DATE : 18/05/2013 Test Booklet Code

W
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Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET-UG 2013 (Karnataka)
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(1)
1. The pair of quantities having same dimensions is FavVmax t 1 Vrms2
m
(1) Young's modulus and Energy 2 2 2
(2) Impulse and Surface Tension Fav = 8 N
(3) Angular momentum and Work 5. A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of
radius 10 m with a constant speed of 10 m/s. A bob
(4) Work and Torque is suspended from the roof of the car by a light wire
Answer (4) of length 1.0 m. The angle made by the wire with
Sol. [Work] = [Torque] = [M1L2T2] the vertical is

2. Vectors A, B and C are such that A B 0 and (1) 0 (2)
3

A C 0 . Then the vector parallel to A is (3) (4)
6 4
(1) B and C (2) A B Answer (4)

(3) B C (4) B C
v2 (10)2
Answer (4) Sol. tan 1
rg 10 10
Sol. Vector triple product
45
A (B C ) B( A C ) C( A B) 0 4
6. A particle with total energy E is moving in a
A//(B C ) potential energy region U(x). Motion of the particle
3. The displacement 'x' (in meter) of a particle of mass is restricted to the region when
'm' (in kg) moving in one dimension under the action (1) U(x) > E (2) U(x) < E
of a force, is related to time 't' (in sec) by t x 3 . (3) U(x) = O (4) U ( x ) E
The displacement of the particle when its velocity is Answer (4)
zero, will be
Sol. Kinetic energy 0
(1) 2 m (2) 4 m
U(x) E
(3) 0 m (zero) (4) 6 m
7. One coolie takes 1 minute to raise a suitcase
Answer (3) through a height of 2 m but the second coolie takes
Sol. x = (t 3)2 30 s to raise the same suitcase to the same height.
The powers of two coolies are in the ratio
v = 2(t 3) = 0
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3
t=3
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 1
x = 0.
Answer (1)
4. A person holding a rifle (mass of person and rifle
E
together is 100 kg) stands on a smooth surface and Sol. P
fires 10 shots horizontally, in 5 s. Each bullet has a t
mass of 10 g with a muzzle velocity of 800 ms1. The P1 t2 30s 1

final velocity acquired by the person and the P2 t1 1minute 2
average force exerted on the person are 8. Two discs are rotating about their axes, normal to
(1) 1.6 ms1; 8 N (2) 0.08 ms1; 16 N the discs and passing through the centres of the
discs. Disc D1 has 2 kg mass and 0.2 m radius and
(3) 0.8 ms1; 8 N (4) 1.6 ms1; 16 N
initial angular velocity of 50 rad s1. Disc D2 has 4kg
Answer (3) mass, 0.1 m radius and initial angular velocity of
Sol. MV + mnv = 0 200 rad s1. The two discs are brought in contact
face to face, with their axes of rotation coincident.
mNv 0.01 kg 10 800 m/s The final angular velocity (in rad.s1) of the system
V
M 100 is
= 0.8 m/s (1) 40 (2) 60
Average workdone = Change of average kinetic (3) 100 (4) 120
energy Answer (3)
1 2 I1 W1 I 2 W2
Fav Sav mVrms Sol. W f 100 rads1 .
2 I1 I2

(2)
9. The ratio of radii of gyration of a circular ring and 12. If the ratio of diameters, lengths and Young's
a circular disc, of the same mass and radius, about modulus of steel and copper wires shown in the
an axis passing through their centres and figure are p, q and s respectively, then the
perpendicular to their planes are corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths
would be
(1) 2 :1 (2) 1 : 2
steel
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
2m
Answer (1)
copper
2
K1 I1 MR 5m
Sol. 2 :1.
K2 I2 MR 2
7q 5q
2 (1) (5sp) (2)
(7 sp 2 )
10. The radius of a planet is twice the radius of earth.
Both have almost equal average mass-densities. If 7q 2q
VP and VE are escape velocities of the planet and the (3) (5sp2 ) (4) (5sp)
earth, respectively, then
Answer (3)
(1) VE = 1.5VP (2) VP = 1.5VE
(3) VP = 2VE (4) VE = 3VP FL 4 FL
Sol. L
AY D2Y
Answer (3)
2
8 LS FS DC YC LS
Sol. Ve R GP
3 LC FC DS YS LC

Ve R 2
7 1 1
q
VP RP 5 p s
2
VE RE
7q
VP = 2VE. .
5 p2s
11. A particle of mass 'm' is kept at rest at a height 3R
from the surface of earth, where 'R' is radius of earth 13. A fluid is in streamline flow across a horizontal
and 'M' is mass of earth. The minimum speed with pipe of variable area of cross section. For this which
which it should be projected, so that it does not of the following statements is correct?
return back, is (1) The velocity is minimum at the narrowest part
(g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of of the pipe and the pressure is minimum at the
earth) widest part of the pipe
(2) The velocity is maximum at the narrowest part
1 1
GM 2 GM 2 of the pipe and pressure is maximum at the
(1) (2) widest part of the pipe
R 2R
(3) Velocity and pressure both are maximum at the
1 1
narrowest part of the pipe
gR 2 2g 2
(3) (4)
4 R (4) Velocity and pressure both are maximum at the
widest part of the pipe
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
1
1 2
2 GM 2 GM 2 GM GM 2 Sol. P v constant and Av = constant
Sol. Ve . 2
r Rh 4R 2R
If A is minimum, v is maximum, P is minimum.

(3)
14. The density of water at 20C is 998 kg/m3 and at Sol. Qadc U adc Wadc
40C 992 kg/m 3 . The coefficient of volume
expansion of water is 50 J = Uadc + 20 J
(1) 104/C (2) 3 104/C Uadc = 30 J
(3) 2 104/C (4) 6 104/C Again, Qabc = Uabc + Wabc
Answer (2) Wabc = Qabc Uabc
= Qabc Uadc
m
Sol. = 36 J 30 J
V
=6J
V
17. Which of the following relations does not give the
V
equation of an adiabatic process, where terms have
V their usual meaning?

V
(1) P.T1 = constant (2) P1T = constant
1 V 1 (3) PV = constant (4) TV1 = constant

V t t
Answer (1)
6
3 10 4 / C Sol. Adiabatic equations of state are
995 20
15. Two metal rods 1 and 2 of same lengths have same PV = constant
temperature difference between their ends. Their TV1 = constant
thermal conductivities are K1 and K2 and cross
TP1 = constant.
sectional areas A1 and A2, respectively. If the rate of
heat conduction in 1 is four times that in 2, then 18. Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series.
(1) K1A1 = K2A2 (2) K1A1 = 4K2A2 The engine A receives heat from the source at
temperature T1 and rejects the heat to the sink at
(3) K1A1 = 2K2A2 (4) 4K1A1 = K2A2 temperature T. The second engine B receives the
Answer (2) heat at temperature T and rejects to its sink at
Sol. Q1 = 4Q2 temperature T2. For what value of T the efficiencies
of the two engines are equal?
K1 A1 t K A t
4 2 2
L L T1 T2 T1 T2
(1) (2)
K1A1 = 4K2A2. 2 2
16. A system is taken from state a to state c by two
(3) T1T2 (4) T1T2
paths adc and abc as shown in the figure. The
internal energy at a is Ua = 10 J. Along the path adc Answer (4)
the amount of heat absorbed Q1 = 50 J and the
work obtained W1 = 20 J whereas along the path T T2
Sol. 1 1 T , 2 1
abc the heat absorbed Q2 = 36 J. The amount of 1 T
work along the path abc is
Here, 1 = 2
d c T T2

T1 T

T T1T2 .
P
19. In a vessel, the gas is at a pressure P. If the mass of
a b all the molecules is halved and their speed is
doubled, then the resultant pressure will be
V
(1) 6 J (2) 10 J (1) 4P (2) 2P
(3) 12 J (4) 36 J (3) P (4) P/2
Answer (1) Answer (2)

(4)
 1 mn 2 f v
Sol. P Vrms Sol.
3 V f C

1 m n
P' (2 vrms )2 (Beats)/2 v
3 2 V
f C
= 2 P.
20. A particle of mass m oscillates along x-axis 2 fV
Beats 4.
according to equation x = a sin t. The nature of the C
graph between momentum and displacement of the
23. A charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining
particle is
two equal charges Q. The system of the three
(1) Straight line passing through origin charges will be in equilibrium if q is equal to
(2) Circle (1) Q/2 (2) Q/4
(3) Hyperbola (3) Q/4 (4) Q/2
(4) Ellipse Answer (2)
Answer (4) Sol. Net force on Q = 0.
Sol. P versus x graph is similar to that V versus x graph. q
21. The length of the wire between two ends of a Q Q
sonometer is 100 cm. What should be the positions
of two bridges below the wire so that the three KQq KQ 2
segments of the wire have their fundamental 0
(r /2)2 r2
frequencies in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5?

1500 2000 1500 500 Q

(1) cm, cm (2) cm, cm q .
23 23 23 23 4
24. An electric dipole of dipole moment p is aligned
1500 300 300 1500
(3) cm, cm (4) cm, cm parallel to a uniform electric field E. The energy
23 23 23 23
required to rotate the dipole by 90 is
Answer (1)
(1) pE2 (2) p2E

1 T (3) pE (4) Infinity

Sol. f
x m Answer (3)
Sol. W = Uf Ui = (pEcos90) (PEcos0) = pE.
1
l 25. A 12 cm wire is given a shape of a right angled
f
triangle ABC having sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm as
shown in the figure. The resistance between two
1 1 1 ends (AB, BC, CA) of the respective sides are
l1 : l2 : l3 : :
f1 f 2 f 3 measured one by one by a multi-meter. The
resistances will be in the ratio
f 2 f3 : f 1 f 3 : f 1 f 2
A
= 15 : 5 : 3
22. Two sources P and Q produce notes of frequency
660 Hz each. A listener moves from P to Q with a 3 cm 5 cm
speed of 1 ms1. If the speed of sound is 330 m/s,
then the number of beats heard by the listener per
B C
second will be 4 cm
(1) Zero (2) 4 (1) 3 : 4 : 5 (2) 9 : 16 : 25
(3) 8 (4) 2 (3) 27 : 32 : 35 (4) 21 : 24 : 25
Answer (2) Answer (3)

(5)
 28. A long straight wire carries a certain current and
3 (4 5) 27
Sol. RAB =
3 (4 5) 12 Weber
produces a magnetic field 2 10 4 at a
m2
4 (3 5) 32 perpendicular distance of 5 cm from the wire. An
RBC = electron situated at 5 cm from the wire moves with
4 (3 5) 12
a velocity 10 7 m/s towards the wire along
perpendicular to it. The force experienced by the
5 (3 4) 35 electron will be (charge on electron 1.6 1019 C)
RAC =
5 (3 4) 12
(1) Zero (2) 3.2 N
RAB : RBC : RAC = 27 : 32 : 35 (3) 3.2 1016 N (4) 1.6 1016 N
26. Two rods are joined end to end, as shown. Both Answer (3)
have a cross-sectional area of 0.01 cm2 . Each is Sol. F = qvB sin 90
1 meter long. One rod is a copper with a resistivity
= 1.6 1019 107 2 104
of 1.7 106 ohm-centimeter, the other is of iron
with a resistivity of 105 ohm-centimeter. = 3.2 1016 N
How much voltage is required to produce a current 29. A circular coil ABCD carrying a current i is placed
of 1 ampere in the rods? in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic force on

V the segment AB is F , the force on the remaining
segment BCDA is
A
i

D B

Cu Fe
(1) 0.117 V (2) 0.00145 V C

(3) 0.0145 V (4) 1.7 106 V (1) F (2) F

Answer (1) (3) 3 F (4) 3 F
Answer (2)
l
Sol. V = RI = RCu + RFe = (1 + 2) Sol. FAB FBCDA 0 FBCDA FAB F
A

= (1.7 106 102 + 105 102) 0.01 104 volt 30. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is placed at
right angles to a magnetic induction B. If a force F
= 0.117 volt is experienced by each pole of the magnet, the length
27. Ten identical cells connected in series are needed to of the magnet will be
heat a wire of length one meter and radius 'r' by (1) F/MB (2) MB/F
10C in time 't'. How many cells will be required to
(3) BF/M (4) MF/B
heat the wire of length two meter of the same radius
by the same temperature in time 't'? Answer (2)

(1) 10 (2) 20 MB
Sol. FL = MB L =
F
(3) 30 (4) 40
31. A current of 2.5 A flows through a coil of
Answer (2) inductance 5 H. The magnetic flux linked with the
coil is
(10E)2 (nE)2 t
Sol. We have t mST , Now (2m)ST
R 2R (1) 2 Wb (2) 0.5 Wb

n2 E2 t 102 E 2 t (3) 12.5 Wb (4) Zero

2
2R R Answer (3)
n = 20 Sol. = LI = 5 2.5 Wb = 12.5 Wb

(6)
32. The primary of a transformer when connected to a
dc battery of 10 volt draws a current of 1 mA. The
number of turns of the primary and secondary
windings are 50 and 100 respectively. The voltage
in the secondary and the current drawn by the
circuit in the secondary are respectively
(1) 20 V and 0.5 mA
(2) 20 V and 2.0 mA
(3) 10 V and 0.5 mA
(4) Zero volt and therefore no current
36. How does the Binding Energy per nucleon vary
with the increase in the number of nucleons?
(1) Increases continuously with mass number
(2) Decrease continuously with mass number
(3) First decreases and then increases with increase
in mass number
(4) First increases and then decreases with increase
in mass number
Answer (4)

Answer (4)
BE/A
Sol. DC source so No mutual induction between coils
E2 = 0 and I2 = 0
33. An electromagnetic wave of frequency = 3.0 MHz Sol.
passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with
A
relative permittivity = 4.0. Then
(1) Wavelength is doubled and frequency 37. A source of light is placed at a distance of 50 cm
unchanged from a photo cell and the stopping potential is found
(2) Wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes to be V0. If the distance between the light source and
half photo cell is made 25 cm, the new stopping
potential will be
(3) Wavelength is halved and frequency remains
unchanged (1) 2V0 (2) V0/2
(4) Wavelength and frequency both remain (3) V0 (4) 4V0
unchanged
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
Sol. Stopping potential is independent of distance
Sol. f = 2MHz, r = 4
38. The de-Broglie wavelength of neutrons in thermal
c
c equilibrium at temperature T is
v '
r 2 2
30.8 3.08
34. An electron in hydrogen atom makes a transition n1 (1) (2)
T T
n 2 where n 1 and n 2 are principal quantum
numbers of the two states. Assuming Bohr's model 0.308 0.0308
(3) (4)
to be valid the time period of the electron in the T T
initial state is eight times that in the final state. The Answer (1)
possible values of n1 and n2 are
(1) n1 = 4 and n2 = 2 (2) n1 = 6 and n2 = 2 h 6.63 1034
Sol. m
(3) n1 = 8 and n2 = 1 (4) n1 = 8 and n2 = 2 2mKT 2 1.67 10 27 1.38 1023 T
Answer (1)
Sol. T n3 30.8
=
T
35. -particles, -particles and -rays are all having
same energy. Their penetrating power in a given 39. Two plane mirrors are inclined at 70. A ray
medium in increasing order will be incident on one mirror at angle after reflection falls
(1) , , (2) , , on second mirror and is reflected from there parallel
to first mirror. The value of is
(3) , , (4) , ,
Answer (3) (1) 50 (2) 45

Sol. For same energy, lighter particle has higher (3) 30 (4) 55
penentrating power. Answer (1)

(7)
 44. One way in which the operation of a n-p-n
transistor differs from that of a p-n-p
(1) The emitter junction is reversed biased in n-p-n
20
20 (2) The emitter junction injects minority carriers

Sol. into the base region of the p-n-p

40 (3) The emitter injects holes into the base of the
p-n-p and electrons into the base region of n-p-n
(4) The emitter injects holes into the base of n-p-n
40. The reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise and
Answer (3)
sunset is due to
Sol. Emitter-base junction is forward biased.
(1) The colour of the sky
45. The output from a NAND gate is divided into two
(2) The scattering of light
in parallel and fed to another NAND gate. The
(3) The polarisation of light resulting gate is a
(4) The colour of the sun
A
Answer (2)
C
Sol. The light reaches us is rich in red.
B
41. In Young's double slit experiment the distance
between the slits and the screen is doubled. The (1) NOT gate (2) AND gate
separation between the slits is reduced to half. As a
(3) NOR gate (4) OR gate
result the fringe width
Answer (2)
(1) Is doubled (2) Is halved
(3) Becomes four times (4) Remains unchanged Sol. C AB AB .
Answer (3) 46. The values of Ksp of CaCO 3 and CaC 2 O 4 are
D 4.7 109 and 1.3 109 respectively at 25C. If the
Sol. mixture of these two is washed with water, what is
d
the concentration of Ca2+ ions in water?
42. A parallel beam of light of wavelength is incident
normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern is (1) 7.746 105 M (2) 5.831 105 M
formed on a screen placed perpendicular to the (3) 6.856 105 M (4) 3.606 105 M
direction of the incident beam. At the second Answer (1)
minimum of the diffraction pattern, the phase
difference between the rays coming from the two Sol. CaCO3 Ca 2 CO 23
edges of slit is x x

(1) (2) 2 CaC2O 4 Ca 2 C 2 O 24

y y
(3) 3 (4) 4
Answer (4) Now, [Ca2 ] x y
Sol. Path diff. = 2 Phase diff. = 4
and x (x + y) = 4.7 109
43. In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the
y (x + y) = 1.3 109
p-region to n-region because of
On solving we get
(1) The potential difference across the p-n junction
[Ca2+] = 7.746 105 M
(2) The attraction of free electrons of n-region
47. What is the density of N2 gas at 227C and 5.00 atm
(3) The higher hole concentration in p-region than
pressure ? (R = 0.0821 Atm K1 mol1)
that in n-region
(1) 0.29 g/ml (2) 1.40 g/ml
(4) The higher concentration of electrons in the
n-region than that in the p-region (3) 2.81 g/ml (4) 3.41 g/ml
Answer (3) Answer (4)
Sol. The higher hole cencentration is in P-region than PM
Sol. Density =
that in n-region. RT

(8)
48. At 100C the Kw of water is 55 times its value at 51. The dissociation constant of a work acid is 1 104.
25C. What will be the pH of neutral solution? In order of prepare a buffer solution with a pH = 5
(log 55 = 1.74) the [Salt]/[Acid] ratio should be
(1) 6.13 (1) 1 : 10 (2) 4 : 5
(2) 7.00 (3) 10 : 1 (4) 5 : 4
(3) 7.87 Answer (3)
(4) 5.13
[Salt]
Answer (1) Sol. pH = pKa + log
[Acid]
Sol. At 100C
and pKa = log Ka
Kw = 55 1014
=4

H 55 10 14
52. A reaction is 50% complete in 2 hours and 75%
and pH = log H+ complete in 4 hours. The order of reaction is

49. When 5 litres of a gas mixture of methane and (1) 0 (2) 1

propane is perfectly combusted at 0C and (3) 2 (4) 3
1 atmosphere, 16 litre of oxygen at the same
Answer (2)
temperature and pressure is consumed. The amount
of heat released from this combustion in kJ Sol. For a first order reaction,
(H comb (CH 4) = 890 kJ mol 1, H comb (C 3 H 8 )
t 75% 2 t 50%
= 2220 kJ mol1) is
(1) 32 (2) 38 53. Accumulation of lactic acid (HC3H5O3), a monobasic
acid in tissues leads to pain and a feeling of fatigue.
(3) 317 (4) 477
In a 0.10 M aqueous solution, lactic acid is 3.7%
Answer (3) dissociates. The value of dissociation constant, Ka,
for this acid will be:
Sol. CH 4 2O2
CO 2 2 H2 O
(1) 2.8 104 (2) 1.4 105
X 2X
(3) 1.4 104 (4) 3.7 104
C 3 H 8 5O 2
3CO 2 4H 2 O Answer (3)
(5 x) 5(5 x)
Ka
2x + 5(5 x) = 16 Sol.
c
x=3L
54. Three thermochemical equations are given below:
3 2 (i) C(graphite) + O2(g) CO2(g); rH = x kJ mol1
Heat released = 890 2220
22.4 22.4
1
50. According to law of photochemical equivalence (ii) C(graphite) + O (g) CO(g); rH = y kJ mol1
2 2
the energy absorbed (in ergs/mole) is given as
(h = 6.62 1027 ergs, c = 3 1010 cm s1, NA = 6.02 1
1023 mol1) (iii) CO (g) + O (g) CO2(g); rH = z kJ mol1
2 2
1.956 1016 1.956 10 8
(1) (2) Based on the above equations, find out which of the

relationship given below is correct:
2.859 10 5 2.859 10 16 (1) x = y z (2) z = x + y
(3) (4)
(3) x = y + z (4) y = 2z x
Answer (2) Answer (3)
hc Sol. Applying Hesse's law, equation (i) can be obtained
Sol. E NA
by adding equations (ii) and (iii).

(9)
55. In which of the following pair both the species have 60. The pair of species that has the same bond order in
sp3 hybridization? the following is:
(1) H2S, BF3 (2) SiF4, BeH2 (1) O2, B2
(3) NF3, H2O (4) NF3, BF3 (2) CO, NO+
Answer (3) (3) NO, CN
Sol. Applying VSEPR theory, both NF3 and H2O are sp3 (4) O2, N2
hybridized.
Answer (2)
56. In an experiment it showed that 10 mL of 0.05 M
solution of chloride required 10 mL of 0.1 M Sol. Isoelectronic species have identical bond order.
solution of AgNO3, which of the following will be 61. The correct IUPAC name for [CrF2(en)2]Cl is:
the formula of the chloride (X stands for the symbol
(1) Chloro difluoridobis (ethylene diamine)
of the element other than chlorine):
chromium (III)
(1) X2Cl (2) X2Cl2
(2) Chloro difluorido ethylene diaminechromium
(3) XCl2 (4) XCl4
(III) chloride
Answer (3)
(3) Difluoridobis (ethylene diamine) chromium (III)
Sol. Millimoles of solution of chloride = 0.05 10 = 0.5 chloride
Millimoles of AgNO3 solution = 10 0.1 = 1
(4) Difluorobis-(ethylene diamine) chromium (III)
So, the millimoles of AgNO3 are double than the chloride
chloride solution.
Answer (3)
XCl 2 2 AgNO 3
2 AgCl X (NO 3 )2 Sol. Fact.
57. How many grams of cobalt metal will be deposited 62. The outer electronic configuration of Gd (At. No. 64)
when a solution of cobalt(II) chloride is electrolyzed is:
with a current of 10 amperes for 109 minutes (1) 4 f 4 5 d 5 6 s 1 (2) 4 f 5 5 d4 6 s1
(1 Faraday = 96,500 C; Atomic mass of Co = 59 u)
(3) 4 f 7 5 d1 6 s2 (4) 4 f 3 5 d5 6 s2
(1) 0.66 (2) 4.0
Answer (3)
(3) 20.0 (4) 40.0
Sol. Fact.
Answer (3)
Sol. Applying, 63. Identify the incorrect statement, regarding the
molecule XeO4:
= ZIt
(1) XeO4 molecule is tetrahedral
58. Which condition is not satisfied by an ideal
solution? (2) XeO4 molecule is square planar
(1) mix H = 0 (3) There are four p d bonds
(2) mix V = 0 (4) There are four sp3 p, bonds
(3) mix S = 0 Answer (2)
(4) Obeyance to Raoult's Law O
Answer (3)
Sol. Xe
Sol. Fact. O O
O
59. For a reaction between A and B the order with
64. Crystal field splitting energy for high spin d 4
respect to A is 2 and the order with respect to B is
octahedral complex is:
3. The concentrations of both A and B are doubled,
the rate will increase by a factor of: (1) 1.6 0 (2) 1.2 0
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 0.6 0 (4) 0.8 0
(3) 16 (4) 32 Answer (3)
Answer (4) Sol. CFSE = 0.4 3 + 0.6 1
Sol. Rate = K[A]2[B]3 = 0.6 0

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65. In which of the following ionization processes the 70. Which is diamagnetic?
bond energy increases and the magnetic behaviour (1) [Fe(CN)6]3
changes from paramagnetic to diamagnetic?
(2) [Co(F6)]3
(1) N 2 N 2 (2) O 2 O 2
(3) [Ni(CN)4]2
(3) C 2 C 2 (4) NO NO+
(4) [NiCl4]2
Answer (4)
Answer (3)
Sol. Fact.
Sol. Ni+2 3d 8
66. Which one of the following arrangements represents
the correct order of least negative to most negative and CN is a strong ligand and causes pairing of
electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F and O? 3d electrons of Ni+2.
(1) Ca < Al < C < O < F 71. Consider the half-cell reduction reaction :
(2) Al < Ca < O < C < F Mn2+ + 2e Mn, E0 = 1.18 V
(3) Al < O < C < Ca < F Mn2+ Mn3+ + e, E0 = 1.51 V
(4) C < F < O < Al < Ca
The E0 for the reaction 3 Mn2+ Mn0 + 2 Mn3+, and
Answer (1) possibility of the forward reaction are, respectively
Sol. Fact. (1) 2.69 V and no (2) 4.18 V and yes
67. Sc (Z = 21) is a transition element but Zn (Z = 30) (3) +0.33 V and yes (4) +2.69 V and no
is not because
Answer (1)
(1) Both Sc and Zn do not exhibit variable
oxidation states Sol. G3 = G1 + G2

(2) Both Sc3+ and Zn2+ ions are colourless and form n 1 E 01 n 2 E 02
E 03
white compounds n3
(3) In case of Sc, 3d orbitals are partially filled but 72. The outer orbitals of C in ethene molecule can be
in Zn these are filled considered to be hybridized to give three equivalent
sp2 orbitals. The total number of sigma () and pi ()
(4) Last electron is assumed to be added to 4s level
bonds in ethene molecule is
in case of Zn
(1) 1 sigma () and 2 pi () bonds
Answer (3)
Sol. Fact. (2) 3 sigma () and 2 pi () bonds

68. In Castner-Kellner cell for production of sodium (3) 4 sigma () and 1 pi () bonds
hydroxide : (4) 5 sigma () and 1 pi () bonds
(1) Brine is electrolyzed with Pt electrodes Answer (4)
(2) Brine is electrolyzed using graphite electrodes
Sol. H C=C H
(3) Molten sodium chloride is electrolysed H H
(4) Sodium amalgam is formed at mercury cathode
73. In a particular isomer of [Co(NH3)4Cl2]0, the Cl-Co-
Answer (4) Cl angle is 90, the isomer is known as
Sol. Fact. (1) Linkage isomer (2) Optical isomer
69. Which statement is wrong? (3) Cis-isomer (4) Position isomer
(1) Feldspars are not aluminosilicates Answer (3)
(2) Beryl is an example of cyclic silicate Cl
(3) Mg2SiO4 is orthosilicate 90
Cl NH3
(4) Basic structural unit in silicates is the SiO4 Co
tetrahedron NH3
Sol. NH3
Answer (1) NH3
Sol. Fact. Cis-isomer

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74. The anion of acetylacetone (acac) forms Co(acac)3 79. Given
chelate with Co3+. The rings of the chelate are
Br Br H Br
(1) Three membered H H
CH3
(2) Five membered and
CH3 CH3 CH3
H
(3) Four membered Br
(4) Six membered I II
Answer (4) I and II are
Sol. Fact. (1) A pair of optical isomers

75. The metal oxide which cannot be reduced to metal (2) Identical
by carbon is (3) A pair of conformers
(1) Fe2O3 (2) Al2O3 (4) A pair of geometrical isomers
(3) PbO (4) ZnO Answer (3)
Answer (2) Sol. Fact.
Sol. Fact. 80. In the following reaction :

76. Which among the following is a paramagnetic H SO

HC CH
2 4
Hg 2
'P'
complex?
(1) Mo(CO)6 (2) [Co(NH3)6]3+ Product 'P' will not give
(3) [Pt(en)Cl2] (4) [CoBr4]2 (1) Iodoform test
(At. No. Mo = 42, Pt = 78) (2) Tollen's reagent test

Answer (4) (3) Brady's reagent test

Sol. Co2+ [Ar]4s 03d 7, Br is weak ligand. (4) Victor Meyer test

77. Dettol is the mixture of Answer (4)

Sol. CH3CHO does not give Victor meyer test.
(1) Terpineol and Bithionol
81. On hydrolysis of a "compound", two compounds are
(2) Chloroxylenol and Bithionol
obtained. One of which on treatment with sodium
(3) Chloroxylenol and Terpineol nitrite and hydrochloric acid gives a product which
(4) Phenol and Iodine does not respond to iodoform test. The second one
reduces Tollen's reagent and Fehling's solution. The
Answer (3) "compound" is
Sol. Fact. (1) CH3 CH2 CH2 CON(CH3)2
78. Arrange the following in increasing order of (2) CH3 CH2 CH2 NC
stability.
(3) CH3 CH2 CH2 CN

(a) (CH3)2 C CH2CH3 (b) (CH3)3 C (4) CH3 CH2 CH2 ON = O
Answer (2)

(c) (CH3)2 CH (d) CH3 CH2 Sol. Hydrolysis gives CH3CH2CH2NH2 + HCOOH and

HCOOH gives Tollen's reagent test.
(e) CH3
82. Homolytic fission of the following alkanes forms free
(1) e < d < c < b < a (2) e < d < c < a < b radicals CH3 CH3, CH3 CH2 CH3, (CH3)2 CH
CH3, CH3 CH2 CH (CH3)2. Increasing order of
(3) d < e < c < a < b (4) a < e < d < c < b
stability of the radicals is
Answer (2)
(1) (CH3)3 C < (CH3)2 C CH2CH3 <
Sol. Stability depends on number of hyper conjugation
structure. CH3 CH CH3 < CH3 CH 2

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 (2) (CH3)2 C CH2CH3 < CH3 CH CH3 86. Nitrogen detection in an organic compound is
carried out by Lassaigne's test. The blue colour
< CH3 CH 2 < (CH3)3 C formed corresponds to which of the following
formulae?
(3) CH3 CH 2 < CH3 CH CH3 < (CH3)2 C
(1) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]3
CH2 CH3 < (CH3)3 C (2) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2

(4) CH3 CH 2 < CH3 CH CH3 < (3) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3

(4) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]2
(CH3)3 C < (CH3)2 C CH2CH3
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
Sol. Fact.
Sol. Stability depends on number of hyper conjugation
87. Phenol is distilled with Zn dust followed by Friedel
structure.
Crafts alkylation with propyl chloride in the
83. Some reactions of amines are given. Which one is presence of AlCl3 to give a compound (B). (B) is
not correct ? oxidised in the presence of air to form the
compound (C). The structural formula of (C) is
(1) (CH3)2NH + NaNO2 + HCl (CH3)2
NN=O COOH

(1)
(2) (CH3)2N + NaNO2 + HCl

COOH
(CH3)2N N = NCl
OH
(2)
(3) CH3CH2NH2 + HNO2 CH3CH2OH + N2
(4) CH3NH2 + C6H5SO2Cl CH3NHSO2C6H5
Answer (2) H3C
COOH
Sol. Fact. H3C
(3)
84. Which one of the following statements is not true?
(1) Dissolved Oxygen (DO) in cold water can reach
a concentration upto 10 ppm. CH3
(2) Clean water would have a BOD value of 5 ppm. H3CCOOH
(3) Fluoride deficiency in drinking water is (4) OH
harmful. Soluble fluoride is often used to bring
its concentration upto 1 ppm.
(4) When the pH of rain water is higher than 6.5, Answer (3)
it is called acid rain.
Answer (4) OH
Sol. Fact.
Zn AlCl3
85. What is the hybridisation state of benzyl carbonium
CH3CH2CH2Cl
+
ion CH2 ? CH3
Sol. COOH CH3CHCH3
(1) sp3 (2) sp2 CH3
O2
(3) spd2 (4) sp2 d
Answer (2)
Sol. Fact.

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88. In DNA the linkages between different nitrogenous 94. The common characteristics between tomato and
bases are: potato will be maximum at the level of their
(1) Peptide linkage (2) Phosphate linkage (1) Genus (2) Family
(3) H-bonding (4) Glycosidic linkage (3) Order (4) Division
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
Sol. Fact.
89. Which of the following chemical system is non Sol. Tomato (Lycopersicum esculentum)
Family Solanaceae
aromatic? Potato (Solanum tuberosum)

95. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris

(1) (2) and Gingo?
(1) Independent sporophyte

(3) (4) (2) Presence of archegonia

S
(3) Well developed vascular tissues
Answer (1)
(4) Independent gametophyte
Sol. Fact, Huckel rule is not obeyed.
Answer (2)
No continous conjugation.
Sol. The female sex organ archegonium is formed in
90. Number of isomeric alcohols of molecular formula
bryophytes (Funaria), pteridophytes (Dryopteris) and
C6H14O which give positive iodoform test is
gymnosperms (e.g. Ginkgo).
(1) Two (2) Three
96. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(3) Four (4) Five
(1) Nostoc-Water blooms
Answer (3)
Sol. Fact. (2) Spirogyra-Motile gametes

91. The plant body is thalloid in (3) Sargassum-Chlorophyll C

(1) Funaria (2) Sphagnum (4) Basidiomycetes-Puffballs
(3) Salvinia (4) Marchantia Answer (2)
Answer (1) Sol. Gametes are non-flagellated (non-motile) but similar
Sol. The plant body of a liverwort is thalloid. eg in size as in Spirogyra.
Marchantia. 97. Among flowers of Calotropis, tulip, Sesbania,
92. Which one of the following is true for fungi? Asparagus, Colchicine, Sweet pea, Petunia, Indigofera,
(1) They are phagotrophs Mustard, Soybean, Tobacco and groundnut how
many plants have corolla with valvate aestivation?
(2) They lack a rigid cell wall
(3) They are heterotrophs (1) Five (2) Six

(4) They lack nuclear membrane (3) Seven (4) Eight

Answer (3) Answer (3)
Sol. The fungi constitute a unique kingdom of Sol. Calotropis, tulip, Asparagus, colchicine, Petunia,
heterotrophic organisms. Mustard, Tobacco
93. Specialized cells for fixing atmospheric nitrogen in 98. How many plants among China rose, Icimum,
Nostoc are sunflower, mustard, Alstonia, guava, Calotropis and
(1) Akinetes (2) Heterocysts Nerium (Oleander) have opposite phyllotaxy?
(3) Hormogonia (4) Nodules (1) Two (2) Three
Answer (2) (3) Four (4) Five
Sol. Cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen in Answer (2)
specialised cells called heterocysts eg, Nostoc,
Anabaena. Sol. Ocimum, Guava, Calotropis

(14)
99. In a cymose inflorescence the main axis 104. Uridine, present only in RNA is a
(1) Terminates in a flower (1) Pyrimidine (2) Nucleoside
(2) Has unlimited growth (3) Nucleotide (4) Purine
(3) Bears a solitary flower Answer (2)
(4) Has unlimited growth but lateral branches end Sol. Uridine consists of uracil and ribose sugar forming
in flowers nucleoside.
Answer (1) 105. The term 'glycocalyx' is used for
Sol. In cymose type inflorescence the main axis (1) A layer surrounding the cell wall of bacteria
terminates in a flower.
(2) A layer present between cell wall and
100. Which of the following statements is not true for membrane of bacteria
stomatal apparatus?
(3) Cell wall of bacteria
(1) Inner walls of guard cells are thick
(4) Bacterial cell glyco-engineered to possess
(2) Guard cells invariably possess chloroplasts and N-glycosylated proteins
mitochondria
Answer (1)
(3) Guard cells are always surrounded by
Sol. The cell envelope in bacteria consists of a tightly
subsidiary cells
bound three layered structure i.e. the glycocalyx
(4) Stomata are involved in gaseous exchange followed by the cell wall and then plasma
Answer (3) membrane.
Sol. Sometimes, a few epidermal cells in the vicinity of 106. Which of the following type of plastids does not
the guard cells become specialised in their shape contain stored food material?
and size and are known as subsidiary cells. (1) Amyloplasts (2) Chromoplasts
101. Meristematic tissue responsible for increase in girth (3) Eleioplasts (4) Aleuroplasts
of tree trunk is
Answer (2)
(1) Apical meristem (2) Intercalary meristem
Sol. Chromoplasts give the part of the plant a yellow,
(3) Lateral meristem (4) Phellogen orange or red colour.
Answer (3) 107. During meiosis I, the chromosomes start pairing at
Sol. Apart from primary growth most dicotyledons (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
plants exhibit an increase in girth. The tissues
involved in secondary growth are the two lateral (3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
meristems : vascular cambium and cork cambium Answer (2)
102. Inflorescence is racemose in Sol. During zygotene chromosomes start pairing together
(1) Soyabean (2) Brinjal and this process of association is called synapsis.

(3) Tulip (4) Aloe 108. Which two distinct microbial processes are
responsible for the release of fixed nitrogen as
Answer (1) dinitrogen gas (N2) to the atmosphere?
Sol. Inflorescence in family fabaceae (e.g. soyabean) is (1) Anaerobic ammonium oxidation, and
racemose. denitrification
103. During the metaphase stage of mitosis spindle fibres (2) Aerobic nitrate oxidation, and nitrite reduction
attach to chromosomes at
(3) Decomposition of organic nitrogen, and
(1) Centromere conversion of dinitrogen to ammonium
(2) Kinetochore compounds
(3) Both centromere and kinetochore (4) Enteric fermentation in cattle, and nitrogen
(4) Centromere, kinetochore and areas adjoining fixation by Rhizobium in root nodules of
centromere legumes
Answer (2) Answer (1)
Sol. In metaphase, spindle fibres attach to kinetochores Sol. Nitrate present in the soil may reduced to N2 by the
of chromosomes. process of denitrification.

(15)
109. Which of the following best illustrates FEEDBACK 114. Which one of the following statements is correct?
in development? (1) Geitonogamy involves the pollen and stigma of
(1) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something flowers of different plants
that slows down the growth of tissue (Y) (2) Cleistogamous flowers are always autogamous
(2) Tissue (X) secretes RNA which changes the (3) Xenogamy occurs only by wind pollination
development of tissue (Y) (4) Chasmogamous flowers do not open at all
(3) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes enzymes that Answer (2)
inhibit the development of tissue (Y)
Sol. Cleistogamos flowers are invariably autogamous as
(4) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something there is no chance of cross pollen landing on the
that induces tissue (Y) to develop stigma.
Answer (4) 115. Megaspores are produced from the megaspore
Sol. During embryonic development, the primary mother cells after
organiser signals the development of another organ (1) Meiotic division
or tissue by secreting chemical factors. (2) Mitotic division
110. The viability of seeds is tested by (3) Formation of a thick wall
(1) Safranine (4) Differentiation
(2) 2, 6 dichlorophenol indophenols Answer (1)
(3) 2, 3, 5 triphenyl tetrazolium chloride Sol. Meosis in megaspore mother cell results in the
production of mega spores.
(4) DMSO
116. Syngamy can occur outside the body of the
Answer (3)
organism in
Sol. The viability of seeds is tested by 0.1% TTC.
(1) Fungi (2) Mosses
111. The pineapple which under natural conditions is (3) Algae (4) Ferns
difficult to blossom has been made to produce fruits
Answer (3)
throughout the year by application of
Sol. Majority of algae and fishes.
(1) IAA, IBA (2) NAA, 2, 4-D
117. Animal vectors are required for pollination in
(3) Phenyl acetic acid (4) Cytokinin
(1) Maize (2) Vallisneria
Answer (2)
(3) Mulbery (4) Cucumber
Sol. NAA and 2,4-D are often employed for inducing
Answer (4)
flowering in Litchi and pineapple.
Sol. Maize, mulbery wind pollination
112. Which of the following elements is a constituent of
biotin? Vallisneria-Hydrophily
118. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Sulphur (2) Magnesium
(1) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures
(3) Calcium (4) Phosphorus
but not strong acids
Answer (1)
(2) Sporopollenin can be degraded by enzymes
Sol. Biotin or nicotinic acid consists of sulphur. It acts (3) Sporopollenin is made up of inorganic materials
as coenzyme needed for protein and fatty acid
(4) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures
synthesis, CO2 fixation and transamination.
as well as strong acids and alkalis
113. Bundle sheath cells
Answer (4)
(1) Are rich in RuBisCo
Sol. Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant organic
(2) Are rich in PEP carboxylase material known.
(3) Lack RuBisCo 119. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food mainly in
(4) Lack both RuBisCo and PEP carboxylase (1) Perisperm (2) Endosperm
Answer (1) (3) Cotyledons (4) Hypocotyl
Sol. In C 4 plants, bundle sheath cells are rich in Answer (2)
RuBisCO, but lack PEPcase. Sol. Endospermic/albuminous seeds.

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120. Random unidirectional change in allele frequencies 126. Which of the following statements is not true about
that occurs by chance in all populations and somatic embryogenesis?
especially in small populations is known as
(1) A somatic embryo develops from a somatic cell
(1) Mutation (2) Migration
(3) Natural selection (4) Genetic drift (2) The pattern of development of a somatic embryo
is comparable to that of a zygotic embryo
Answer (4)
Sol. Genetic drift is random change in allelic frequencies (3) Somatic embryos can develop from microspores
due to chance events in small populations. (4) Somatic embryo is induced usually by an auxin
121. Which of the following is not a property of the such as 2, 4-D
genetic code?
Answer (3)
(1) Universal (2) Non-overlapping
Sol. A somatic embryo develops from a somatic cell.
(3) Ambiguous (4) Degeneracy
Answer (3) 127. Genes of interest can be selected from a genomic
library by using
Sol. One codon codes for only one amino acid, hence it
is unambiguous and specific. (1) Restriction enzymes (2) Cloning vectors
122. Genetic variation in a population arises due to (3) DNA probes (4) Gene targets
(1) Mutations only
Answer (3)
(2) Recombination only
Sol. cDNA can be used as DNA probe.
(3) Mutations as well as recombination
(4) Reproductive isolation and selection 128. During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled
ethanol is added to
Answer (3)
Sol. Mutations and recombinations arising from (1) Remove proteins such as histones
crossing over are the source of variations. (2) Precipitate DNA
123. Satellite RNAs are present in some
(3) Break open the cell to release DNA
(1) Plant viruses (2) Viroids
(4) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes
(3) Prions (4) Bacteriophages
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
Sol. Tobacco necrosis virus (TNV) 129. RNA interference involves

124. One of the most frequently used techniques in DNA (1) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA
fingerprinting is (2) Synthesis of cDNA from RNA using reverse
(1) AFLP (2) VNTR transcriptase
(3) SSCP (4) SCAR
(3) Silencing of specific mRNA due to
Answer (2) complementary RNA
Sol. The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially
(4) Interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA
developed by Alec Jeffreys. He used a satellite DNA
as probe that shows very high degree of Answer (3)
polymorphism. It was called variable number of
130. Benthic organisms are affected most by
tandem repeats.
(1) Water-holding capacity of soil
125. Which one of the following vectors is used to
replace the defective gene in gene therapy? (2) Light reaching the forest floor
(1) Ti plasmid (2) Adenovirus (3) Surface turbulence of water
(3) Cosmid (4) Ri plasmid
(4) Sediment characteristics of aquatic ecosystems
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
Sol. Adenovirus is non-enveloped dsDNA virus which
cause respiratory diseases. It is used to transfer a Sol. The sediment characteristics often determine the
gene of interest in animal cells. type of benthic animals that can thrive there.

(17)
131. Which of the following has maximum genetic 137. Which one of the following animals is correctly
diversity in India? matched with its one characteristics and the taxon?
(1) Rice (2) Mango Animal Characteristic Taxon
(3) Wheat (4) Groundnut (1) Duckbilled Oviparous Mammalian
Answer (1) platypus
Sol. There are 200,000 varieties of rice in India. (2) Milipede Ventral nerve Arachnida
132. Which organization publishes the Red Data Book? cord
(1) GEF (2) IUCN (3) Sea Anemone Triploblastic Cnidaria
(3) UNEP (4) WWF (4) Silverfish Pectoral and Chordata
Pelvic fins
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
Sol. IUCN or WCU maintains a red data book which is
a catalogue of threatened plants and animals facing 138. Which one of the following groups of animals
risk of extinction. reproduces only by sexual means?
133. The largest tiger reserve in India is (1) Ctenophora (2) Cnidaria
(1) Nagarhole (3) Porifera (4) Protozoa
(2) Valmiki Answer (1)
(3) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sol. In ctenophora, asexual reproduction is totally
(4) Periyar absent.
Answer (3) 139. Sharks and dogfishes differ from skates and rays by
Sol. Nagarjuna sagar is largest tiger reserve in India. (1) Their pectoral fins distinctly marked off from
cyclindrical bodies
134. The second commitment period for Kyoto Protocol
was decided at (2) Gill slits are ventrally placed
(1) Cancun (2) Durban (3) Head and trunk are widened considerably
(3) Bali (4) Doha (4) Distinct demarcation between body and tail
Answer (4) Answer (1)
Sol. In Doha, Qatar on 8 December 2012, the "Doha Sol. Sharks and dogfishes have cylindrical body while
Amendment to the Kyoto Protocol" was adopted. skates and rays have flattened body with winglike
The second commitment period was from 1st Jan. pectoral fins which are not distinct from body.
2013 to 31 st Dec. 2020. 140. Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and match
135. Which one of the following is a primary consumer with its characteristcs and its location
in maize field ecosystem?
(1) Lion (2) Grasshopper
(3) Wolf (4) Phytoplankton
Answer (2)
Sol. Grasshopper/Herbivore.
136. The characteristics of class Reptilia are :
(1) Body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales
over the body are epidermal, they do not have
external ears
(1) Skeletal muscle, shows striations and closely
(2) Body covered with moist skin which is devoid
attached with the bones of the limbs
of scales, the ear is represented by a tympanum,
alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive (2) Smooth muscles, show branching, found in the
tracts open into a common cloaca walls of the heart
(3) Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton, (3) Cardiac muscles, unbranched muscles, found in
air-bladder to regulate buoyancy the walls of the heart
(4) Marine animals with cartilaginous (4) Striated muscles, tapering at both-ends, attached
endoskeleton, body covered with placoid scales with the bones of the ribs
Answer (1) Answer (1)

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141. Select the correct option with respect to cockroaches
(1) The fore wings are tegmina which are used in
flight
(2) Malpighian tubules convert nitrogenous wastes
into urea
145. The figure shows a hypothetical tetrapeptide portion
of a protein with parts labelled A-D. Which one of
the following option is correct?
OH
CH2 COOH

(3) Males bear short anal styles not present in SH CH2

females CH2OH CH2 CH2 CH2

(4) Nervous system comprises of a dorsal nerve HN CH CO NH CH CO NH CH CO NH CH CO

(A) (B) (C) (D)
cord and ten pairs of ganglion
Answer (3) (1) A is the sulphur containing amino acid -
methionine
142. Select the alternative giving correct identification
and function of the organelle 'A' in the diagram (2) D is the acidic amino acid - glutamic acid
(3) C is an aromatic amino acid - tryptophan
(4) A is the C - terminal amino acid and D is N
terminal amino acid
Answer (2)
Sol. D is glutamic acid.
146. A stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram. Which
stage is it and what are its characteristics?
A
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum-synthesis of lipids
(2) Mitochondria-produce cellular energy in the
form of ATP
(3) Golgi body-provides packaging material
(4) Lysosomes - secrete hydrolytic enzymes
Answer (2)
Sol. Mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration.
They produce cellular energy in the from of ATP. (1) Late prophase chromosomes move to spindle
143. Why is a capsule advantageous to a bacterium? equator

(1) It allows the bacterium to attach to the surface
(2) It protects the bacterium from desiccation
(3) It provides means of locomotion
(4) It allows bacterium to "hide" from host's
immune system
Answer (4)
Sol. Capsule protects bacteria from hosts immune
system.
144. Which of the following statements about enzymes is
wrong?
(1) Enzymes require optimum pH and temperature
for maximum activity
(2) Enzymes are denatured at high temperatures
(3) Enzymes are mostly proteins but some are
lipids also
(4) Enzymes are highly specific
(2) Metaphase spindle fibres attached to
kinetochores, centromeres split and chromatids
separate
(3) Metaphase chromosomes moved to spindle
equator chromosomes made up of two sister
chromatids
(4) Anaphase centromeres split and chromatids
separate and start moving away
Answer (3)
147. A healthy person eats the following diet - 5 gm raw
sugar, 4 gm albumin, 10 gm pure buffalo ghee
adultrated with 2 gm vegetable ghee (hydrogenated
vegetable oil) and 5 gm lignin. How many calories
he is likely to get?
(1) 144 (2) 126

Answer (3) (3) 164 (4) 112

Sol. Enzymes are mostly proteins but some are RNA. Answer (1)

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Sol. Physiological value of carbohydrates is 4.0 kcal/g of Blood Cell Characteristics
proteins 4.0 kcal/g and of fats is 9.0 kcal/g
(1) Monocyte Life span 3 days, produce
Hence antibodies

5 g raw sugar will yield 5 4.0 = 20.0 kcal (2) Basophil Secrete serotonin,
inflammatory response
4 g albumin (protein) will yield 4 4.0 = 16.0 kcal
(3) B-lymphocyte Form about 20% of blood
10 + 2 g of fat will yield 12 9.0 = 108.0 kcal cells involved in immune
response
Total yield = 144 kcal.
(4) Neutrophil Most abundant blood cell,
148. Which enzymes are likely to act on the baked phagocytic
potatoes eaten by a man, starting from the mouth
Answer (2)
and as it moves down the alimentary canal?
151. Figure shows blood circulation in humans with
(1) Salivary maltase carboxy peptidase labels A to D. Select the option which gives correct
trypsinogen identification of label and functions of the part:
(2) Pancreatic amylase salivary amylase
lipases D
(3) Disaccharidase like maltase lipases
nucleases
(4) Salivary amylase pancreatic amylase
disaccharidases
Answer (4)
Sol. Baked potato consists of starch which is digested by
amylases.
C Body parts
149. Which one of the following is one of the paths Lumen
followed by air/O2 during respiration in an adult A
male Periplaneta americana as it enters the animal
body? B
(1) A Artery - thick walled and blood flows
(1) Hypopharynx, mouth, pharynx, trachea, tissues evenly
(2) Spiracle in metathorax, trachea, tracheoles, (2) B Capillary - thin without muscle layers and
oxygen diffuses into cells wall two cell thick
(3) C - Vein - thin walled and blood flows in jerks/
(3) Mouth, bronchial tube, trachea, oxygen enters
spurts
cells
(4) D Pulmonary vein - takes oxygenated blood to
(4) Spiracles in prothorax, tracheoles, trachea, heart PO2 = 95 mmHg
oxygen diffuses into cells Answer (4)
Answer (2) 152. Select the option which shows correct matching of
animal with excretory organs and excretory product
Sol. Passages of air in cockroach.
Animal Excretory Excretory
Spiracles (on thorax and abdomen) Trachea organs product
Tracheoles tissue and cells.
(1) Housefly Renal tubules Uric acid
150. The figure shows a human blood cell. Identify it and (2) Labeo (Rohu) Nephridial tubes Ammonia
give its characteristics.
(3) Salamander Kidney Urea
(4) Peacock Kidney Urea

Answer (3)
Sol. Amphibians mostly excrete urea by help of kidneys.

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153. Select the correct statement with respect to disorders
of muscles in humans
(1) Rapid contractions of skeletal muscles causes
muscle dystrophy
156. The figure shows an axon terminal and synapse.
Select the option giving correct identifications of
tables A-D

(2) Failure of neuromuscular transmission in

myasthenia gravis can prevent normal
swallowing

(3) Accumulation of urea and creatine in the joints

cause their inflammation
(4) An overdose of vitamin D causes osteoporosis
(1) A Axon terminal
Answer (2)
B Serotonin complex
Sol. Myasthenia gravis is autoimmune disorder affecting (2) A Action potential
neuromuscular function.
C Neurotransmitter
154. During muscle contraction in humans the
(3) B Neurotransmitter
(1) Actin filaments shorten
D Receptor capsules
(2) Sarcomere does not shorten (4) C Receptor
(3) A band remain same D Synaptic vesicles
(4) A, H and I bands shorten Answer (4)
Answer (3) 157. Which of the following represents the action of
insulin?
155. A sagittal section of human-brain is shown here.
Identify at least two labels from A-D. (1) Increases blood glucose levels by hydrolysis of
glycogen
A (2) Increases blood glucose levels by stimulating
glucagon production
(3) Decreases blood glucose levels of forming
glycogen
(4) Increases blood glucose level by promoting
B cellular uptake of glucose
C Answer (3)
158. Norepinephrine :
D
(a) Is released by sympathetic fibres
(1) A Cerebral hemispheres
(b) Is released by parasympathetic fibres
B Cerebellum
(c) Increases the heart rate
(2) C Mid brain
(d) Decreases blood pressure
D Cerebellum
Which of the above said statements are correct?
(3) A Cerebrum
(1) (a) and (d)
C Pons
(2) (a) and (c)
(4) B Corpus callosum
(3) (b) and (c)
D Medulla (4) (b) and (d)
Answer (3) Answer (2)

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159. The figure shows a section of human ovary. Select 163. Which one of the following statements is correct
the option which gives the correct identification of regarding Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD)?
A and B with function/characteristic
(1) The chances of a 5 year boy contacting a STD
A
are very little
(2) A person may contact syphilis by sharing milk
with one already suffering from the disease
(3) Haemophilia is one of the STD
(4) Genital herpes and sickle-cell anaemia are both
STD
B
(1) A Primary oocyte it is the prophase I of Answer (1)
the meiotic division Sol. STDs are more common in 15-24 yrs. age group.
(2) B Corpus luteum secretes progesterone
164. The stage transferred into the uterus after induced
(3) A Tertiary follicle forms Graafian follicle fertilization of ova in the laboratory is
(4) B Corpus luteum secretes estrogen
(1) Zygote
Answer (2)
160. Select the option which correctly matches the (2) Embryo at 4 blastomere stage
endocrine gland with its hormone and its function (3) Embryo at 2 blastomere stage
Endocrine Hormone Function (4) Morula
gland
Answer (4)
(1) Ovary FSH stimulates follicular
Sol. In Intra-Uterine Transfer (IUT), embryo of 8-celled
development and the
secretion of estrogens. stage (Morula) is used for transfer.

(2) Placenta estrogen initiates secretion of 165. Which one is the incorrect statement with regards
the milk. to the importance of pedigree analysis?
(3) Corpus estrogen essential for (1) It helps to trace the inheritance of a specific trait
luteum maintenance of
(2) It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic
endometerium.
information
(4) Leydig cells androgen initiates the
production of sperms. (3) It helps to understand whether the trait in
question is dominant or recessive
Answer (4)
(4) It confirms that the trait is linked to one of the
161. The foetal ejection reflex in humans triggers release
of autosome
(1) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary Answer (2)
(2) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary Sol. In the pedigree analysis the inheritance of a
(3) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) from particular trait is represented in the family tree over
placenta generation.
(4) Human Placental Lactogen (hPL) from placenta 166. In our society women are blamed for producing
Answer (1) female children. Choose the correct answer for the
162. One of the following is not a method of sex-determination in humans
contraception which one?
(1) Due to some defect in the women
(1) Tubectomy
(2) Condoms (2) Due to some defect like aspermia in man
(3) Pills of a combination of oxytocin and (3) Due to the genetic make up of the particular
vasopressin sperm which fertilizes the egg
(4) Lippes loop (4) Due to the genetic make up of the egg
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
Sol. Oxytocin is birth hormone and vasopressin is used
to conserve water. Sol. All ova are alike.

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167. Downs syndrome in humans is due to 171. Dinosaurs dominated the world in which of the
(1) Two Y chromosomes following geological era?

(2) Three X chromosomes (1) Devonion (2) Coenozoic

(3) Jurassic (4) Mesozoic
(3) Three copies of chromosome 21
Answer (4)
(4) Monosomy
172. Identify the site where Wuchereria bancrofti is
Answer (3)
normally found on human body
C B Proposed by (1) Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs
168. DNA mRNA protein
A (2) Muscles of the legs
The figure gives an important concept in the genetic (3) Blood vessels of the thigh region
implication of DNA. Fill the blanks A, B and C. (4) Skin between the fingers
(1) A Francis Crick Answer (1)
B translation 173. Which one of the following is a hallucinogenic
C transcription drug?
(2) A Maurice Wilkins (1) Opium

B transcription (2) Caffeine

C translation (3) Morphine

(3) A James Watson (4) Lysergic acid diethylamide

Answer (4)
B replication
174. Tissue culture technique can produce infinite
C extension
number of new plants from a small parental tissue.
(4) A Erwin Chargaff The economic importance of the technique is in
B translation raising
C replication (1) Variants through picking up somaclonal
variations
Answer (1)
(2) Genetically uniform population identical to the
Sol. Francis Crick proposed the central dogma in
original parent
molecular biology which states that the genetic
information flows from (3) Homozygous diploid plants

DNA RNA Protein (4) Development of new species

169. In an inducible operon, the genes are Answer (2)

Sol. The method of producing thousands of plants
(1) Always expressed
through tissue culture is called micro-propagation.
(2) Usually not expressed unless a signal turns Each of these plants will be genetically identical to
them "on" the original plant from which they were grown, i.e.
(3) Usually expressed unless a signal turns them they are somaclones. Many important food plants
"off" like tomato, banana, apple have been produed on
commercial scale using this method.
(4) Never expressed
175. Microbe used for biocontrol of pest butterfly
Answer (2)
caterpillars is
Sol. Inducible operons are usually switched off.
(1) Trichoderma sp.
170. The finch species of Galapagos Islands are grouped
(2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
according to their food sources. Which of the
following is not a finch food? (3) Bacillus thuringiensis

(1) Seeds (2) Carrion (4) Streptococcus sp.

Answer (3)
(3) Insects (4) Tree buds
Sol. Microbial biocontrol agent that can be introduced in
Answer (2)
order to control butterfly caterpillars is the bacteria
Sol. Carrion are dead bodies. No finches feed on carrion. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt).

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176. The age pyramid with broad base indicates Answer (4)
(1) High percentage of young individuals Sol. Parasites have very high reproduction capacity.
(2) High percentage of old individuals 179. Climate of the world is threatened by
(3) Low percentage of young individuals (1) Increasing concentration of atmospheric oxygen
(4) A stable population (2) Decreasing amount of atmospheric oxygen
Answer (1) (3) Increasing amount of atmospheric
Sol. Triangular age pyramid carbondioxide
177. When man eats fish which feeds on zooplankton (4) Decreasing amount of atmospheric
which have eaten small plants, the producer in the carbondioxide
chain is
Answer (3)
(1) Zooplankton (2) Small plants
Sol. Global warming is due to increasing amount of
(3) Fish (4) Man atmospheric carbondioxide (Green house gases).
Answer (2)
180. Which one of the following is not correct as regards
Sol. Small Plants Zoo Planktons Fish the harmful effects of particulate matter of the size
(Sec.Consumer)
(Pri.Producer) (Primary Consumer) 2.5 micro meters or less?
(1) It can be inhaled into the lungs
Man
(Ter.Consumer)
(2) It can cause respiratory problems
178. Which one of the following is not a parasitic (3) It can directly enter into our circulatory system
adaptation?
(4) It can cause inflammation and damage to the
(1) Loss of unnecessary sense organs lungs
(2) Development of adhesive organs Answer (3)
(3) Loss of digestive organs Sol. The particulate matter of the size 2.5 micro meters or
(4) Loss of reproductive capacity less can indirectly enter into our circulatory system.

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