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Evaluating Exam Jan 2005

1. Calculate the HLB of a mixture that contains 30g of surfactant A


(HLB=8.56) and 10 g of surfactant B (HLB=15): HLB = Q1 x
HLB1 + Q2 x HLB2 / Q1 + Q2
a. 10.2

2. A baby weighing 22 Ib must take clarithromycin


25mg/kg BID for 7days. How many bottles of 55ml,
105ml or 150ml will be dispensed if each contain
125mg/5ml:
a. 1 bottle of 5 5ml
b. 2 bottles of 55ml
c. 1 bottle of 105 ml
d. 1 bottle of 150ml

3. Finasteride is used for:


a. Prevention of baldness in males
b. Benign prostatic hypertrophy

4. what does the long term use of corticosteroids cause:


a. Cushing syndrome
b. Osteoporosis
c. Hypertrophy of the adrenal gland

5. long term use of corticosteroid causes:


a. Osteoporosis
b. glaucoma
c. gastric ulcer

6. What predispose to cancer


a. chronic H-pylori (Zollinger-Symptoms) = ttt PPI
b. papilloma virus
c. chronic smoking

7. what's the action of Vincristine:


a. inhibits the tubules coupling in mitosis

8. All are actions of doxorubicin except:


a. membrane oxidation

9. alpha-lipoic acid is:


a. Antioxidant
b. Antitumor

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10. alpha fetoprotein is a marker:
a. in liver carcinoma - Liver Tumer Marker

11. The Cochran agency is for:


a. It provides data about the total sales of pharmaceutical
companies worldwide
b. It provides the basis for the clinical tests done on humans
c. It provides medical interventions to be used in
developing countries

12. what's the proper way that will test a new product and will be
convincing to the pharmacy manager:
a. Surveys done in malls
b. Surveys done on the phone
c. Testing the product in the pharmacy

13. What does health Canada special allowance permit do?


a. allow pharmaceutical companies to sell medicine
otherwise can't be sold
b. Studies the inquiry, studies and conclusions of the
company concerning the medication

14. trimethoprine is:


a. relevant in structure to PABA
b. folic acid is more polar that's why it penetrates
membrane better
c. trimethoprine action is synergistic with
sulphanilamide

15. Thrombolytic isn't given to patient:


a. I more than 65 years old
b. has hypertension
c. had bleeding within 6 months

16. When a patient comes to the pharmacy to refill digoxin but there
are no refills, the pharmacist's appropriate actions may be:
a. fill the full prescription
b. send the patient to the doctor
c. call the doctor for a refill

17. What's an endogenous substance used in the test for glomerular


function:
a. Creatinine (endogenous) clearance
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b. Inulin (exogenous) clearance.

18. If a pharmacist has


to help a lady to choose proper crutches:
a. he makes
sure that her biceps are strong
b. he makes
sure that the lady is standing upright
c. he makes
sure that there are at least 2 fingers
space between the crutches and the axilla

19. If a patient has HIV:


a. there are flu like symptoms
b. the HIV virus resides in the monocytes and
macrophages and thus is protected against the
host defense mechanism
c. The level of CD4 positive in the body is indicative
of all the level of the viable host defense

20. The normal level of theophylline is 10-20ug/ml in the blood. Its


half-life is 2 hours. Before the next dose its concentration in the
blood is 18ug/l. In how many hours will the dose be below the
therapeutic level? (1.7 hours)

21. Which doesn't affect the oxidative degradation of a drug:


a. Humidity
b. Temperature
c. pKa
d. pH
e. Light

22. What's used in the treatment of an acute asthma attack


a. Montelukast
b. Salmeterol
c. Salbutamol

23. Diuretics that cause increase in Na, Cl, K & cause slight urine
alkalinization:
a. Spironolactone
b. Acetazolamide
c. HCTZ
d. Amiloride

24. Zidovudine:
a. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
b. must be phosphorylated in cell to be activated
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25. Vaccines available for:
a. H. influenza A
b. H. influenza B
c. Mumps

26. Penicillin is mainly cleared by:


a. liver metabolism
b. active tubular secretion

27. Drug excreted 20% unchanged in urine, so in a patient with 75%


kidney function the dose should be:
a. no change
b. double dose
c. double intervals
d. double time and dose

28. When the personnel talks to the higher management concerning


the terms of pay and insurance for the pharmacist and
technician, this is considered:
a. Collective bargaining
b. Petitioning

29. When a pharmacist cant give a medication to a person due to


certain religious belief, this is considered:
a. higher covenant clause
b. conscious clause

30. when a pharmacist doesn't tell a patient about a brand change,


this is against the rules of:
a. Veracity
b. Autonomy
c. Beneficence

31. If a compound ( 30% oil) with a cone x/ml in oil and y/ml in water,
what's the partition coefficient

32. A solid concentration in 10ml water is 5mg/ml and in 5 ml oil 1


mg/ml, i.e. the partition coefficient is
a. 1
b. 0.2

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33. what's not correct about first order reaction:
a. half life is independent of the concentration
b. the graph is a straight line of Conc vs time
c. the slope of log C vs time is K
d. the shelf life is proportional to the initial
concentration

34. the Difference between gram -ve and gram +ve bacteria is in:
a. cell wall
b. cell membrane

35. What's taken with plenty of water:


a. cotrimoxazole
b. allopurinol
c. losartan

36. Which drugs must be labeled with "may discolor urine:


a. alpha-methyldopa
b. iron
c. phenazopyridine - local analgesic = dark

37. what's syncope:


a. temporary loss of consciousness

38. what's not a flexor muscle: a-tongue

39. A pain in the back of the knee is indicative to:


a. deep vein thrombosis
b. myocardial infarction

40. the pain in the arm due to angina is considered:


a. referred pain
b. secondary pain
c. neurogenic pain

41. Varicose veins due to low blood supply is:


a. phlebitis
b. thrombophlebitis

42. Celebrex is :
a. COX 1 inhibitor
b. COX 2 inhibitor
c. anti platelet

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43. What causes hypercalcemia:
a. furosemide
b. Thiazide
c. Spironolactone

44. the following structure is a prodrug for:


a. anti-neoplastic drug
b. anti-depressant
c. anti-psychotic

45. The following structure is related to which drug:


a. Sulphanilamide

46. When a lady is suffering from cystitis, what is recommended:


a. she uses a diaphragm
b. she drinks a lot of fluid
c. voiding after intercourse

47. Cystic fibrosis is:


a. lots of mucous
b. Its gene has been specified to a certain
chromosome
c. Defect in an ion transfer protein

48. The following is metabolized by:


a. MAO
b. L- amino acid decarboxylase

49. what's used as nicotine cessants:


a. naltrexone (used in alcohol withdrawal)
b. nicorette
c. bupropion(zyban)

50. Clarithromycin is:


a. same family as erythromycin

51. what causes shock syndrome:


a. staphylococcus aeurus

52. what causes sinusitis


a. H. influenza
b. Streptococcus pneumonia
c. Pseudomonas areuginosa
d. Moraxella catarrhalis
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53. What causes endocarditis:
a. streptococcus viridans

54. tetracycline is
a. used as prophylactic in endocarditis
b. inhibits protein synthesis by binding to ribosome

55. Etindronate:
a. Bisphosphonate
b. Inhibits metabolism of hydroxylated
c. Used in pagets

56. calcium is released by PTH from:


a. Distal convoluted tubule

57. Triametrene acts on


a. ascending tubule
b. descending tubule
c. proximal tubule
d. distal tubule

58. to prevent diabetic nephropathy use:


a. vitamin B complex
b. diuretics
c. Tolerstat

59. to prevent hypoglycaemia after exercise:


a. adjust dose on sick days
b. decrease insulin dose
c. decrease glucose target level

60. All is correct about rheumatoid arthritis (auto-immune) except:


a. Happens only in weight bearing joints

61. codeine is converted to morphine by:


a. 0-demethylation

62. what's an endogenous substance that acts as morphine:


a. B-enkephalin
b. B-endorphin

63. What's used for treatment of neutropenia due to cancer


treatment:
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a. G-csf (fligastrim)
b. Interleukin-2
c. Erythropoietin
d. Interferon

64. Prograf is:


a. Monoclonal antibody
b. Used in graft rejection
c. Inhibits T cell activation

65. In Gas chromatography, it would be helpful if the substance to be


detected is:
a. Volatile

66. In gel chromatography, the separation is increased by:


a. Particle size

67. A female came to the pharmacy with a prescription to prevent


pregnancy, the pharmacist should tell her that:
a. diphenhydramine is given to avoid allergy from estrogen
b. diphenhydramine is given to avoid allergy from
pregnancy
c. diphenhydramine is to avoid nausea and vomiting

68. Which medication increases the heart rate but not the blood
pressure:
a. Epinerphine
b. Isoprotrenol
c. Acetylcholine

69. Intermediate insulin is a mixture of:


a. 70:30 amorphous to amorphous
b. 50:50 amorphous to crystalline
c. 70:30 crystalline to amorphous

70. An Rx containing pyrethrin for scabies, u should counsel for:


a. use it as prophylaxis for all the family members
b. use it all over the body from neck to feet
c. leave it for 8-10 hours on your body before u can
take a bath

71. Raloxifene side effects are:


a. Flushing
b. Pruritis
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72. The following Alendronate is used in the treatment of
osteoporosis:
a. 5 mg/d
b. 10 mg/d
c. 70 mg/week

73. Transdermal patches are used to:


a. avoid first pass effect

74. Suppositories are used:


a. to avoid first pass effect
b. Since they have known bioavailability

75. we use a loading dose:


a. To reach the therapeutic dose faster

76. Viagra is contraindicated with:


a. Nitrates

77. Benzodiazepines
a. act on same binding site as barbiturates
b. when bound form a chloride channel
c. Potentates inhibitory GABA effect

78. How do we treat partial epilepsy:


a. The aim is to decrease GABA
b. The aim is to increase NMDA of glutamate
c. The aim is to decrease the firing threshold of the
impulse

79. nitrosamines are:


a. NOH
b. R2 - N- N=O

80. Misoprostol is :
a. PGE1
b. PGE2
c. PGE3

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81. Which is the most abundant cytochrome in the stomach and
intestine:
a. CYT 3A4

82. What's incorrect about pseudoplastic flow:


a. it follows Newton's law

83. For treatment of flies:


a. cut all the scalp hair
b. Flees can fly
c. use pediculicide

84. what's not an antifungal:


a. Metronidazole

85. what doesn't stabilize an emulsion:


a. antioxidant

86. Emulsion particle size should be:


a. less than 5 (particle size=5 m)

87. what's correct about suspensions:


a. Decrease sedimentation with decreased particle
size
b. Decrease sedimentation with decreased density of
medium
c. Decrease sedimentation with decreased viscosity

88. Extravasations is due to:


a. escape of fluid in surrounding tissue

89. What may cause osteoporosis:


a. smoking
b. Decrease in estrogen
c. Sedentary lifestyle

90. How to increase HDL:


a. exercise
b. loose weight
c. take Nicotinic acid = Niacin (Vit B3)

91. Warfarin effect is:


a. increased with decrease in vit k
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92. An antidote for heparin is:
a. protamine sulfate

93. What's the treatment of ASA toxicity :


a. NaHC03
b. Intubation and respiratory support
c. Acetaminophen

94. when C02 is x (higher than normal) and HC03 is y (higher than
normal):
a. metabolic acidosis
b. metabolic alkalosis
c. respiratory acidosis
d. respiratory alkalosis

95. HIV transmission is:


a. Through infected blood
b. Sexually

96. To be able to see near or far, this is called:


a. adaptation
b. accommodation

97. Drugs that have high hepatic extraction ratio, the main factor
influencing their clearance is:
a. Hepatic blood flow
b. Free drug conc
c. Plasma protein binding

98. The previous structure is of:


a. Acetazolamide

99. all decrease in elderly except = Increase:


a. BUN
b. Water content
c. Body Fat / Lean muscle mass RATIO

100. The AUC oral of a drug is x and the AUC iv is y, 10 mg is given


of each.
What's the bioavailability

101. At Css, the elimination rate equals:


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a. The rate of the constant infusion rate
b. The Css times the clearance

102. Smokers have deficiency in:


a. Vitamin C

103. What's used to test GFR:


a. creatinine clearance

104. The separation of the body into 2 equal halfs is called;


a. Frontal
b. Sagittal
c. Midsagittal

105. Migraine headaches:


a. decrease after exercise
b. Throbbing
c. Acute

106. What causes seretonin syndrome:


a. MAOI
b. TCA
c. SSRI

107. When there's a headache, you should take:


a. 5HT l D

108. What can be used in combination:


a. Metformin and acarbose
b. glyclazide and glyburide

109. Haunch equation hydrophobic constant is use to detect:


a. Hydrophilic reactivity
b. partition constant
c. equilibrium
110. For an ionized, non-polar molecule, at equilibrium there will be:
a. same amount on both sides of the membrane

111. when a tablet reaches the stomach it:


a. Absorbs water and swells
b. Disintegrates
c. hydrolyses

112. A gene is:


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a. Certain part that codes for a specific protein or
amino acid sequence
b. The nucleotides are equally spaced in the helix

113. To get a therapeutic protein from human is different from


animal in:
a. cut the pre-mRNA
b. phosphorelate it

114. To increase the bioavailability in eye solution:


a. increase viscosity

115. Human insulin can be preserved when:


a. Frozen
b. Refrigerated

116. Insulin can stay at room temperature for:


a. One month

117. When giving a medication for nursing, consider all except:


a. enteric coated

118. Which tablet cant be crushed:


a. chewable
b. effervescent
c. Osmotic
d. lozenges
e. sugar coated

119. When mixing 35% salicylic acid with vanishing cream:


a. Mix in water before addition to the cream
b. keep refrigerated
c. we will get a thick pasty product
120. Heparin versus LMWH:
a. Has longer half life
b. equally active in DVT

121. Which doesn't open into the duodenum;


a. adrenal gland
b. Parotid gland

122. what's not used in treatment of tinea pedis:


a. cotrimoxazole

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123. The clofibrate mode of action
a. Increase lipoprotein lipase
b. Inhibit TG absorption (all of them)minimal agent is
Qustran

124. What decreases surface tension between solid and liquid


a. wetting agent

125. Mast cells cant be differentiated from


a. Basophils

126. Hypothyroidism is due to: k-type

127. the threshold level to detect diabetes in urine is:


a. 3.5
b. 7
c. 10
d. 20

128. M* detection by:


a. mass spectroscopy

129. long term monitoring of blood sugar is by:


a. Hb1ac

130. Pyrogen is removed


a. Distillation

131. Grapefruit is: a-weak acid

132. Parkinsonism is: (TRAP)


a. Tremors
b. tardive dyskinesia (EPS)
c. low dopamine

133. Bed sores are due to:


a. pressure atrophy

134. Nifedipines are:


a. 1,4 dihydropyridines

135. All are patient problems except:


a. improvement of the patient's condition
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136. Hypovolemia causes all except: pulmonary edema.

137. What's a SSRI prodrug that due to long acting metabolite must
have long wash out periods to be able to switch to another:

138. What has short half life due to high distribution in the brain:
a. Thiopental

139. For carbon monoxide toxicity we use:


a. pure oxygen

140. What's used in soft gel capsules to increase elasticity:


a. Glycerin

141. phase I metabolism is called:


a. Functionalization of the drug

142. When we bind a protein with a large molecule it will be


immunogenic, this is the formation of:
a. hapten
b. protein-hapten

143. A patient is taking phenytoin, he has normal blood level but


there's signs of toxicity, it may be:
a. Due to high plasma level
b. Due to abnormal patient condition
c. Due to higher concentration of free, not bound,
phenytoin

144. This structure is similar in structure to an endogenous


substance that allows it to:
a. bind reversibly to Anticholiesterase

145. Aldosterone (Prodrug) is release from:


a. Adrenal cortex
b. adrenal medulla (NE & E)

146. The antidote for BZD is:


a. Flumazenil

147. Sciatic nerve supplies:


a. Thigh
b. Ribs
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148. Skeletal muscles:
a. Give the body shape
b. Support the soft tissues
c. Innervate the body

149. What can be use in opiate withdrawal:


a. Methadone

150. Which will not interfere with allergy testing:


a. Cimetidine

151. The rate limiting step in transdermal absorption is:


a. Stratum corneum

152. A lady had microcytic anemia, low MCV, low Hb:


a. She needs more tests to do to make sure it's microcytic

153. When pka=3 and pH=6: nearly completely ionized

154. The pH is: negative log the hydrogen ion concentration

155. For an IV infusion:


a. Mix with 5% dextrose or 0.9% NaCl
b. can be used interminent or continuous
c. provide constant concentration in the plasma

156. In which cases will the C-reactive protein increase:


a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. SLE
c. Myocardial Infarction

157. What can be used in combination with methotrexate


(Contraindicated with salcylates):
a. Leflunamide
b. Etanercept
c. Infliximab

158. What is a quinone vitamine: vitamin k

159. Emphysema is: permanent destruction of alveolar walls with


greatly distended alveoli

160. levegating agent used to incorporate powder in ointment:


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a. Should be compatible with the ingredients
b. should be easily removed from the preparation

161. All can be used in treating pneumonia except:


a. Azithromycin
b. Clarithromycin
c. Dicloxycillin
d. Cephalosporin

162. For a toxin to be best taken out of the body, it should have low:
a. Molecular weight
b. Volume of distribution
c. Plasma protein binding

163. There's interaction between MAOI and:


a. Tyramine

164. What's a chewable antibiotic:


a. Amoxicillin

165. Hepatitis B vaccine:


a. lasts for life
b. doesn't work when infected
c. given one time

166. what's the number of isomers for a compound with 3 chiral


carbon:
a. 8 isomers

167. tetracycline to epianhydrotetracyclines is by:


a. epimerisation
b. isomerization
c. racemization
d. hydrolysis

168. This structure is of:


a. lactone
b. lactam
c. lactim

169. What's a prophylactic for TB:


a. Isoniazid

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170. A cardenolide is
a. Aglycone
b. Sugar

171. Question about gout:


a. Colchicine is the primary choice in acute gout
b. Sudden fluctuation will lead to acute attack
c. Indomethacin causes GIT disturbance and is
intolerable

172. Increase in vitamin C will lead to:


a. formation of urate crystals
b. formation of oxalate crystals.

173. Ethanol is used in the treatment of:


a. methyl alcohol toxicity

174. Tardive dyskinesia can be treated with:


a. Anticholinergics

175. Sulphonyl urea:


a. Increases sensitivity to insulin
b. increases insulin release
c. causes lactic acidosis

176. The urine was tested for a drug X and it contained 1500mg in
one day. The plasma concentration is x mg/ml. What's the total
clearance in ml/min.

177. The process of seretonin synthesis is:


a. decarboxylation then hydroxylation at position 5

178. How does cotrimoxazole interact with warfarin:


a. cotrimoxazole increases the potassium level
b. cotrimoxazole displaces warfarin from the plasma
protein
c. cotrimoxazole interferes with warfarin's metabolism.

179. The volume of distribution is 1 litre and A= 10 mg, half life is 2


hours, what's the dose after 4 hours?

180. What decreases the excretion:


a. Passive tubular reabsorption

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181. The treatment of shortness of breath and cough is the best
treatment of
a. asthma
b. chronic bronchitis

182. What's not a side effect of heparin:


a. Agranulocytosis

183. Diaper dermatitis:


a. is a yeast infection
b. occurs in children under 2 years
c. common in breastfed babies

184. Liver cirrhosis causes:


a. Hemorrhage
b. Jaundice
c. Ascites

185. the use of prophylaxis against endocarditis is in people with:


a. previous endocarditis
b. Angina
c. Myocardial infarction

186. How to detect alcohol in the blood (Mass Spectrometry & Gas
Chromatography)

187. Bathochromic shift: red

188. Concerning a pharmacy, what cant be:


a. Limited (ltd)
b. Partnership
c. Coorperation

189. Income statement & net income


190. Stratum corneum
191. Osmosis, partition, diffusion
192. Gamma rays

193. Orthostatic hypotension is usually due to:


a. Vasodilatation

194. What doesn't decrease in elderly:


a. BUN

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195. when a pharmacist wants to buy a pharmacy, he/she should:

196. Given 2 different AUC for 2 different route, the answer is


extensively metabolized by the 1st pass metabolism

197. What doesn't affect oral contraceptive epilipy

198. Advice to help in sleep

199. Pre-renal causes for

200. AB +A -> increase precipitation:


a. Common ion effect

201. Accumulation of metabolites

202. ozone in lung:


a. Oxidation

203. Bacturia and pyuria are present in:


a. UTI

204. a person came to fill a prescription for his friend:


a. Do I call and ask for the allergies
b. Do I fill it and ask about the allergies later.

205. A question about a prescription in which doctor's signature is


illegible

206. A question about hemophilia , the answer is a girl that doesn't


carry hemophilia

207. Cost minimization

208. Zidovudine:
a. Given as prophylaxis
b. Prevent fetal transmission
c. It is a thymidine analogue

209. Digoxin toxicity: I II III

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