine -11

Allopurinol is used as : agent which increases renal tubular -12

reabsorption

Which of the following is NOT betamethasone side effect : -13

hypoglycemia

A disease which is due to viral infection : poliomyelitis , rabies, -14

chicken pox , herpes

The mechanism of action of atropine is: muscarinic antagonist -15

Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical is : -16
automaticity

The heart`s dominant pacemaker is : SA node -17

supraventricular tachycardia

Adenosine P produces which of the following : dyspnea -19

Which of the following is responcible for buffering : bicarbonates -20

Respiratory acidosis is due to : CO2 retention-21

Which of the following is NOT colloid solution : ringer`s solution - 22

The term shock signifies : hypoperfusion -23

In treatment of shock , which of the following should be considered : -24

airway control , IV of crystalloid solution , dopamine to support
blood pressure , monitor heart rhythm

Which of the following is released by bacterial infection ?(. by -25

bacterial cell wall duringthere growth) : exotoxin

the amount of water in adult male is about : 60% -26

Which of the following are causes of oedema : increase -27

hydrostatic pressure , decrease oncotic pressure , increase
capillary permeability

Patients prescribed non reversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor - 28

should be advised not to consume food containing tyramine because this
combination causes : acute adrenergic crisis including sever
hypertention

: Concerning COX 2 inhibitors , which is NOT true - 29

osteoporosis which of the following is NOT true : alendronate -30
should be taken 60 min. before breakfast

: Which of the following is the first choice in acute gout -31

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoparalys is : male- 32

gender

Early symptoms of aspirin poisoning are : ringing in the ears & -33
blurred vision

: Which of the following is NOT true about infiximab - 34

A disease modifying drugs in rheumatoid arthritis : gold -35

. preparations , hydroxychloroquine , methotrexate

: A patient who is admitted through the E.R. with an initial diagnosis -36

Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis : it is -37

given to treat surgery associated infections

: Goals of diabetes mellitus management include - 38

When dosing insulin which of the following is true : dose may need- 39
to be increased during acute illness

What first line agent may be considered for an obese type : - 40

metformin

When diagnosis of diabetes to be considered : oral glucose -41

tolerance test, HBA1c

A 4 mg dose of lorazepam administered to a adult will act as : - 42

hypnotic
The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the range of : 300-600 mg -43
The drug of choice to control pain during acute myocardial infarction - 44
is : morphine

What is a major contraindication to the use of an OTC - 45

sympathomimetic drug : hypertension

: Category C in FDA for drug used in pregnancy - 46

What advice would you give to a patient prescribed rifampicin : this - 47

medication may cause discolouration of urine

Correct method of parentral administration of potassium is : slow - 48

I.V. injection

Which of the following drugs exhibits dose dependant - 49

pharmaceutical therapeutic doses : phenytoin

Which route of administration would provide the most rapid onset of - 50

.action response to morphine : I.V

+The long term administration of thiazide diuretics requires : K- 51

Propranolol is often prescribed with hydralazine to : reduce the - 52

reflex tachycardia

Fifty micrograms equals : 50000 ( nanogrames- 53

The ability of a liquid to dissolve is : miscibility- 54

These are non aqueous pharmaceutical solutions : essences - 55

A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of NaCl exactly 2000 ml. - 56

What is the molarity of this solution : 0.15
glitazones are ineffective as mono therapy ( True ) -57
GIT disturbance are common side effects of glycosidase -
inhibitors (true )
start with small dose of oral agent and triturate up to 1-2 weeks -
(True )
life style modification should not be enforced if an oral agent to -
be startede-lisepro is rapid acting insulin to be dosed immediately
before meals (False )

In CHF management the following is not correct : spironolactone - 58

should be avoided because of the great risk of hypokalemiad-non
drug therapy includes appropriate fluid and dietary sodium-
restriction

When concidering drug therapy for hypertention , which is true : - 59

beta-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient

Which of the following is NOT a primary literature : applied - 60

therapeutic & clinical use of drug

Which of the following is NOT used in theophylline toxicity - 61

management : methylphenidate to reduce excessive sedation

Regarding the use of ACEIs : most common side effect is - 62

chronic dry cough

References to check compatibility of drugs in parentral - 63

: administration

Regarding treatment of digoxin toxicity : check Mg and K levels and - 64

correct if needed

When a CNS depressant is prescribed , which of the following is - 65

NOT taken at the same time : verapamil
: The antimalarial to avoid glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase - 66

: We can prepare 100 ml of 12% MgCl by taking - 67

The following is NOT characteristic of solution : the solvent and -68

solute can be separated by filtratione-solute doesn`t precipitate as
time passes
trade name of lisinopril : Zestril , zinopril - 69
antipseudomonas drug : vancomycin - 70
digoxin differ from digitoxin : Excreted unchanged in - 71
urine
In digoxin induced arrythmia , what is not recommended : -72
electrical cardio
all of following are side effects of methotrixate except : - 73
Drive sex gland
drug used in hypertension and migrane : Clonidine - 74
mechanism of action of antipsychotic drug : Dopamine - 75
receptor inactivation
ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in : bilateral renal - 76
artery stenosis
about cardioglycosidic effect : +ve inotropic - 77
all factors affect on distribution of drug except : Type - 78
enzyme response of metabolism
factors affect on distribution of drug : Tissue solubility , - 79
Protein binding , Molecular weight of drug
, factors affect on renal clearance : Age - 80
ointment used for : Carrier of drug , Emollient - 81
charcol used as antidote : Adsorption activity - 82
in hypodynamic shock treatment : Use dopamine - 83
: acyclovir used to - 84
all following are viral infections except : Tuberculosis - 85
: warfarin monitoring - 86
Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis : - 87
it is given to reduce the possibility of surgical site infection
Which of the following is NOT true about infiximab :1- IL - 88
blocker
infusion of hypotonic solution in blood cause : hemolysis - 89
which of following is least sedative action : Temazepam - 90
Which of the following is NOT predinsolone side effect : - 91
hypoglycemia
Which one of the following is taken orally : Estrogen 92
gluconate
the following are controlled drugs :a- steroids , b- - 93
.promidon , c- diazepam
T.B. should be treated with : three drugs to ensure - 94
eradication of micro-organism
The responsibility of pharmacist in hospital is : deal with - 95
drug interaction
the following abbreviations are correct :a- stat: - 96
immediately , soon . b- p.r.n.: if needed . c - p.r.: rectally
Duiretic which is more potent than others is : bumetanide - 97
Food poisoning caused by : bacteria - 98
3- -99
 -:The major action of sodium chromoglycate is -1
a-mast cell stabilization b-bronchodilator
c-prostaglandins modifier d-leukotrienes modifier
e-non of the above

: The action of histamine is-2

a-capillary constriction b-elevation of blood pressure
c-stimulation of gastric secretion
d-skeletal muscle paralysis e-slowing the heart rate

One of the following antibiotics is resistant to -3

: penicillinase
a-penicillin V b-penicillin G
c-floxapen d-ampicillin
e-amoxicillin

: Inderal is -4
a-similar in action to ergotamine
b-similar in action to tubocurarine
c-used as an antihistamine
d-pure b -adrenergic receptor blocker

: Rifampicin is indicated for treatment of -5

a-impaired fat absorption b-pulmonary emboli
c-tuberculosis d-neoplastic disorders
e-psoriasis
? Which of the following is non selective b1 blocker -6
a-labitolol b-terazosine
c-cloridine d-captopril
e-verapamil

: The Latin abbreviation for " After Meals " is -7

.a- a.c. b- a.a. c- p.c. d- i.c. e- c.c
: The latin abbreviation for " Four Times Daily " is -8
.a- a.c. b- a.a. c- p.c. d- q.i.d. e- c.c
: The latin abbreviation for " Every Night " is -9
.a- a.c. b- o.n. c- p.c. d- i.c. e- c.c

: Erythroped A -10
a-is effective against G +ve Cocci
b-is a macrolide antibiotic
c-can increase g.i.t. motility
d-could be used in pregnant women if need
e-all of the above

: For the treatment of anaphylactic shock use -11

a-salbutamol b-diphenhydramine
c-acetazolamide d-epinephrine
e-aminophylline
: Allopurinol is used as -12
a-analgesic agent b-uricosuric agent
c-antiinflamatory agent d-antipyretic agent
e-agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption
Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase, reducing the conversion of
hypoxanthine and xanthine to uric acid and resulting in direct inhibition
of purine biosynthesis due to elevated oxypurine concentration (negative
feedback). Oxypurinol also inhibits xanthine oxidase. So anyway you have
dramatically decreased uric acid concentrations, decreased renal tubular
transport of uric acid, and then the side effect of increased tubular
reabsorption of calcium.
Which of the following is NOT betamethasone side effect -13
?
A-cataract b-hypoglycemia
c-skeletal muscle weakness d-sodium retention
e-lowered resistance to infections

: A disease which is due to viral infection -14

a-poliomyelitis b-rabies
c-chicken pox d-herpes
e-all of the above

: The mechanism of action of atropine is -15

a-muscarinic antagonist b-muscarinic agonist
c-nicotinic antagonist d-nicotinic agonist
e-non of the above

Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical -16

: is
a-inotropy b-chronotropy
c-automaticity d-contractility
"e-non of the above " Dromotropic effect

: The heart`s dominant pacemaker is -17

a- AV node b- SA node
c-pukinje fiber d-internodal pathways
e-non of the above
: Adenosine is used for -18
a-ventricular arrythmias b-atrial bradycardia
c-supraventricular tachycardia
d-supraventricular bradycardia
e-non of the above

: Adenosine P produces which of the following -19

a-facial flushing b-dyspnea
c-marked tachycardia d- a and b
e- a , b and c

Which of the following is responcible for buffering -20

a-magnesium b-chloride
c-bicarbonates d-potassium
e-troponin

: Respiratory acidosis is due to -21

a- O2 removal b- O2 retention
c- CO2 removal d- CO2 retention
e-non of the above

? Which of the following is NOT colloid solution -22

a-albumin 5% b-ringer`s solution
c-dextran d-beta starch
e-albumin 20%

: The term shock signifies -23

a-hyperperfusion b-hypoperfusion c-tachycardia
d-bradycardia e-non of the above

In treatment of shock , which of the following should be -24

?considered
a-airway control b-IV of crystalloid solution
c-dopamine to support blood pressure
d-monitor heart rhythm e-all of the above

Which of the following is released by bacterial infection? -25

(. by bacterial cell wall during there growth)
a-endotoxin b-exotoxin c-antibiotics
d-cytotoxin e-non of the above

:the amount of water in adult male is about -26

a-25% b-60% c-80% d-10% e-17%

?Which of the following are causes of oedema -27

a- Increase hydrostatic pressure
b- Decrease oncotic pressure
c-capillary permeability
d- a and b e- a , b and

Patients prescribed non reversible monoamine oxidase -28

inhibitor should be advised not to consume food containing
:tyramine because this combination causes
a-postural hypotension b-hallucinations
c-anaphylactic shock d-muscle weakness and tremor
e-acute adrenergic crisis including sever hypertention

?Concerning COX 2 inhibitors , which is NOT true -29

a-they have lower risk gastric adverse reactions
b-good evidence about their effectiveness
c-cardiac toxicity is a recent concern of this class
d-they usually administrated twice daily
e-combination with non selective agents give more effective action

In the treatment of osteoporosis which of the following is -30

?NOT true
a-alendronate should be taken 60 min. before breakfast
b-Ca and vit. D are essential
c-hormone replacement therapy should be considered
d-outcome should be assessed with periodic bone density
e-raloxifeno is selective oestrogen modulator

?Which of the following is the first choice in acute gout -31

a-allopurinol b-indomethacin
c-colchicine d-probencid e-sulfinylpyrazone

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for -32

?osteoparalysis
a-minimal exercise b-low calcium intake
c-male gender d-family history
e-minimal exposure to sunlight

: Early symptoms of aspirin poisoning are -33

a-lethergy & fatigue b-skin rash & headache
c-throbbing headache & dizziness
d-fluid retention hypotension
e-ringing in the ears & blurred vision

Which of the following is NOT true about infiximuab -34

a-IL-1 blocker
b-used for treatment of severe rheumatoid arthritis
c-may increase risk of infections
d-administered as IV infusion
e-postadministration reactions include fever & chills

:A disease modifying drugs in rheumatoid arthritis -35

a-gold preparations
b-hydroxychloroquine
c-methotrexate
d- a and b
e- a , b and c

A patient who is admitted through the E.R. with an -36

: initial diagnosis
a-slow ventricular response using verapamil
b-start lidocaine infusion
c- considered anticoagulation with warfarine
d- a and b e- b and c

37- Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis

?
a-it is given to treat surgery associated infections
b-it is given to reduce the possibility of surgical site infection
c-should always be given regardless type of surgery
d-should be continued for 7 days after surgery
e-all are true

: When diagnosis of diabetes to be considered -38

a-WBC count with differential
b-oral glucose tolerance test c- HBA1c
d- a and b e- b and c
:The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the range of -39
a- 1-5 mg b- 15-60 mg

c- 300-600 d -should be continued for 7 days after

surgery
e-all are true
: Goals of diabetes mellitus management include -40
a-reduce onset of complications
b-control symptoms of diabetes
c-near normal glycemic control and HBA1c
d- a and b e- a , b and c

?When dosing insulin which of the following is true -41

a-initial dose 0.6 u / kg / day split 2/3 a.m and 1/3 p.m
b-regular NPH ratio is 1 : 1 or 1 : 2
c-dose may need to be increased during acute illness
d- b and c e- a , b and c

What first line agent may be considered for an obese -42

? type 2
a-glyburinid b-insulin c-metformin
d-nateglinid e-repaglinid

41-30gm of 1% hydrocortisone mixed with 40 gm 2.5%

hydrocortisonen what is the concentration of the resulting
?solution
a) 3% b) 1.85%
c)10%
d) none of the above

:These are non aqueous pharmaceutical solutions -42

.a-otic soln. , mouth washes and nasal soln
b-essences , collodions an elixirs
.c-gargles , douches and irrigation soln
d-syrups , mucillages and collodions
e-enemas , liniments and spirits

A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of NaCl exactly -43

?2000 ml. What is the molarity of this solution
a- 3.33 b- 0.15
c- 1.60 d-3.00 x 10 -4 e-1.6x10 -4
Which of the following drugs exhibits dose dependant -44
? pharmaceutical therapeutic doses
a-Na valproate b-phenytoin c-lithium
d-quinidine e-carbamazepine

Propranolol is often prescribed with hydralazine to -45

a-reduce the reflex tachycardia
b-prevent the accumulation of hydralazine
c-prevent systemic lupus ( SLE ) due to hydralazine
d-prevent oedema
e-increase absorption of hydralazine

: The ability of a liquid to dissolve is -46

a-hydrophilicity b-miscibility
c-immiscibility d-solubility equilibrium

? Which of the following is NOT correct -47

a-glitazones are ineffective as mono therapy
b-GIT disturbance are common side effects of glycosidase inhibitors-a
c-start with small dose of oral agent and triturate up to 1-2 weeks
d-life style modification should not be enforced if an oral agent to be started
e-lisepro is rapid acting insulin to be dosed immediately before meals

:In CHF management the following is not correct -48

a-ACEIs such as lisinopril improves left ventricular function and reduces
mortality
blocker such as carvidailol may have beneficialb -
b- effect in selected patient
c-spironolactone should be avoided because of the great risk of hypokalemia
d-non drug therapy includes appropriate fluid and dietary sodium-restriction
e-symptomatic improvement is one of the major assessment criteria for proper
therapy

Which of the following is NOT a primary literature -49

a-gournal of pharmacy practice
b-applied therapeutic & clinical use of drug
c-new England Journal of medicine
d-Loncet
e- JAMA

References to check compatibility of drugs in parentral -50

:administration
a- MERCK Index
b-handbook on injectable drugs
c-micromedix
d- a and b
e- b and c

When a CNS depressant is prescribed , which of the -51

?following is NOT taken at the same time
a-analgesic b-verapamil
c-aspirin d-diphenhydramine e-orange
juice

52- A 4 mg dose of lorazepam administered to a adult will

act as :
a-analgesic b-hypnotic c-diuretic
d-antihistaminic e-antiulcerant

53- The drug of choice to control pain during acute

myocardial infarction is :
a-naloxone b-bethidine c-morphine
d-celecoxib e-naproxen

54- What is a major contraindication to the use of an OTC

sympathomimetic drug
a-gastric ulcer b-uncontrolled hypotension
c-severe asthma d-rheumatoid arthritis
e-hypertension

55-Category C in FDA for drug used in pregnancy :

a- controlled studies fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the trimester and
there is no evidence of risk in later trimester
b- fetal risk NOT demonstrated in animal studies but there are no controlled
studies in pregnant women or animal reproduction studies have shown an
adverse effect that was NOT confirmed in controlled studies in women during
trimester
c-either animal study have revealed adverse effect on the fetus and there are no
controlled human studies or studies in animal and women are not available
d- There is positive evidence of human fetal risk but the benefits of use in
pregnant woman may be acceptable despite the risk

56- What advice would you give to a patient prescribed

rifampicin?
a-take this medication with food or milk
b-avoid multivitamine preparations during treatment
c-avoid taking paracetamol during treatment
d-possible discolouration of skin is of no importance
e-this medication may cause discolouration of urine

57- Correct method of parentral administration of

potassium is :
a-fast I.V. injection
b-slow I.V. injection c-I.M. injection
d-IP(intraperitoneal) injection

58- Which route of administration would provide the most

rapid onset of action response to morphine ?
a-oral b-S.C. c-I.V.
d-I.M. e-rectal
59- The long term administration of thiazide diuretics
requires :
a- K+ b- Na+ c- Ca++
d- CO3 e- acetate
60- Fifty micrograms equals:
a-50000 ( nanogrames )? b- 0.05 ( milligrams )?
c- 0.0005 g
d- a and b
e- a and c

61- When concidering drug therapy for hypertention , which

is true?
a-combination of drugs always preferred
b-hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension
c-furosemide should be administrated before meal to improve absorption
d-beta-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient
e- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women

62- Which of the following is NOT used in theophylline

toxicity management :
a-symptomatic control of seizures with benzodiazepine
b-activated charcoal to enhance elimination
c- b blocker for tachycardia
d-control vomiting with metoclopramide
e-methylphenidate to reduce excessive sedation

63- Regarding the use of ACEIs :

a-associated hypokalemia could be avoided by giving K-supplement
b-effective in reducing proteinurea in diabetic patient
c-most common side effect is chronic dry cough
d-a good first line treatment for hypertensive diabetic
e-dose should be started low and triturated gradually upward in need

64- Regarding treatment of digoxin toxicity:

a-verify time of last time
b-check Mg and K levels and correct if needed c-monitor ECG
d-no antidote for digoxin e-supportive care

65- The antimalarial to avoid in glucose-6-phosphate

dehydrogenase deficiency :
a-primaquine b-quinine
c-chloroguanide

66-HOW can prepare 100 ml of 12% MgCl by taking?

a-12ml of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water
b-12 mg of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water
c-12ml of MGCL dissolve in 1000 ml water
d-90.5 ml of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water
e-.95 ml of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water

68-The following is NOT characteristic of solution:

a-thermodynamically stable
b-composed of two or more component that exist in one phase
c-homogenous
d-the solvent and solute can be separated by filtration
e-solute doesn`t precipitate as time passes

.Role of carbidopa in treatment of Parkinsonism -69

a- Serotonin reuptake b- dopamine agonist
c- Decrease dopamine in peripheral vessel
d- Dopamine antagonist e- 5HT1 antagonist
. .Role of B-blockers in angina -70

When drug absorbed through GIT then go to liver and -71

excreted this process called
a- first pass b- drug metabolism c- drug
distribution

All the following anti inflammatory, analgesic effect except -72

a-ibuprofen b- aspirin c-
naprosyn d- sevredol

which of the following need filtration before IV infusion -73

a- mannitol b- dextrose 5% c- insulin
d- Suspension e- emulsion

azaleic acid used in-74

a-acne b- psoriasis c- myocardial infarction

which hormone are secreted from posterior pituitary gland -75

a- oxytocin b- growth hormone c-
adrenocorticosteroid hormone

to increase duration of lidocaine in anasethia -76

a- propranolol b- succinyl choline c- epinephrine
................. -d- Atropine e

Drug absorption depend on -77

a- age b- sex c- dosage form
d- Drug state e- A and B
:monitoring for dose in elderly patient-78
a- excretion in kidney decrease b- decrease in liver enzymes function
c- reabsorption is high d- metabolism is high e- A ,b

which of the following cause metallic taste -79

a- captopril b- cimetidine c-
..................-metoformin d

which of the following are characteristic for Erythroped -80

a- not effective against G +ve cocci

b- not macrolide antibiotic

c- can increase GIT motility
d-can not used in pregnant women if needed
e- none of the above

:which of the following are characteristic for Erythrosine -81

a-not effective against G+ve cocci
b- has amino glycoside antibiotic
c-decrease GIT motility
d-should not be used in pregnant woman if need
e-should be used in pregnant woman if need

the optimal size for ophthalmic drops:- < 10g-82

Amphetamine is used in: defect -83
.of awareness in the brain of children

if packaged are written for expiry November 2006 it mean that can -84
be used till
a- 1 November b- 31 November

The mechanism of action of Buspirone through a-5HT -85

antagonist b-GABA agonist

c-dopaminergic agonist d-dopaminergic antagonist

Nitroglycerine introduces: -86

.coronary vasodilatation
Omeprazole used to: -87
.decrease gastric acid secretion

which of the following has aldosterone antagonist effect -88

a- amiloride b- furosemide c-
spironolactone d- hydrochlorothiazide

which of the following change color of the urine to red -89

nitrofurantoin , rifampicin

if patient take Gentamicin for a time which of the following -90

need monitoring test
a- serum creatinine level b- liver enz. test

c- hemoglobin test d-...................... 91-

-:which of the following is antiarrythmic class a
a- lidocaine b- propranolol c-
amiodarone d-Quinidine

-:Class antiarrythmic drugs produce its action through -92

a- decrease rate of phase 0 depolarization b- increase phase 3 repolarization
c- suppress phase 4 depolarization d- adrenergic receptor blocking
e- shorten action potential

-:antiarrythmic drug class b produce its action through -93

a- decrease rate of phase 0 depolarization b- increase phase 3 repolarization
c- decrease phase 4 depolarization d- adrenergic receptor blocking

-:Chiral molecule mean -94

a-dipole moment b- solubility c-
.chelating prep. d-optical activity

lovastatin produce action through:- -95

.HMG-co reductase inhibitor

-: lisopril , zinopril or zestril is found in -96

a-captopril b- fosinopril c-
ramipril d-lisinopri

.om is abbreviation for at morning -97

ophthalmic prescription are written through following ( gtt -98

-:tod Bid ) this mean
a- give one drop to right eye twice daily
b- give one drop to left eye twice daily
c- shake well and then give one drop to left eye twice daily
.d- shake well and then give one drop to right eye twice daily

tegretol is used in ttt of:- -99

.status epileptic, seizures

Streptokinase is used in ttt of:- -100

.pulmonary emboli

-:all the following are antifungal except-101

a- Nystatin b- Amphotericin c-
.Ketoconazole d- Gamciclovir

-:ceftazidime is -102
a- first generation cephalosporin b- second generation cephalosporin
c- third generation cephalosporin d- fourth generation cephalosporin

Bambuterol is used in:- -103

.treatment of asthma

-:Drug used in ttt of traveler diarrhea -104

a-ampicillin b- amoxicillin c- co-
trimoxazole d- ciprofloxacin

Which organism are the cause of traveler diarrhea:- E- -105

.coli

diazepam used in:- -106

.anxiety
solid to be reduced in size before dissolving called:- -107
.disintegration

Benzodiazepine mechanism through:- -108

.binding subunit of GABA-A receptor

Vinca alkaloids produce anticancer drugs :- -109

.vincristine , vinblastine . vindesine

-:warfarin monitoring therapy by -110

a- INR b- platelet count c-
APTT d- lipid profile

-: in ovulation phase which hormone is predominant -111

a-FSH b-LH c-
progesterone d- progesterone and LH

vencuronium is used as :- -112

.skeletal muscle relaxant

-:most common process for sterilization-113

a- filtration b- dry heat c-
moist heat

which of the following need serum level monitoring -114

-:with Quinidine
a-Digoxin b- albutrol c-
ampicillin d-Diazoxide

-:side effect of epinephrine is -115

a- nausea , vomiting b- headache , constipation
c- hypoglycemic effect d- ischemic damage e- skin rash

-:drug used for ttt of migraine and HTN-116

a-clonidine b- minoxidil c-
propranolol d- hydralazin

-:can't be used as monotherapy in mild HTN -117

 a- hydralazine b- losartan c- pindolol
d- atenolol e- hydrochlorothiazide

-:which of the following has catharitic side effect -118

a- aluminum silicate b- magnesium sulphate c-
calcium sulphate

-:normal water can be used in-119

.a- parentral prep. b-ophthalmic prep
.c- oral susp. d-external prep

-:Ecothiophate mechanism through -120

a-binding to muscarinic receptor b- cholinergic antagonist
c- make complex with anticholinesterase and inhibit its action

-:tetracaine is used as-121

a-opoid pain b- vitD metabolite
c- spinal anesthesia d- neuromuscular blocker

-:half life for first order kinetic -122

a- k b-1/k c- 2k d- 0.693k

-:adsorption are affected by the following except -123

a- physical Rx b- chemical Rx c- irreversible
d- reversible e B,C

-:Charcoal produce its action through -124

a- adsorption

Digoxin used in ttt of CHF as has:- + -125

VE inotropic effect

PPM mean:- part -126

per million OR million part

-:all are causes of 2ry HTN except -127

a- phyochromocytoma b- cholinergic agent c- sod.
.. -intake d
pt CHF take digoxin and hydrochlorothiazide with ray arthritis which -128
-: of the following drugs can be used
a-cortizone b-hydrocortisone c-
fluticazone d-prednisolone

if a drug has the same active ingredient like other drug but not -129
-: contain the same inactive ingredient this mean
a- Bioequivalent b-pharmaceutical equivalent c-
pharmaceutical alternative d- A,B

conc. of adrug is 7.5 mg in teaspoonful -130

-:what will be conc. in 150 ml
mg________ 5ml 7.5
x? mg________ 150 ml
x mg=7.5x150/5 =225 mg

prep. contin coal tar 30 part -131

petroleum 15 part
adeq. to 150 part
-:what conc. of coal tar in 500 ml
.part present in 195ml of prep 30
.x part present in 500ml of prep
so, conc. of coal tar in 500ml=30x500/195=76.9 part

which of the following is not colloid-132

A-kerbs solution b- albumin 2% c- Dextran
d- Beta starch e- albumin 20%

.sildenafil is found in Viagra-133

Alteblase is used:- -134
anticoagulant
 salbutamol is used as:- bronchodilator -135

podocodeine is used in dry cough-136

-:which of the following not used in emergency HTN-137

a- furosemide b- pindolol c-
.-labetolol d

-: Doxorubicin side effect -138

a- cardiac toxicity b- nephrotoxicity
c- postural hypotension d- arrhythmia

-:which of the following not used in ttt of asthma -139

a- B2 agonist b-B2 antagonist

Which of the following is alkylating agent and anticancer -140

a-vinblastine b- cisplatin
c- Cyclophosphamide d- vicristine

Very small molecule(1 part ) soluble in 10,000 part of water -141

a- fairly soluble b- slightly soluble
C-immiscible d- miscible e- insoluble

benzoil not soluble in H2O but soluble in benzene in 25 c -142

a- polar b- non polar c-soluble
d- insoluble e- slightly polar

one of the following is member of phenothiazines group -143

prochlorperazine

.primidone is prodrug for ( antiepileptic drug ) -144

Daily recommended dose for folic acid 400-500 g -145
-: Daily recommended dose for vit. C in male -146
a-30mg/day b-50 mg/day c-90mg/day d-200
mg/day e- 400 mg/day
Daily recommended dose for vit. C in female :- a- -147
30mg/day b-50 mg/day c-90mg/day d-200
mg/day e- 400 mg/day

max. daily dose for paracetamol is ( 4000 mg ) -148

Ergot alkaloids is used as antineoplastic -149
Buffering agent used in ophthalmic drops to:- -150
decrease irritation to eye and increase stability

picosulphate is used as laxative-151

-:Digoxin toxicity increase with -152

a- renal failure b- hepatic pt
c- Asthmatic pt

-:All the following are side effect of oral contraceptive except -153
a-hypertension b-weight gain
c- Hyperglycemia d- dizziness e- constipation

-:which of the following narcotics not used today -154

a- morphine b- heroin
c- nicotine d- codeine

-:drug stored in the body in -155

a- fat b- muscle c- connective tissue d-
lipid e- protein

-:which of the following dosage form are famous -156

a- solution, gel, oint. b- oint , gel , solution
c- oint, solution , gel e- solution , oint , gel

in case of hepatic or renal failure which muscle relaxant is -157

-: recommended
-: Heparin can be monitored through -158
a- APTT b- INR
 -:Enixoparin is administrated-159
a- IM b- IV
c- S.C. d- IV infusion

-:if drug protein binding increased or decreased -160

a- half life b- half life
c- side effect d- action e- a,b

-:161-3rd generation cephalosporin has

a- G+ only b- G-ve only c-
G+ve , G-ve

-: solubility enhanced through -162

a- reduce particle size b- increase surface area
c- increase particle size d- decrease surface area
e- A&B

determination analysis of solution depend on -163

a-nature of solute b- type of solution
c-analyzer d- a.b

when use liquid or oint. to dissolve the solid it is called :- -164

levigation

phenytoin act on :- GABA receptor 166- -165

-:NSAIDs produce action through
decrease prostaglandin synthesis

-:which of the following not characteristic of theophylline -167

a- relaxation to brochial smooth muscle b-
increase cardiac contractility, CO
c- nausea , abdominal disturbance
d- e- convulsion
sedation

-:what is drug of choice in ttt of bronchospasm/asthma -168

a-salbutamol (albutrol ) b-theophylline c-propranolol
d-esmolol e- quinidine

-: which of the following cause depression -169

a- ampicillin b- reserpine

-:PRAVOC is used as -170

a- anticoagulant b- antiplatellet c-
antibiotic

pound = 0.453 kg -171

sustained release dosage form is used to -172
a-increase half life b- drug have low therapeutic index
.. -c

-:drug after metabolized in liver it will become -173

a-polar b- non polar
c- lipophilic d- insoluble

loading dose definition -174

-:in phase 1 in muscle contraction occur -175
a-depolarization for k in
b- repolarization to ca out

176- half life of drug is 7 days HOW can taken:-

a- every day b- twice daily
c- twice weekly d- every week

177- diltiazim classified as :

. Ca channel blocker

178-B carotine is precursop of :

a-retinol b- thiamine c-riboflavin
d- pyridoxine e- calcefirol

179- electrical property which produce impulses called :

a-conduction b-automaticity
c-velocity d- excitability

180- infusion of hypotonic solution in blood cause :

a) shriniking of blood cell
b) hemolysis
c) hyperglycemia
d) hypoglycemia
e) b + d

181- infusion of hypertonic solution in blood cause :

a) shriniking of blood cell
b) hemolysis
c) hyperglycemia
d) hypoglycemia
e) b + d
182- How gm of substance X must added to 2000 gm of 10%
substance X solution in order to prepare 25% of substance x
solution
a) 10000
b) 400
c) 40
d) 10
e) 0.4
%10 2000
25 %100 %
(X) 100% 15

25%
(2000gm) 10% 75
2000gm -------------75
X gm -------------15
So, X gm =15x2000/75 =400 gm
183- How gram needed from drug , if 0.1 gm in ml , if 5 one
tspfull doses contain 7.5 gm of drug ?
a) 0.0005
b) 0.5
c) 500
d) 1.5
e) 1500
184- denaturation will happened in body for which
compounds?
a-penicillin b- proteins
c- lipid d-carbohydrate e-............
185- major metabolism proccess in GIT is:-
a-hydrolysis b- acetylation
c- oxidation d-conjucation
186- dosage form of nitroglycren when used in malignant
hypertension ?
a-IV b-IM c- S.C
d- infusion e- transdermal
187- drug induced lupus like syndrom is associated
with antihypertinsive ?
a-minixidil b- hydralazine c- dioxide
d-nitroprusside Na e- acebutol

188- hypothirodism cause :-

a-weight gain b- hypoglycemia
c-low body temp d-...........

189- ACE I mechanism of action as antihypertension ???

- inhibition of converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II

190- About definition of first pass effect , it increase with:-

a- increase rate of absorption
b- increase biotransformation
c- increase pka
d- A&B
191- metal used in rheumatoid arthiritis : gold
192- low density lipoprotein(LDL) act as :
a-carrier cholesterol in plasma b- transport fatty acid
c- good lipoprotien.

193- true solutions another name is:-

a- homogenous b- heterogenous
c-emultion d- suspension

194-abot ophthalmic preparation as single dose which is false:-

a-sterile b- purified
c-should cotain preservative d-..

195-most of drugs are :

a-Weak electrolyte
b-Non electrlolyte
c-Non ionic
d-Strong electrolyte
e-B+ C

196-90% of substance X solution , 50% of substance X

solution , how mixing both to give 80% of substance X
solution ?
a- 3: 1 90% 30
b-1:3 80%
c-10:30 50% 10
d- 5: 9
B+C

197- antipseudomonas drug :

a-metronidazole b-nystatin
c- primaquine d-vancomycin

198-digoxin differ from digitoxin :

a-Half life
b-Excreted hepatically
d-Excreted unchanged in urine

199- In digoxin induced arrythmia , what is not recommonded?

a-stop digixin administration
b-phenytoin administration
c-give lidocaine
d-give digoxin immune fab
e-electrical cardio

200- which is not asthma properties :

a-Bronchodilator
b-Bronchospasm
c-Increase mucous secretion
d-Chest pain

201- hormone excreted from adrenal cortex :

a-Growth hormone
b-Primary product
c-mineral corticoids (eg, aldosterone)
d-glucocorticoids (eg, cortisolndrosterone)
e-weak androgens (eg, dehydroepiandrosterone)

202- immunosuppressant agent cannot used in organ

transplantation :
Predisolone
203- all of following are side effects of methotrixate except :
a-Bone marrow depression
b-Alopecia
c-Nausea and vomiting
e-Drive sex gland

204- mechanism of action of antipsychotic drug :

 Dopamine receptor inactivation
205- ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in :
bilateral renal artery stenosi
206- about cardioglycosidic effect :
a--ve inotropic
b-+ve inotropic
c-Hypertension
d-Tachycardia
e-Bradycardia

207-all factors affect on distribution of drug except :

a-Tissue solubility
b-Protein binding
c-Molecular weight of drug
d-Type enzyme response of metabolism

208-all factors affect on renal clearance except :

a-Age
b-Sex
c-Both
d-Disease state

209- ointment used for :

a-Carrier of drug
b-Emollient
c-A&B
d-Increase absorption
e-Increase distribution

210- in hypodynamic shock treatment we used :-

a- dopamine
b- nicotine
c- aspirin

211-acyclovir used to :
Herbs simplex
212- lady take chronic warfarin , which is not true
a- avoid aspirin containing prepration
b-avoid doubling dose from herself
c-balanced food with green leaves to avoid thrombosis
d-if she pregnant, monitor INR to avoid DVT
e-take care about nasal bleeding

213- which of following is least sedative action ?

a-Diazepam
b-Estazolam
c-Triazolam
d-Temazepam

214- which drug has spasmolytic action?

a-Resirpine
b-Amphetamine

215-desmopressine used in :-
nocturnal enuresis

216- pentophyllin used for :

a-peripheral vasodilator
b-Hypertension
c-Cough suppressant Indications
Pentofyllin is indicated in diseases, causing disorders in the peripheral perfusion, and
in diabetes, atherosclerotic and inflammatory disorders, including shank ulcers;
gangrene; diabetic angiopathy; intermittent claudication; Raynauds disease. In acute
disorders of the brain perfusion, including ischemic stroke and resultant conditions.
Acute disorders of the retinal blood supply.

217-2 mg \ L solution , according ppm :

a-2 ppm
b-0.002 ppm
c-0.000002 ppm

218- normal water used for :

a-Eye preparption
b-Parentral preparation
c-Solution
d-Emultion
e-External preparation

219- ceftazidime :
3rd generation

220-about amino glycoside , which is not true ?

a-Has gram ve activity
b-Less toxicity
c-Narrow therapeutic
d-Compatible with other drug
e-Usually IV , IM

221- about nor epinephrine not true :-

a-increaser B.P
b-vasoconstrictive
c-used in cardiogenic shock
d-effective orally
e-S.C

222- PHARMACOKINETIC CONSTANT :-

a-Zero order
b-1st order
c-2nd order
d-Mixed order
e-A + B

223- Which of the following is NOT predinsolone side effect ?

a-cataract b-hypoglycemia
c-skeletal muscle weakness d-sodium retention
e-lowered resistance to infections

224- When concidering drug therapy for hypertention , which is

true?
a-combination of drugs always preferred
b-hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension
c-furosemide should be administrated before meal to improve absorption
d-b-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient
e- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women

225-solutions are better than solid dosage form coz:

a-Accurate dose
b-Easy to handle
c-More stable
d-Faster action
e-B + C

226- One of following NOT used to cover bitter taste:-

a-Film coat
b-Enteric coat
c-Grinding of tablet

227-which of following tricyclic antidepressant is tertiary

amine?
Amitriptyline

228- antihypertensive used in pregnancy ?

Alpha Methyldopa

229-drug used for peptic ulcer ?( Losec)

230- drug infusion rate is 2mg\kg\hr , infused for 12 hours , for
70kg patient. what is total dose?
(2x70x12)=1680 mg

231-( GMP) mean:-

a-Good Manufactor Protocol
b-Good Manu factor Product
c-General Manufactor Protocol
d-General Manufactor Product

232-how many gm of water add to 5% KCL soln to make 180

gm of solution(w\w)?
5gm--------------100
Xgm--------------180
X= 5x180/100=9 gm
So, the amount of water is:-
180 - 9 =171 gm

233- according to steril method which of the following is false

about filtteration:-
able to filtter viscous substance

234- when you know the preservative used with anti biotic is not
suitable you make:-
a- use another one is suitable
b- add another to increase it is activity
c- use tow or more preservative may increase the activity and may become suitable
d- a+c

235- deltiazem & nifedipine &flocdipine act as

- block Ca to intracellular & increase metabolism from storage site

236- All of this affect rate of absorption except:-

a- chemical stability b- PH
c-protein binding d- A&B e- B&C

237-Doxorubicin side effect is tissue necrosis .

238-Cholystyramin resin act by :- anion exchange
239-The conc. Of ionized & unionized calculated by
(Henderson hasselbachk equation)

240- Light sensitive drug should be storage in:-

a-Colorless glass b-Colorless plastic
c-Amber glass d-Amber plastic e-
Light resistant container

241-Electromagnetic rays :- gamma rays, x-rays.

242-Cyclophosphamide (side effects) Appetite loss; absence of menstrual

periods; color change in skin; diarrhea; general unwell feeling; hair loss; nausea; skin
rash; stomach discomfort or pain; texture change in nails; vomiting; weakness.

243-Isoproterenol( Isoprenaline )
adrenergic agonist medication.

244-Coal tar uses in (psoriasis).

245-The most common reaction catalysed by cytochrome P450
is a monooxygenase

246-The most common phase I reaction is oxidation

247-Which Of The Following NOT Used In Peptic Ulcer :-

a-Tetracycline b- Itraconazole
c-Metronidazole d-bismuth subsalicylate
e-clarithromycin

248-Which Of The Following act as alpha 1 blocker :-

a- hydrazyline b-terazocine
c-propranolol d-captopril
e- clonidine

249-comparison between sterile water &water for injection:-

a- pyrogen free b-free from sod. Chloride
c- Isotonic d-free from bacteria
e- A&C
250- Qunidine has similar action to :-
a-procainamide b- lidocaine
c-propranolol d- hydralzyine

251- Which of the following drug has side effect lupus like
syndrome :
a- lidocaine b-minoxdile
c- procainamide d-hydrochlorothiazide

252- Over dose of digoxine we use:-(anti dote FAB Fragment ).

253- Ampicilline has similar action of:-

a- tetracycline b-cephalexin
c-cloramphinicol d-amikacine

254- Cephalosporin act as:-

a-Inhibitors of cell membrane function
b-inhibitors nucleic acid synthesis
c-Inhibitors of protein synthesis
d-Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
e-Inhibitors of metabolism

255- Antibiotic used as anti pseudomonas aeruginosa:-

a- Meropenem b- Bacitracin
c- Amoxicillin d- penicillin V

256- Antipseudomonal Antibiotic :-

(piperacillin,carbencillin,ticarcillin )

257-Auxliar of label are written on box contain CO-

TRIMETHOXAZOLE all is true except:-
a-shake the bottle before use
b-suspension
c-freezing of drug
d-keep out of reach of children

258-Ipratropium bromide :-(Anti muscarinic bronchodilator )

259-keep in cool place means :-

a-in refrigerator
b-in freezing
c-at 10-20 c*
d-A&C
e-A&B
260-5mlof injection that conc. 0.4% calculate the amount of drug?
a-0.2mg c-200mg
b-2mg d-2000mg
e-20mg

261-How need prepare benzacainamid conc. 1:1000,30cc of

benzocainamid solution?
a-30 b-50 c-80
d-100 e-130

262-Amphetamine act as :-
(INDIRECT-ACTING ADRENERGIC AGONIST)

263-Increase plasma HDL Level :-

(Reduce Risk of Atherosclerosis )

264-Waraferin act as:- (inhibited blood clot )

265-cyclophosphamide side effect is:-

a-blared vision,
b-vomiting .alopecia
c-bone marrow depression
d-A&B
e-B&C

266-Action of alpha 1 receptor:-.

267-which of the drug used in open angel glaucoma:-

(pilocarpine )

268-All (ACEIs) are prodrug except:- CAPTOPRIL (prototype)

269-Opthalmic prep. Proffered to be taken:-

a-solu. > susp. > oint.
b-solu. > oint > susp.
c-susp. > solu. >oint
d-any dosage form can be used

270-digoxin toxicity precipitated by :- (Hypokalemia )

271-which of the following drug has anti inflammatory effect
:- (Ibuprofen )
272-Digitoxine effect in electro cardio chart (ECG):-
a-prolong P.R b-shorten P.R
c- T. shaped d-prolong B.R

273-Digitoxine toxicity effect in electro cardio chart (ECG):-

a-prolong P.R b-shorten P.R
c- T. shaped d-prolong B.R

274-Relative bioequivalent compared between std. drug

&test drug acc. To :-
AUC (Area Under the Carve )

275-Cephalaexine is :-first generation cephalosporin.

276-After the myocardial infraction we use :-

Anti platelet (aspirin)

277-KI solu. Has 0.5mg/ml dissolve in 30ml water calculate

the amount of KI in the solu. ? (15mg)

278-Omeprazol used for :- peptic ulcer

279-Alph 2 Agonist :-
Decrease blood pressure

280-The equation that determine the acid & base degree is:-
(BRONESTED EQUATION )

281-ISONIAZIDE used in TIBERCULOSIS .

282-mechanism of action of Buspirone on:-

Serotonin (5HT2a) receptor

283-All these cases not cure with thiazides except:-

a-hypernatrimia b-Hyperglycemia
c-Hypokalaemia d-Hyeruriceamia
e-Hyponatrimia

284-Which of the following drug of choice for Myxodema:-

(Hypothyroidism ) :-Thyroxin sod.

285-Vit. A daily dose is 30,000-50,000 IU for the correction of

the deficiency &for therapy from 100,000-200,000 IU/day.

286- All these cases not cure with thiazides except:-

a-hypercalcemia b-Hypoglycemia
c-Hypokalaemia d-Hyeruriceamia
e-Hyponatrimia

287-Zidovudine is used for HIV.

288-Bisacodyl used as :- Laxative

289-POM mean:- prescription only medicine

290-The con. Of the drug on exp. Date is :-

From 90-110%

291-Surfactant not used orally :-

Sod. Lauryl Sulphate

292-The drug transfer through the cell membrane by :-

a-Aqueous diffusion b-Osmotic pressure
c-Lipid dissolve d-Passive diffusion
e-NON of the above

293- Calcipotriol is indicated for :- PSORIASIS

294-which of the following make water retention:-

(Indomethazine)

295-Nitroglycerin is :- (Vasodilatation of coronary artery).

296-Anti psychotic act as :- (Dopaminergic Antagonist )

297- Vit, K is antagonist of :- WARAFARINE

298-protamine sulphate is anti dote of:- HEPARINE

299-Prmethazine used as :-
Anti histaminic (pruritus , cough ,anti emetic)

300- Which Of The Following act as alpha 1 blocker :-

( PRAZOCIN).

301-Whate The Specific gravity of substance has Weight=Y

&
The volume is X ?
The Specific gravity =Density of the substance/Density of water
So, the sp. gravity of sub. =weight (Y) /volume(X)/1
So, the sp. gravity of sub. =Y/X

302-ESMOLO is:-
Short acting B- blocker used in emergency in
Acute arrhythmia as IV administration .

1-The action of histamine is :
c-stimulation of gastric secretion *****

2- latabbreviation for " After Meals " is

c- p.c. ***
3-- Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical is
c-automaticity****

4- Which of the following is responcible for buffering

c-bicarbonates*****
5-- In treatment of shock , which of the following should not
be considered?
a-airway control
b-IV of crystalloid solution
c-dopamine to support blood pressure
d-monitor heart rhythm
e-give antibiotic to treat infection*****
6-- In the treatment of osteoporosis which of the following is
NOT true?
a-alendronate should be taken 60 min. before
breakfast****
b-Ca and vit. D are essential
c-hormone replacement therapy should be considered
d-outcome should be assessed with periodic bone density
e-raloxifeno is selective oestrogen modulator

7- A patient who is admitted through the E.R. with an initial c-

considered anticoagulation with warfarine****
8 -The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the range of:
d- 300-600 mg****
9- When concidering drug therapy for hypertention , which is
true?
d-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic
patient ****
10- B carotine is precursor of :
a)retinol ****
11-antihypertensive produce tackycardia :
a)Hydralazone*****

12-process require CYP405 :

a)OXIDATION

13-drug induced lupus like syndrom is associated with

b) phenytoin ***
14- hypothirodism will increase :
a) body weight ****
15- low density lipoprotien act as :
a) Major carrer of cholestrol in plasma *****
16-patient has CHF given digoxin and thiazide and needed
corticosteroid , which is best choice?
a) Cortisone
b) Hydrocortisoce
c) Prednisolone
17- expairy date of drug is 8\2010 that means , last day you
can use drug is :
a) 31\8\2010..*****
18- digitoxin side effect :
a) Hyperglycemia
b) Hypertension

19- elevated blood glucose is side effect of :

Digoxin..

20-amphetamine used to treat :

a) Defect concentration *****
21-- which is not asthma properties :
a) Bronchodilator*****
b) Bronchospasm
c) Increase mucous secretion
d) Chest pain

22-- hormone excreted from adrenal cortex :

a) Aldosterone ******
b) Growth hormone
c) FSH

23- one of following is not alpha 1 agonist :

a) Clonidine
b) Alpha methyl noradrenaline******
c) Guanfacine
d) Guanabenz
e) Guanethidine

24- about side effect of quinidine :

Chichonism*******
25-all of following are side effects of methotrixate except:
a) Bone marrow depression
b) Alopecia
c) Nausea and vomiting
d) Stimulate sex drive ****
e) Alopecia

26- ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in :

bilateral renal artery stenosis*****
27- Adsorption , which is not true :
a) Chemical property
b) Physical property
c) Reversible
d) Irreversible
e) A + d ****
28-all are antibiotic except :
Famcyclovir *****
29- heparin monitoring :
T
c) APTT****
30- about digitoxin , which is false :
a) Oral bioavaiability 100%
b) Protein binding 95%
c) Half life is 7 days
d) Mainly hepatic metabolism by lysosmal

31-all r Beta 2 agonist except :

a) Salbutamol
b) Alburanol
c) Fenoterol
d) salmeterol
e) Pindolol *****

32-Pkw for normal water in room temperature :

b) 14****
33- about norepinephrine , which is not true?
a) increasr B.P
b) vasoconstrictive
c) used in cardiogenic shock
d) effective orally'*****
e) S.C

34-- o.m.......
every morning******

35- one of following not used to cover bitter taste :

a) Enteric coat
b) Film coat
c) Enteric coat
d) Grinding of tablet ****
e) B + C

36- all contraindicated in pregnancy except

b) Methyldopa****
37- dose of drug in children is . Mg \ kg , what total dose
for child 34.5 bound?

gm , mg

38-drug prescriped as
1 tablet contaion 1 mg bid ( 2 weeks) , what is total dose?
28 mg*****
39- tybe 2 anti arrythmic properties :
Inhibit sympathetic system by beta adrenergic
blockade ***
40-in injection of lidocaine , what drug added to increase
effectiveness of lidocaine?
Epinephrine ..

41-about sterilization by filtration , which is false?

a) Cannot used for virus *****
b) Need special equipment

42-membrane filters with 0.22 micropores , which of following

not removed by that?
a) Bacteria
b) Virus***
c) Fungi
d) A+c
e) B+c

43)volatile substance given by inhalation:

a) Halothane
b) Dextromethorphane.

44)in prescription
Substance A 15 parts
Substance B 30 parts
Substance C 150 parts
We neeed to prepare ointment 500 gm , what amount should
we take from substance A ?
...... ..
15+30 + 150 = 195
,
(15 \195) * 100 =7.69 %

So , we need 7.69 % from all 500 gm

( 7.69 * 500 ) \ 100 = 38.46 gm
38.46 gm****
5 ...

45- we need to prepare 100 ml of 0.05% substance X

solution how gm we need from substance X ?
0.05 gm***
46- loop diuretics cause all the following except:
a) Hypokalamia.
b) Hyponatrimia.
c) Hypocalcemia..
d) Hypoglycemia.
e) Hypernatremia.****
47-two drugs has same active ingredient but difrent inactive
ingredient , called:
a) Pharmaceutical equivalences
b) Bioequivalence
c) A + b
d) Pharmaceutical alternative

48-to compare between 2 drugs use:

a) Physical appearance
b) Weight
c) Pharmacokinetic parameters
d) Pharmacodynamic parameter***********
e) Taste

49) Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except:

a) Ephedrine.
b) Lidocine.
c) Normal saline.
d) Propranolol****
50)-Binding to plasma protein:
a- Increases half life.***
51) The antidote of heparin is:
Protamin sulfate****
52)when gived gentamycin , which is should monitoring?
Creatinine clearance****
53-tricyclic antidepressant mechanism of action :

54-diazoxide side effect : hypotension

55-tegretol used in :
Trigeminal Neuralgia****
56-about sid effect of oral contraceptive except :
a) Depressoin
b) Hypertension

57-drug dependence which is true :

a) After discontinuation , patient has withdrawal symptoms
b) Patient progressively increase dose to get same action

58)drug used in ventricular arrhythmia :
a) Phynetoin ******
b) Quinidine
c) Digoxin
d) Procainamide
e) Verapamil

59)Enteric coated tablets:

Are dissolved in the intestine and not affected by the stomach
juices*****

60) factors affecting on dissolution rate are :

b) Decrease size of particles
c) Increase surface area
e) B + C******

1-(propranolol)whicl is adrenergic beta blocker

2_propranolol is
beta blocker

3_salbutamol is
selctive b2 agonist

4_which is false about nor epinephrin

a_ effictive orally
b_can used in cardiogenic shock
c_can used subcutanous
d_raise blood pressure

5_which is the folowing block the alpha receptor in vains and

arteries and amke v.d.
a_terazosin: is a selective alpha 1 antagonist

6_syncop may occure with the 1st dose of the folowing

a_digoxin
b_salbutamol
c_prazosin : alpha blocker
d_reserpin
e_ clonidin
7_one of the fllowing used in asthmatic patient
answer is albuterol

8_the pharmacolpgical action of clofibrate is

c_decreas lipoprotien synthes

9_one of the following has cathertic effect

b_magnesium oxide

10_loratidin is
c_antihistaminic

11_which of the following not anti bacterial

..........

12_which one is more effective agaienst traveller diarrhea

b_ciprofloxacin
c_sulphamethoxasol

13_which is the following is true about erythromycin

b_could be used in pregnant women if need

14_which one is active against psoudomonal

d_imipinem
_15_A 4 mg dose of lorazepam administered to a adult will act
as : b-hypnotic

16_ the action of TCa is

inhibit reuptak of noradrenalin and serotini

17_Which of the following drugs exhibits dose dependant

pharmaceutical therapeutic doses ?
b-phenytoin

18_The long term administration of thiazide diuretics requires

a- K+
19_antihypertensive produce tackycardia :
a)Hydralazone
20_ the pharmacological action of nitroglycerin is

21_the action of digoxin can reduced with

a_ antacid

22_ the main cause of digitalis toxicity is

d_renal faliure
23_digitalis arrhythmia can be treated with
a_lidocain
24_which one used in ventricular arrhthmia with heart block
phynetoin
25_the action of antiarrhythmic drug classs 1A is
a_rapid the repo;arization of phase 0
b_delay the repolarization of phase 3
answer is b

26_which one is antiarrythmic class 1A

d_verapamil
27_which one doesnt affect platellet in the body
a _ aspirin
b_dipyridamol
c_acetyl salcylic
d_captopril
e_clopidogril

28_action of theophyllin
b_ bronchodilator
29_anti cancer derived from venca is_
a_cyclophosamide
b_flourouracil
c_doxurubcin
d_ cicplastin
i think d

30_ alkylating agent used as anticancer

d_cyclophosphamide
31_ascorpic acid is
b_ vit C
32_reserpin shouldnt be used in parkinsonism patient
talking..........

33_one of the following not NSAID

a_ naprocyn
b_indocid
c_ticotil
d_

34_pentoxifillin used as

35 _ which one used to trigeminal neuralgia

answer is tegretol
phynetoin

5
1_ how many doses in abottle contain 90 gram and the dose
is 75mg
answer
number of dose = 90/0.75=120

2_A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of nacl

exactly 2000 ml. What is the molarity of this solution
answer
molarity= number of moles/volume in liter
number of moles=weightin gram/molecular weight
M.W.of NaCL=MW ob Na(23.5+MW of Cl (35=58.5
then number of mole= 17.5/58.5=0 .3
molarity = 0.3/2=0.15

3_the solution contain 9ppm of NaCl the the concevtration of

the compound in the solution
a_0.9
b_.09
c_.009
d_.0009
e_.00009
0.009
.

4_ how much amount of water need to add to 250 ml of

solution os 1/500 of benzonium clorid to bacome 1/2000
a_0.125 L
b_0.250 L
c_0.4 L
d_2 L
e_ 4 L
0.4



ceutics and clinical

1_the statement (put in cold place ) mean acoording to USP

a_ in the freezer
b_in refrigerator
c_ temp between(10_20 c)f
d_ a&c
e_ b&c

c
e

2_all factors affect on distribution of drug except :

a_Tissue solubility
b_Protein binding
c_Molecular weight of drug
d_Type enzyme response of metabolism
answer is d

3_ONE OF FOLLOWING NOT USED TO COVER BITTER

TASTE :
a_Film coat
b_Enteric coat
c_Granding of tablet
answer is c

4_major metabolism proccess in GIT is

a_hydrolysis
,b_ acetylation
c_oxidation
d_ conjucation
answer a

5_the amount of water in adult male is about:

b-60%

6_process require CYP450 :

a)OXIDATION
b)HYDROLYSIS
c)GLUCORONIDATION
d)DEAMINATION
e)SULFERATION
oxidation

7_Adsorption , which is not true :

a) Chemical property
b) Physical property
c) Reversible
d) Irreversible
e) A + d
answer is e

8_acording to 1st order kinetics t1/2 equal

a_k
b_1/k
c_k+1
d_2k+1
e_ 639/k
answer is e

9_the responce of the drug not affected by

a_mental status
b_genetic
c_binding to plasma ptn
d_lipophilicity of the drug

10_
)
(

11_
( ) ( )

12_

13_about steady state concentration during IV adminestration

a_directly ptoportional to volume of distribution
b_inversly proportional to volume of distribution
c_directly ptoportional to infusion rate
d_ inversly proportional to total body clearance
e_ c&d

answer is e

14_disentegration of drug to small molecule is

a_ reduction
b_ sublimation
c_ solubility
a

the way for 1st pass metabolism_15

from mesentric vain to portal vain

16_ which of the following decreas gastric emptying rate

a_ metoclopramid
b_ atropin
c_ hypothyroism
d_a&b
e_b&c
answer is e

1- The major action of sodium chromoglycate is

a-mast cell stabilization
b-bronchodilator 2
c-prostaglandins modifier
d-leukotrienes modifier
e-non of the above

2-The action of histamine is:

a-capillary constriction
b-elevation of blood pressure
c-stimulation of gastric secretion
d-skeletal muscle paralysis
e-slowing the heart rate

3-One of the following antibiotics is resistant to penicillinase:

a-penicillin V
b-penicillin G
c-floxapen (flucloxacillin)
d-ampicillin
e-amoxicillin

4- Inderal is:
a-similar in action to ergotamine
b-similar in action to tubocurarine
c-used as an antihistamine
d-pure -adrenergic receptor blocker
e- and -adrenergic receptor blocker

5- Rifampicin is indicated for treatment of:

a-impaired fat absorption
b-pulmonary emboli
c-tuberculosis
d-neoplastic disorders
e-psoriasis

6- Which of the following is selective 1-blocker?

a-labetalol & -blocker
b-terazosine selective 1-blocker
c-cloridine selective 2-agonist
d-captopril ACE inhibitor
e-verapamil calcium channel blocker

None of them is a selective 1-blocker

7- The Latin abbreviation for "After Meals" is:

a- a.c. before meals
b- a.a. for each
c- p.c.
d- i.c.
e- c.c. cubic centimeter= 1ml

8- The Latin abbreviation for "Four Times Daily" is:

a- a.c.
b- a.a.
c- p.c
d- q.i.d quater in die
e- c.c.

9- The Latin abbreviation for "Every Night" is:

a- a.c.
b- o.n. omni nocte
c- p.c
d- i.c
e- c.c

10- Erythroped A:
a-is effective against G +ve Cocci and G ve bacteria
b-is a macrolide antibiotic
c-can increase g.i.t. motility
d-could be used in pregnant women if need
e-all of the above
11- For the treatment of anaphylactic shock use:
a-salbutamol
b-diphenhydramine
c-acetazolamide
d-epinephrine
e-aminophylline

? 12- Allopurinol is used as:

x a-analgesic agent
x b-uricosuric agent (as probenecid),
x c-anti-inflammatory agent
x d-antipyretic agent
? e-agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption
13- Which of the following is NOT betamethasone side effect?
a-cataract
b-hypoglycemia
c-skeletal muscle weakness
d-sodium retention
e-lowered resistance to infections

14- A disease which is due to viral infection:

a-poliomyelitis
b-rabies
c-chicken pox
d-herpes
e-all of the above
15- The mechanism of action of atropine is
a-muscarinic antagonist
b-muscarinic agonist
c-nicotinic antagonist
d-nicotinic agonist
e-none of the above

16- Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical is:

a-inotropy (=contractility = the force of muscle contraction)

b-chronotropy (= affecting a time or rate, as in heart rate)
c-automaticity (= a property of specialized excitable tissue that
allows self-activation through spontaneous development of an action
potential, as in the pacemaker cells of the heart)
d-contractility
e-none of the above

17- The heart's dominant pacemaker is:

a- AV node
b- SA node
c-purkinje fiber
d-internodal pathways
e-non of the above
18- Adenosine is used for:
a-ventricular arrhythmias
b-atrial bradycardia
c-supraventricular tachycardia
d-supraventricular bradycardia
e-none of the above

19- Adenosine P produces which of the following:

a-facial flushing
b-dyspnea
c-marked tachycardia
d- a and b
e- a , b and c

20- Which of the following is responsible for buffering

a-magnesium
b-chloride
c-bicarbonate
d-potassium
e-troponin
21- Respiratory acidosis is due to:
a- O2 removal
b- O2 retention
c- CO2 removal
d- CO2 retention
e-none of the above

22- Which of the following is NOT colloid solution?

a-albumin 5%
b-ringer's solution
c-dextran
d-beta starch
e-albumin 20%

23- The term shock signifies:

a-hyperperfusion
b-hypoperfusion
c-tachycardia
d-bradycardia
e-non of the above

24- In treatment of shock, which of the following should be considered?

a-airway control
b-IV of crystalloid solution
c-dopamine to support blood pressure
d-monitor heart rhythm
e-all of the above
25which of the following is released by bacterial infection? (...by
bacterial cell wall during their growth
a-endotoxin
b-exotoxin
c-antibiotics
d-cytotoxin
e-none of the above

26- The amount of water in adult male is about:

a-25%
b-60%
c-80%
d-10%
e-17%

27- Which of the following are causes of oedema?

a-increase hydrostatic pressure
b-decrease oncotic pressure
c-increase capillary permeability
d- a and b
e- a, b and c
28- Patients prescribed non reversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor
should be advised not to consume food containing tyramine because
this combination causes:
a-postural hypotension
b-hallucinations
c-anaphylactic shock
d-muscle weakness and tremor
e-acute adrenergic crisis including sever hypertension

29- Concerning COX 2 inhibitors, which is NOT true?

a-they have lower risk of gastric adverse reactions
b-good evidence about their effectiveness
c-cardiac toxicity is a recent concern of this class
d-they usually administrated twice daily
e-combination with non selective agents give more
effective action
30- In the treatment of osteoporosis which of the following is NOT true?
a-alendronate should be taken 60 min. before
breakfast
b-Ca and vit. D are essential
c-hormone replacement therapy should be considered
d-outcome should be assessed with periodic bone density
e-raloxifeo is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator
31- Which of the following is the first choice in acute gout?
a-allopurinol
b-indomethacin
c-colchicine
d-probencid
e-sulfinylpyrazone

32- Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoparalysis?

a- minimal exercise
b- low calcium intake
c- male gender
d- family history
e- minimal exposure to sunlight

33- Early symptoms of aspirin poisoning are:

a- lethargy & fatigue
b- skin rash & headache
c- throbbing headache & dizziness
d- fluid retention hypotension
e- ringing in the ears & blurred vision
34- Which of the following is NOT true about infiximab
a- IL-1 blocker
b- used for treatment of severe rheumatoid arthritis
c- may increase risk of infections
d- administered as IV infusion
e- post administration reactions include fever & chills

35- A disease modifying drugs in rheumatoid arthritis:

a-gold preparations
b-hydroxychloroquine
c-methotrexate
d- a and b
e- a, b and c
36- A patient who is admitted through the E.R. with an initial diagnosis:

a-slow ventricular response using verapamil

b-start lidocaine infusion
c- considered anticoagulation with warfarine
d- a and b
e- b and c
??
37- Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis?
a- it is given to treat surgery associated infections
b-it is given to reduce the possibility of surgical site
infection
c-should always be given regardless type of surgery
d-should be continued for 7 days after surgery
e-all are true

38- Goals of diabetes mellitus management include:

a-reduce onset of complications
b-control symptoms of diabetes
c-near normal glycemic control and HBA1c
d- a and b
e- a, b and c
39- When dosing insulin which of the following is true?
a-initial dose 0.6 u / kg / day split 2/3 a.m and 1/3 p.m
b-regular NPH ratio is 1 : 1 or 1 : 2
c-dose may need to be increased during acute illness
d- b and c
e- a, b and c

40- What first line agent may be considered for an obese type 2?
a-glyburinid
b-insulin
c-metformin
d-nateglinid
e-repaglinid

41- When diagnosis of diabetes to be considered:

a-WBC count with differential
b-oral glucose tolerance test
c- HBA1c
d- a and b
e- b and c

42- A 4 mg dose of lorazepam administered to an adult will act as:

a-analgesic
b-hypnotic
c-diuretic
d-antihistaminic
e-antiulcerant

43- The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the range of:

a- 300-600 g
b- 1-5 mg
c- 15-60 mg
d- 300-600 mg
e- 1-2 mg

44- The drug of choice to control pain during acute myocardial infarction
is:
a-naloxone
b-bethidine
c-morphine
d-celecoxib
e-naproxen

45- What is a major contraindication to the use of an OTC

sympathomimetic drug

a-gastric ulcer
b-uncontrolled hypotension
c-severe asthma
d-rheumatoid arthritis
e-hypertension
46-Category C in FDA for drug used in pregnancy:

a- controlled studies fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the

trimester and there is no evidence of risk in later trimester
b- fetal risk NOT demonstrated in animal studies but there are no
controlled studies in pregnant women or animal reproduction studies
have shown an adverse effect that was NOT confirmed in controlled
studies in women during trimester
c-either animal study have revealed adverse effect on
the fetus and there are no controlled human studies or
studies in animal and women are not available
d- There is positive evidence of human fetal risk but the benefits of use
in pregnant woman may be acceptable despite the risk

47- What advice would you give to a patient prescribed rifampicin?

a-take this medication with food or milk
b-avoid multivitamin preparations during treatment
c-avoid taking paracetamol during treatment
d-possible discolouration of skin is of no importance
e-this medication may cause discolouration of urine
48- Correct method of parentral administration of potassium is:
a-fast I.V. injection
b-slow I.V. injection
c-I.M. injection
d-IP(intraperitoneal) injection

49- Which of the following drugs exhibits dose dependant

pharmaceutical therapeutic doses?
a-Na valproate
b-phenytoin
c-lithium
d-quinidine
e-carbamazepine

50- Which route of administration would provide the most rapid onset of
action response to morphine?
a-oral
b-S.C.
c-I.V.
d-I.M.
e-rectal
51- The long term administration of thiazide diuretics requires:
a- K+
b- Na+
c- Ca++
d- CO3
e- acetate

52- Propranolol is often prescribed with

hydralazine to
a-reduce the reflex tachycardia
b-prevent the accumulation of hydralazine
c-prevent systemic lupus ( SLE ) due to hydralazine
d-prevent oedema
e-increase absorption of hydralazin

53- Fifty micrograms equals:

a-50000 ( nanogrames )h g
b- 0.05 ( micrograms )m g
c- 0.0005 g
d- a and b
e- a and c

54- The ability of a liquid to dissolveis:

a-hydrophilicity
b-miscibility
c-immiscibility
d-solubility equilibrium
e-solvation energy

55- These are non aqueous pharmaceutical solutions:

a-otic soln. , mouth washes and nasal soln.
b-essences, collodions and elixirs
c-gargles, douches and irrigation soln.
d-syrups , mucillages and collodions
e-enemas , liniments and spirits

56- A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of NaCl in exactly 2000 ml.

What is the molarity of this solution?
a- 3.33
b- 0.15
c- 1.60 x 10-4
d- 0.30
e-3.00 x 10-4

Molarity = no. of moles/ volume (Liter)

No. of moles = weight (gm) / molecular weight = 17.52 / (23+35.5) = 0.3
moles
M = 0.3/ 2 = 0.15

57- Which of the following is NOT correct?

a-glitazones are ineffective as mono therapy
b-GIT disturbance are common side effects of a-glycosidase inhibitors
c-start with small dose of oral agent and triturate up to 1-2 weeks
d-life style modification should not be enforced if an
oral agent to be started
e-lispro is a rapid acting insulin to be dosed immediately before meals

58- In CHFmanagement the following is not correct:

a-ACEIs such as lisinopril improve left ventricular function and reduces
mortality

b- -blockers such as Carvedilol may have beneficial effect in selected

patients

c-spironolactone should be avoided because

of the great risk of hypokalemia
d- non drug therapy includes appropriate fluid and dietary sodium-
restriction
e-symptomatic improvement is one of the major assessment criteria for
proper therapy

59- When considering drug therapy for hypertension, which is true?

a-combination of drugs always preferred
b-hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension
c-furosemide should be administrated before meal to improve
absorption
d-beta-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient
e- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women

60- Which of the following is NOT a primary literature

a-journal of pharmacy practice
b-applied therapeutic & clinical use of drugs
c-new England Journal of medicine
d-Loncet e- JAMA
Primary literature: journal articles
Secondary literature: textbooks
Tertiary literature: reference books: dictionaries, encyclopedias

61- Which of the following is NOT used in theophylline toxicity

management:
a-symptomatic control of seizures with benzodiazepine
b-activated charcoal to enhance elimination
c- -blocker for tachycardia
d-control vomiting with metoclopramide
e-methylphenidate to reduce excessive sedation
62- Regarding the use of ACEIs:
a-associated hypokalemia could be avoided by giving K-supplement
b-effective in reducing proteinurea in diabetic patient
c-most common side effect is chronic dry cough
d-a good first line treatment for hypertensive diabetic
e-dose should be started low and triturated gradually upward in need

63- References to check compatibility of drugs in parentral

administration:
a- MERCK Index
b-handbook on injectable drugs
c-micro comedix
d- a and b
e- b and c

64- Regarding treatment of digoxin toxicity:

a-verify time of last time
b-check Mg and K levels and correct if needed
c-monitor ECG
d-no antidote for digoxin
e-supportive care

65- When a CNS depressant is prescribed, which of the following is NOT

taken at the same time?
a-analgesic
b-verapamil
c-aspirin
d-diphenhydramine
e-orange juice

68-The following is NOT characteristic of solution:

a-thermodynamically stable
b-composed of two or more components that exist in one phase
c-homogenous
d-the solvent and solute can be separated by filtration
e-solute doesn't precipitate as time passes

: most of drugs are

*Weak electrolyte

Non electrlolyte

Non ionic

Strong electrolyte

B+ C
of substance X solution , 50% of substance X solution , how mixing both 2-90%
? to give 80% of substance X solution

** 1 :3

1:3

10:30

9 :5

B+C

trade name of lisinopril-3

Zestril , zinopril

: antipseudomonas drug -4
............ metronidazole , nystatin , primaquine, **vancomycin

: arrhythmia happened due to -5

increase of Cardiac output

increase in o2 demand ,

dialitation in myocardium

: digoxin differ from digitoxin-6

Half life

Excreted hepatically

*** Excreted unchanged in urine

??In digoxin induced arrythmia , what is not recommonded -7

, stop digixin adminstration
phenytoin adminstration

give lidocaine

give digoxin immune fab

*****electrical cardio

: which is not asthma properties -8

Bronchodilator

Bronchospasm

Increase mucous secretion

Chest pain

.. example of antimetabolite anticancer -9

: hormone excreted from adrenal cortex -10

Aldosterone

Growth hormone

Primary product

mineralocorticoids (eg, aldosterone)

glucocorticoids (eg, cortisolndrosterone)

weak androgens (eg, dehydroepiandrosterone)

: immunosuppressant agent cannot used in organ transplantation -11

Predisolone
. which is not NSAID -12

, .. = liquid weight = .. , volume -13

? What is specific gravity

about side effect of quinidine -14

: all of following are side effects of methotrixate except -15

Bone marrow depression

Alopecia

Nausea and vomiting

Drive sex gland*****

: mechanism of action of antipsychotic drug -16

Dopamine receptor inactivation

: drug used in hypertension and migrane-17

****Clonidine

Hydralazine

: ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in -18

bilateral renal artery stenosis

: about cardioglycosidic effect -19

ve inotropic-

**** ve inotropic+

Hypertension

Tackycardia

Bradycardia

: all factors affect on distribution of drug except-20

Tissue solubility

Protein binding

Molecular weight of drug

***** Type enzyme response of metabolism

: all factors affect on renal clearance except-21

Age

****Sex

Both

Disease state

: ointment used for -22

Carrier of drug

Emollient

Both***

Increase absorption

Increase distribution
: charcol used as antidote coz-23

Adsorption activity

: in hypodynamic shock treatment -24

***** Use dopamine

Use nicotine

Use aspirin

: acyclovir used to-25

Herbs simplex

: all following are viral infections except -26

Tuberculosis

about radiation -27

:warfarin monitoring -28

Platelet formation

INR

The prothrombin time (PT) is the primary assay used in monitoring warfarin

lady take chronic warfarin , which is not true -29

avoid aspirin containing prepration -1

avoid doubling dose from herself-2

balanced food with green leaves to avoid thrombosis-3

******if she pregnant, monitor INR to avoid DVT -4

take care about nasal bleeding-5

? Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis -30

a-it is given to treat surgery associated infections
b-it is given to reduce the possibility of surgical site infection ****
c-should always be given regardless type of surgery
d-should be continued for 7 days after surgery
e-all are true

Which of the following is NOT true about infiximab -31

****a-IL-1 blocker
b-used for treatment of severe rheumatoid arthritis c-may increase risk of
infections
d-administered as IV infusion8
e-postadministration reactions include fever & chills

: infusion of hypotonic solution in blood cause -32

a) shriniking of blood cell

****b) hemolysis

c) hyperglycemia

d) hypoglycemia

e) b + d

? , half life of drug is 7 days -33

..... 4 , 3 , , ,

a-hyperperfusion
b-hypoperfusion****
c-tachycardia
d-bradycardia
e-non of the above
? which of following is least sedative action -35

Diazepam

Estazolam

Triazolam

*** Temazepam

?which drug has spasmolytic action -36

Resirpine

Amphetamine

desmopressine used in-37

nocturnal enuresis

: salbutamol is-38

Beta 2 agonist

pentophyllin used for : peripheral vasodilator -39

Hypertension

Couph suppressantIndications

Pentofyllin is indicated in diseases, causing disorders in the peripheral perfusion,

and in diabetes, atherosclerotic and inflammatory disorders, including shank
ulcers; gangrene; diabetic angiopathy; intermittent claudication; Raynauds
disease. In acute disorders of the brain perfusion, including ischemic stroke and
.resultant conditions. Acute disorders of the retinal blood supply
: mg \ L solution , according ppm 40-2

0.002

0.000002

: Pka for normal water in room temperature -41

14

7^10

14-^10

14^10

: normal water used for -42

Eye preparption

Parentral preparation

Solution

Emultion

External preparation

: ceftazidime -43

3rd generation

? about aminoglycoside , which is not true-44

Has gram ve activity

Less toxicity
Narrow therapeutic

Compatable with other drug

Usually IV , IM

about norepinephrine -45

not true

increasr B.P

vasoconstrictive

used in cardiogenic shock

'effective orally

S.C

: PHARMACOKINETIC CONSTANT -46

Zero order

1st order

2nd order

Mixed order

A+ B

? Which of the following is NOT predinsolone side effect -47

a-cataract
****b-hypoglycemia
c-skeletal muscle weakness d-sodium retention
e-lowered resistance to infections

: The latabbreviation for " After Meals " is --48

.a- a.c. b- a.a. c- p.c. d- i.c. e- c.c
: The latabbreviation for " before meal --49

.a- a.c. b- a.a. c- p.c. d- i.c. e- c.c

o.d....... Once a day - 50

A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of kcl -51

?exactly 2000 ml. What is the molarity of this solution

?When concidering drug therapy for hypertention , which is true -52

a-combination of drugs always preferred
b-hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension
c-furosemide should be administrated before meal to improve absorption
****** d-b-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient
e- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women

The mechanism of action of dopamine -53

muscarinic antagonist

*****muscarinic agonist
nicotinic antagonist

nicotinic agonist
non of the above

: The heart`s dominant pacemaker is -54

a- AV nod
***b- SA node
c-pukinje fiber
d-internodal pathways
e-non of the above

about albuterol side effect -55

??? dosage form of nitroglycren when used in malignant hypertension -56

........**** IV , IM , S.C , infusion , transdermal

:solutions are better than solid dosage form coz-57

Accurate dose

Easy to handle

Morestable

Faster action****

B+C

ONE OF FOLLOWING NOT USED TO COVER BITTER -58

: TASTE

Film coat

Enteric coat

***** Granding of tablet

.. ABOUT CARDIAC GLYCOSIDE-59

?which of following tricyclic antidepressant is tertiary amine-60

Amitriptyline

? antihypertensive used in pregnancy -61

Methyldopa

? drug make urine red other than rifampicin -62

? drug used for peptic ulcer-63

Losec

. all are ACEI except -64

drug infusion rate is 2mg\kg\hr , infused for 12 hours , for 70kg -65
patient .. what is total dose 34- The term shock signifies

1-The action of histamine is :

c-stimulation of gastric secretion *****

2- latabbreviation for " After Meals " is

c- p.c. ***
3-- Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical is
c-automaticity****

4- Which of the following is responcible for buffering

c-bicarbonates*****
5-- In treatment of shock , which of the following should not
be considered?
a-airway control
b-IV of crystalloid solution
c-dopamine to support blood pressure
d-monitor heart rhythm
e-give antibiotic to treat infection*****
6-- In the treatment of osteoporosis which of the following is
NOT true?
a-alendronate should be taken 60 min. before
breakfast****
b-Ca and vit. D are essential
c-hormone replacement therapy should be considered
d-outcome should be assessed with periodic bone density
e-raloxifeno is selective oestrogen modulator

7- A patient who is admitted through the E.R. with an initial c-

considered anticoagulation with warfarine****
8 -The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the range of:
d- 300-600 mg****
9- When concidering drug therapy for hypertention , which is
true?
d-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic
patient ****
10- B carotine is precursor of :
a)retinol ****
11-antihypertensive produce tackycardia :
a)Hydralazone*****

12-process require CYP405 :

a)OXIDATION

13-drug induced lupus like syndrom is associated with

b) phenytoin ***
14- hypothirodism will increase :
a) body weight ****
15- low density lipoprotien act as :
a) Major carrer of cholestrol in plasma *****
16-patient has CHF given digoxin and thiazide and needed
corticosteroid , which is best choice?
a) Cortisone
b) Hydrocortisoce
c) Prednisolone
17- expairy date of drug is 8\2010 that means , last day you
can use drug is :
a) 31\8\2010..*****
18- digitoxin side effect :
a) Hyperglycemia
b) Hypertension

19- elevated blood glucose is side effect of :

Digoxin..

20-amphetamine used to treat :

a) Defect concentration *****
21-- which is not asthma properties :
a) Bronchodilator*****
b) Bronchospasm
c) Increase mucous secretion
d) Chest pain

22-- hormone excreted from adrenal cortex :

a) Aldosterone ******
b) Growth hormone
c) FSH

23- one of following is not alpha 1 agonist :

a) Clonidine
b) Alpha methyl noradrenaline******
c) Guanfacine
d) Guanabenz
e) Guanethidine

24- about side effect of quinidine :

Chichonism*******
25-all of following are side effects of methotrixate except:
a) Bone marrow depression
b) Alopecia
c) Nausea and vomiting
d) Stimulate sex drive ****
e) Alopecia

26- ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in :

bilateral renal artery stenosis*****
27- Adsorption , which is not true :
a) Chemical property
b) Physical property
c) Reversible
d) Irreversible
e) A + d ****
28-all are antibiotic except :
Famcyclovir *****
29- heparin monitoring :
T
c) APTT****
30- about digitoxin , which is false :
a) Oral bioavaiability 100%
b) Protein binding 95%
c) Half life is 7 days
d) Mainly hepatic metabolism by lysosmal

31-all r Beta 2 agonist except :

a) Salbutamol
b) Alburanol
c) Fenoterol
d) salmeterol
e) Pindolol *****

32-Pkw for normal water in room temperature :

b) 14****
33- about norepinephrine , which is not true?
a) increasr B.P
b) vasoconstrictive
c) used in cardiogenic shock
d) effective orally'*****
e) S.C

34-- o.m.......
every morning******

35- one of following not used to cover bitter taste :

a) Enteric coat
b) Film coat
c) Enteric coat
d) Grinding of tablet ****
e) B + C

36- all contraindicated in pregnancy except

b) Methyldopa****
37- dose of drug in children is . Mg \ kg , what total dose
for child 34.5 bound?

gm , mg

38-drug prescriped as
1 tablet contaion 1 mg bid ( 2 weeks) , what is total dose?
28 mg*****
39- tybe 2 anti arrythmic properties :
Inhibit sympathetic system by beta adrenergic
blockade ***
40-in injection of lidocaine , what drug added to increase
effectiveness of lidocaine?
Epinephrine ..

41-about sterilization by filtration , which is false?

a) Cannot used for virus *****
b) Need special equipment

42-membrane filters with 0.22 micropores , which of following

not removed by that?
a) Bacteria
b) Virus***
c) Fungi
d) A+c
e) B+c

43)volatile substance given by inhalation:

a) Halothane
b) Dextromethorphane.

44)in prescription
Substance A 15 parts
Substance B 30 parts
Substance C 150 parts
We neeed to prepare ointment 500 gm , what amount should
we take from substance A ?
...... ..
15+30 + 150 = 195
,
(15 \195) * 100 =7.69 %

So , we need 7.69 % from all 500 gm

( 7.69 * 500 ) \ 100 = 38.46 gm
38.46 gm****
5 ...

45- we need to prepare 100 ml of 0.05% substance X

solution how gm we need from substance X ?
0.05 gm***
46- loop diuretics cause all the following except:
a) Hypokalamia.
b) Hyponatrimia.
c) Hypocalcemia..
d) Hypoglycemia.
e) Hypernatremia.****
47-two drugs has same active ingredient but difrent inactive
ingredient , called:
a) Pharmaceutical equivalences
b) Bioequivalence
c) A + b
d) Pharmaceutical alternative

48-to compare between 2 drugs use:

a) Physical appearance
b) Weight
c) Pharmacokinetic parameters
d) Pharmacodynamic parameter***********
e) Taste

49) Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except:

a) Ephedrine.
b) Lidocine.
c) Normal saline.
d) Propranolol****
50)-Binding to plasma protein:
a- Increases half life.***
51) The antidote of heparin is:
Protamin sulfate****
52)when gived gentamycin , which is should monitoring?
Creatinine clearance****
53-tricyclic antidepressant mechanism of action :

54-diazoxide side effect : hypotension

55-tegretol used in :
Trigeminal Neuralgia****
56-about sid effect of oral contraceptive except :
a) Depressoin
b) Hypertension

57-drug dependence which is true :

a) After discontinuation , patient has withdrawal symptoms
b) Patient progressively increase dose to get same action

58)drug used in ventricular arrhythmia :
a) Phynetoin ******
b) Quinidine
c) Digoxin
d) Procainamide
e) Verapamil

59)Enteric coated tablets:

Are dissolved in the intestine and not affected by the stomach
juices*****

60) factors affecting on dissolution rate are :

b) Decrease size of particles
c) Increase surface area
e) B + C******

1-(propranolol)whicl is adrenergic beta blocker

2_propranolol is
beta blocker

3_salbutamol is
selctive b2 agonist

4_which is false about nor epinephrin

a_ effictive orally
b_can used in cardiogenic shock
c_can used subcutanous
d_raise blood pressure

5_which is the folowing block the alpha receptor in vains and

arteries and amke v.d.
a_terazosin: is a selective alpha 1 antagonist

6_syncop may occure with the 1st dose of the folowing

a_digoxin
b_salbutamol
c_prazosin : alpha blocker
d_reserpin
e_ clonidin
7_one of the fllowing used in asthmatic patient
answer is albuterol

8_the pharmacolpgical action of clofibrate is

c_decreas lipoprotien synthes

9_one of the following has cathertic effect

b_magnesium oxide

10_loratidin is
c_antihistaminic

11_which of the following not anti bacterial

..........

12_which one is more effective agaienst traveller diarrhea

b_ciprofloxacin
c_sulphamethoxasol

13_which is the following is true about erythromycin

b_could be used in pregnant women if need

14_which one is active against psoudomonal

d_imipinem
_15_A 4 mg dose of lorazepam administered to a adult will act
as : b-hypnotic

16_ the action of TCa is

inhibit reuptak of noradrenalin and serotini

17_Which of the following drugs exhibits dose dependant

pharmaceutical therapeutic doses ?
b-phenytoin

18_The long term administration of thiazide diuretics requires

a- K+
19_antihypertensive produce tackycardia :
a)Hydralazone
20_ the pharmacological action of nitroglycerin is

21_the action of digoxin can reduced with

a_ antacid

22_ the main cause of digitalis toxicity is

d_renal faliure
23_digitalis arrhythmia can be treated with
a_lidocain
24_which one used in ventricular arrhthmia with heart block
phynetoin
25_the action of antiarrhythmic drug classs 1A is
a_rapid the repo;arization of phase 0
b_delay the repolarization of phase 3
answer is b

26_which one is antiarrythmic class 1A

d_verapamil
27_which one doesnt affect platellet in the body
a _ aspirin
b_dipyridamol
c_acetyl salcylic
d_captopril
e_clopidogril

28_action of theophyllin
b_ bronchodilator
29_anti cancer derived from venca is_
a_cyclophosamide
b_flourouracil
c_doxurubcin
d_ cicplastin
i think d

30_ alkylating agent used as anticancer

d_cyclophosphamide
31_ascorpic acid is
b_ vit C
32_reserpin shouldnt be used in parkinsonism patient
talking..........

33_one of the following not NSAID

a_ naprocyn
b_indocid
c_ticotil
d_

34_pentoxifillin used as

35 _ which one used to trigeminal neuralgia

answer is tegretol
phynetoin

5
1_ how many doses in abottle contain 90 gram and the dose
is 75mg
answer
number of dose = 90/0.75=120

2_A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of nacl

exactly 2000 ml. What is the molarity of this solution
answer
molarity= number of moles/volume in liter
number of moles=weightin gram/molecular weight
M.W.of NaCL=MW ob Na(23.5+MW of Cl (35=58.5
then number of mole= 17.5/58.5=0 .3
molarity = 0.3/2=0.15

3_the solution contain 9ppm of NaCl the the concevtration of

the compound in the solution
a_0.9
b_.09
c_.009
d_.0009
e_.00009
0.009
.

4_ how much amount of water need to add to 250 ml of

solution os 1/500 of benzonium clorid to bacome 1/2000
a_0.125 L
b_0.250 L
c_0.4 L
d_2 L
e_ 4 L
0.4



ceutics and clinical

1_the statement (put in cold place ) mean acoording to USP

a_ in the freezer
b_in refrigerator
c_ temp between(10_20 c)f
d_ a&c
e_ b&c

c
e

2_all factors affect on distribution of drug except :

a_Tissue solubility
b_Protein binding
c_Molecular weight of drug
d_Type enzyme response of metabolism
answer is d

3_ONE OF FOLLOWING NOT USED TO COVER BITTER

TASTE :
a_Film coat
b_Enteric coat
c_Granding of tablet
answer is c

4_major metabolism proccess in GIT is

a_hydrolysis
,b_ acetylation
c_oxidation
d_ conjucation
answer a

5_the amount of water in adult male is about:

b-60%

6_process require CYP450 :

a)OXIDATION
b)HYDROLYSIS
c)GLUCORONIDATION
d)DEAMINATION
e)SULFERATION
oxidation

7_Adsorption , which is not true :

a) Chemical property
b) Physical property
c) Reversible
d) Irreversible
e) A + d
answer is e

8_acording to 1st order kinetics t1/2 equal

a_k
b_1/k
c_k+1
d_2k+1
e_ 639/k
answer is e

9_the responce of the drug not affected by

a_mental status
b_genetic
c_binding to plasma ptn
d_lipophilicity of the drug

10_
)
(

11_
( ) ( )

12_

13_about steady state concentration during IV adminestration

a_directly ptoportional to volume of distribution
b_inversly proportional to volume of distribution
c_directly ptoportional to infusion rate
d_ inversly proportional to total body clearance
e_ c&d

answer is e

14_disentegration of drug to small molecule is

a_ reduction
b_ sublimation
c_ solubility
a

the way for 1st pass metabolism_15

from mesentric vain to portal vain

16_ which of the following decreas gastric emptying rate

a_ metoclopramid
b_ atropin
c_ hypothyroism
d_a&b
e_b&c
answer is e

1- The major action of sodium chromoglycate is

a-mast cell stabilization
b-bronchodilator 2
c-prostaglandins modifier
d-leukotrienes modifier
e-non of the above

2-The action of histamine is:

a-capillary constriction
b-elevation of blood pressure
c-stimulation of gastric secretion
d-skeletal muscle paralysis
e-slowing the heart rate

3-One of the following antibiotics is resistant to penicillinase:

a-penicillin V
b-penicillin G
c-floxapen (flucloxacillin)
d-ampicillin
e-amoxicillin

4- Inderal is:
a-similar in action to ergotamine
b-similar in action to tubocurarine
c-used as an antihistamine
d-pure -adrenergic receptor blocker
e- and -adrenergic receptor blocker

5- Rifampicin is indicated for treatment of:

a-impaired fat absorption
b-pulmonary emboli
c-tuberculosis
d-neoplastic disorders
e-psoriasis

6- Which of the following is selective 1-blocker?

a-labetalol & -blocker
b-terazosine selective 1-blocker
c-cloridine selective 2-agonist
d-captopril ACE inhibitor
e-verapamil calcium channel blocker

None of them is a selective 1-blocker

7- The Latin abbreviation for "After Meals" is:

a- a.c. before meals
b- a.a. for each
c- p.c.
d- i.c.
e- c.c. cubic centimeter= 1ml

8- The Latin abbreviation for "Four Times Daily" is:

a- a.c.
b- a.a.
c- p.c
d- q.i.d quater in die
e- c.c.

9- The Latin abbreviation for "Every Night" is:

a- a.c.
b- o.n. omni nocte
c- p.c
d- i.c
e- c.c

10- Erythroped A:
a-is effective against G +ve Cocci and G ve bacteria
b-is a macrolide antibiotic
c-can increase g.i.t. motility
d-could be used in pregnant women if need
e-all of the above
11- For the treatment of anaphylactic shock use:
a-salbutamol
b-diphenhydramine
c-acetazolamide
d-epinephrine
e-aminophylline

? 12- Allopurinol is used as:

x a-analgesic agent
x b-uricosuric agent (as probenecid),
x c-anti-inflammatory agent
x d-antipyretic agent
? e-agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption
13- Which of the following is NOT betamethasone side effect?
a-cataract
b-hypoglycemia
c-skeletal muscle weakness
d-sodium retention
e-lowered resistance to infections

14- A disease which is due to viral infection:

a-poliomyelitis
b-rabies
c-chicken pox
d-herpes
e-all of the above
15- The mechanism of action of atropine is
a-muscarinic antagonist
b-muscarinic agonist
c-nicotinic antagonist
d-nicotinic agonist
e-none of the above

16- Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical is:

a-inotropy (=contractility = the force of muscle contraction)

b-chronotropy (= affecting a time or rate, as in heart rate)
c-automaticity (= a property of specialized excitable tissue that
allows self-activation through spontaneous development of an action
potential, as in the pacemaker cells of the heart)
d-contractility
e-none of the above

17- The heart's dominant pacemaker is:

a- AV node
b- SA node
c-purkinje fiber
d-internodal pathways
e-non of the above
18- Adenosine is used for:
a-ventricular arrhythmias
b-atrial bradycardia
c-supraventricular tachycardia
d-supraventricular bradycardia
e-none of the above

19- Adenosine P produces which of the following:

a-facial flushing
b-dyspnea
c-marked tachycardia
d- a and b
e- a , b and c

20- Which of the following is responsible for buffering

a-magnesium
b-chloride
c-bicarbonate
d-potassium
e-troponin
21- Respiratory acidosis is due to:
a- O2 removal
b- O2 retention
c- CO2 removal
d- CO2 retention
e-none of the above

22- Which of the following is NOT colloid solution?

a-albumin 5%
b-ringer's solution
c-dextran
d-beta starch
e-albumin 20%

23- The term shock signifies:

a-hyperperfusion
b-hypoperfusion
c-tachycardia
d-bradycardia
e-non of the above

24- In treatment of shock, which of the following should be considered?

a-airway control
b-IV of crystalloid solution
c-dopamine to support blood pressure
d-monitor heart rhythm
e-all of the above
25which of the following is released by bacterial infection? (...by
bacterial cell wall during their growth
a-endotoxin
b-exotoxin
c-antibiotics
d-cytotoxin
e-none of the above

26- The amount of water in adult male is about:

a-25%
b-60%
c-80%
d-10%
e-17%

27- Which of the following are causes of oedema?

a-increase hydrostatic pressure
b-decrease oncotic pressure
c-increase capillary permeability
d- a and b
e- a, b and c
28- Patients prescribed non reversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor
should be advised not to consume food containing tyramine because
this combination causes:
a-postural hypotension
b-hallucinations
c-anaphylactic shock
d-muscle weakness and tremor
e-acute adrenergic crisis including sever hypertension

29- Concerning COX 2 inhibitors, which is NOT true?

a-they have lower risk of gastric adverse reactions
b-good evidence about their effectiveness
c-cardiac toxicity is a recent concern of this class
d-they usually administrated twice daily
e-combination with non selective agents give more
effective action
30- In the treatment of osteoporosis which of the following is NOT true?
a-alendronate should be taken 60 min. before
breakfast
b-Ca and vit. D are essential
c-hormone replacement therapy should be considered
d-outcome should be assessed with periodic bone density
e-raloxifeo is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator
31- Which of the following is the first choice in acute gout?
a-allopurinol
b-indomethacin
c-colchicine
d-probencid
e-sulfinylpyrazone

32- Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoparalysis?

a- minimal exercise
b- low calcium intake
c- male gender
d- family history
e- minimal exposure to sunlight

33- Early symptoms of aspirin poisoning are:

a- lethargy & fatigue
b- skin rash & headache
c- throbbing headache & dizziness
d- fluid retention hypotension
e- ringing in the ears & blurred vision
34- Which of the following is NOT true about infiximab
a- IL-1 blocker
b- used for treatment of severe rheumatoid arthritis
c- may increase risk of infections
d- administered as IV infusion
e- post administration reactions include fever & chills

35- A disease modifying drugs in rheumatoid arthritis:

a-gold preparations
b-hydroxychloroquine
c-methotrexate
d- a and b
e- a, b and c
36- A patient who is admitted through the E.R. with an initial diagnosis:

a-slow ventricular response using verapamil

b-start lidocaine infusion
c- considered anticoagulation with warfarine
d- a and b
e- b and c
??
37- Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis?
a- it is given to treat surgery associated infections
b-it is given to reduce the possibility of surgical site
infection
c-should always be given regardless type of surgery
d-should be continued for 7 days after surgery
e-all are true

38- Goals of diabetes mellitus management include:

a-reduce onset of complications
b-control symptoms of diabetes
c-near normal glycemic control and HBA1c
d- a and b
e- a, b and c
39- When dosing insulin which of the following is true?
a-initial dose 0.6 u / kg / day split 2/3 a.m and 1/3 p.m
b-regular NPH ratio is 1 : 1 or 1 : 2
c-dose may need to be increased during acute illness
d- b and c
e- a, b and c

40- What first line agent may be considered for an obese type 2?
a-glyburinid
b-insulin
c-metformin
d-nateglinid
e-repaglinid

41- When diagnosis of diabetes to be considered:

a-WBC count with differential
b-oral glucose tolerance test
c- HBA1c
d- a and b
e- b and c

42- A 4 mg dose of lorazepam administered to an adult will act as:

a-analgesic
b-hypnotic
c-diuretic
d-antihistaminic
e-antiulcerant

43- The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the range of:

a- 300-600 g
b- 1-5 mg
c- 15-60 mg
d- 300-600 mg
e- 1-2 mg

44- The drug of choice to control pain during acute myocardial infarction
is:
a-naloxone
b-bethidine
c-morphine
d-celecoxib
e-naproxen

45- What is a major contraindication to the use of an OTC

sympathomimetic drug

a-gastric ulcer
b-uncontrolled hypotension
c-severe asthma
d-rheumatoid arthritis
e-hypertension
46-Category C in FDA for drug used in pregnancy:

a- controlled studies fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the

trimester and there is no evidence of risk in later trimester
b- fetal risk NOT demonstrated in animal studies but there are no
controlled studies in pregnant women or animal reproduction studies
have shown an adverse effect that was NOT confirmed in controlled
studies in women during trimester
c-either animal study have revealed adverse effect on
the fetus and there are no controlled human studies or
studies in animal and women are not available
d- There is positive evidence of human fetal risk but the benefits of use
in pregnant woman may be acceptable despite the risk

47- What advice would you give to a patient prescribed rifampicin?

a-take this medication with food or milk
b-avoid multivitamin preparations during treatment
c-avoid taking paracetamol during treatment
d-possible discolouration of skin is of no importance
e-this medication may cause discolouration of urine
48- Correct method of parentral administration of potassium is:
a-fast I.V. injection
b-slow I.V. injection
c-I.M. injection
d-IP(intraperitoneal) injection

49- Which of the following drugs exhibits dose dependant

pharmaceutical therapeutic doses?
a-Na valproate
b-phenytoin
c-lithium
d-quinidine
e-carbamazepine

50- Which route of administration would provide the most rapid onset of
action response to morphine?
a-oral
b-S.C.
c-I.V.
d-I.M.
e-rectal
51- The long term administration of thiazide diuretics requires:
a- K+
b- Na+
c- Ca++
d- CO3
e- acetate

52- Propranolol is often prescribed with

hydralazine to
a-reduce the reflex tachycardia
b-prevent the accumulation of hydralazine
c-prevent systemic lupus ( SLE ) due to hydralazine
d-prevent oedema
e-increase absorption of hydralazin

53- Fifty micrograms equals:

a-50000 ( nanogrames )h g
b- 0.05 ( micrograms )m g
c- 0.0005 g
d- a and b
e- a and c

54- The ability of a liquid to dissolveis:

a-hydrophilicity
b-miscibility
c-immiscibility
d-solubility equilibrium
e-solvation energy

55- These are non aqueous pharmaceutical solutions:

a-otic soln. , mouth washes and nasal soln.
b-essences, collodions and elixirs
c-gargles, douches and irrigation soln.
d-syrups , mucillages and collodions
e-enemas , liniments and spirits

56- A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of NaCl in exactly 2000 ml.

What is the molarity of this solution?
a- 3.33
b- 0.15
c- 1.60 x 10-4
d- 0.30
e-3.00 x 10-4

Molarity = no. of moles/ volume (Liter)

No. of moles = weight (gm) / molecular weight = 17.52 / (23+35.5) = 0.3
moles
M = 0.3/ 2 = 0.15

57- Which of the following is NOT correct?

a-glitazones are ineffective as mono therapy
b-GIT disturbance are common side effects of a-glycosidase inhibitors
c-start with small dose of oral agent and triturate up to 1-2 weeks
d-life style modification should not be enforced if an
oral agent to be started
e-lispro is a rapid acting insulin to be dosed immediately before meals

58- In CHFmanagement the following is not correct:

a-ACEIs such as lisinopril improve left ventricular function and reduces
mortality

b- -blockers such as Carvedilol may have beneficial effect in selected

patients

c-spironolactone should be avoided because

of the great risk of hypokalemia
d- non drug therapy includes appropriate fluid and dietary sodium-
restriction
e-symptomatic improvement is one of the major assessment criteria for
proper therapy

59- When considering drug therapy for hypertension, which is true?

a-combination of drugs always preferred
b-hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension
c-furosemide should be administrated before meal to improve
absorption
d-beta-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient
e- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women

60- Which of the following is NOT a primary literature

a-journal of pharmacy practice
b-applied therapeutic & clinical use of drugs
c-new England Journal of medicine
d-Loncet e- JAMA
Primary literature: journal articles
Secondary literature: textbooks
Tertiary literature: reference books: dictionaries, encyclopedias

61- Which of the following is NOT used in theophylline toxicity

management:
a-symptomatic control of seizures with benzodiazepine
b-activated charcoal to enhance elimination
c- -blocker for tachycardia
d-control vomiting with metoclopramide
e-methylphenidate to reduce excessive sedation
62- Regarding the use of ACEIs:
a-associated hypokalemia could be avoided by giving K-supplement
b-effective in reducing proteinurea in diabetic patient
c-most common side effect is chronic dry cough
d-a good first line treatment for hypertensive diabetic
e-dose should be started low and triturated gradually upward in need

63- References to check compatibility of drugs in parentral

administration:
a- MERCK Index
b-handbook on injectable drugs
c-micro comedix
d- a and b
e- b and c

64- Regarding treatment of digoxin toxicity:

a-verify time of last time
b-check Mg and K levels and correct if needed
c-monitor ECG
d-no antidote for digoxin
e-supportive care

65- When a CNS depressant is prescribed, which of the following is NOT

taken at the same time?
a-analgesic
b-verapamil
c-aspirin
d-diphenhydramine
e-orange juice

68-The following is NOT characteristic of solution:

a-thermodynamically stable
b-composed of two or more components that exist in one phase
c-homogenous
d-the solvent and solute can be separated by filtration
e-solute doesn't precipitate as time passes

: most of drugs are

*Weak electrolyte

Non electrlolyte

Non ionic

Strong electrolyte

B+ C
of substance X solution , 50% of substance X solution , how mixing both 2-90%
? to give 80% of substance X solution

** 1 :3

1:3

10:30

9 :5

B+C

trade name of lisinopril-3

Zestril , zinopril

: antipseudomonas drug -4
............ metronidazole , nystatin , primaquine, **vancomycin

: arrhythmia happened due to -5

increase of Cardiac output

increase in o2 demand ,

dialitation in myocardium

: digoxin differ from digitoxin-6

Half life

Excreted hepatically

*** Excreted unchanged in urine

??In digoxin induced arrythmia , what is not recommonded -7

, stop digixin adminstration
phenytoin adminstration

give lidocaine

give digoxin immune fab

*****electrical cardio

: which is not asthma properties -8

Bronchodilator

Bronchospasm

Increase mucous secretion

Chest pain

.. example of antimetabolite anticancer -9

: hormone excreted from adrenal cortex -10

Aldosterone

Growth hormone

Primary product

mineralocorticoids (eg, aldosterone)

glucocorticoids (eg, cortisolndrosterone)

weak androgens (eg, dehydroepiandrosterone)

: immunosuppressant agent cannot used in organ transplantation -11

Predisolone
. which is not NSAID -12

, .. = liquid weight = .. , volume -13

? What is specific gravity

about side effect of quinidine -14

: all of following are side effects of methotrixate except -15

Bone marrow depression

Alopecia

Nausea and vomiting

Drive sex gland*****

: mechanism of action of antipsychotic drug -16

Dopamine receptor inactivation

: drug used in hypertension and migrane-17

****Clonidine

Hydralazine

: ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in -18

bilateral renal artery stenosis

: about cardioglycosidic effect -19

ve inotropic-

**** ve inotropic+

Hypertension

Tackycardia

Bradycardia

: all factors affect on distribution of drug except-20

Tissue solubility

Protein binding

Molecular weight of drug

***** Type enzyme response of metabolism

: all factors affect on renal clearance except-21

Age

****Sex

Both

Disease state

: ointment used for -22

Carrier of drug

Emollient

Both***

Increase absorption

Increase distribution
: charcol used as antidote coz-23

Adsorption activity

: in hypodynamic shock treatment -24

***** Use dopamine

Use nicotine

Use aspirin

: acyclovir used to-25

Herbs simplex

: all following are viral infections except -26

Tuberculosis

about radiation -27

:warfarin monitoring -28

Platelet formation

INR

The prothrombin time (PT) is the primary assay used in monitoring warfarin

lady take chronic warfarin , which is not true -29

avoid aspirin containing prepration -1

avoid doubling dose from herself-2

balanced food with green leaves to avoid thrombosis-3

******if she pregnant, monitor INR to avoid DVT -4

take care about nasal bleeding-5

? Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis -30

a-it is given to treat surgery associated infections
b-it is given to reduce the possibility of surgical site infection ****
c-should always be given regardless type of surgery
d-should be continued for 7 days after surgery
e-all are true

Which of the following is NOT true about infiximab -31

****a-IL-1 blocker
b-used for treatment of severe rheumatoid arthritis c-may increase risk of
infections
d-administered as IV infusion8
e-postadministration reactions include fever & chills

: infusion of hypotonic solution in blood cause -32

a) shriniking of blood cell

****b) hemolysis

c) hyperglycemia

d) hypoglycemia

e) b + d

? , half life of drug is 7 days -33

..... 4 , 3 , , ,

a-hyperperfusion
b-hypoperfusion****
c-tachycardia
d-bradycardia
e-non of the above
? which of following is least sedative action -35

Diazepam

Estazolam

Triazolam

*** Temazepam

?which drug has spasmolytic action -36

Resirpine

Amphetamine

desmopressine used in-37

nocturnal enuresis

: salbutamol is-38

Beta 2 agonist

pentophyllin used for : peripheral vasodilator -39

Hypertension

Couph suppressantIndications

Pentofyllin is indicated in diseases, causing disorders in the peripheral perfusion,

and in diabetes, atherosclerotic and inflammatory disorders, including shank
ulcers; gangrene; diabetic angiopathy; intermittent claudication; Raynauds
disease. In acute disorders of the brain perfusion, including ischemic stroke and
.resultant conditions. Acute disorders of the retinal blood supply
: mg \ L solution , according ppm 40-2

0.002

0.000002

: Pka for normal water in room temperature -41

14

7^10

14-^10

14^10

: normal water used for -42

Eye preparption

Parentral preparation

Solution

Emultion

External preparation

: ceftazidime -43

3rd generation

? about aminoglycoside , which is not true-44

Has gram ve activity

Less toxicity
Narrow therapeutic

Compatable with other drug

Usually IV , IM

about norepinephrine -45

not true

increasr B.P

vasoconstrictive

used in cardiogenic shock

'effective orally

S.C

: PHARMACOKINETIC CONSTANT -46

Zero order

1st order

2nd order

Mixed order

A+ B

? Which of the following is NOT predinsolone side effect -47

a-cataract
****b-hypoglycemia
c-skeletal muscle weakness d-sodium retention
e-lowered resistance to infections

: The latabbreviation for " After Meals " is --48

.a- a.c. b- a.a. c- p.c. d- i.c. e- c.c
: The latabbreviation for " before meal --49

.a- a.c. b- a.a. c- p.c. d- i.c. e- c.c

o.d....... Once a day - 50

A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of kcl -51

?exactly 2000 ml. What is the molarity of this solution

?When concidering drug therapy for hypertention , which is true -52

a-combination of drugs always preferred
b-hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension
c-furosemide should be administrated before meal to improve absorption
****** d-b-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient
e- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women

The mechanism of action of dopamine -53

muscarinic antagonist

*****muscarinic agonist
nicotinic antagonist

nicotinic agonist
non of the above

: The heart`s dominant pacemaker is -54

a- AV nod
***b- SA node
c-pukinje fiber
d-internodal pathways
e-non of the above

about albuterol side effect -55

??? dosage form of nitroglycren when used in malignant hypertension -56

........**** IV , IM , S.C , infusion , transdermal

:solutions are better than solid dosage form coz-57

Accurate dose

Easy to handle

Morestable

Faster action****

B+C

ONE OF FOLLOWING NOT USED TO COVER BITTER -58

: TASTE

Film coat

Enteric coat

***** Granding of tablet

.. ABOUT CARDIAC GLYCOSIDE-59

?which of following tricyclic antidepressant is tertiary amine-60

Amitriptyline

? antihypertensive used in pregnancy -61

Methyldopa

? drug make urine red other than rifampicin -62

? drug used for peptic ulcer-63

Losec

. all are ACEI except -64

drug infusion rate is 2mg\kg\hr , infused for 12 hours , for 70kg -65
patient .. what is total dose 34- The term shock signifies

:ACE mechanism is -1
49

a- converting Ag 11 to vasoconstrictor Ag1
b- converting Ag 1 to vasoconstrictor Ag11
c- converting Ag 1 to vasodilator Ag11
d- converting Ag 11 to vasoconstrictor Ag1

:Differences between captopril and other ACE inhibitors -2

a- Differ in potency, (captopril is more potent than other ACE inhibitors)

b- Mode of action.
c- Same effect if given in the appropriate dose.
d- Differ in shape.

:The diuretic which is used with Captopril is -3

a- Furosemide.
b- Ethacrynic acid.
c- Aldactone.

?What are the effects of Captopril -4

a- inhibits the conversion of Ag1 to Ag11

b- effective hypotensive when others are contraindicated (B-blockers &
diuretics)
c- Has a valuable role in heart failure.
 :ACE inhibitors are used in the treatment of -5

a- Hypertension.
b- Migraine.
c- Asthama.
d- All of the above.

:-blocker is used for -6

.Essential hypertension

?Which of the following is not cardio specific -blocker -7

a- Atenolol.
b- Acebutolol.
c- Satolol.
d- Labetalol.

:One of these is not like the others -8

.a- Timolol non selective -blocker

.b- Acebutalol selective -blocker 49


.c- labetolol non selective -blocker
.d- Betoxolol non selective -blocker

What is the pharmacological & / or therapeutic classification of the following -9

:drugs

.a- Acebutolol: selective -blocker hypertensive

.b- Labetalol: nonselective -blocker hypertensive

:All of the following are 2 antagonists except -10

a- Salbutamol.
b- Metoprolol.
c- Nadolol.
d- Atenolol.
N.B.: Salbutamol is 2 agonoist

:1 agonist cause -11

a- Increase in oxygen consumption.

b- Increasing ectotopic effect.
c- Increasing intotopic effect.
d- All of the above.

:quinidine sulphate is -12

a- Anti arrhythmic agent.
b- Anti malarial agent.
c- Anti hypertensive agent.
d- A & C.

:procainamide is calcium channel blocker like -13

a- quinidine (anti arrhythmic supra ventricular)

b- Nifedipine.
c- Lisinopril.
d- Cilazapril.

?Which one is not Ca channel blocker -14

a- verapamil.
b- Deltiazem.
c- Amlodipine.
d- Cinnarzine.

:Thiabendazole is one of the Thiazide diuretics -15

49
a- False b- True

:Thiazide diuretics cause all the following except -16

a- Hypokalamia.
b- Hyponatrimia.
c- Hypercalcemia.
d- Hyperuricamia.
e- Hyperglycemia.
f- Hypernatremia.

:Potassium supplement therapy must not be given with -17

a- Triamterene, (diuretic increase excretion of sodium chloride but lessens

potassium).
b- Aspirin.
c- Paracetamol.
d- Piroxicam.

:Nitroprusside Na is -18

a- Potent vasodilator.
b- Potent diuretic.
c- Potent vasoconstrictor.
d- Anti arrhythmic agent.

:All these drugs are anti-cholinergic except -19

a- ipratropium.
b- Atropine sulphate.
c- Benzatropine methylate.
d- Dobutamin.

:All of these are anticholinergics except -20

a- Atropine sulphate.
b- Hydroatropine.
c- Ipratropium bromide.
d- Butrepium bromide.
e- Mebeverine.

:Epinephrime has Alpha and Beta agonist activity so cause -21

a- Increasing in heart rate and increasing in blood pressure.

b- Hypotension.
c- Decrease heart rate.

:Dobutamine is given I.V. because -22 49

a- It is not stable in gastric acid of stomach.
b- It is eliminated very quickly.
c- It is needed in large doses if taken orally.
d- It causes nausea & vomiting orally.

:Dobutamine is used as -23

a- parasympathomimmetic.
b- In cardiac surgery.
c- Hypotensive agent.
d- All of the above.

:Hydrazine is used as antihypertensive through -24

a- Vasodialaton.
b- Diuretic.
c- Decreasing cardiac output.
d- All of the above.

?Which of these has no vasodilator effect -25

a- Methyl dopa.
b- Hydralazine.
c- Enalapril.
d- Prazocin.

?Which one has vasodilator effect -26

a- nicotinic acid.
b- Nalidxic acid.
c- Vitamin A.
d- Urokinase. (anti-coagualant, anti, thrombotic,fibrinolytic).

?Which one of the following has vasodilator effect -27

a- Nicotine
b- Cholestyramin.
c- Urikinase.
d- Vitamin A.

:Zinnat contains -28

a- Cefuroxime.
b- Cefaclor.

:nintrofurantion is indicated for -29

49
a- viral infection.
b- GIT infection.
c- Urinary tract infection (UTI).
d- URI.

:Ipeca is emetic agent which induces emesis through -30

a- Stimulation of the stomach.

b- Stimulation of the CTZ.
c- A & B.
d- Inhibition of the stomach through CNS.

:Theophylline is -31

a- Broncodilator.
b- 2 agonoist.
c- Causes bradicardia.
d- All of the above.
 :Theophylline does in children -32

a- Increased metabolism & dose must be increased.

b- Decresed metabolism & dose must be increased.
c- Decresed metabolism & dose must be decreased.

:The modern method to treat asthma is to use -33

a- Long acting bronchodilator + corticosteroid.

b- Long acting bronchodilator only.
c- Corticosteroid for long period of time.
d- Short acting bronchodilator + steroids.

:Treatment of anaphylactic reaction is indicated in the following except -34

a- Hydrocortisone.
b- Cimetidine.
c- Human albumin.
d- Epinephrine.

:Introduction of emesis is not indicated in the following except -35

a- Caustic substance ingestion.

b- CNS.
c- Seizures.
d- Paracetamol poisoning.

:All of these are anions except -36

a- Phosphate.
49
b- Acetate.
c- Sodium.
d- Chloride.

:Triazole is -37

a- Antifungal.
b- The trade name of clotrimazole.
c- The trade name of amphotrecin B.
d- Nyatatin.

:Which minoxidil, all these parameters should be monitored except -38

a- Urine flow rate.

b- Blood pressure.
c- Pulse rate.
d- Body weight.
 :Give two indications for allopurinol -39

a- Prophylaxis from gout.

b- Treatment of high uric acid & calcium oxalate renal stones.

:famotidine is H2 antagonist used for -40

a- Treatment of gastric & duodenal ulcers.

:Type 1 diabetes advises to use -41

a- Insulin.
b- Glibenclamide.
c- A & B.
d- None of the above.

:Type 2 diabetes advises to use -42

a- Sulphonylurea.
b- Diet control.
c- Insulin.
d- All of the above.

:Vasopressine is used for the treatment of -43

a- Diabetes insipidus (used in bleeding oesophageal varices)

b- Diabetes mellitus type I.
c- Diabetes mellitus type II.
d- Hypertension.
49

:Enalapril is the prodrug of -44

.Enalaprilate

:Which one is prodrug -45

a- Pivampicillin.
b- Erythromycin.
c- Ampicillin.

.ml normal saline 0.9% contains 4.5 gm. Nacl 500 -46

misoprostol [cytotec = prostaglandin] inhibits gastric acid by blocking -47

:hydrogen-potassium adenosine triphosphate enzyme system [ATP] of gastric cell
a- True
b- False.

:Cytotec is [misoprostol] -48

a- Used for gastric & duodenal ulcer.

b- Contraindicated in pregnancy.
c- Used for the upper respiratory tract infection.
d- A & B.

.Simvastatin is used for hypolipidemic action -49

.acetohexamide (one of silphonyl urea) is hypoglycemic -50

:One of the following should be avoided in pregnancy -51

a- Vitamin A.
b- Calcium.
c- Paracetamol.
d- Misoprostal.

?Which one of the following is contraindicated in pregnancy -52

a- Ciprofloxacin.
b- Ethambutol.
c- Chlorpheniramine.
d- Sucralfate.

?Which one of the following is not contraindicated in pregnancy -53

a- Methyldopa.
b- Enalapril. 49
c- Lisinopril.
d- Captopril.

:All these medications are used in the treatment of T.B. except -54

a- INH.
b- Rifampicin.
c- Cycloserin.
d- Cyclosporine.

:INH means -55

a- isoniazide.
b- Isonicotinic acid hydrazide.
c- A & B.

:The duration of treatment of T.B. by CTC is -56

a- One week.
b- Two week.
c- One month.
d- Six month & over.

:calcipotriol ( daivonex) is indicated for -57

a- Psoriasis.
b- Hypertension.
c- Calcium supplement.
d- Acne.

:Amantadine is used for all of the following except -58

a- Antiviral.
b- For influenza A.
c- Anti-parkinsonism.
d- For influenza B.

:All these drugs are antiviral except -59

a- amantadine.
b- Zidovudine.
c- Acyclovir.
d- Aluerin. (anti spasmodic, spasmonal)

:All are viral infection except -60

a- Hepatitis B.
b- Influenza.
c- Herpes zoster.
d- Riketssia.
49

:At the cardiac arrest (shock), the drug of choice is -61

a- Epinephrine [same adrenaline = a hormone produced by the adrenal

medulla on mammals].
b- Propranolol.
c- Hydrocortisone.
d- Saline solution.

:Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except -62

a- Ephedrine.
b- Lidocine.
c- Normal saline.
d- Propranolol.

:Drugs to pass B.B.B. should be -63

a- Unionized hydrophilic.
b- Ionized hydrophilic.
c- Unionized lipophilic.
d- Ionized lipophilic.

:chloramphenicol affects liver inhibitory enzyme, so -64

a- Decrease metabolism & increases response.

b- Decrease metabolism & decreases response.
c- Increase metabolism & increases response.
d- Increase metabolism & decreases response.

?Which one is an OTC drug -65

a- Simple analgesic.
b- Warfarin.
c- Ciprofloxacin.

?What is the most drug can cause damage if it is given OTC -66

a- Warfarin.
b- Captopril.
c- Chlorothiazide.
d- Rifampicin.

-67 49
:All are OTC drugs except

a- Biscodil
b- Aspirin.
c- Antacids.
d- Tegretol.

:All are non OTC drugs except -68

a- Bisacodyl.
b- Metformin.
c- Phenytoin.
d- Carbamazepine.

:All of these can be dispensed without prescription except -69

a- Aspirin.
b- Maalox.
c- Bisacodyl.
d- Tegretol.

:Morphine & morpin are similar in -70

a- Addiction.
b- Miosis.
c- Analgesic.
d- All of the above.

.Cytocin is one of the posterior pituitary hormones -71

:The concentration of the drug on expiration date is -72

a- From 90-110%.
b- Not less than 90%.
c- Not less than 100%.
d- None of the above.

:Surfactant not used orally -73

a- Na lauryl sulphate.
b- Tween.
c- Span.

:Phenylephrine is used for -74

a- Decongestant.
b- For runny nose.
c- Sympathomimmetics.
49
d- Vasoconstrictor and pressor (raise blood pressure).
e- All of the above.

:Oxytocin produces all the following except -75

a- Mammalian glands stimulation.

b- Uterine stimulation.
c- Labor induction.
d- Progesterone release.

:Binding to plasma protein -76

a- Increases half life.

b- Decreases half life.
 :New & best therapy for peptic ulcer is -77

a- Four medicines including antibiotic.

b- Use more than H2 antagonist.
c- Antacid + H2 antagonist.

:in case of osteoarthritis & peptic ulcer of elderly patients use -78

a- Paracetamol.
b- Strong NSAIDs.
c- Aspirin.

:Suprax is -79

a- Cefixime.
b- Itraconazole.

?Which one is sporanox -80

a- Itraconazole, (antifungal).
b- Miconazole.
c- Econazole.
d- Clotrimazole.

:All these can be used in leprosy except -81

a- Dapsone. [The drug of choice in leprosy].

b- Rifampicin.
c- Clofazimine.
d- I.N.H.

:Betahistine dihydrochloride -82

a- Antihistaminic.
49
b- Meniere,s disease.
c- Analgesic.
d- A & B.

:Maximum use of paracetemol is -83

a- 4 gm in 24 hours.
b- 7.5 gm in 8 hours.
c- 7.5 gm in 4 hours.
d- 7.5 gm in 48 hours.

:Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonista -84

a- Acts centrally by blocking chemoreceptor trigger zone.
b- Acts peripherally.
c- Has an anti-emetic effect.
d- All of the above.

:Cyproteron (Androcur) is used for -85

.Increasing the sexual abilities

?Immunocompetent means -86

.Control resistant to infections

?Immunocompromised means -87

.Low resistant to infections

:Voltaren Emulgel is -88

a- Dicolfenac Diethlamine.
b- Diclofenac sodium.
c- Diclofenac potassium.

:Pneumocystis Carini Pneumonia [PCP] is -89

a- Parasite.
b- Virus.
c- Bacteria.
d- Mycobacterium.

?Which one the following is not antibiotic -90

a- Erythromycin.
b- Cefprozil.
c- Ceprodoxin.
d- Finasteride.
49
?Which one of the following is used in Benign prostatic hyperplasia [BPHP]
-91

a- Finasteride, (proscar).
b- Flumazenil.
c- Cefprozil.
d- Mevacurim.

:Indication(s) of Allopurinol is (are) -92

a- Prophylaxis of gout.
b- Treatment of uric acid and co-oxalate renal stones.
c- A & B.
 :Otrivin is -93

a- Xylometazolinel.
b- Phynylepherine.

?Which one of the following is not mucolytic -94

a- Bromhexine.
b- Carbocisteine.
c- Ambroxol.
d- Guaifenesin.
e- Dextromethorphan.

?Which one is Antiplatelet -95

a- Ticlopidine hydrochloride.
b- Aldesleukin.
c- Desflurane.
d- Atovaquone.

:Ticlopidine is used as -96

a- Antiplatelet.
b- Antibiotic.
c- Anticholinergic.
d- Anti-coagulant.

.All these drugs are fibrinoltic except -97

a- Urokinase.
b- Anistreplase.
c- Streptokinase.
d- Dipyridamole.
49

:All these are anti-platelets except -98

a- Aspirin.
b- Dipyridamol.
c- Presentin.
d- Ticlopidine.
e- Streptokinase.

:All these are anti-coagulant except -99

a- Warfarin.
b- Ancord.
c- Heparin.
d- Dipyridamole (antiplatelet).

:Anti-coagulant effect of warfarin is decreased by -100

a- Aspirin.
b- Rifampicin.
c- Vitamin K.
d- Verapamil.

.Aspirin is recommended with one of the following -101

a- Anti-coagulant.
b- Chicken pox.
c- Influenza symptoms.
d- Dysmenorrhea.

?Which one is not oral anti-coagulant -102

a- Warfarin.
b- Nicoumolone.
c- Phenidione.
d- Enoxaprine, (deep vein thrombosis)

:Enoxprine (I.V. anti-coagulant) is taken every -103

.hours 6

Phenobarbitone induces liver microsomal enzymes, when taken with -104

:warfarin anti-coagulant leads to

a- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes.

.So decreases the activity of warfarin
b- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes.
.So increases the activity of warfarin
49
c- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes.
.So increases the activity of warfarin
d- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes.
.So decreases the activity of warfarin

:Drug which increases the action of warfarin is -105

a- Carbimazole.
b- Oral contraceptive.
c- Phenobarbitone.
d- None of the above.

:Drug which decreases [antidote] the action of warfarin is -106

a- Carbimazole.
b- Oral contraceptive.
c- Phenobarbitone.
d- Vitamin K.

?Which one of the following is an enzyme inducer -107

a- Rifampicin.
b- Cimetidine.
c- Chloramphenicol.
d- Vitamin C.

?Which one reduces the metabolism of other drugs in the liver -108

a- Rifampicin.
b- Vitamin C.
c- Cimetidine.
d- Metrinidazole.

?Which one induces the metabolism of other drugs in the liver -109

a- Rifampicin.
b- Vitamin C.
c- Cimetdine.
d- Metronidazole.

.Give the antidote of each of the following drugs -110

.-Protomin Zinc Heparin

.-Acytylcystiene Paracetamol
.-Vitamin K Warfarin
.-Desferroxamine (chelating agent) Iron
.-Na thiosulphate Cyanide
.-Pencillamine Copper & Lead
-Dimercaprol. (organic compound) Heavy metals
.-Dextrose Insulin & oral hypoglycemic 49


.-Protamine sulphate Digoxine
.-Noloxone Opioid
.-Naloxone Morphine

:To prevent more toxicity of digoxin we use antidote which is -111

a- Digbind.
b- Digotoxin.
c- Charcoal.
d- Saline.

:The antidote of heparin available in fish is -112

.Protamin sulphate

:Hepatotoxicity is induced due to these drugs except -113

a- Rifampicin.
b- Ketoconazole.
c- Quinolones.
d- Dipyridamole.

:Give an example of a drug inducing hepatotoxicity -114

a- Paracetamol.
b- Ketoconazole.
c- Rifampicin.
d- Quinolones.

:The cause of death in morphine toxicity is -115

a- Respiratory failure.
b- Heart block.
c- A-V block.

:To prevent more absorption of the toxic drug we use -116

a- Charcoal.
b- Water.
c- Salt solution.
d- Saline.

:The common side effect of sulphonylurea is -117

a- Hypoglycemia.
b- GIT upset.
49
c- Thyrotoxicosis.
d- All of the above.

:The side effects of insulin are -118

a- Local reaction.(urticaria)
b- Hypoglycemia.
c- Fat dystrophy at the side of injection.
d- All of the above.

:One of the following is the main side effect of insulin -119

a- Hypoglycemia.
b- Fluid retention.
c- Hyperglycemia.
d- All of the above.

:Pseudomembranous colitis is a side effect of -120

a- Clindamycin.
b- Vancomycin.
c- Reserpine.
d- INH.

:All these are side effects of chloramphenicol except -121

a- Irreversible a plastic anemia.

b- Optic neuritis.
c- Peripheral neuritis.
d- Iron deficiency anemia.

:All of these are corticosteroids except -122

a- Methyl prednisolone.
b- Prednisolone.
c- Triamcinolone.
d- Beclomethasone.
e- Dexamethasone.
f- Ondansteron [5HT3 receptor antagonist, anti emetic].

:All of these are anti-neoplastics except -123

a- Aldesleukin.
b- Teniposide.
c- Pentostatin.
d- Amlodipine.

:All of these are antimetabolites (cytotoxic) except -124

a- Methotrexate.
49
b- Cytarabin.
c- Azathioprine.
d- Mercaptopurine.
e- Fluorouracil.
f- Cyclophosphamide.

.Levodopa is used with Carbidopa for the treatment of Parkinsonism -125

 :All of these are true for Levodopa except -126

a- Precursor of dopamine.
b- Stimulates dopamine.
c- Effective in Parkinsonism.
d- Does not pass B.B.B.

:Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used as -127

a- Antihistaminic.
b- Antidepressant.
c- Antihypertensive.
d- Anti-emetic.

:Fluoxatine (Prozac) is -128

a- SSRI antidepressant.
b- Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor.
c- A & B.

:Ondansetron HCI is used for -129

a- Emecis.
b- Anagina pectoris.
c- Prophelaxis of migraine.
d- Hypertension.

?Which one is not 5 HT3 antagonists -130

a- Tropisetron.
b- Ondansetron.
c- Granisetron.
d- Domjperidone, (peripheral dopamine receptor antagonist)

:The drug of choice for febrile convulsion in children is -131

.Diazepam 250 microgram / Kg

49

?Which one is correct -132

a- Diazepam is not used for long time.

b- Diazepam is taken I.M. only.
c- Diazepam is derived from morphine.
d- Diazepam can cause muscle spasm.

:Drug of choice in status Epilepticus is -133

.Diazepam

:The following are the indications of Diazepam, except -134

a- Antipsychotic.
b- Epilepsy.
c- Hypnotic.
d- Headache.

:All the following used in treatment of anxiety except -135

a- Propranolol.
b- Diazepam.
c- Mebrobamate.
d- Homotropine.

:All of these are anti-parkinsonism except -136

a- Amantadine.
b- Bromocriptine.
c- Selegitine HCL.
d- Lysuride.
e- Pergolide.
f- Levodopa.
g- Primidone.

:All these drugs can be used for Parkinsonism except -137

a- Selgitine HCL.
b- Carbidopa.
c- Pergolide.
d- Nedocramil sodium.

:One of the following is not used for epilepsy -138

a- Clorizepam.
b- Phenytoin.
49
c- Primidone.
d- Imipramine.

:All the following used in epilepsy except -139

a- Sodium valproate.
b- Carbamazepine.
c- Phenytoin.
d- Nedocromil sodium (tilade inhaler).

:One of the following not used in epilepsy -140

a- Clonazepam.
b- Phenytoin.
c- Primidone.
d- Imipramine (tricyclic antidepressant).

:All of the following are controlled drugs except -141

a- Rivotril.
b- Stesolid.
c- Carbamazepine.
d- Barbiturates.
e- Diazepam.
f- Primidon.
g- Epanutin.
h- Imipenem.
i- G & H.

:Controlled drugs present in pharmacy are -142

.In tightly closed shelves

:Give the name of -143

.-Thiamine HCI Vitamin B1

.-Riboflavin Vitamin B2
-Niacine Vitamin B3
.-Panthothenic acid Vitamin B5
.-Pyridoxine HCI Vitamin B6
.-Folic acid Vitamin B9
.-Cyanocobalamine Vitamin B12
:Zidovudine is used for -144

a- HIV.
b- AIDS.
c- P.U.
d- A & B.

.There is one drug used for HIV -145

49
a- Zaloltabin.
b- Kinasterdin.
c- Cefaproxil.
d- Enoxacin.
 :Omprazole -146

a- Acts as proton pump inhibitor.

b- Blocks the hydrogen-potassium ATP enzyme system.
c- A & B.

:M.M.R. vaccine is -147

a- Measles-Mumps-Rubella V.
b- Measles-Mumps-Rabies V.
c- Meningococcal polysaccharide-Measles-Rubella V.

:Hepatitis vaccine does is -148

a- Three times / year.

b- Twice / year.
c- Once / year.

.Maximum dose of captopril is 150 mg / day -149

:Schedule of immunization of HBV is -150

a- Single does.
b- Two dose.
c- Three dose.
d- Five days.

:Maximum recommended dose of Ibuprofen is -151

a- 800.
b- 1600.
c- 2400.
d- 3000.

:Child of 10 Kg. paracetamol dose for him is -152

a- 100-150 mg. / 4-6 hours.

b- 125-250 mg. / 4-6 hours.
c- 250-500 mg. / 4-6 hours.

.Maximum dose of Paracetamol is 4 mg. / day -153

49

:Maximum dose of Diclofenac sodium is -154
a- 50 mg.
b- 75 mg.
c- 100 mg.
d- None of the above.

Vitamin A daily dose for the correction of deficiency -155

.Is 30,000 50,000 IU
Vitamin A daily dose for therapy
.Is 100,000 200,000 IU

:Insulin which can be given I.V. is -156

a- Regular type.
b- 30 / 70 type.
c- NPH type.
d- None of the above.

:One of the following insulin is given once daily -157

a- Protamine zinc insulin.

b- Amorphous insulin.
c- Neutral insulin.
d- Regular insulin.

:Source of human insulin is E-coli by -158

a- Biosynthetically by recombinant DNA technology using E-coli.

b- Semi synthetically by enzymatic modification of protein material.
c- A & B are correct.

:When you store drug at low temperature you must consider the following -159

a- Storage of dusting powder below 00C

.causes the accumulation of granules
.b- Storage of cream & ointment below 50C causes cracking
.c- Storage of insulin below 00C causes aggregation of insulin
.d- All of above

:Insulin is preserved at -160

.80C 2

:Drug is used for Leishmania -161

a- Na stiboglyconate.
b- Na cromoglyconate.
c- Mebendazole.

:All these drugs are antibacterial except -162 49

a- Cefprazone.
b- Lomifloxacin.
c- Zalcitabine.

:All these are natural estrogens except -163

a- Estradiol.
b- Estrone.
c- Estriol.
d- Mestronol (androgen).

:Estrogen -164

a- Reduces the incidence of coronary diseases in postmenopausal women.

b- Can be taken for life time.
c- Are ineffective when taken orally.

:Co-trimethoxazole contains -165

.Trimethoprim + sulphmethoxazole

?Which is not from quinolone group -166

a- Nalidixic acid.
b- Eoxacin.
c- Norfloxacin.
d- Ciprofloxacin.
e- Ciprofloxacin. [fluroquinolones]
f- Ofloxacin.
g- Sparfloxacin. Lemofloxacin.
h- Aminosidine.
i- Quinine. [antimalarial]
j- H & I.

:Quinolones are contraindicated in children because -167

a- Affect joints.
b- Affect liver.
c- Do not affect children.

:Sumatriptan is used for -168

a- Treatment of migraine and headache.

b- Angina pectoris.
c- Control of epilepsy. 49
d- Hypertension
 :All of the following for prophylaxis if asthma except -169

a- Ketotifen.
b- Nedocromil sodium.
c- Sodium cromoglycate.
d- Salbutamol. (for treatment only)

:All of the following are NSAH (nonsedating antihistamin) except -170

a- Loratidine.
b- Cetrizine.
c- Astemizole.
d- Azotodin.

?Which one of these symptoms does not occur with morphine -171

a- Respiratory depression.
b- Constipation.
c- Vomiting.
d- Diarrhea.

?Which one of these drugs is not used for acute pain -172

a- Naproxen.
b- Clochicine.
c- Ibuprofen.
d- Codeine.
e- Prednisolone.

Which one of these drugs is drugs of choice for Myxodema -173

?(hypothyroidism)

a- Thyroxin sodium.
b- Carbimazole.
c- Iodine.
d- Propyl thiouracil.

.Benzyl peroxide is a local treatment for acne vulgaris -174

:The drug of choice for treatment of amoebae is -175

a- Metronidazole.
b- Chloramphenicol.
c- Gentamycin.
d- Tetracycline.

:The steady state concentration of the drug in the plasma depends on -176

a- Direct proportion to the rate of elimination.

49

b- Indirect proportion to the rate of elimination.
c- Direct proportion to the rate of administration.
d- Indirect proportion to the rate of administration.

?What is the mechanism of action of vitamin K -177

Vitamin K has an essential role in the synthesis of coagulation factors by

.hepatic cells, and increases formation of clotting factors

:Elimination of digoxin is mainly by -178

a- Kidney.
b- Liver.
c- A & b.
d- None of the above.

.Drug physical dependence is as same as drug abuse -179

a- True.
b- False.

?What is difference between the following antifungals -180

.= Local & systemic Terbinafine

.= Local & systemic Miconazole
.= Parentral only Amphotercin
.= Oral Griseofulvin

:Terbinafine is used topically for -181

a- Fungal infection.
b- Eczema.
c- Candida sp.
d- None of the above.

:Amiloride as a treatment causes -182

a- Hyperkalaemia.
b- Hypokalaemia.
c- CNS disturbance.

:Moduretic is a combination between -183

.Amiloride + hydrochlorothiazide

:Give the indication of the following drugs -184

.= for hyperlipidaemia Gimfibrazole

49

 .= for gastro-oesphegyal reflux Cisapride
= SSRI as sedative serotonin reuptake Fluxetin
= Inhibitor
.= hyperthyroidism Carbimazole
.= tricyclic antidepressant Imipramine
.= anti muscarinic as bronchodilator Ipratropium bromide

:Cefaclor is -185

a- 1st generation cepharosporins.

b- 2nd generation cepharosporins.
c- 3rd generation cepharosporins.

:Teicoplanin antibiotic has similar effect on gram positive bacteria as -186

a- Vancomycin.
b- Jamicain.
c- Gentamycin.
d- Kanamycine.

?Which one is not tetracycline -187

a- Minocycline.
b- Demeclocycline.
c- Doxicycline.
d- Clindamycin.

:Tetracycline with Ca & Mg -188

.Poorly absorbed compound from GIT

:Use of tetracycline in its expiry date make syndrome called -189

.Farconi syndrome

Tetracycline when taken with minerals such as calcium, iron and aluminium -190
:forms a chelate which is

a- Inactive & poorly absorbed.

b- Active & poorly absorbed
c- Inactive & not absorbed
d- Active & absorbed.

?Which is not true with tetracycline -191

a- Broad spectrum bacteriostatic.

b- Used for acne.
c- Inhibits protein snthesis.
d- Broad spectrum bactericidal.
 Mesalazine is used for the treatment and maintenance of remission of -192
.ulcerative colitis

.Mention four lipid soluble vitamins -193

.Vitamin A, D, E and K

49
Imipenam (carbapenam) -194

.It is the first thiemamycin - lactam antibiotic

:All of these are antibiotics except -195

a- Cefopodoxin.
b- Cefaprozil.
c- Loefloxocin.
d- Zaloltabin.

Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist acts centrally by blocking -196

chemo-receptor Trigger zone & peripherally acts on GIT to be used as anti-
.emetic

?What is the definition of Bioavailability of the drug -197

Is the quantity of the active constituent of the drug absorbed by the blood
?through the intestine or any other route in a certain period of time

OR: Is the concentration of the drug in the blood in a ascertain period of

.time

:Bioavailability of the drug is -198

a- Rate of absorption.
b- Extent of absorption.
c- Rate & extent.

:Biotransformation is -199

a- More lipids soluble.

b- Less lipids soluble.

:Omeprazole is -200

Losec (proton pump inhibitor)

:Mention two diseases cause Edema -201

a- Renal failure.
b- Congestive heart failure.

49

:Example of drug-drug interaction -202

.- Aspirin a- Warfarin
- Phenobarbital b- Warfarin
- Vitamin K c- Warfarin
- Phenobarbital d- Warfarin
- Insulin e- Heparin
- Insulin g- INH
- Spironolactone h- Digoxin
.- Potassium sparing K i- ACEI

:All of these are the components of calamine lotion B.P. except -203

a- ZnO.
b- Calamine.
c- Sodium citrate.
d- Bentonite.
e- Sodium sulphate.

:All of these are third generation cephalosporins except -204

a- Cefixime.
b- Cefopodoxime.
c- Ceftraxone.
d- Cefotaxime.
e- None of the above.

?Which one is not benzodiazepine -205

a- Temazepam.
b- Nitrozepam.
c- Loprazolam.
d- Clozapine.

:Oral rehydrate solution is one of the following -206

a- NaCl + K citrate + Na citrate + glucose.

b- Na citrate + KCl + NaCl.
c- Na citrate + KCl + NaCl.
d- NaCl + KCl + NaHCO3 + citric acid.

:For hyperlipidemia we use -207

 .Gemfibrozile

:Gemfibrozile -208

a- Increases HDL & decrease triglysrides.

b- Increases HDL & triglysrides
49
c- Increases HDL & LDL.
d- Increases LDL & triglysrides.

:Drugs need monitor for their serum lavel -209

Amikacin
Warfarin
Theophyline
.Digoxin

:For fluxacillin, all these statements are wrong except -210

a- It is better absorbed than Cloxacillin.

b- It is taken by oral route only.
c- It is activated by penicillinase enzyme.
d- It is base stable.

What are the instruction for the patient take Metamucil or any other bulk -211
?foaming laxative as Bran, methyl cellulose and psyllum

The adequate fluid intake should be maintained to avoid intestinal

.obstruction

.Mention drugs from HMG-CoA-reductase inhibitor -212

.Simvastatin, Provastatin and Fluvastatin

:HMG-CoA-reductase inhibitor is -213

.hydroxy, 3 Methyl Glutoryl CoA reductase inhibitor 3

:Caciferol is -214

a- 1.25 dihydroxy calciferol.

b- 1.2 dihydroxy calciferol
c- 2.3 dihydroxy calciferol.
d- None of the above.

:Pharmacodynamic means -215

a- Physiological and biochemical effect of the DRUG on the BODY.

b- Physiological and biochemical effect of the BODY on the DRUG.
c- None of the above.

:Pharmacokynetic means -216

a- Physiological and biochemical effect of the DRUG on the BODY.

b- Physiological and biochemical effect of the BODY on the DRUG.
c- None of the above.

:Sympathomimetic drugs -217

49
a- Increase blood pressure.
b- Increase coronary flow.
c- Increase heart rate.
d- All of the above.

:Bactrim (co-trimazole ) is -218

a- Trimethoprim + sulphamethoxasole.
b- Trimethaprim + sulphonylurea.

:The most common chemical structure of iron in drug is -219

.Ferrograd (ferrous sulphate)

:Ferrograde is -220

a- Ferrous sulphate.
b- Ferrous citrate.
c- Ferrous gluconate.
d- Ferrous fumarate.

:Impenem (carbepenem) is -221

.First thienamycin -lactam antibiotic

:Isomack 20 mg tablets taken twice daily at time interval between -222

a- 8 am pm.
b- 11 am 11 pm.
c- 8 am 11 pm.
d- 11 am 8 pm.

:Valtrex is -223

.Acyclovir

:Keflex is -224

a- 1st generation cephalosporin.

b- 2nd generation cephalosporin
c- 3rd generation cephalosporin
d- 4th generation cephalosporin.

:Clonididne used in -225

a- Hypertension.
b- Hypotension.
c- None of the above.

:Micromedex is -226
49

.Computer system

In a bottle we have NaCl 500 ml, and to obtain we should add what volume -227
?of H2O to get percent dilution 3 (H2O) : 1 (NaCl)

a- 1500 ml.
b- 2500 ml.
c- 3000 ml.

:How much lidocaine for solution of 1/1000 to obtain 30 cc -228

a- 0.03.
b- 0.3.
c- 30.
d- None of the above.

:Grain equal -229

64.8

:When drug is used for U.T.I. it should be -230

a- G-ve.
b- G+ve.
c- BOTH.
d- None of the above.

:One of the following is not NSAID -231

a- Xefo.
b- Voltic.
c- Parafon.
d- None of the above.
 :One of the following has faster systemic action -232

a- I.V.
b- I.M.
c- S.C.

:Intrathecal means -233

.Interjoint (spinal cord)

:Patient having constipation not to take -234

.Morphine 49

:Natural emulsifying agent -235

.Gum acacia

:Olive oil + Water + Asq gives -236

a- Emulsion.
b- Solution.
c- Suppositories.

:Isoptin is present in market in concentration -237

.mg 80 & 240

:Isoptin is used in treatment of -238

.Supraventricular arrythi

:All of these are precautions of becotide except -239

.Used only at the attack of asthma

:Alcohol present in pharmacy as antiseptic is in concentration -240

70%

:Klacid is used every -241

.hours 12

:Intralipids are -242

.O/W emulsion

:Zantac contains -243

 .Ranitidine

?Which is present in balms or liniments & not used inburns -244

.Methyl Salicylate

.The drug of choice for head lice -245

a- Pyrithrins.
b- Imidazole.
c- DDT.
d- Primido.
49
:One of the following preparations used as optic drops for dewaxing -246

a- 5% glycerin bicarbonate.
b- 5% alcoholic bicarbonate.
c- Glycerin magnesia.
d- Glycerin phenol.

:Disulfiram is used for -247

a- Treatment of chronic alcohol dependence.

b- Protection of lover cells from alcoholism.
c- Prevention of conversion of acetaldehyde to acetic acid.
d- All of the above.

:The drug metabolism in the body occurs in -248

a- GIT & plasma.

b- Gut wall during absorption.
c- Gut wall during absorption & I plasma stream.
d- Liver, kidney and bowed mucosa.

:Protein bounds to drug forming a compound which is -249

a- Inactive while the free part is active.

b- Highly active while the free part is inactive.
c- Less active while the free part is active.
d- Active while the free part is more active.

:The drug transfers through cell membrane by -250

a- Aqueous diffusion.
b- Osmotic pressure.
c- Lipid dissolves.
d- None of the above.
e- A & B is correct.
 :Clonidine is used as -251

a- Antihypertensive.
b- A drug which prevents the recurrence of migraine.
c- A & B.
d- None of the above.

:New non-selective antihistamines act through -252

a- H1 antagonist.
b- H2 antagonist.
c- Muscarinic receptors.
d- 1 antagonist.
49
:Give an example of no sedating anti-histamines -253

.Loratidine Cetrizine Terfenadine

.Astemizole is a long acting non-sedating anti-histamine -254

:Atropine is used as pre-anaesthetic to -255

a- Decrease saliva.
b- Makesskeletal mscle relaxation as the effect of parasypathomimmetics.
c- Help the sleeping effect of anaesthesia.
d- Treat the side effect of anaesthesia.

:Metoclopramide gives anti-emetic effect through -256

a- Peripheral action.
b- Dopaminergic receptor.
c- Muscarinic receptors.
d- All of the above.

:All the following are macrolides except -257

a- Clarithromycin.
b- Roxithromycin.
c- Erythromycin.
d- Apiramycin.
e- Azithromycin.
f- Sisomycin.
g- Clindamycin.
h- F & G.

:Tilade inhaler generic name is -258

a- Azelastine HCl.
b- Budesonide.
c- Sodium cromoglycate.
d- Nedocromil sodium.

:The main use of metronidazole is -259

a- Anti amoebiasis.
b- Anthelmentic.
c- Antibiotic.
d- Antimalarial.

:All these are antibacterial except -260

a- Lomefloxacin.
b- Cefprozil.
c- Cefpodoxime. 49
d- Zalcitabine.

:The drug of choice in myxodema (hypothyroidism) -261

a- Thyroxin sodium.
b- Carbimazole.
c- Tadenn.
d- Propyl uracil.

:Benzyl peroxide is alcohol treatment for -262

a- Acne vulgaris.
b- Rheumatic pain.
c- Angina pectoris.
d- Dysmenorrheal.

:Telcoplanin antibiotic affect on G+ve bacteria similar to -263

a- Vancomycin.
b- Neomycin.
c- Gentamycin.
d- Kanamycin.

:All these are broad spectrum cephalosporin except -264

a- Cefexime.
b- Cefuroxime.
c- Cefotaxime.
d- Cefopodoxime.

:Aminoglycosides are -265

a- Tobramycin.
b- Kanamycin.
c- Neomycin.
d- Netilmicin.
e- Streptomycin.
f- Amikacin.
g- Aminosidine sulfate.
h- Sisomycin.

?Which aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally -266

a- Neomycin sulphate.
b- Gentamycin
c- Mikacin.
d- Tobramycin.
49
:Which one is not aminoglycoside -267

a- Netillmicin.
b- Tobramycin.
c- Kanamycin.
d- Lymecyclin.

:Give two side effects of aminoglycosides -268

.Nephrotoxicity ototoxicity

:Give an example of a frug inducing nephrotoxixity -269

.Aminoglycosides as Gentamycin

:Baclofen is used for -270

a- Antiseptic with spinal site of attack.

b- Tuberculosis.
c- Meningitis.
d- None of the above.

:Expectorants are -271

.Iodides
.Chlorides
.Bicarbonates
.Acetates
.Squil
.Guaiphenesin
.Ipecauanha
Creostesl
.Volatile oils
 :Praziquentel used for Billhariasis -272

a- Caused loss of intercellular calcium of the worm.

b- Has trade name Biltricide.
c- A & B.

:Acitretin is used for -273

a- Oral treatment of severe forms of psoriasis and disorders of keratinization.

b- Leprosy.
c- Tuberclosis.
d- None of the above.

?Which of the following has no vasodilating effect -274

a- Methyldopa.
b- Hydralazin.
49
c- Prazosin.
d- Enalapril.

Patient with G6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, the drug may cause -275
:haemolysis

a- Sulphonamide.
b- Paracetamol.
c- Pencillin.
d- Ketoconazole.

:G-6PD deficiency patients must not take -276

a- Cotrmazole (sulphonamide).
b- Pencillin.
c- Paracetamol.
d- Dexamethasone.

Pentobarbital (often used as pre medication in children) differs from -277

:phenobarbital in

a- Long duration.
b- Faster in action.

Glucocoticoids (any steroid hormone promotes gluconeogenesis, i.e. the -278

:formation of glucose and glycogen from protein) used in

a- Bronchial asthma.
b- Addison disease.
c- A & B.
d- None of the above.
 :Use of calcitonin -279

a- To lower plasma Ca concentration in some patients with hyper calcaemia

(excessive calcium in the blood.
b- Relieving some neurological complications e.g. deafness.
c- Treatment of Paget disease (hypercalcemia associated with pain).
d- All of the above.

:Generic and trade names of sulphonylurea -280

.= diabenase Chlorpropamide
.= Daonil & Euglucon Glibenclamide
49
= Diamicron Glicazide
= Minidiab Glipizide
.= Rastinone Tolbutamide
.= Dimilor Acetohexamide
.= Amaryl Glimipiride

:Generic and trade name of antispasmodic drugs -281

.= Buscopan & Scopinal Hyoscine N butyl bromide

.= Probanthine Propantheline bromide
.= Anternyl Oxyphenonium
.= Duspatalin Mebeverine HCl
.= Spamonal Alverine

:Generic and trade name of NSAIDs -282

.= Aspirin Acetyl salicylic acid

.= Brufen Ibuprofen
.= Voltaren Diclofenac sodium
.= Cinopal Fenbufen
.= Dolobid Diflunisal
.= Indocid, indogesic and Rothacin Indomethacin
.= Profenid Ketoprofen
.= Naprosyn Naproxen

.Generic and trade names of anti malarial drugs -283

.= Malarex & resochin Cloroquine

.= Primaquine Primaquine
 .= Pansidar Pyremethamine + Sulfadoxine

:List of the trade name of the following -284

.= Visken Pindolol
.= Lioresal Baclofen
.= Losec Omeprazole
.= Neotigasone Acitretin
.= Roaccutane Isotretinoin
.= Xenical Orlistat
.= Ipradol Hexoprenaline
.= Lynamine Khellin
49
.= Viagra Sildenafil
.= pondocillin Pivampicillin
.= Droxaryl Bufexamac
.= hydergine Codergocrin
.= Glucobay Acarbose

: Use of gentian violet (crystal violet) -285

a- Antiseptic.
b- Skin disinfectant.
c- All of the above.

:The concentration of crystal violet paint is -286

.according to B.P. 1980 2.5%

.according to U.S.P. 1985 1%

:Give six generic names of cough sedatives -287

.Codeine
.Dextromethorphan
.Phlocodein
.Methodone
.Morphine
.Isobarmiline

?What is the concentration of mercurochrome solution -288

.2%
 ?What is the difference between retard and entetic coated tablets -289

:Retard tablets
Are coated with a thin layer of different kind of coating agent
.which make the active constituent sustained release
:Enteric coated tablets
Are dissolved in the intestine and not affected by the stomach
juices e.g. anthelmentic. Passes the stomach & releases in the
.intestine

:Sustained release tablets depend on -290

.PH of stomach

:Controlled released drug delivery depends on -291

49
a- Ready programmed & no influence of the body fluid.
b- Enzymatic reactions.
c- Body fluid interaction.
d- Stomach Ph.

A child of weight 10 kg. Accidentally swallowed 10 tablets of aspirin and his -292
?father came to you, what can you advice him

a- Go to a hospital.
b- Give him a medicine.
c- Ignore the case.
d- None of the above.

A patient of 10 kg is given a paracetamol one teaspoonful every 4-6 hours, -293

:you should call the doctor to tell him

a- There is no need to call the doctor.

b- The dose must not exceed 180 mg daily.
c- The dose is not sufficient.
d- The dose is very high.

:Treatment with an anti arrhythmic drug depends on the following except -294

a- Patient sex.
b- Type of medication.
c- Period of medication.
d- Doctors advise.
 :When newly married don't want children, how to arrange -295

a- Arrange contraception.
b- Send the wife to the family doctor.
c- Send the wife to her mother.

:Pharmacy of central hospital is -296

a- Central pharmacy only.

b- Contains store.
c- All of the above.

:Patient take phenytoin and his hair be less growth. You advice him -297

a- Go to doctor.
b- Stop the drug.
c- Give him another drug.
d- This is normal side effect.

?Roaccutan is prescribed to patient who is women 22 years old, you ask -298 49

a- If she is pregnant.
b- Consult doctor.
c- Give her the drug directly with no questions.
d- None of theabove.

?What is the meaning of poor patient compliance -299

The patient did not take the medication properly (no proper dose, no proper
time) may be because the dose regimen is not easy or the dose is high or
the side effects
.are clear

.Patient dose not take medication as the physician's advice

If you have prescription containing Inderal & the patient is wheezing, what -300
is your
?advice

.Call the doctor

:Patient has hepatic disease & type II diabetics take -301

Rosiglitazone or piaglitazone (Avandia, Glustin)

 :SNF is an abbreviation for -302

a- Saudi national formulary.

b- Safe and nice formulary.
c- Seasonal national formulary.

?A patient has a prescription of Enalapril + KCL, what do you ask him -303

a- Which product of KCL do you need?

b- Do you take any other antihypertensive?
c- Do you need syrup or tablet?
d- None of the above.

?What is the meaning of the following -304

.= Prescription Only Medicine POM

.= Twice Daily BID
.= Electro Cardio Gram ECG
.= Glucose-6-Phosphate dehydogenase G.6.P.D.
.= British Pharmacopial Codex BPC

?What is difference between QID & Q6H -305

.QID = 4 times a day

.Q6H = every after 6 hours
49

 Considerable variation occurs in the use of capitalization, italicization and
The following list shows the abbreviations that are not often encountered by
comp. = compound, compounded
dil = dilute
D.C.,dc, or disc. = discontinue
disp. = dispense
div. = divide, to be divided
dl or dL = deciliter
d.t.d. = give of such doses
DW = distilled water
D5W = dextrose% in water
elix = elixir
e.m.p. = as directed
et = and
ex aq. = in water
fl or fld = fluid
fl oz = fluid ounce
ft = make
g or GM =gram
gal = gallon
GI = gastrointestinal
gr or gr = grain
Non rep. = do not repeat
NPO = nothing by mouth
N.S., NS = normal saline
NS = half-strength normal saline
O = pint
o.d. = right eye every day
o.I. or o.s. = left eye
OTC = over the counter
o.u. = each eye, both eye
oz. = ounce
p.c. = after meals
PDR = Physicians, Desk Reference
p.o. = by mouth
Ppt = precipitated
Pr = for rectum
Prn or p.r.n. = as needed
Pt. = pint
Pulv. = powder
Pv = vagenal use
q. = every
q.d. =every day
q.h. = every hour
.punctuation in abbreviations
:pharnacists
A, aa., or aa = of each
a.c. = before meals
ad = to, up to
a.d. = right ear
ad lib. At pleasure freely
a.m. = morning
amp. = ampoule
ante = before
aq. = water
a.s. = left ear
asa = aspirin
a.u. = each ear, both ears
b.i.d. = twice daily
BP = British pharmacopeia
BSA = body surface area
c.or c = with
cap or caps = capsule
cp = chest pain
D.A.W. described as written
Cc or cc. cubic centimeter
Gtt or gtt = drop, drops
H = hypodermic
49
h or hr. = hour
h.s. = at bed time
IM =intramuscular
Inj. = injection
IV = intervenous
IVP = intervenous push
IVPB = intervenous piggyback
K =POTASSIUM
I or L = litre
Lb = pound
= Greek mu
M = mix
2 2
M or m = square meter
Mcg, mcg or g = microgram
mEq = milliequivalent
mg = milligram
ml or Ml = milliliter
l or L = microlitre
N & V = nausea & vomiting
N.F. = National formulary
 q.4 hr. = every 4 hours Noct. = night, in the night

49 49